UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2024

Practicing UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the latest exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2026, 2027, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2024 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Up to December 2023, the Government of India has set up Delimitation Commissions on four occasions.

Answer: (d) Four; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Constitution (71^st Amendment) Act, 1992, amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Eighth Schedule lists the languages officially recognised by the Government of India. It includes 22 languages, of which 14 were originally listed: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya (renamed Odiya in 2011), Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. The Sindhi language was added by the 21^st Amendment Act of 1967. Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the 71^st Amendment Act of 1992, while Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santali were added by the 92^nd Amendment Act of 2003.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs

Party	Leader
Bharatiya Jana Sangh	Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Socialist Party	C. Rajagopalachari
Congress for Democracy	Jagjivan Ram
Swatantra Party	Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The Jana Sangh was formed in Delhi on 21 October 1951, and the foundation was laid by Syama Prasad Mookerjee (After the country’s Independence, he was a part of the Congress government headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, but on April 19, 1950, Mukherjee resigned from the Cabinet).

Additional Information Reason for the formation of Jana Sangh: Opposition to the Nehru-Liaquat Pact (1950). Ban on RSS after Mahatma Gandhi’s assassination. 1975: Emergency imposed by Indira Gandhi; Jana Sangh opposed it; leaders jailed. 1977: Jana Sangh merged with Janata Party to fight Congress. Janata Party formed the government under Morarji Desai. 1980: Janata Party split due to internal conflict over RSS association. Formation of Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) Date: April 6, 1980.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• In the 1920s and 1930s, within the Congress, a considerable section was drawn towards the Socialist or Communist ideology and sought to work out a Socialist programme through the Congress. This section included leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Chandra Bose, Jaya Prakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev, Achyut Patwardhan, and Ram Manohar Lohia. In 1934, Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia, and others formed the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) within the Congress. Acharya Narendra Dev was appointed as the founding President of the Congress Socialist Party, while Jayaprakash Narayan served as the general secretary.
• Separation from Congress: In 1948, Congress amended its constitution to prevent its members from having dual party membership. This forced the Socialists to form a separate Socialist Party.

Pair 3 is correct

• In January 1977, after 18 months of Emergency, the government announced elections. Opposition leaders were released from jail, and major opposition parties quickly united to form the Janata Party under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan, with some Congress dissidents joining as well. Some other Congress leaders also came out and formed a separate party under the leadership of Jagjivan Ram (popularly known as Babuji). This party was named Congress for Democracy, and later merged with the Janata Party.

Pair 4 is incorrect

• In August 1959, the Nagpur resolution of the Congress called for land ceilings, takeover of the food grain trade by the state and adoption of cooperative farming. In response, Rajaji formed the Swatantra Party in 1959. It was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed cooperative farming and state trading. The Swatantra Party actively campaigned for a market economy. It wanted the government to be less involved in controlling the economy and believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom. The party was critical of the development strategy of state intervention in the economy, centralised planning, nationalisation and the public sector. Instead, it favoured the expansion of a free private sector.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements are correct about the constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Originally, the Indian Constitution established a dual polity comprising the Centre and the states, with provisions detailing their organisation and powers. The 73^rd and 74^th Amendments (1992) introduced a third tier, local government. The 73^rd Amendment added Part IX and the 11^th Schedule for panchayats, while the 74^th Amendment added Part IX-A and the 12^th Schedule for municipalities.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360.
• The Constitution of India outlines three categories of emergencies:
  • National Emergency (Article 352)
  • President’s rule or State Emergency (Article 356)
  • Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Statement 3 is correct

• Article 368, located in Part XX of the Constitution, outlines the Parliament’s power and procedure to amend the Constitution. It allows Parliament to add, vary, or repeal any constitutional provision through the prescribed procedure, exercising its constituent power. However, the Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), ruled that amendments cannot alter the Constitution’s ‘basic structure’

