UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2019

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2019 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2019 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2019

With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary, and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Iqta system of the Sultanate period evolved into the Jagir system under the Mughals. The Jagirdari system involved assigning the revenue of a particular territory to nobles in return for their services to the state and formed an integral part of the Mansabdari system. During the Mughal era, Zamindars functioned as local chieftains and intermediaries responsible for collecting revenue from peasants. They often commanded local forces, controlled strongholds, and exercised significant influence in administrative and social matters. Their services were also utilised for maintaining law and order in their territories, in addition to revenue collection.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• None of the assignments to Jagirdar was permanent or hereditary except for Watan Jagir. The Emperor could shift part or the entire Jagir from one part of the imperial territory to another at any time
  • Watan Jagirs: They were assigned to zamindar or rajas in their local dominions. Watan Jagirs were hereditary and nontransferable.
• During the Mughal period, zamindars had hereditary rights over the produce of the land. They were present throughout the Mughal Empire and held the most significant position in the agrarian structure of Mughal India.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 1 is absolutely worded and unlikely in an administrative setup. It is unrealistic that Zamindars would only collect revenue without any administrative, police, or local responsibilities. Hence, Statement 1 can be eliminated. Statement 2 can be easily eliminated because Mughal rulers did not allow Jagirs to become hereditary, as it could lead to strong local power centres challenging imperial authority. Hence, Jagirs were transferable, making the statement incorrect.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
2. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
3. It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
4. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The process of land reforms post-independence unfolded in two main phases. The first phase, referred to as the institutional reforms phase, began shortly after independence and lasted until the early 1960s. It emphasized:
  • Abolishing intermediaries like zamindars and jagirdars,
  • Implementing tenancy reforms that ensured tenant security, reduced rents, and granted ownership rights to tenants,
  • Imposing ceilings on landholdings,
  • Promoting cooperatives and community development programs.
• The central objective of Land Reforms was to achieve a more equitable distribution of land by transferring it from wealthy landlords to impoverished, landless peasants.

• The second phase, starting in the mid-to-late 1960s, marked the introduction of the Green Revolution, focusing primarily on technological reforms.

Answer: (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

1. International Monetary Fund
2. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. World Economic Forum
4. World Bank

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Global Competitiveness Report is a flagship publication of the World Economic Forum. The report was launched in 1979, and maps the competitiveness landscape of 141 economies through 103 indicators organised into 12 pillars.

Additional Information The World Economic Forum was established in 1971 as a non-profit foundation. Founder: Economist Klaus Schwab. Objective: Promote entrepreneurship in global public interest while considering the needs of all stakeholders, including employees, suppliers, and communities. Original Name: European Management Forum; introduced the concept of “stakeholder capitalism.” Annual Meeting Location: Davos, Switzerland. Participants: Around 3,000 participants, including business leaders, political figures, economists, celebrities, and journalists. Funding: Primarily funded by partnering global corporations. Reports: Important reports by WEF are the Global Gender Gap Report, Global Risk Report, and Global Travel and Tourism Report.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Important reports published by the IMF:
  • World Economic Outlook
  • Global Financial Stability Report
  • Fiscal Monitor Report
  • External Sector Report
  • Regional Economic Reports

Option (b) is incorrect

• UNCTAD is an intergovernmental organisation within the United Nations Secretariat that promotes the interests of developing countries in world trade. It was established in 1964 by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) and reports to that body and the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). UNCTAD comprises 195 member states and works with non-governmental organisations worldwide. Its permanent secretariat is in Geneva, Switzerland.
• UNCTAD was created in response to concerns among developing countries that existing international institutions like the IMF and World Bank were not adequately organised to handle the particular problems of developing countries. One of UNCTAD’s principal achievements was conceiving and implementing the Generalised System of Preferences (GSP), which promotes exporting manufactured goods from developing countries.
• Important reports by UNCTAD:
  • NCTAD reports include:
  • The Trade and Development Report
  • The Economic Development in Africa Report
  • The Least Developed Countries Report
  • The World Investment Report
  • A World of Debt Report
  • Digital Economy Report

Option (d) is incorrect

• Important Reports by World Bank:
  • World Development Report
  • Remittances & Migration Report
  • Global Economic Prospects
  • Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report
  • Global Financial Development Report
  • Logistics Performance Index
  • World Governance Indicators
  • Global Monitoring Report

Answer: (c) World Economic Forum; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Charter Act of 1813 ended the company’s trade monopoly in India, and trade with India was thrown open to all British subjects. Trade in tea and opium and trade with China were still exclusive to the Company.

Statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is incorrect

• It renewed the Company’s Charter for 20 years, but it asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company. The company was allowed to have territorial possessions for another 20 years. It directed that separate accounts be maintained for the Company’s territorial and commercial revenues.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In 1905, Curzon announced the partition of Bengal, an attempt to disrupt the growing national movement in Bengal and divide the Hindus and Muslims of the region. This led to the Anti-Partition Movement (Swadeshi and Boycott Movement). An important aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was its emphasis on self-reliance, or ‘Atmashakti’. In the economic field, self-reliance meant encouraging indigenous industries and other enterprises. Many textile mills, soap and match factories, handloom weaving concerns, national banks, and insurance companies were opened.

Statement 2 is correct

• The boycott of schools and colleges forced the leaders of the Swadeshi movement to consider running a parallel education system in Bengal. Soon, appeals were made, donations were collected, and distinguished persons came forward to formulate programmes for national education.
  • National educational institutions where literary, technical, or physical education was imparted were opened by nationalists.
  • On 25 July 1906, Bengal Technical Institute was established.
  • On 15 August 1906, a National Council of Education was set up.
  • A National College with Aurobindo Ghose as principal was started in Calcutta. The college was inspired by Tagore’s Shantiniketan, which was established in 1901

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization	Leader
1.All India Anti-Untouchability League	Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha	Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement	E.V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The All-India Anti-Untouchability League, later evolving into Harijan Sewak Sangh (“Servants of Harijan Society”), was established by Mahatma Gandhi in September 1932 following the signing of the Poona Pact. The primary objective was to enhance the coordination of efforts to emancipate untouchables and eradicate untouchability from society.

Pair 2 is correct

• Swami Sahajananda Saraswati was the founder of the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929) and also spearheaded the formation of the All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) at the Indian National Congress (INC) Lucknow Session in 1936. Sahajanand was its first president, and N.G. Ranga was its first General Secretary.
• Over time, socialists and communists gained dominance in the Sabha, leading to a move away from Congress. By May 1942, the Communist Party of India (CPI) had taken control of the Kisan Sabha throughout India. The All India Kisan Sabha followed the Communist Party’s line of the People’s War and stayed away from the Quit India Movement. However, several leaders defied this stance and joined the movement, prompting the departure of prominent members such as N.G. Ranga, Indulal Yagnik, and Swami Sahajananda from the organisation.

Pair 3 is correct

• E.V. Ramaswami Naicker founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925. The Self-Respect Movement aimed to uplift the Dravidians and expose the control of Brahmins over all aspects of Hindu life through tyrannical and deceptive methods.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

1. Chanhudaro
2. Kot Diji
3. Sohgaura
4. Desalpur

 

Explanation

Chanhudaro is a Harappan site

• Chanhudaro is an Indus Valley Civilisation site located 130 km south of Mohenjo-Daro in Sindh, Pakistan. The village was inhabited between 4000 and 1700 BCE and is believed to have been a key centre for carnelian bead production. It is the only Harappan city without a walled citadel. The site was discovered by N.G. Majumdar in 1931 and extensively excavated by Mackay in 1935-36. A significant discovery at Chanhu-Daro was a bead-making factory, complete with a furnace, underscoring its industrial nature.

Kot Diji is a Harappan site

• Kot Diji (now in Sindh, Pakistan) was an early Harappan site.

Sohgaura is not a Harappan site

• Sohgaura, located in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh near the Rapti and Ami rivers, is a significant archaeological site showcasing a multi-cultural sequence from the Neolithic to the early historic period.

Desalpur is a Harappan site

• Desalpur is a Harappan site located in the Kutch District of Gujarat. It is famous for its disproportionately large fortifications.

Answer: (c) Sohagaura; Difficulty Level: Hard

In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

1. Kanganahalli
2. Sanchi
3. Shahbazgarhi
4. Sohgaura

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Ashoka has been depicted at other places, most notably at Sanchi and Amaravati, but the uniqueness of the Kanaganahalli (near Sannati of Kalaburagi district, Karnataka) image is that it is the only inscribed portrait of the Emperor encountered so far. The Emperor, wearing a turban and large earrings, is accompanied by his Queen. Also seen are a parasol holder and two other ladies bearing fly-whisks.
• Any doubt about the identity of this royal figure is dismissed by the inscription, in Brahmi, on the border above Raya Asoko. In this inscription, as in the rock edict at Maski (Raichur), the Emperor is mentioned by his name, unlike elsewhere, where he is referred to as ‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ (‘Beloved of the Gods’).

  

  Image Credit: The Hindu

Option (b) is incorrect

• Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh is a site for the numerous stupas. The place is related to Buddhism but not directly to the life of Buddha. It is more related to Ashoka than to Buddha. Ashoka built the first stupa and put up many pillars here. The Great Stupa at Sanchi has been the focal point of the Buddhist faith in the region since it was built by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BC. It was enlarged in subsequent centuries.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Shahbazgarhi is a historic site located in the Mardan district of the North-West Frontier Province of Pakistan. The Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka, dating to the 3rd century BCE, were carved on two rocks on a hill at this site. These edicts were inscribed in the Kharoshthi script, written from right to left and influenced by the Achaemenids. The inscriptions highlight key aspects of Ashoka’s Dhamma.

Option (d) is incorrect

• It is located in Gorakhpur District of Uttar Pradesh. The earliest known copper-plate, known as the Sohgaura copper-plate, is a Maurya record that mentions famine relief efforts. It is one of the very few pre-Ashoka Brahmi inscriptions in India.

Answer: (c) Kanganahalli; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following:

1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the features/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In the early Buddhist tradition, the Buddha is viewed as a human who attained enlightenment and became an arhat. In contrast, Mahayana Buddhism venerates the Buddha as a divine figure, focusing on his deific nature rather than solely his attainment of Nibbana (enlightenment) as an arhat.

Statement 2 is correct

• Mahayana Buddhism emphasizes the Bodhisattva ideal, in which individuals seek enlightenment not only for themselves but also for the welfare of all sentient beings.

Statement 3 is correct

• Mahayana Buddhism involves the worship of Buddhas and bodhisattvas through the rituals and use of images, underscoring its devotional aspect.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
2. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
3. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
4. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Gupta period witnessed an increase in land taxes but a decrease in trade and commerce taxes (such as shulka or tolls). The period from the 4th to the 8th century was one of agricultural expansion. Due to the practice of granting lands to brahmanas (brahmadeyas, agraharas or shasanas) and to some other officers, vast areas of virgin land were brought under cultivation and major improvements were made in the existing methods of production (such as use of iron plough shear, irrigation and preservation of cattle wealth) to attain higher yield.
• The king collected taxes varying from one-fourth to one-sixth of the produce. Two new agricultural taxes that appear in Gupta inscriptions are uparikara (probably a tax imposed on temporary tenants) and udranga (its exact nature is not clear, but might be water tax or a sort of police tax). There is also mention of vata-bhuta tax, which probably refers to cesses for the maintenance of rites performed for the winds and spirits, and halirakara, probably plough tax. In addition to these taxes, peasants were subjected to vishti (forced labour) to serve the royal army and officials (also a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people).

Answer: (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.; Difficulty Level: Medium

Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

1. Chalukya
2. Chandela
3. Rashtrakuta
4. Vijayanagara

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The chief characteristics of the Vijayanagar Kingdom (c.1336–1672 CE) architecture were the construction of tall Raya Gopurams or gateways and the Kalyanamandapam with carved pillars in the temple premises. Kalyanamandapam area is used for celebrating the annual marriage festival of the deities, reflecting both architectural grandeur and cultural significance.

Image Source: SmartHistory

Option (a) is incorrect

• Chalukya Dynasty: Chalukyas ruled over the central Indian plateau of the Deccan from the 6th to the 12th century. It is mainly divided into 3 dynasties and ruled individually, even though all were related to each other.
  • Chalukyas of Badami: They developed the Deccan or Vesara style (combination of Dravida and Nagara styles) of temple building, which reached its culmination under the Rashtrakutas and the Hoyasalas (13th century). More than 150 monuments attributed to the Badami Chalukya, and built between 450 and 700, remain in the Malaprabha basin in Karnataka. The rock-cut temples of Pattadakal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, Badami and Aihole constitute their most celebrated monuments. In Aihole, the Durga temple (sixth century), Ladh Khan temple (450), Meguti temple (634), Hucchimalli and Huccappayya temples (fifth century), Badami Cave Temples (600) provide examples of early Chalukyan art.
  • Chalukya’s of Vengi/ Eastern Chalukya’s
  • Chalukya’s of Kalyani/ Western Chalukya’s

Option (b) is incorrect

• Chandela ruled the eastern part of Madhya Pradesh (Bundelkhand region). The Chandellas are well known for their art and architecture, most notably for the fully developed Nagara-style temples at their original capital, Khajuraho. The Lakshmana Temple (c. 930–950 CE), the Vishvanatha Temple (c. 999-1002 CE), and the Kandariya Mahadeva Temple (c. 1030 CE) were constructed during the reigns of Chandella rulers Yashovarman, Dhanga, and Vidyadhara, respectively.

Option (c) is incorrect

• The political history of the Deccan between c.733 and 975 CE was marked by the rise of the Rashtrakutas. They are credited with the construction of the famous rock-cut temple of Shiva at Ellora. The magnificent rock-cut Kailashnatha Temple at Ellora (near Aurangabad, Maharashtra) was built during the reign of Krishna I (c.756−774 CE). The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is monolithic, i.e. made of one single piece of rock.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (d) Vijayanagara; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• During the rule of the Delhi Sultanate, the Indian economy was primarily based on agriculture. As a result, land revenue was the principal source of income. Mutasarrif or amil were revenue collectors.

Additional Information Under the Delhi Sultanate, these lands were divided into three divisions: Iqta land: lands given to officials as a form of iqta rather than payment for their services. Khalisa land was under the direct control of the Sultan, and the money was used to maintain the royal court and royal household. Inam land was land that was assigned or granted to religious leaders or religious institutions. Barani, in his Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, describes the agricultural policy in North India during the reign of Alauddin Khalji. According to the text, three taxes were levied on the peasants by the Sultan, viz. the Kharaj (also called Kharaj-I-jizya) or cultivation tax; Charai, a tax on milching cattle; and Ghari (a tax on houses). Kharaj was the land tax, and the lands of all sizes were subject to the procedure of measurement of land called Masahat and fixation of the yield per Biswa (Wafa-I-Biswa). Generally, the tax was collected in cash though sometimes collected in kind for specific purposes.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The institution of the Iqta had been in force in early Islamic world as a as a form of reward for services to the state. It was not indigenous to the Delhi Sultanate.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Mir Bakshi (Bakhshi) was the head of the military department in the Mughal period.
• source of income. Mutasarrif or amil were revenue collectors.

Additional Information The mir-i-arz of the Delhi Sultanate changed its nomenclature to mir bakhshi under the Mughals. All appointment orders of mansabdars and their salary papers were endorsed and passed by Mir Bakhshi. The new entrants seeking service were presented before the Emperor by the Mir Bakhshi. He stood in open court on the right of the emperor and presented all candidates for appointment or promotion. His office prepared orders bearing his seal and signature as well as those of the emperor. Mir bakhshi personally supervised the branding of the horses (dagh) and checked the muster roll (chehra) of the soldiers. Based on his verification, the salary amount was certified. The mir bakhshi supervised the corps of court writers (waqia nawis) who recorded all applications and documents presented to the court and all imperial orders (farman).

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Saint Nimbarka was not a contemporary of Akbar (c.1556–1605 CE). There is a great disagreement among historians about his year of birth. However, modern historical research places him in the 13th-14th century. He was a Vaishnava saint and a chief proponent of Dvaita-Advaita philosophy, i.e., duality and nonduality simultaneously (dualistic nondualism). He founded a community called Nimbarka Sampradaya. The basic practice of this community is the worship of Sri Radha Madhav, with Sri Radha personified as an inseparable part of Sri Krishna.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (1564-1624) belonged to the Naqshbandi Sufi order and opposed the religious ideas of Akbar. However, Kabir is a 15th-century saint and died even before the birth of Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Additional Information The Naqshbandi order was established by Khwaja Bahauddin Naqshbandi in India. The most popular saints of the silsila were Baqi Billah and Ahmad Sirhindi. This silsilah became popular during the reign of Akbar. Ahmad Sirhindi took a stand against the Wahdat-al-Wujud (unity of being), which was supported by Akbar. It was radical in nature and had Aurangzeb as one of the followers of the Naqshbandi sect, but he did not support the Mujaddid concept.

 

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In 1833, the British Parliament banned slavery, and the practice became illegal throughout the Empire. However, to maintain the supply of labour in their territories, colonial authorities effectively replaced slavery with the indentured labour system. The ‘indenture’ (meaning ‘contract’) system required Indians to sign a legal agreement consenting to move abroad for a minimum of five years to work mainly on sugar estates. The system of indentured labour was abolished by the government following sustained public agitation and pressure from leaders such as Mahatma Gandhi and Manilal Doctor. The system was officially banned in 1917.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• During World War I, Viceroy Chelmsford invited Gandhi to Delhi at a War Conference. The Viceroy was keen that Gandhi should support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War. Gandhi spoke only one sentence: ‘With a full sense of my responsibility, I beg to support the resolution.’

Statement 3 is correct

• Following the violation of the Salt Law by the Indian people, the colonial rulers declared the Indian National Congress illegal.

PMF Concept Hack Mahatma Gandhi initially supported British war efforts to secure political concessions for Indians. Therefore, it is unlikely that he opposed recruitment at Lord Chelmsford’s War Conference. Hence, Statement 2 can be eliminated, leaving option (b) as the correct answer.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Person	Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru	President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy	Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi	General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• He was a prominent leader of the All India Liberal Federation and also served as its President.

Additional Information Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was a key figure in India’s freedom struggle and a prominent leader of the Liberal Party in British-ruled India. He served in the Legislative Council of the United Provinces (1913–1916), the Imperial Legislative Council (1916–1920), and later as the Member for Law in the Viceroy’s Executive Council (1920–1923). In 1918, he parted ways with the Indian National Congress on grounds of principle and became one of the founding members of the National Liberal Federation of India. He also represented India at the Imperial Conference 1923 and served as President of the National Liberal Federation in 1923 and 1927, playing an active role in debates on constitutional reforms. In 1924, he was among the four Indian members of the Muddiman Committee, which was set up to review the working of constitutional reforms introduced under the Government of India Act 1919. In 1944, he was invited to head a committee to suggest constitutional principles acceptable to different communities. The report submitted by this body became known as the Sapru Committee. He passed away on 20 January 1949 in Allahabad, about seventeen months after India attained independence.

Pair 2 is correct

• Kshitish Chandra Neogy was Member of the Constituent Assembly representing Bengal.

Additional Information Political Career: First Cabinet Member of Independent India (August 15, 1947 – April 8, 1950). Resignation from Cabinet: Resigned on April 8, 1950, along with Syama Prasad Mookerjee in protest of the Nehru-Liaquat Pact. Planning and Development: Chairman of the Advisory Planning Board (1946) under the Interim Government, which shaped the concept of Five-Year Plans. Member of the Planning Commission during the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) and influenced the plan with his dissenting views. Appointed Chairman of the First Finance Commission (1951). Other Contributions: Served on the Nuclear Commission (1946), chaired by Eleanor Roosevelt, contributing to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights as rapporteur.

Pair 3 is correct

• P.C. Joshi, the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India, was one of the leading figures of the communist movement in India. Under his leadership, the Communist Party established new organisations and breathed new life into existing ones: the All India Trade Union Congress, Progressive Writers’ Association and the All India Students’ Federation were actively encouraged by Joshi. He also played an instrumental role in launching the party weekly, National Front, which he edited, and helped found the Indian People’s Theatre Association (I.P.T.A.) in 1942. Later, he was made the editor of the party’s weekly, New Age.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
2. Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
3. Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
4. Tansen invented many Ragas.

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• Tansen was given the title by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. He was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandavagarh (Rewa). When Akbar heard of his prodigious talent, he sent a ‘firman’ to the king asking for Tansen and made him one of the Navaratnas in his court. Akbar gave him the title of ‘Mian’.
• Tansen composed numerous dhrupads dedicated to deities such as Ganesha, Shiva, Parvati and Rama, along with compositions for his royal patrons. A major collection of his works, Kalpadruma, includes around 300 of his dhrupads composed in the Gauhar Bani style. Tansen is also known for composing in his favourite ragas, including Multani, Bhairavi, and Todi. He is credited with creating several new ragas, such as the night raga Darbari Kanhra, morning raga Mian Ki Todi, mid-day raga Mian Ki Sarang, and the seasonal raga Mian Ki Malhar. His descendants and disciples are called Seniyas.

Answer: (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

1. Humayun
2. Akbar
3. Jahangir
4. Shah Jahan

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Jahangir (c. 1605–1627 CE) presided over the zenith of Mughal painting. He patronised several distinguished artists such as Abul Hasan, Bishan Das (renowned as a master of portraits), Madhu, Anant, Manohar, Govardhan, and Ustad Mansur, who specialised in animal painting. During his reign, the use of the halo or divine light behind the emperor’s head became a prominent artistic feature. The artistic focus also shifted from illustrated manuscripts to muraqqas—albums of miniature paintings and calligraphic works. Stylistically, Jahangir favoured naturalism, incorporating elements of Persian painting while placing strong emphasis on portraiture.

Answer: (c) Jahangir; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

1. Manas National Park
2. Namdapha National Park
3. Neora Valley National Park
4. Valley of Flowers National Park

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Valley of Flowers National Park is a high-altitude Himalayan valley in the transition zone between Zanskar and the Great Himalayas. It is known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers. Spread over an area of 87 sq km in the Chamoli district, Uttarakhand, the Valley of Flowers National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and forms one of the two core zones (the other being the Nanda Devi National Park) of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
• Vegetation: Alpine vegetation (The park lies completely in the temperate alpine zone).
• Major Flora: Orchids, poppies, marigold, daisies, rhododendron and birch.
• Major Fauna: Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, musk deer, brown bear, red fox, and bharal (blue sheep).