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

1. Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
2. Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
3. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
4. Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Seventh Schedule of the IC:
  • It has three lists dividing power between the Union and States concerning certain subjects:
  • List I (Union List): 100 subjects (originally 97)
  • List II (State List): 61 subjects (Originally 66)
  • List III (Concurrent List): 52 subjects (originally 47)
• The union list has many subjects, including the following:
  • Inter-State trade and commerce.
  • Inter-State migration
  • Inter-State quarantine
  • Corporation tax

PMF Concept Hack Use basic constitutional understanding and elimination here. Matters involving “inter-State” coordination are generally handled by the Union, not individual States. So, inter-State trade, migration, and quarantine are unlikely to be State subjects. Further, Corporation tax is clearly a major central tax, so it cannot be a State subject. Thus, the only reasonable statement is (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.; Difficulty Level: Medium

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

1. Article 15
2. Article 16
3. Article 19
4. Article 21

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• In 2012, Justice K S Puttaswamy, a retired High Court judge, initiated a writ petition in the Supreme Court challenging the constitutional validity of the Aadhaar scheme introduced by the UPA Government. Initially assigned to a Five-Judge Bench led by then Chief Justice Khehar, the matter was later referred to a Nine-Judge Bench. In a landmark decision on August 24, 2017, the Bench unanimously recognised the fundamental right to privacy for every individual, as guaranteed by the Constitution, specifically within Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) and Part III as a whole. The court also overruled two previous Constitution bench judgements delivered in 1954 and 1962 – M.P. Sharma vs Satish Chandra and Kharak Singh vs State of Uttar Pradesh, respectively. Both judgments held that the right to privacy is not protected under the Constitution. The right to privacy is also enshrined in Article 17 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), to which India is a party.

Answer: (d) Article 21; Difficulty Level: Easy

What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Duties 1 and 3 are correct

• The CDS is the head of the Department of Military Affairs. It acts as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-services matters. Also acts as a military adviser to the Nuclear Command Authority (chaired by the Prime Minister). The CDS is the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).

Duty 2 is incorrect

• The three Chiefs continue to advise the Minister of Defence on matters exclusively concerning their respective Services. CDS does not exercise any military command, including over the three Service Chiefs, to provide impartial advice to the political leadership

PMF Concept Hack Statement 2 can be eliminated easily because the Chief of Defence Staff is meant for coordination, not to exercise military command. Each Service Chief retains operational control, so the CDS does not exercise military command over them. Once Statement 2 is eliminated, only option (d) is left.

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

1. Operations Sankalp
2. Operation Maitri
3. Operation Sadbhavana
4. Operation Madad

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called: Operation Sadbhavana. It includes undertaking multiple welfare activities such as running of Army Goodwill Schools, Infrastructure Development Projects and Education Tours etc.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Indian Navy launched ‘Operation Sankalp’ in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman to ensure the safety and security of the Indian vessels transiting through the Strait of Hormuz.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Operation Maitri was a rescue and relief operation in Nepal by the government of India and Indian armed forces in the aftermath of the April 2015 Nepal earthquake.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Operation Madad was launched by the Southern Naval Command (SNC) at Kochi in 2018 to assist the state administration and undertake disaster relief operations due to the unprecedented flooding.

Answer: (c) Operation Sadhbavana; Difficulty Level: Easy

The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

1. Canada and the United States of America
2. Chile and Argentina
3. China and India
4. Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The International Boundary between Canada and the USA is the longest international border in the world, with around 8,891 kilometres from the Pacific Ocean in the west to the Atlantic Ocean in the east.
• The Russia-Kazakhstan Border holds the distinction of being the longest continuous international border globally and ranks as the second longest in total length, following the Canada-United States border.

Ten Longest Borders in the World
Canada-US border	8,891 km
Russia-Kazakhstan border	7,644 km
Argentina-Chile border	6,691 km
China-Mongolia border	4,630 km
Russia-China border	4,300 km
India-Bangladesh border	4,096 km
Mongolia-Russia border	3,485 km
Bolivia-Brazil border	3,423 km
India-Pakistan border	3,323 km
Mexico-United States border	3144.66 km

Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha: The Committee of Privileges recommended the constitution of an Ethics Committee during the 13^th Lok Sabha. In 2000, an ad hoc Ethics Committee was constituted. It became a permanent part of the LS in 2015.
• Ethics Committee of Rajya Sabha: In 1997, then Vice President (and RS Chairman) K R Narayanan constituted the Ethics Committee of the RS to oversee members’ moral and ethical conduct and examine cases of misconduct referred to it. The Rules applicable to the Committee of Privileges also applied to the ethics panel.