Option (a) is incorrect

• Manas National Park is a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan. Manas is famous for its wild water buffalo population (EN). The Manas River is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra River and flows through the Manas National Park.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Namdapha National Park is located between the Dapha bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range. It is crossed by the Noa Dihing River (a tributary of the Brahmaputra River) that originates at Chaukan Pass. It is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot.
• Vegetation: Evergreen to temperate broadleaf forest.
• It is the only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat, namely: Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard and Clouded Leopard. It is famous for the critically endangered Namdapha flying squirrel which is endemic to the park.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Neora Valley National Park is located on the Himalayas in Kalimpong. It is the land of Red Panda (EN).
• Vegetation: Himalayan Broadleaf forests.
• Major Flora: Rhododendron, bamboo, oak, ferns, sal.
• Major Fauna: Indian leopard, black bear, sloth bear, golden cat, barking dee, Himalayan flying squirrel, thar.

Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park; Difficulty Level: Medium

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

1. Department of Science and Technology
2. Ministry of Labour and Employment
3. NITI Aayog
4. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• AIM is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016 to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. Its objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at the school, university, research institutions, MSME, and industry levels.

Answer: (c) NITI Aayog; Difficulty Level: Easy

On 21st June, the Sun

1. does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
2. does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
3. shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
4. shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• On 21st June, the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a result, these areas receive more heat. The areas near the poles receive less heat because the sun’s rays are slanted. The north pole is inclined towards the sun, and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months. Since a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere is receiving sunlight, it is summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June. At this time in the southern hemisphere, all these conditions are reversed. It is winter season there. The nights are longer than the days. This position of the Earth is called the summer solstice.
• On 22nd December, the Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of the sun as the south pole tilts towards it. As the sun’s rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Capricorn (23½° s), a larger portion of the southern hemisphere gets light. Therefore, it is summer in the southern hemisphere with longer days and shorter nights. The reverse happens in the northern hemisphere. This position of the earth is called the winter solstice.

Answer: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?

1. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
2. Tobacco, cotton and rubber
3. Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
4. Rubber, coffee and wheat

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• After Christopher Columbus returned from his first voyage to the Caribbean in 1493, a significant event known as the Columbian Exchange began. The Columbian Exchange involved the transfer of goods, ideas, and resources between the Old World and the New World in the years following Columbus’s expedition. The Old World refers to the Eastern Hemisphere, which includes present-day Europe, Africa, and Asia, while the New World refers to the Western Hemisphere, encompassing the Americas. This period of exchange was especially prominent during the 1500s and 1600s. All three plants – tobacco, cocoa, and rubber – were domesticated in the Americas (the “New World”) and were introduced to the Old World.

Answer: (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The lion is the second-largest cat species in the world. It is divided into two subspecies: the African lion and the Asiatic lion (Persian or Indian Lion). The Asiatic Lion is found only in Gir National Park, Gujarat, India, and its surrounding areas.
• Habitat: Dry deciduous forest

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Bactrian Camel (Camelus bactrianus), referred to as the double-hump camel or Mongolian camel, is indigenous to the Gobi Desert and inhabits cold-desert regions spanning Mongolia, China, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and certain parts of Afghanistan. In India, double-humped camels are found in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The great one-horned rhino is commonly found in Nepal, Bhutan and India. The Indian state of Assam is home to the largest population of greater-one horned rhinos, with more than 90% in Kaziranga National Park.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Famous place	River
1.Pandharpur	Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli	Cauvery
3. Hampi	Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Pandharpur, a city located on the banks of the Chandrabhaga River in Maharashtra, is famous for the Lord Vitthal-Rukmini Temple. The town attracts millions of devotees, especially during the annual pilgrimage known as Ashadi Ekadashi, where devotees (Warkaris) undertake a foot pilgrimage to the temple from various parts of Maharashtra.
  • Bhima River is called ‘Chandrabhaga’ at Pandharpur it resembles a half-curved moon. It flows southeast for 861 kms through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana, before entering the Krishna River.

Pair 2 is correct

• Tiruchirappalli, commonly known as Trichy, is a historic city in Tamil Nadu, situated on the banks of the Cauvery River. It is famous for the Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple in Srirangam, which is one of the largest functioning Hindu temple complexes in the world.
  • It is dedicated to Ranganatha (a form of Vishnu).
  • Situated in an ethereal setting on the island of Srirangam that is bounded by the two rivers of Cauvery and Kollidam (a tributary of Cauvery), this living temple and sacred centre of pilgrimage is counted as the first and foremost among the 108 Divya Desams dedicated to Bhagwan Vishnu.
  • In 2017, the Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple bagged an Award of Merit from UNESCO for conserving cultural heritage.

• Jambukeswarar Temple (one of the Pancha Bhoota Sthalams temples dedicated to lord Shiva) is also in Trichy.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Tungabhadra is a tributary of the Krishna River that flows through Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is formed by the unification of the Tunga and the Bhadra originating from Gangamula in the Central Sahyadri (Western Ghats).
• Tributaries: Bhadra, Haridra, Vedavati, Tunga, Varda and Kumdavathi.
• The famous Virupaksha temple is on the banks of Tungabhadra.
• The Malaprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Karnataka in India. Pattadakal is situated on the banks of the Malaprabha River. This UNESCO World Heritage Site is renowned for its group of magnificent Hindu and Jain temples (Chalukyan architecture) , which date back to the 7th and 8th centuries CE.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

1. poverty rates vary from State to State
2. price levels vary from State to State
3. Gross State Product varies from State to State
4. quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The official poverty lines in India vary across states primarily because price levels differ. Higher costs of living in economically developed states, such as Maharashtra and Delhi, necessitate higher poverty lines to reflect the increased expenditure needed for essential goods and services. Regional economic conditions, local inflation rates, and consumption patterns further influence these price differences.

Answer: (b) price levels vary from State to State; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of the cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?

1. Creating the artificial rains in some regions
2. Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
3. Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
4. Reducing the global warming

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulfate aerosol into the stratosphere are proposed methods aimed at reducing global warming. Cirrus clouds are thin, wispy clouds that form at high altitudes and do not reflect much solar radiation back into space, thereby creating a greenhouse effect.
• The higher the altitude at which they form, the larger the warming effect on the climate. And in a warmer climate, cirrus clouds form at higher altitudes. These clouds could be thinned out—reducing their warming effect—by seeding them with aerosol particles such as sulfuric or nitric acid, which act as “ice nucleating particles” (INPs).

Answer: (d) Reducing the global warming; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of which one of the following arcs the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

1. Extraction of rare earth elements
2. Natural gas extraction technologies
3. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
4. Waste-to-energy technologies

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ are associated with waste-to-energy technologies.
• Plasma gasification process: Plasma gasification is an extreme thermal process (uses a combination of electricity and high temperatures) using plasma (without combustion) that converts organic matter into syngas (synthesis gas — made up of hydrogen and carbon monoxide). The inorganic wastes are converted into slag, a solid waste. Plasma gasification is a cleaner alternative to landfilling, reducing or eliminating toxicity while avoiding the disposal of large volumes of waste.
• Pyrolysis process: Pyrolysis is a process of combustion (burning) of material in the absence of oxygen or under a controlled atmosphere of oxygen. It is an alternative to incineration. Pyrolysis of carbonaceous wastes like firewood, coconut, palm waste, corn combs, cashew shells, rice husk, paddy straw and sawdust yields charcoal and products like tar, methyl alcohol, acetic acid, acetone and fuel gas.

Answer: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

1. Neyyar, ldl Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
2. Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
3. Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
4. Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Located in the Western Ghats in the south of the country, the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve has peaks reaching 1,868 m above sea level. It encompasses tropical forest ecosystems that fall within the Tirunelveli and Kanniyakumari districts of Tamil Nadu and the Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam districts of Kerala. Three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara and Neyyar, are located in the site, as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve. A number of tribal settlements comprising a total population of 3,000 inhabit the biosphere reserve. They rely largely on biological resources for their sustenance, although recent projects have been set up to reduce their dependence on the forests.

• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve includes the Mudumalai, Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley national parks, as well as the Aralam, Wayanad and Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.

Answer: (a) Neyyar, ldl Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Some turtle species, such as green turtles, primarily feed on aquatic plants and algae.

Statement 2 is correct

• Herbivorous fish feed on the algae that grow on corals and compete with them for light and oxygen. By eating the algae, these tiny fish play a big role in the survival of the entire ecosystem.
• For example: parrotfish, which eat corals that break off the reef and excrete them as white sand; damselfish, which fend off the macro algae growth that kills coral; and surgeonfish.

Statement 3 is correct

• Some species of marine mammals are herbivores: Examples include manatees and certain species of dugongs that feed on seagrass.

Statement 4 is correct

• Certain snake species, such as boa constrictors and some species of garter snakes, give birth to live young rather than laying eggs.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs

Wildlife	Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer	Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin	Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat	Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The Blue-finned Mahseer is one of the subspecies of the Mahseer. Mainly found in the Mota Mola river, east of Pune. This species is also found in other rivers of the Deccan Plateau.
• IUCN Status: LC
• Cauvery, the Mahseer community comprises two varieties—a “blue-finned” fish and an “orange-finned humpbacked’ fish.
• The Cauvery has an abundant population of the blue-finned mahseer ( Tor khudree ), a non-native, artificially bred fish.
  • In the late 1970s, mahseer enthusiasts in Karnataka introduced the blue-finned mahseer from Tata Power’s hatchery in Lonavala into the Cauvery River, aiming to boost fish populations. This hatchery has since played a crucial role in conservation, distributing thousands of fishlings for restocking efforts across India and beyond. However, this introduction was made without foresight, leading to the blue-finned mahseer (Tor khudree) becoming abundant in the Cauvery and ultimately reducing the native orange-finned mahseer species.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• The Irrawaddy dolphin (EN) is the flagship species of Chilika Lake.
• Chilika is home to the only known population of Irrawaddy dolphins (Orcaella brevirostris) in India.

Pair 3 is correct

• The rusty-spotted cat (Prionailurus rubiginosus) is found in Indian Subcontinent (India, Sri Lanka and a small part of Nepal). This small wild cat is known to inhabit various regions, including the Eastern Ghats. Many wildlife experts describe it as the smallest cat species in the wild, though some say the African black-footed cat qualifies for that status.
• This cat is nocturnal by nature.
• IUCN Status: Near Threatened (NT)
• Distribution: It is found in moist and dry deciduous forests, tropical thorn forests, scrub forests, grasslands, arid shrublands, rocky areas, and hill slopes.

Image Source: IUCN and The Hindu

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?

1. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
2. They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
3. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
4. They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Microbeads are tiny plastic particles commonly found in personal care products like exfoliating scrubs and toothpaste. When these products are washed down the drain, microbeads can pass through wastewater treatment processes and enter rivers, lakes, and oceans. Once in the aquatic environment, they can be ingested by marine organisms, leading to harmful effects on marine life, disrupting food chains, and potentially accumulating in the food web.

Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems; Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

1. anti-malarial drug
2. biodiesel
3. pulp for paper industry
4. textile fibre

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) has gained attention as a sustainable source of high-quality textile fibre. It is a fibre-producing plant used by mountain communities in the Hindu Kush Himalayas, Nepal, and Uttarakhand.

Answer: (d) textile fibre; Difficulty Level: Hard

For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Satellite imagery and remote sensing data are widely used for environmental monitoring and estimation. Using spectral reflectance data from satellites such as NASA’s Landsat program and the European Space Agency’s Sentinel program, scientists can estimate chlorophyll content in vegetation by analysing vegetation indices like NDVI. Remote sensing is also increasingly used to estimate greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies, particularly methane emissions, by combining satellite observations with atmospheric and crop-monitoring models. Further, land surface temperature is routinely measured using thermal infrared sensors aboard satellites, which is widely used in climate, agriculture, and urban heat island studies.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

1. 2-3-1-4
2. 2-3-4-1
3. 3-2-4-1
4. 3-2-1-4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• As per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, the percentage of forest cover to the total area of the above-mentioned States is:
  • Chhattisgarh (41.09%) > Odisha (32.98%) > Madhya Pradesh (25.11%) > Maharashtra (16.47%).

Additional Information Forest Survey of India was established in 1981 to assess and monitor the forest resources of India. It is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand and functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It serves as a nodal agency for collecting, compiling, storing, and disseminating forest resource data. It supports state and union territory forest departments in conducting surveys, mapping, and inventory assessments.

Answer: (c) 3-2-4-1; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidises to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Methane hydrates (clathrates/gas hydrates/methane ice) are formed when hydrogen-bonded water and methane gas come into contact at high pressures (due to depth) and low temperatures in oceans. They are crystalline ice structures consisting of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. Methane hydrates are also trapped in permafrost (permanently frozen soil). It cannot be brought to the surface, as reduced pressure and increased temperature will cause the ice to melt and the methane to escape. Ocean acidification, climate change, or other anthropogenic disturbances, such as deep-sea mining, can destabilise clathrates (which are abundant in the ocean) and release vast amounts of methane, which can lead to mass extinction.

Statement 2 is correct

• Significant methane hydrate reserves are found in permafrost regions like the Arctic Tundra and beneath the ocean floor.

Statement 3 is correct

• Methane is oxidised in the atmosphere after a decade or two. Once oxidised, the carbon in each methane molecule is transformed into CO2, which remains in the atmosphere for another century or more.
• This creates a two-fold impact: first from the methane’s immediate warming effect, followed by the longer-lasting influence of CO2 produced through atmospheric oxidation.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Burning of crop/biomass residues emit gases like sulphur dioxide (SO2), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), black carbon (BC), organic carbon (OC), methane (CH4), volatile organic compounds (VOC), non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone (O3), and aerosols etc.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Sea	Bordering Country
1.Adriatic Sea	Albania
2. Black Sea	Croatia
3. Caspian Sea	Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea	Morocco
5. Red Sea	Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The Adriatic Sea is an arm of the Mediterranean Sea that is situated between the Italian and Balkan peninsulas. The Po, Adige, Soca, Krka, Drin, and Vjosa are some of the major rivers that empty into the Adriatic. It is surrounded by the Apennines, Alps, Dinarids, and Helenids mountain ranges.
• The countries with coasts on the Adriatic are Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro, and Slovenia.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Black Sea is a marginal Mediterranean Sea lying between Europe and Asia.
• It lies:
  • East of the Balkan Peninsula (Southeast Europe)
  • South of the East European Plain in Eastern Europe
  • West of the Caucasus
  • North of Anatolia in Western Asia.
• It is supplied by significant rivers, principally the Danube and Dnieper.
• There is a significant absence of oxygen in the Black Sea water.
• Mountain Ranges: Pontic Mountains (South), Caucasus Mountains (East) and Crimean Mts (North).
• Countries surrounding Black Sea are Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, Bulgaria to the southwest, and Romania to the west.
• It ultimately drains into the Mediterranean Sea via the Turkish Straits and the Aegean Sea.
• To the north, the Black Sea is connected to the Sea of Azov by the Kerch Strait.

Pair 3 is correct

• The Caspian Sea is the world’s largest inland body of water.
• The Caspian Sea, like the Black Sea, is a remnant of the ancient Paratethys Sea.
• It is bounded by Kazakhstan, Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran and Turkmenistan.
• Its main freshwater inflow comes from Europe’s longest river, the Volga and the Ural River.

Pair 4 is correct

• The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by 21 countries. They are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.

Pair 5 is incorrect

• Surrounding Countries of Red Sea are Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti.
• Israel has access to the Red Sea via its port in Eilat and Jordan via Aqaba on the Gulf of Aqaba.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

1. China
2. India
3. Myanmar
4. Vietnam

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• India has been the largest global rice exporter since 2014/15. India usually exports more rice than the combined shipments of the world’s next three largest exporters: Thailand, Vietnam and Pakistan.

Additional Information Rice is mainly a Kharif crop (sown in June–July and harvested in Nov–Dec), but it is also grown as Rabi and Zaid crops in Southern and Eastern India. Climate: Rice requires temperatures of 25–35°C, high humidity, and annual rainfall above 100 cm. Soil: It grows best in deep, clayey, and loamy soils with high water-holding capacity. Cultivation Methods: Indian farmers mainly use transplantation, broadcasting, & drilling methods. New methods such as Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) and Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) are promoted to conserve groundwater.

Answer: (b) India; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Glacier	River
1.Bandarpunch	Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri	Chenab
3. Milam	Mandakini
4. Siachen	Nubra
5. Zemu	Manas

Which of the pairs correctly matched?

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 5
4. 3 and 5

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The Yamuna River is the largest tributary of the Ganga River. It originates from the Bandarpoonch Glacier just above Yamunotri. Flowing through the Himalayas, the river cuts across the Nag Tibba Range, Mussoorie Range, and Shiwalik Range. The Yamuna flows for a total length of about 1,376 km before joining the Ganga near the Triveni Sangam.

Non – Peninsular Tributaries	Peninsular Tributaries
Rishiganga Uma Hanuman Ganga and Tons join it in the mountains. Hindon joins at Ghaziabad in the plain area	Most of the Peninsular rivers flow into the Yamuna between Agra and Allahabad. Chambal Sind Betwa Ken

Pair 2 is correct

• Bara Shigri is located in the Lahaul Spiti region in Chandra Valley, Himachal Pradesh. It is a 30-km-long glacier, the second-longest glacier in the Himalayas after Gangotri.
• It feeds the Chenab River. The Chenab River originates near the Baralacha La in the Lahaul-Spiti region of the Zanskar Range. Two small streams, the Chandra River and the Bhaga River, rise on opposite sides of the pass and join at an altitude of about 4,900 m to form the Chandrabhaga. The united stream, known as the Chandrabhaga River, flows northwest through the Pangi Valley, parallel to the Pir Panjal Range. Near Kishtwar, it cuts a deep gorge and then enters the plains near Akhnoor. From here, the river flows through the plains of Punjab and reaches Panjnad, where it joins the Sutlej River after receiving the waters of the Jhelum River and the Ravi River.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Mandakini River is a tributary of the Alaknanda River, has its source in the Sumeru glacier above the Kedarnath Temple in Uttarakhand.
  • Alaknanda River joins the Bhagirathi at Devaprayag.
  • From Devapryag, the river is called the Ganga.
• Milam glacier is one of the major glaciers of the Kumaon Himalaya. It is a part of the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand. It is the source of the Gori Ganga River, which acts as an important tributary of the Kali River.

Pair 4 is correct

• Nubra River originates from the Siachen Glacier. It is a tributary of the Shyok River, which in turn is a tributary of the Indus River.

Pair 5 is incorrect

• Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya. It is about 26 kilometres (16 mi) in length and is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in the Himalayan region of Sikkim. It is one of the sources for the Teesta that joins the Brahmaputra.
• The Manas River is a transboundary river in the Himalayan foothills between southern Bhutan and India. Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan and the Manas Wildlife Sanctuary are located in the Manas River valley. The Manas River flows through Bhutan and Assam in India before it joins the right bank of the Brahmaputra River.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

1. pesticides in agriculture
2. preservatives in processed foods
3. fruit-ripening agents
4. moisturising agents in cosmetics

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all chemicals primarily used as pesticides in agricultural practices. These chemicals are known for their health risks and environmental concerns, leading to their cautious use and regulation in India and other countries.The Indian Government prohibited 17 pesticides for import, manufacture or sale in 2018. These 17 pesticides are Alachlor, Benomyl, Carbaryl, Diazinon, Dichlorvos, Fenarimol, Fenthion, Linuron, Methoxyethyl Mercury Chloride (MEMC), Methyl Parathion, Phorate, Phosphamidon, Sodium Cyanide, Thiometon, Triazophos, Tridemorph, and Trichlorfon. Carbofuran 3% Encapsulated Granule (CG) is not banned in India, but all other formulations of Carbofuran are banned. The manufacture, import, storage, sale, distribution, use, etc of pesticides are regulated by the Insecticides Act, 1968, and the Insecticides Rules, 1971 made thereunder.

Answer: (a) pesticides in agriculture; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Ramsar Convention is not a regulatory regime and has no punitive sanctions for violations of or defaulting upon treaty commitments – nevertheless, its terms do constitute a solemn treaty and are binding in international law in that sense. It obliges countries to maintain the ecological character of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar sites) and to promote the “wise use” of all wetlands.
• However, there is no mandatory legal requirement for the Government of India to protect and conserve all wetlands in its territory under the Ramsar Convention.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 (under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986) were notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forests. However, these rules were not specifically framed based on recommendations from the Ramsar Convention.

Statement 3 is correct

• As per Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, a “wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Soils are a major source of nitrogen emissions, specifically nitrogen oxides (NOx) and nitrous oxide (N₂O). This emission primarily results from the application of chemical fertilizers (especially urea) and biological processes such as nitrification and denitrification. These emissions result from inefficient nitrogen use by crops, with about 80% of nitrogen inputs wasted, leading to air and water pollution. Nitrogen oxides (NOx: nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide) are particularly concerning because they contribute to the formation of PM2.5 particles, which are closely linked to cardiovascular and respiratory illnesses.
• Additionally, these nitrogen oxides contribute to winter smog in North India, with crop residue burning being a significant source.

Image Source: The Hindu

Statement 2 is correct

• The provided data from the Indian Nitrogen Assessment confirms that cattle account for 80% of ammonia emissions in India. India is currently the largest global source of ammonia emissions, producing almost twice as much ammonia as nitrogen oxides (NOx). However, given the current growth trend in NOx emissions from sources such as fossil fuel combustion, NOx emissions are expected to exceed ammonia emissions by 2055.

Statement 3 is correct

• The poultry industry is a source of reactive nitrogen compounds. Reactive nitrogen compounds (RNCs) are forms of nitrogen, like ammonia (NH₃), nitrous oxide (N₂O), and nitrogen oxides (NOx), that are highly reactive in the environment.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

1. Recently discovered uranium deposits
2. Tropical rain forests
3. Underground cave systems
4. Water reservoirs

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• These places are known for water reservoirs:
  • Aliyar: Located in Tamil Nadu, Aliyar is a dam across the Aliyar River, primarily built for irrigation and drinking water supply.
  • Isapur: Situated in Maharashtra, Isapur Dam is a large water reservoir constructed on the Penganga River, used for irrigation.
  • Kangsabati: Located in West Bengal, the Kangsabati Dam serves as a major water reservoir built on the Kangsabati River, providing irrigation and water storage.
• Some water reservoirs were in the spotlight due to critically low water levels and concerns about their impact on agriculture and drinking water supplies.

Answer: (d) Water reservoirs; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Tests conducted by the Automotive Research Association of India and Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) have shown that compared to conventional CNG, the use of H-CNG can lower (not eliminate) carbon monoxide emissions by up to 70%, while also achieving fuel savings of up to 5%.

Statement 2 is correct

• H-CNG lowers carbon dioxide and unburned hydrocarbon emissions from the engine and accelerates the combustion process.