Statement 2 is incorrect, and statement 3 is correct

• Procedure for complaints: Any person can complain against a Member through another LS MP, with evidence of the alleged misconduct and an affidavit stating that the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”.
  • If the Member himself complains, the affidavit is not needed.
  • The Speaker can refer a complaint against an MP to the Committee.
  • The Committee does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or sub judice matters.
  • The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before examining a complaint.
  • It makes its recommendations after evaluating the complaint.
  • The Committee presents its report to the Speaker.
  • LS Speaker asks the House if the report should be considered.
  • There is also a provision for a half-hour discussion on the report.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

1. C. Rajagopalachari
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. T.T. Krishnamachari
4. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on 9^th December 1946. Two hundred and seven representatives, including nine women, were present. Following the French practice of appointing the oldest member as president of the assembly, Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was appointed as the Provisional President of the Assembly. On December 11, 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was appointed as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly. Later, when India became a republic on January 26, 1950, he took the oath as the first President of the Republic of India.

Additional Information Tiruvellore Thattai Krishnamachari (1899 – 1974) was an Indian politician who served as Finance Minister from 1956 to 1958 and from 1964 to 1966. He was also a founding member of the first governing body of the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) in New Delhi, India’s first independent economic policy institute, established in 1956.

Answer: (d) Dr Sachchidananda Sinha; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Government of India Act of 1935 proposed an all-India federation of British provinces and princely states. The Princely States had the option to join the Federation, and the nature of the relationship would differ from state to state, as determined by the Instrument of Accession. However, once extended, the Instrument of Accession would be irrevocable.
• The federation’s formation was conditional on the fulfilment of two conditions.
  • The princely states that would join the federation should fill at least 52 (half) of the 104 seats of the Council of State.
  • The aggregate population of states in the above category should be 50 per cent (half) of the total population of all Indian states.
• Since these conditions were not fulfilled, the proposed federation never came up. Hence, the Central Government continued until 1946 under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919. The Act proposed a Federal government for India and, for the first time, tried to bring British provinces and Indian States under one common constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced the principle of Dyarchy at the Centre. Subjects to be administered were divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Reserved Subjects such as foreign affairs, defence, and tribal areas were to be exclusively administered by the Governor-General on the advice of executive councillors. Executive councillors were not to be responsible to the central Legislature. Transferred subjects were administered by the ministers responsible to the central Legislature. The Governor-General had complete control over reserved subjects and effective control over transferred subjects.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 1 is a standard feature of the Government of India Act 1935 — it proposed an All India Federation consisting of British Indian provinces and princely states. Statement 2 can be eliminated using basic understanding. Under British rule, sensitive subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs were unlikely to be handed over to federal legislature and were kept under the Governor-General’s control.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

1. Kavyalankara
2. Natyashastra
3. Madhyama-vyayoga
4. Mahabhashya

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Bhasa was an important poet in the early phase of the Gupta period and wrote thirteen plays, including Madhyamavyayoga, Duta- Ghatotkacha, Dutavakya, Svapnavasavadattam, Pancharatra, Urubhanga, Karnabhara, Balacharita, and Charudatta. He mainly wrote in Sanskrit, but his dramas also contain a substantial amount of Prakrit. He was also the author of a drama called Dradiracharudatta, which was later refashioned as Mrichchhakatika, or The Little Clay Cart, by Shudraka. Notably, Bhasa uses the term yavanika for the stage curtain, indicating possible contact with Greek theatrical traditions.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Bhamaha was a scholar, presumably of the 7th century, who dealt with Sanskrit poetics. He is believed to have composed the Sanskrit Kavyalamkara and to have been a contemporary of Dandin. Apart from his Kavyalamkara, a commentary on Vararuchi’s Prakrita Prakasa called Prakrta-Prakasa is also attributed to Bhamaha.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Codified around the 2^nd century B.C., the Naṭyasastra of Bharatamuni is an epitome of the Naṭyaveda, an oral body of knowledge of performing art containing 36,000 verses known as the Gandharvaveda. The Naṭyasastra embodies a comprehensive set of rules that define naṭya (drama), abhinaya (performance), rasa (aesthetic experience), bhāva (emotion), sangita (music), among others. Recently, Bharat Muni’s Natyashastra have been inscribed in UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register.