Statement 3 is correct

• Hydrogen can be blended with CNG up to 18% by volume for use in buses and other vehicles.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• The costs associated with H-CNG are slightly higher than CNG. While H-CNG could provide cost advantages in the long run due to enhanced efficiency and lower emissions, it does not automatically make the fuel cheaper than CNG.

PMF Concept Hack Cleaner fuels like Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) reduce emissions but do not eliminate them completely, so Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 correctly states that hydrogen blending reduces CO₂ and hydrocarbon emissions. Since Statement 2 appears only in option (b), students can directly mark option (b) without further analysis.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

1. Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
2. Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
3. The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
4. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• On cloudy nights, the presence of clouds acts as a barrier that reflects the Earth’s radiation back towards the surface. This reflection helps to retain heat, preventing the surface temperature from cooling sufficiently to reach the dew point.
• When the surface temperature drops to the dew point, water vapor in the air can condense into droplets, forming dewdrops. However, because clouds maintain a warmer temperature by reflecting radiation, the conditions necessary for dew formation are inhibited. Thus, the reason dewdrops do not form on cloudy nights is primarily due to the clouds reflecting the Earth’s radiation, which keeps the surface temperature high for dew to condense.

Answer: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation; Difficulty Leve: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The 44th Amendment, enacted in 1978, was a significant legislative response to the excesses during the Emergency period (1975-1977) and aimed to restore democratic rights and the rule of law in India.
• Prior to the 44th Amendment, the 39th Amendment had inserted Article 329-A, which effectively shielded the election of the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from judicial review. This provision was designed to prevent challenges to Indira Gandhi’s election following the Allahabad High Court’s ruling that invalidated her election due to electoral malpractice.
• However, the 44th Amendment repealed Article 329-A, thereby reinstating the Supreme Court’s authority to adjudicate disputes related to the elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker. This restoration ensured that elections are subject to judicial scrutiny, reinforcing the principle that no one is above the law, including the Prime Minister.

Statement 2 is correct

• The 99th Amendment, enacted in 2014, established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), which aimed to change the process of appointing judges to the higher judiciary in India.
• The amendment sought to replace the collegium system, which is a system of appointments where a group of senior judges has the final say in judicial appointments. In 2015, the Supreme Court ruled that the 99th Amendment and the NJAC Act violated the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution, particularly the independence of the judiciary. As a result, the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment, reaffirming the importance of the collegium system in maintaining judicial independence.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and Statement 3 is correct

• Under the Constitution of India, a judge can be removed only by an order of the President of India after a motion is passed by both Houses of Parliament.
• The detailed procedure for the removal of judges is laid down in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968. According to the Act, an impeachment motion can originate in either House of Parliament. To initiate the process:
  • At least 100 members of the Lok Sabha must submit a signed notice to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or
  • At least 50 members of the Rajya Sabha must submit a signed notice to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • The Speaker or Chairman may then consult relevant individuals and examine the available material before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• A judge may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’ (not defined in the constitution).

Statement 4 is correct

• The motion for removal of a judge must be passed separately by each House of Parliament of India with a special majority—namely, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of at least two-thirds of the members present and voting. If the motion is adopted in one House, it is then sent to the other House for consideration and adoption. Once the motion is passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with the required majority, it is forwarded to the President of India, who then issues the order for the removal of the judge.

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
3. Indira Gandhi
4. Morarji Desai

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was introduced during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru through the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. It was added by inserting Article 31B, which, along with Article 31A, aimed to protect laws related to agrarian reforms from judicial review and facilitate the abolition of the Zamindari system.

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The nationalisation of coal in India occurred in two phases (During Mrs. Indira Gandhi): coking coal in 1971-72 and non-coking coal in 1973.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The current methodology for coal block allocation involves an auction process, not a lottery (Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015). The auction provides a transparent, competitive bidding system for coal mining rights.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• While India has been working towards self-sufficiency in coal production and has significant reserves, it imports coal to meet its certain demands.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 3 can be eliminated using the “Extreme claim” rule — India still imports coal, so self-sufficiency is unlikely. Only option (a) is left.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, enacted in 1959, which has been amended five times (1993, 1999, 2000, 2006, 2013) to include offices that have been exempted (such as Minister of union or state, Leader of opposition in the Parliament) from the purview of ‘office of profit’ disqualification in spite of salary and other perks.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Constitution do not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit, but the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments. An office of profit has been interpreted as a position that brings to the office-holder some financial gain, advantage, or benefit. The amount of such profit is immaterial. The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution, the principle of separation of powers between the legislature and the executive.
• For example: In 2004, Jaya Bachchan, Rajya Sabha MP from the Samajwadi Party, was appointed chairperson of the UP Film Development Council (UPFDC). The apex court held that it was an Office of Profit and disqualified her from membership in the Upper House.

PMF Concept Hack In Indian Polity, if a statement says a term is well-defined in the Constitution, it is usually suspicious. The term Office of Profit is not defined in the Constitution, so Statement 3 is incorrect — eliminate options containing 3 (b, c, d).

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

1. Third Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Ninth Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
• The Samatha vs. State of Andhra Pradesh, 1997 judgment, a landmark ruling by the Supreme Court, declared that the transfer of tribal land in these areas for private mining was null and void, reinforcing the protections for tribal communities as outlined in this Schedule.
  • Under this case, the issue before the Supreme Court was the validity of mining leases granted to private corporations over the Borra Reserve Forest lying within Fifth Schedule Areas, as the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation prohibits alienation of land to non-tribals. The Supreme Court struck down the mining leases so granted, and held:
  • Government lands, forest lands, and tribal lands in the scheduled area cannot be leased to non-tribals or private industries. The government cannot lease land in scheduled areas for mining operations to non-tribals, as this contravenes the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.
  • The Court recognised the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act and the Andhra Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, stating that Gram Sabhas shall be competent to safeguard and preserve community resources, thereby reiterating the need to grant tribals the right to self-governance.
  • Mining activity in a scheduled area may be undertaken only by the Andhra Pradesh State Mineral Development Corporation or a cooperative of tribals, provided they comply with the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, and the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

Option (a) is incorrect

• It contains oaths for elected and appointed officials like the President, Vice-President, Governors, Ministers, MPs, and State Legislatures.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Aims to protect laws related to land reforms and socio-economic policies from judicial review.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Deals with Municipalities, detailing their powers and functions, enabling effective local governance.

Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• PVTGs reside in 18 States and 1 Union Territory (UT), which is the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Statement 2 is correct

• The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are:
  • Pre-agricultural level of technology,
  • Low level of literacy,
  • Economic backwardness,
  • A declining or stagnant population.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• At present, there are 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes.
• Odisha (Total 13 PVTGs) has the highest number of PVTGs.

Statement 4 is correct

• Both the Irular tribe (Tamil Nadu– total 6 PVTGs) and the Konda Reddi tribe (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana- total 12 PVTGs) are included in the list of PVTGs.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

1. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
2. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.
3. In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
4. State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Article 142 of the Constitution of India exclusively empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any case or matter pending before it. This means that the Supreme Court of India is not constrained in exercising its powers by laws made by Parliament.
• For example: One of the important instances of application by the Supreme Court of Article 142 was in the Union Carbide case — relating to the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy — where the Court felt a need to deviate from existing law to bring relief to the thousands of persons affected by the gas leak. In this judgment, the Supreme Court, while awarding compensation of $470 million to the victims, went to the extent of saying that to do complete justice, it could even override the laws made by Parliament by holding that, “prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot, ipso facto, act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142.”However, this statement was later toned down in Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India. It was said therein that the said article could not be used to supplant the existing law, but only to supplement the law.
• Over the years, the interpretation and applicability of Article 142 have evolved through various precedents
• Parameters laid down by the Supreme Court for exercising powers under Article 142:
  • Jurisdiction: The powers under Article 142 can be exercised by the court to do complete justice for the parties before it, but in doing so, the court shall not nullify valid judicial orders passed in favour of other litigants in other jurisdictions.
  • Substantive Rights: The powers of the court under Article 142 should not override substantive law. The court must respect litigants’ substantive rights within its jurisdiction, preserving legal integrity.
  • Natural Justice: The powers of the court under Article 142 must not undermine principles of natural justice. Litigants have a right to be heard before adverse orders are passed, including vacating stay orders, thus ensuring fairness.

Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

Special Address: Article 176(1) mandates the Governor to address the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses assembled together) at the commencement of

• The first session after each General Election and
• The first session of each year.

• Constitutional Purpose: The address informs the Legislature about the “causes of its summons” as mandated by Article 176(1).
• No Discretion: The Governor has no constitutional authority to refuse or alter this address, as it is a binding duty.

Additional Information Discretionary Address: Article 175(1) empowers the Governor to address the Legislative Assembly, either House, or both Houses assembled together, at any time. Legislative Messages: Article 175(2) authorises the Governor to send messages to the House(s) on pending Bills or otherwise. Mandatory Duty: The House is required to consider messages under Article 175(2) with “all convenient dispatch” (in the fastest reasonable speed).

Statement 2 is correct

• In the absence of specific rules on a matter within the State Legislature, it typically refers to the rules and procedures of the Lok Sabha as a guideline. This practice is commonly followed, even though it is not explicitly outlined in the Constitution.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
2. The UNCAC is the first-ever legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air is a supplementary agreement under the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC), not under the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC).

Additional Information The UN Convention Against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC, also called the Palermo Convention) is a UN-sponsored multilateral treaty against transnational crime. The UN General Assembly adopted the convention in 2000 and entered into force in 2003. It has 147 signatories and 191 parties to the convention. The seven UN member states that are not party to the convention are (* indicates that the state has signed but not ratified the convention): Republic of the Congo*, Iran*, Papua New Guinea, Solomon Islands, Somalia, South Sudan and Tuvalu. The Convention is supplemented by three Protocols, which target specific areas of organised crime: Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children. Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air. Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing and Trafficking in Firearms, their Parts and Components and Ammunition.

Statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is incorrect

• UNCAC is the 1st legally binding international anti–corruption agreement. It entered into force in December 2005.
• Parties: 190 (including India). The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) was designated as a secretariat for the Convention’s conference of state parties.
• Areas covered: Criminalisation and law enforcement
  • Preventive measures
  • International cooperation
  • Asset recovery
  • Technical exchange and information exchange
• A highlight of the Convention is the inclusion of a specific chapter on asset recovery, aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners, including countries from which they had been taken illicitly.

Statement 4 is correct

• UNODC was established in 1997 through a merger between the United Nations Drug Control Programme and the Centre for International Crime Prevention. It was renamed the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime in 2002.
• Mandate: To assist Member States in their struggle against illicit drugs, organised crime and trafficking, crime prevention, corruption, and terrorism.
• It is a member of the United Nations Development Group (UNDG).
• It implements conventions like the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC) and the United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC).
• It publishes the World Drug Report annually.

Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• An amendment was made in 2017-18 in the Indian Forest Act of 1927 to remove bamboo from the category of trees. With this minor modification, bamboo grown in non-forest areas will not require a transit permit (TP) and other legal permits for felling and transportation, from the forest department.
• However, bamboo grown in the forest would continue to require a TP and other legal permits.

Statement 2 is correct

• Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007 when the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, was enacted. Section 2(i) of the said Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tubers, and the like.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, popularly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), was enacted in 2007. The Act recognises and vests individual forest-dwellers with forest rights to live in and cultivate forest land that was occupied before 13 December 2005, and grants community forest rights to manage, protect, and regenerate the forest, and to own and dispose of minor forest products from forests where they had traditional access.
• Individuals, communities and gram sabhas have rights under this Act, which will not only give them the right to use but also the right of ownership over MFPs.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

1. Article 19
2. Article 21
3. Article 25
4. Article 29

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Indian Constitution does not explicitly recognize the right to marry as a fundamental or constitutional right. However, through several Supreme Court rulings, the right to marry has been upheld as a fundamental right under Article 21. In Lata Singh v. State of UP (2006), the Supreme Court affirmed that adults have the right to marry anyone they choose, noting that inter-caste marriages are not prohibited by law. Additionally, cases such as Shakti Vahini v. Union of India (2018) and Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (2018) (Hadiya Marriage Case) reiterated that selecting a life partner is a key aspect of personal dignity protected under Article 21.

Answer: (b) Article 21; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed cannot be patented.
  • In India, a new product or process involving an inventive step and capable of industrial application is an invention under section 2(j) of the Patents Act, 1970 as amended in 2005. However, there are certain limitations imposed by Section 3 of the Indian Patents Act that define what is not an invention.
  • Section 3 (j) of the Indian Patents Act as based on Article 27.3 (b) of the TRIPS agreement, is one such limiting provision that states as follows: “Plants and animals in whole or any parts thereof other than micro-organisms but including seeds, varieties and species and essentially biological processes for production and propagation of plants and animals.”

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was set up in India in 2003. However, the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021, abolished various Tribunals, including India’s Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB).

Statement 3 is correct

• Indian IP laws, which are TRIPS compliant, make it clear that seeds and plants or parts thereof cannot be patented. This provision results from India’s choice to enact sui generis legislation that provides intellectual property protection for plant varieties, including transgenic varieties, under a separate and specialised law known as the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) Act, 2001.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986, empowers the Government of India

1. to state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• While the Environment Protection Act, 1986, emphasises environmental protection, it does not explicitly require public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought. The procedure for public participation is more specifically outlined in the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA).

Statement 2 is correct

• The Environment (Protection) Act,1986, is an umbrella legislation designed to provide a framework for the coordination of central and state authorities established under the Water (Prevention and Control) Act,1974 and the Air (Prevention and Control) Act,1981. Under this Act, the Central government is empowered to take measures necessary to protect and improve the quality of the environment by setting standards for emissions and discharges; regulating the location of industries; managing hazardous wastes; and protecting public health and welfare.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
2. The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
3. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
4. It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Explanation

Statement (b) is incorrect

• The Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (SWMR) were notified in April 2016 to lay a solid framework for scientific waste management across urban settlements.
• The 2016 Rules supersede the Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000 and expand the ambit of application to every urban local body, including outgrowths in urban agglomerations, census towns, notified areas, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbases, Ports and harbours, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organisations, places of pilgrims, religious and historical importance as may be notified by respective State government from time to time and to every domestic, institutional, commercial and any other non residential solid waste generator situated in the areas except industrial waste, hazardous waste, hazardous chemicals, bio medical wastes, e-waste, lead acid batteries and radio-active waste, that are covered under separate rules framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Statement (a) is incorrect

• They put the onus of segregation on the waste generator and require segregation into 6 categories – biodegradable, non-biodegradable, domestic-hazardous, sanitary, construction-demolition and horticulture.

Statement (c) is correct

• The SWM Rules 2016 provide for detailed criteria for setting‐up solid waste processing and treatment facility, solid waste management in hilly areas, for waste to energy process, for Sanitary Landfills, for site selection, development of facilities at the sanitary landfills, specifications for land filling operations and closure on completion of landfilling, pollution prevention, Closure and Rehabilitation of Old Dumps etc.

Statement (d) is incorrect

• While the Rules promote decentralised waste management and support local processing, they do not explicitly prohibit the movement of waste generated in one district to another district.

Answer: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers.
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of a temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018, a “fixed term employment workman is a workman who has been engaged on the basis of a written contract of employment for a fixed period”. Fixed-term employment across all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire and fire workers and reduce the role of middlemen. The notified rules for fixed-term employment provide for equal work hours, wages, allowances and other benefits as those of a permanent workman, along with all statutory benefits available to a permanent workman proportionately according to the period of service rendered by him, even if his period of employment does not extend to the qualifying period of employment required in the statute.

Statement 2 is correct

• However, no workman employed on fixed term employment basis as a result of non-renewal of contract or employment or on its expiry shall be entitled to any notice or pay in lieu thereof, if his services are terminated. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workmen, whether monthly-rated, weekly-rated, or piece-rated, and of probationers or badli workmen.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

1. Integrated Rural Development Programme
2. Lead Bank Scheme
3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
4. National Skill Development Mission

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Service area approach (SAA) is a developed version of the ‘area approach’ structure of the Lead Bank Scheme. Under the SAA plan, each commercial bank/RRB branch in a rural and semi-urban area is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages to support the planned and orderly development of the area.
• The designated branch of a bank has to meet the banking needs of its service area vis-à-vis forging effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity, and an increase in income levels of the villages.

Answer: (b) Lead Bank Scheme; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Sand is classified as a minor mineral under Section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). As per the official definition in the act: minor minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral;

Statement 2 is incorrect, and Statement 3 is correct

• According to Section 15 of the MMDR Act, State Governments are empowered to formulate rules regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, or other mineral concessions concerning minor minerals, as well as for related purposes. Consequently, the regulation of minor minerals falls within the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of the State Governments.
• Additionally, Section 23C of the MMDR Act grants State Governments the authority to create rules aimed at preventing illegal mining, transportation, and storage of minerals, along with related activities. Therefore, the control of illegal mining is also under the legislative and administrative domain of the State Governments. However, the Ministry of Mines has prepared a ‘Sand Mining Framework’ in consultation with Mining Departments of the States incorporating best practices amongst States with the objectives of sustainability, availability, affordability, and transparency in sand mining.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 2 is self-contradictory — it says State Governments have the power to grant leases, but rule-making power lies with the Central Government in the same domain. Such a division of authority within minor minerals management is unlikely. Hence, Statement 2 can be eliminated. Once Statement 2 is eliminated, options (b) and (d) are removed.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• At the end of March 2019, India’s external debt stood at USD 543 billion, which witnessed an increase of 2.6% over its level at the end of March 2018, primarily on account of an increase in short-term debt, commercial borrowings and non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits. Commercial borrowings remained the largest component of external debt, followed by NRI deposits and short-term trade credit.

Image Source: ICRA

Statement 2 is incorrect

• As per data released by RBI, US dollar-denominated debt was the largest component of India’s external debt with a share of 50.5 per cent at end-March 2019 (not all), followed by the Indian rupee (35.7 per cent), Japanese yen (5.0 per cent), SDR (4.9 per cent) and euro (3.0 per cent).

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

1. Advances
2. Deposits
3. Investments
4. Money at call and short notice

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Deposits are liabilities for a commercial bank, as they represent money that the bank owes to its customers. The other options (advances, investments, money at call and short notice) are assets because they involve the bank’s use of funds to generate returns.

Answer: (b) Deposits; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The IT sector in India is a major contributor to foreign exchange reserves through the export of services. These earnings help maintain a healthy balance of payments (BOP) and improve foreign exchange reserves, thereby reducing the risk of a currency crisis by stabilising the rupee against foreign currencies.

Image Source: BS (India Inc’s Forex Earnings by Sectors (Rs trillion))

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While this may boost domestic demand and economic growth, it does not contribute to foreign exchange reserves. Instead, if funded by borrowing, it could widen the fiscal deficit and lead to inflationary pressures, potentially increasing the risk of a currency crisis. Hence, it is not a contributor to reducing such risks.

Statement 3 is correct

• Remittances from the Indian diaspora are a significant source of foreign currency inflow. These remittances strengthen the country’s foreign reserves and reduce dependency on external borrowing, further safeguarding against currency crises.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links, or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

1. First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. Rajamannar Committee (1969)
3. Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the government of India in 1983. It was a three-member commission on centre-state relations. R.S. Sarkaria headed the commission.
• The commission’s objective was to examine and review existing arrangements between the center and states.
• Recommendations on appointment of governors:
  • CM should be consulted in the Governor’s appointment.
  • The governor should be eminent in some walks of life and from outside the state.
  • He should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past.
  • He should not be a member of the ruling party.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) as a Commission of Inquiry was set up in January,1966, to examine the public administration of the country and make recommendations for reform and reorganisation when necessary. It was initially chaired by Morarji R. Desai and later by Shri K. H. Hunmanthaiya, who became its Chairman when Morarji R. Desai became the Deputy PM of India.
• It made 22 recommendations for improving the Centre-state relations. The important recommendations are:
  • Establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution.
  • Appointment of persons having long experience in public life and administration, and a non-partisan attitude as governors.
  • Delegation of powers to the maximum extent to the states.
  • Transferring of more financial resources to the states to reduce their dependency upon the Centre.
  • Deployment of Central armed forces in the states, either on their request or otherwise.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Rajmannar Committee was set up by the then DMK Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969 under the Chairmanship of Dr P.V. Rajamanar. It was appointed to examine all aspects of Centre-State relations and to investigate and identify the causes of unitary tendencies in Central-State relations.
• Its main recommendation was, governor of the state should not consider himself an agent of the centre but play his role as the constitutional head of the State.

Option (d) is incorrect

• The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 2000. The 11-member Commission was headed by M.N. Venkatachaliah, the former Chief Justice of India.
• Its recommendation on the governor was: The president should appoint the governor of a state only after consultation with the chief minister of that state. The question of whether the ministry in a state has lost the confidence of the assembly or not should be tested only on the floor of the House. The Governor should not be allowed to dismiss the ministry, so long as it enjoys the confidence of the House.

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983); Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

1. Certificate of Deposit
2. Commercial Paper
3. Promissory Note
4. Participatory Note

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Participatory notes are often referred to as PNs or P-Notes. These are financial instruments used by investors and hedge funds to invest in Indian securities, and no SEBI registration is required. Investments flowing in through PNs are considered offshore derivative investments (ODIs). In 2017, SEBI restricted the use of participatory notes in derivatives to hedging only. The tightening of regulations over the years took a toll on their popularity. As of May 2024, less than 2 per cent of outstanding FPI assets came through this route.

Image Source: BS

Option (a) is incorrect

• A certificate of deposit (CD) is a type of savings account that pays a fixed interest rate on money held for an agreed-upon period of time. CD rates are usually higher than savings accounts, but you lose withdrawal flexibility. If you withdraw your CD funds early, you’ll be charged a penalty. CDs come in a variety of terms from 3-, 6-, or 12-month terms to 4-, 5-, and even 10-year terms.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-term debt instrument issued by corporations. It’s typically used to finance short-term liabilities such as payroll, accounts payable, and inventories.

Option (c) is incorrect

• A promissory note is a written promise by one party (the note’s issuer or maker) to pay another party (the note’s payee) a definite sum of money, either on demand or at a specified future date. A promissory note typically contains all the terms involved, such as the principal debt amount, interest rate, maturity date, payment schedule, the date and place of issuance, and the issuer’s signature.