Additional Information: What is UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register? It lists documentary heritage that has world significance and outstanding universal value. Launch: In 1992, to guard against the collective amnesia, calling upon preserving the valuable archive holdings and library collections worldwide. Implementation: The International Advisory Committee (IAC) is the main body responsible for advising UNESCO on the programme’s planning and implementation. Nomination: Any organisation or individual can nominate a documentary item for inscription on the register via UNESCO Member States through their National Commission for UNESCO (or relevant government body in charge of relations with UNESCO). Two proposals per UNESCO Member State are considered in each nomination cycle.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Patanjali, the notable grammarian who wrote the Mahabhasya (a comprehensive commentary on Panini’s Ashtadhyayi), was a contemporary of Pushyamitra Sunga. Kāśikā Vṛtti is also an important commentary on Ashtadhyayi, the foundational Sanskrit grammar text composed by Panini. It was written in the 7th century CE by Jayaditya and Vamana.

Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga; Difficulty Level: Hard

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

1. Prajnaparamita Sutra
2. Visuddhimagga
3. Sarvastivada Vinaya
4. Lalitavistara

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Many Indian monks travelled to China during this period, including Sanghabhuti, who was present in China between 381–384 CE and authored a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya.

Additional Information Important Indian monks who travelled to China during C. 300–600 CE: The best known among the Indian monks or monks of Indian origin who travelled to China are Kumarajiva (5th century), Paramartha (6th century), and Bodhidharma (6th century). Paramartha: Paramartha, a native of Ujjayini, was sent to China by a Gupta king in the mid-6th century. He spent 23 years there, never returning to India. Several of his translated and authored works were included in the Chinese Tripitaka. Bodhidharma: Bodhidharma travelled to China by sea. He was a staunch believer in the doctrine of shunyatavada (nothingness). He did not write any books, but his disciple Hui-ke went on to found the Chan school of Buddhism. Spread of Buddhism to Southeast Asia: Sarvastivada and Mahayana Buddhism were evident in north Myanmar from the 3rd century CE. By the 6th century, Buddhist and Shaiva influences were firmly rooted in Cambodia, with similar developments in the Malay peninsula, Java, and Sumatra. Mahayana and Shravakayana Buddhism arrived in Vietnam via India and China by the 3rd century. Buddhism was transmitted to Korea from China, and by the 6th century, had made an impact all over the Korean peninsula. In 538 CE, a Korean embassy arrived in Japan, armed with a Buddha image, Buddhist monks, and texts. Buddhism had officially arrived in Japan and was soon declared a state religion during the reign of regent prince Shotoku (573–622).

Option (a) is incorrect

• The important Mahayana Sutras include the Prajnaparamita Sutras, of which the Ashtasahasrika seems to be the oldest. The Prajñāpāramitā Sūtras focus on the concept of “Prajñāpāramitā,” which translates to “Perfection of Wisdom” or “Wisdom that has Gone Beyond.” Prajnaparamita is one of the six perfections of the Mahayana Buddhist paths toward enlightenment. Mahayana (Greater Vehicle) Buddhism is characterised by its teaching of emptiness (shunyata) and its emphasis on the path of the bodhisattva. The bodhisattva is one who has achieved enlightenment through the recognition of the emptiness of all concepts, yet remains engaged in the illusory world to release others from their suffering.

Option (b) incorrect

• In the 5^th century, the monk Buddhaghosha travelled to Sri Lanka. He translated several scriptural commentaries into Pali and wrote the Visuddhimagga (Path of Purification), which soon became a classic on Theravada doctrine and meditation.