Answer: (d) Participatory Note; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect

• The SC established the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authority in 2002 as the National Advisory Council for monitoring, technical assistance and evaluation of compensatory afforestation activities and administering the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF).
• CAMPA promotes afforestation and regeneration activities to compensate for forest land diverted to non-forest uses. According to the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980, the project that wishes to divert the land must identify land elsewhere to afforest and pay the land value for the afforestation exercise.
• The centre passed the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act in 2016, and the rules were notified in 2018. The National CAF under the Public Account of India and the State CAF under the Public Account of each state were created.
• The CAF Act was enacted to manage the funds collected for compensatory afforestation, driven by the ad hoc CAMPA. 90% of the CAF money will be given to the states, while the Centre will retain 10%.
• The funds can be used for
  • Treatment of catchment areas,
  • Assisted natural generation,
  • Forest management,
  • Wildlife protection and management,
  • Relocation of villages from protected areas,
  • Managing human-wildlife conflicts,
  • Training and awareness generation,
  • Supply of wood-saving devices and allied activities.
• However, the Act doesn’t mandate people’s participation in its programs.
• Compensatory afforestation: Whenever Forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes such as mining or industry, the user agency pays for planting forests over an equal area of non-forest land, or when such land is unavailable, twice the area of degraded forest land.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 3, 4 and 5
4. 2 and 5

Explanation

Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament are correct

• Parliament may establish ad-hoc committees, which may examine the working of regulators. For instance, the terms of reference of the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) on the allocation of 2G spectrum included the review of the policy on spectrum pricing and grant of telecom licences. Another example of parliamentary oversight through ad hoc committees is the JPC (formed in 2001) ‘s scrutiny of the functioning of SEBI and RBI in the context of the stock market scam.

Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees is correct

• These committees also review the functioning of independent regulators, examining their performance and suggesting improvements. These committees are ministry-specific and may review the working of regulators within their respective departments.

Finance Commission is incorrect

• The Finance Commission focuses on fiscal matters and transfers between the central and state governments.

Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission is incorrect

• The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC), constituted by the Ministry of Finance in March 2011, was asked to comprehensively review and redraw the legislations governing India’s financial system. The FSLRC submitted its report to the Ministry of Finance on March 22, 2013, containing an analysis of the current regulatory architecture and a draft Indian Financial Code to replace the bulk of the existing financial laws.

NITI Aayog is incorrect

• NITI Aayog is a policy think tank that advises the government on various issues, including economic development.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) was built on a strategy of long-term development of the economy.
• Major objective:
  • Rapid Industrialisation
  • It was based on the Mahalanobis Model. The emphasis of the Mahalanobis model was on achieving self-reliance, and also to meet the needs of our domestic economy

• The rationale for such a strategy was that in an industrially backward economy with low productivity, the agricultural sector could not provide more employment. It was argued that the development of the industrial sector is a precondition for the development of the agricultural and other sectors. Hence, during this phase of planning, capital goods industries such as iron and steel, heavy engineering, machine tools, and heavy chemicals were given high priority. Secondly, it was visualised that heavy industries would spur the development of small-scale industries, and that growth would ‘trickle down’.
• In other words, as a result of the growth in heavy industries, growth will percolate below.
• The 12th Five-Year Plan of the Government of India (2012–17) was India’s last Five-Year Plan. The Twelfth Five-Year Plan lasted from 2012 to 2017.

Statement 2 is correct

• Fourth Plan (1969-74) major objectives were:
  • Growth with stability and progress towards self-reliance
  • Emphasis on growth with distributive justice.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Fifth plan (1974-79) proposed to achieve two main objectives: ‘removal of poverty’ (Garibi Hatao) and ‘attainment of self-reliance’. Promotion of a high growth rate, better income distribution, and significant growth in the domestic savings rate were seen as key instruments.
• The 8^th plan undertook drastic policy measures to combat the bad economic situation and to undertake an annual average growth of 5.6% through the introduction of fiscal & economic reforms, including liberalisation under the Prime Ministership of Shri P V Narasimha Rao.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• AIIB has 109 members – 94 Full Members and 15 Prospective Members – and is open to accepting additional members (as per official website).
• India is a founding member.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The primary shareholder in the bank is China, holding the largest share of voting rights at 26.61%, succeeded by India with 7.6%, Russia with 6.01%, and Germany with 4.2%.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Although the focus is on Asia, the membership also includes several non-Asian countries, such as nations from Europe and South America.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 3 can be eliminated first — The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is Asia-focused, but several non-Asian countries are members. Hence, saying no members from outside Asia is extreme and unlikely. Once Statement 3 is eliminated, options (b), (c), and (d) are removed.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

What was the purpose of the Inter-creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

1. To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
2. To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
3. To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs 50 crore or more
4. To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) for Resolution of stressed Assets was signed in July , 2018 by 33 banks / financial institutions. The inter-creditor agreement aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ₹50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders.
• It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans. According to the agreement, a majority representing two-thirds of the loans within a consortium of lenders should now be sufficient to override any objection to the resolution process coming from dissenting lenders.

Answer: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the

1. Banks Board Bureau
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Union Ministry of Finance
4. Management of concerned bank

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Banks Board Bureau was established in 2016 for recommending the appointment and selection of the Board of Directors of public sector banks, public sector insurance companies, and public sector financial institutions. The BBB was conceived by the PJ Nayak committee and was seen as a step taken towards reforming the boards of public sector banks.
• Note: As per the new framework of the Ministry of Finance, the BBB has been replaced with the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB).
  • FSIB has been constituted effective from July 01, 2022, by the Central Government for the purpose of recommending persons for appointment as whole-time directors and non-executive chairpersons on the Boards of financial services institutions and for advising on certain other matters relating to personnel management in these institutions. It is also involved in formulating and developing business strategies for state-run banks and helps them in their fundraising plans.

Answer: (a) Band Board Bureau; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct

• The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006, notified via Gazette Notification dated 31st March, 2006. The Act provides for the establishment of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas, and to promote competitive markets, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• The board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas, excluding production of crude oil and natural gas, so as to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.
• There are many other regulatory bodies that predate the PNGRB, such as SEBI and TRAI.
  • A regulatory body performs functions such as setting standards, formalising rules and regulations, maintaining competition, setting price controls, etc., in various sectors of the economy.

Statement 3 is correct

• Main activities of Appellate Tribunals for Electricity (formed Electricity Act, 2003) are to entertain the appeals both under the Electricity Act, 2003 and under of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 against the orders passed by the Central, Joint and State Commissions as well as the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board and dispose of the same within the stipulated period time.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G, and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a form of 4G technology designed to boost network capacity and speed, providing faster connectivity for cellular devices compared to 3G. VoLTE (Voice over LTE), on the other hand, uses the same 4G LTE infrastructure but focuses on routing voice calls digitally while allowing simultaneous data use. Both LTE and VoLTE are integral to the progress of 4G technology.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Unlike LTE, which may or may not support simultaneous voice and data services, VoLTE is specifically designed to handle both seamlessly. VoLTE provides a unified solution for voice and data, offering a superior experience compared to traditional LTE networks.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct

• Biological mothers now enjoy 26 weeks of paid leave. For the first and second child, it is 26 weeks, with the option to commence up to 8 weeks prior to the expected delivery date. For the third child onwards, eligibility is reduced to 12 weeks of maternity leave.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Establishments with 50 or more employees must provide a creche facility, allowing women to visit their child (4 times) during work hours.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?

1. Maintenance of law and order
2. Paying taxes
3. Registering property
4. Dealing with construction permits

Explanation

Maintenance of law and order is the correct answer

• The determinants of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ comprised of:
  • starting a business,
  • dealing with construction permits,
  • getting electricity,
  • registering property,
  • getting credit
  • protecting money investors,
  • paying taxes,
  • trading across borders,
  • enforcing contracts,
  • resolving insolvency
• In September 2021, the World Bank Group decided to discontinue the publication of the Doing Business report.

Answer: (a) Maintenance of law and order; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

1. The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
2. The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
3. The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
4. The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In India, Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) was introduced as a key feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. In its simplest form, EPR is a policy that requires producers to take responsibility for their products throughout their entire lifecycle. This scenario means that producers are responsible for collecting and recycling the products they produce at the end of their life cycle.
• The primary goal of EPR is to reduce waste by ensuring that all products are appropriately disposed of or recycled rather than thrown away.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2016 (an improvement to 1998 rules) regulate the management and handling of bio-medical waste in India. They aim to ensure proper disposal of waste generated from hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare institutions.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Central Government had notified the “Recycled Plastics Manufacture and Usage Rules, 1999 (as amended in 2003)” under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate the manufacture, sale and use and recycling of plastic bags. The Ministry of Environment and Forests then notified the new Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 (latest amendment to this notified as Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2024), superseding the earlier Rules.

Option (d) is incorrect

• The Food Safety and Standards Regulation, 2011 is a notification issued by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. These regulations contain labelling requirements and standards for packaged food, permitted food additives, colours, microbiological requirements, etc.

Answer: (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011; Difficulty Level: Easy

The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

1. transportation cost only
2. interest cost only
3. procurement incidentals and distribution cost
4. procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The economic cost of foodgrains to FCI is of strategic importance, as it influences not only the food subsidy bill but also the country’s competitiveness in international markets for foodgrains.
• The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India (FCI) consists of:
  • Minimum Support Price (MSP) and any bonus paid to farmers.
  • Procurement incidentals, which include costs incurred during procurement like handling, storage, and administrative expenses.
  • Distribution cost, which includes transportation, storage, and distribution of food grains to various regions across India.

Additional Information Food Corporation of India is a statutory body setup under the Food Corporation Act 1964, in order to fulfil the following objectives of the Food Policy: Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers, distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for the public distribution system and maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure national food security. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. The FCI purchases crops at MSP, providing financial security to farmers and making agriculture remunerative.

Answer: (c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

1. The proportion of literates in the population
2. The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
3. The size of population in the working age group
4. The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Social capital is the set of relationships, attitudes and values, such as integrity and mutual respect, that exist in a community and govern interactions among individuals. Simply put, social capital is the positive outcomes of human engagements and the connective trust born from a community’s many networks.
• Social capital refers to trust, cooperation, and supportive relationships in society. It includes actions such as sending girls to school, helping others during crises, voting in elections, trusting mail delivery, giving directions to strangers, and returning lost items. These relationships promote social cohesion, collective problem-solving, effective governance, trusted institutions, and fair markets.

Answer: (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• High Courts in India do have the jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution to declare a central law constitutionally invalid, provided it violates the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Supreme Court of India, can examine the validity of constitutional amendments. The Court laid down the Basic Structure Doctrine in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case, which allows it to strike down any constitutional amendment that violates the basic structure of the Constitution.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the cost of a specific basket of goods and services across different countries. For example, if a fast-food meal costs $5 in the U.S. but ₹100 in India, the PPP exchange rate would be ₹20 per dollar, indicating that ₹20 in India can purchase what $1 can in the U.S. This method accounts for differences in living costs and gives a better comparison of the real value of currencies and their purchasing power.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• India is the world’s third largest economy in terms of GDP by PPP calculations.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Rice is the primary Kharif crop in India, and its cultivated area is the largest among all Kharif crops.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The cultivation area for Jowar is smaller compared to that of oilseeds.

Statement 3 is correct

• Area under cotton cultivation is significantly larger than that of sugarcane.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• Area under sugarcane cultivation is fluctuating; it has not steadily decreased.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

1. Spices
2. Fresh fruits
3. Pulses
4. Vegetable oils

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Vegetable oils account for the highest imports by value among given agricultural commodities in India.
• From a 10-year perspective, India’s edible oil imports have increased from 11.6 mt (valued at Rs 60,750 crore) in 2013-14 to 16.5 mt (Rs 138,424 crore) in 2022-23.

Answer: (d) Vegetable oils; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

1. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. Absence of restraint
3. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Liberty, in the context of polity, is best understood as the opportunity to develop oneself fully within the framework of law and society. It involves not just the absence of restraints but also the positive ability for individuals to grow and realize their potential. It does not mean freedom to do anything that one desires or likes. If that were to be permitted then a large number of people will not be able to enjoy their freedom. Therefore, freedoms are defined in such a manner that every person will enjoy her freedom without threatening freedom of others and without endangering the law and order situation.
• Option (a), while partially correct, focuses only on protection from tyranny, and option (b) and option (c) misunderstand liberty as unregulated freedom, which can lead to anarchy. The most comprehensive and positive interpretation is developing oneself fully.

Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

1. Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
2. Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds
3. Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
4. Following an expansionary monetary policy

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Expansionary monetary policy involves increasing the money supply and reducing interest rates to stimulate economic growth. While this can boost domestic demand, it generally leads to higher inflation and depreciation of the currency rather than stopping its slide.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports helps reduce the demand for foreign currencies (since imports require foreign exchange) and boosts foreign currency inflows (via exports), strengthening the rupee.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Encouraging rupee-denominated Masala Bonds attracts foreign investment without exposing Indian companies to currency risk, as these bonds are paid back in rupees. This increases foreign inflows and stabilizes the rupee.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Easing external commercial borrowing (ECB) conditions encourages Indian companies to raise capital from abroad, increasing foreign currency inflows, which helps reduce pressure on the rupee.

Answer: (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In April 2018, the Reserve Bank of India issued a directive through a circular regarding the ‘Storage of Payment System Data.’ It advised all system providers to ensure that, within six months, all data related to payment systems they operate is stored exclusively on servers located in India. According to the notification, all payment data must be stored within India, except in specific cases outlined in the directive.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct

• The directives do not require that the systems be owned and operated by public sector enterprises. Additionally, there is no mention of submitting a consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year, making statement 3 incorrect as well. The directives require the submission of the System Audit Report (SAR) to the Reserve Bank, not to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The audit should be conducted by CERT-IN empanelled auditors certifying completion of activity

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the adopted following a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. The European Union
4. The United States of America

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The GDPR is a legal framework that establishes rules for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). The regulation was put into effect on May 25, 2018. It requires individuals to give explicit consent before their data can be processed.

Answer: (c) The European Union; Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

1. Japan
2. Russia
3. The United Kingdom
4. The United States of America

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ deal was signed by India and Russia on the margins of the 19th India-Russia Summit in New Delhi. Under the deal the parties agreed to work on a project to construct six Russian-designed nuclear power reactors on a new site in India. The Action Plan also specifies that the new reactors will be built under the VVER design (water-water energetic reactor (WWER), or VVER is a series of pressurized water reactor), an evolution of Generation III+ with a demonstrated history of successful commercial operation.

Answer: (b) Russia; Difficulty Level: Easy

The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following

1. Increase in the cash reserve ratio
2. Increase in the banking habit of the population
3. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
4. Increase in the population of the country

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The money multiplier reflects the maximum amount of money that banks can create with each unit of reserves. If more people deposit money in banks, it increases the funds available for banks to lend, thus increasing the money multiplier.​

Option (a) is incorrect

• Increase in the cash reserve ratio: This would decrease the money multiplier since a higher CRR means banks have to keep more reserves and can lend less.

Option (c) incorrect

• Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio: Similar to CRR, an increase in the statutory liquidity ratio would reduce the money multiplier as banks have to hold more liquid assets.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Increase in the population of the country: While a larger population might increase the demand for loans, it does not directly affect the money multiplier unless it translates into increased deposits.

Answer: (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of a smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Augmented Reality enhances the real-world environment by overlaying digital information—such as images, sounds, or other data—onto it. AR does not shut out the physical world; instead, it adds virtual elements to it, allowing users to interact with both the real and digital worlds simultaneously. Examples include apps that use a smartphone camera to display information or graphics overlaid on real-world objects.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Virtual Reality creates a fully immersive simulated environment that is separate from the real world. Users typically wear VR headsets that cover their eyes and ears, blocking out real-world stimuli to provide a completely immersive experience. In VR, users do not see or interact with real-life objects; they are instead placed in a digital environment created by computers.

Statement 3 is correct

• AR applications utilize the camera of devices such as smartphones or PCs to recognize real-world surroundings and enhance them with additional digital content. For example, AR apps like Pokémon GO allow users to see and interact with virtual characters in their real environment, effectively merging the digital and physical worlds.

Statement 4 is correct

• VR technology transports users into a fully immersive digital environment that replaces their real-world surroundings. Users experience this immersion through specialized headsets and controllers, which enable them to explore and interact with the virtual world as if they were physically present in it. This level of immersion is designed to engage the user completely, providing experiences that can range from gaming to virtual travel.

Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

1. fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
2. an early human species
3. a cave system found in North-East India
4. a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Denisovans, together with the Neanderthals, are the closest extinct relatives of modern humans. The Denisovans are named for the location where the first fossils were found, Denisova Cave in the Altai Mountains of Siberia, Russia.

Answer: (b) an early human species; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
2. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
3. A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
4. Cells taken out from plasma and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Explanation

Statement (a) is not correct

• Creating functional chromosomes by combining DNA from different species is not feasible with current scientific advancements. While scientists can transfer genes between species (as in genetically modified organisms), constructing fully functional chromosomes from DNA segments of different species is not yet possible.

Statement (b) is correct

• Scientists have developed the technology to artificially synthesize DNA sequences in the lab. Using automated machines and chemical processes, they can create specific pieces of DNA that mimic natural DNA sequences.

Statement (c) is correct

• The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a common laboratory technique that allows scientists to replicate or amplify a specific segment of DNA outside of living cells. This method uses enzymes, like Taq polymerase, to repeatedly duplicate the DNA, producing millions or even billions of copies from a single DNA fragment.

Statement (d) is correct

• Cells taken from animals (e.g., skin, blood, or organ cells) can be cultured in petri dishes under the right laboratory conditions. This process is known as cell culture.

Answer: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it.
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• A digital signature does not identify the certifying authority. This function is performed by a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC), not the digital signature itself.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Digital signatures may be used for authentication in certain situations, but they are not the primary method for identifying users when accessing information or servers on the internet. Typically, OTPs, passwords, and other credentials are more commonly used for this purpose.

Only statement 3 is correct

• A digital signature is an electronic, encrypted stamp of authentication on digital information such as messages. The digital signature confirms the integrity of the message. This signature ensures that the information originated from the signer and was not altered, which proves the identity of the organization that created the digital signature. Any change made to the signed data invalidates the whole signature.
• The use of digital signatures is important because they can ensure end-to-end message integrity, and can also provide authentication information about the originator of a message.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing-impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• All the given tasks are accomplished by wearable technology devices. Wearables such as smartwatches and fitness bands can track location using GPS, monitor sleep patterns through sensors, and assist hearing-impaired persons through smart hearing aids and sound-enhancement features.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process through which small RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation by targeting specific messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules. This process is vital for regulating gene expression and defending against viral infections in various organisms. RNAi is a well-established method for silencing specific genes. This technology allows researchers to selectively turn off gene expression, making it useful for various therapeutic applications.

Statement 2 is correct

• RNAi technology holds promise for cancer treatment by targeting and silencing oncogenes or other genes involved in tumour growth. While still largely in research and development, RNAi is being explored in clinical trials for its potential in oncology.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• RNAi is not utilized in hormone replacement therapies. Hormone replacement focuses on providing hormones that the body lacks, which does not involve gene silencing mechanisms.

Statement 4 is correct

• RNAi technology can be effectively used in agriculture to engineer plants that can resist viral infections. By silencing viral genes, crops can be made more resilient against specific viral pathogens.

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

1. ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected
2. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected
3. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed
4. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The observation of the merger of giant black holes billions of light-years away led to the detection of gravitational waves. In 2015, The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO), USA, physically sensed the distortions in spacetime caused by passing gravitational waves generated by two colliding black holes nearly 1.3 billion light-years away.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Peter Higgs and five other theorists proposed the Higgs boson in 1964 to explain why certain particles have mass. Scientists confirmed its existence in 2012 through the ATLAS and CMS experiments at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN in Switzerland. This discovery led to the 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics being awarded to Higgs and Englert.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Wormholes are a theoretical concept in physics, it can act as a bridge or a shortcut between two points in curved spacetime which are well separated in practical terms to the inhabitants of the universe. The existence of wormholes has been predicted by Ludwig Flamm, in 1916, soon after Einstein proposed his General Theory of Relativity.

Option (d) is incorrect

• A singularity (gravitational singularity or (spacetime singularity) is a condition in which gravity is so intense that spacetime ceases to exist and our laws of physics become invalid. Singularities were first predicated as a result of Einstein’s Theory of General Relativity, which resulted in the theoretical existence of black holes. In essence, the theory also predicted that any star reaching beyond a certain point in its mass (aka. the Schwarzschild Radius) would exert a gravitational force so intense that it would collapse.
• At this point, nothing would be capable of escaping its surface, including light. This phenomenon is known as the Chandrasekhar Limit, named after the Indian astrophysicist Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar, who proposed it in 1930.

Answer: (b) Gravitational waves were detected; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Reasons 2 and 3 are correct

• Antimicrobials include antibiotics, antiviral, antifungal & anti-parasitic medication. Antimicrobial resistance is defined as a microorganism’s resistance to an antimicrobial drug that was once able to treat an infection by that microorganism. For example, in Multi-Drug Resistant TB (MDR-TB), the TB bacteria are resistant to two of the essential TB drugs, isoniazid (INH) and rifampicin (RMP).
• Causative Factors behind AMR: Microorganisms can develop resistance and become Superbugs mainly in two ways:
  1. Intrinsic resistance: It refers to the inherent resistance of certain bacteria to specific antibiotics.
  2. Acquired resistance: It refers to the resistance developed in bacteria due to genetic mutation.
• Causes behind Acquired Antimicrobial Resistance: Overuse and improper use of antimicrobials (Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases)
  • Greater access to over-the-counter antibiotic drugs in developing countries.
  • Using broad-spectrum antibiotics over narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
  • Inadequate dumping of pharmaceutical industry effluents.
  • Antibiotic use in livestock feed.

Reasons 1 and 4 are incorrect

• Genetic factors and chronic diseases may increase susceptibility to infections, but they are not directly responsible for the development of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

1. A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
2. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
3. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
4. A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Cas9 is a protein associated with the CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) system, which is a technology for gene editing. It acts as a pair of “molecular scissors” that can precisely cut DNA at specific locations. CRISPR-Cas9 is a technology that allows the modification, addition, or removal of specific DNA sequences, changing genome portions.

Answer: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
2. Hepatitis B unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
3. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses arc several times more than those infected with HIV.
4. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct

• Both Hepatitis B and HIV/AIDS spread through infected blood, unsafe sexual contact, and mother-to-child transmission.

Statement (b) is not correct

• A vaccine is available for Hepatitis B, while Hepatitis C currently has no vaccine.

Statement (c) is correct

• Worldwide, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C is much higher than those infected with HIV/AIDS.

Statement (d) is correct

• Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C infections can remain asymptomatic for years before causing liver damage.

Answer: (b) Hepatitis B unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine; Difficulty Level: Hard