Option (d) is incorrect

• The Lalitavistara (1st–2nd centuries), a hagiography of the Buddha associated with the Sarvastivada school but strongly tinged with Mahayana elements, is in Sanskrit and mixed Prakrit-Sanskrit.

Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Bodhgaya Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

 

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Shantiniketan is correct

• Santiniketan, a town in West Bengal’s Birbhum district, founded by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore, was added to UNESCO’s World Heritage List in 2023. It comprises Viswa Bharati University. Originally, Santiniketan began as an ashram or hermitage founded by Debendranath Tagore, the father of Rabindranath Tagore. Over time, it evolved into a centre for art, culture, and learning. It promotes open-air classrooms that foster a connection between students & the natural world.

Rani-ki-Vav is incorrect

• Rani-ki-Vav (Queen’s Stepwell): Built on the banks of the Saraswati River at Patan, Gujarat.
• Built: Initially built by Queen Udayamati in memory of her husband, King Bhima I of the Solanki dynasty, in the 11th century.
• Purpose: The stepwell was constructed as a religious as well as functional structure and designed as an inverted temple highlighting the sanctity of water.
• Architectural Style: Rani-ki-Vav was built in the Maru-Gurjara architectural style.
• National Monument: The property is protected as a national monument by provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites Act of 1958.
• World Heritage Site: In 2014, it was included in UNESCO’s World Heritage Site.

Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas is correct

• The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas has been inscribed on UNESCO’s World Heritage List in 2023. It consists of a collection of Hoysala temples. The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas is a serial property comprised of the three most representative Hoysala-style temple complexes constructed between the 12^th and 13^th centuries in the present State of Karnataka, namely the Channakeshava Temple in Belur, the Hoysalesvara Temple in Halebidu, and the Keshava Temple in Somanathapura.

Additional Information: Hoysala architecture Hoysala architecture is the building style of Hindu temples developed under the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries in Karnataka. It is influenced by the Western Chalukya architecture and is part of the Karnataka Dravida tradition of temple architecture in the Deccan. The temples are known for their detailed carvings on soapstone, which cover almost all the surfaces of the walls, pillars, and ceilings. Hoysala temples have a distinctive star-shaped plan, with multiple shrines arranged around a central hall or mantapa. The shrines have tower-like structures or vimanas on top, which are also decorated with carvings. Hoysala temples feature sculptures of deities, mythological scenes, animals, birds, dancers, musicians, and floral motifs. The sculptures reflect the religious diversity of the Hoysala empire, as they include Hindu, Jain, and Buddhist themes. Chennakesava Temple at Belur, Karnataka The Chennakesava Temple was built by King Vishnuvardhana in 1117 CE to commemorate his victory over the Cholas. The temple is dedicated to Vishnu and has a magnificent image of him as Chennakesava. The temple is also famous for its bracket figures (madanikas) that adorn the pillars of the hall. Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebidu, Karnataka The Hoysaleswara Temple was built by King Vishnuvardhana and his queen Shantala Devi in the 12th century CE. The temple is dedicated to Shiva and has two identical shrines facing each other. The temple is renowned for its extensive & intricate carvings that cover almost every inch of the walls. Kesava Temple at Somanathapura, Karnataka The Kesava Temple was built by King Narasimha III in 1268 CE. The temple is dedicated to Vishnu and has three shrines arranged in a trikuta (three-peaked) plan. Each shrine has an image of Vishnu in a different form: Kesava, Janardana, and Venugopala.

The Mahabodhi Bodhgaya Temple Complex at Bodhgaya is incorrect

• The Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya was included in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2002. It is located on the banks of the Niranjana River. The temple stands to the east of the Mahabodhi Tree, where Gautam Buddha is believed to have attained nirvana. The temple has a unique shape and stands 170 feet tall. The Mahabodhi Temple Complex is the first temple built by Emperor Asoka in the 3^rd century B.C., and the present temple dates from the 5^th–6^th centuries. It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely in brick.

Additional Information: UNESCO World Heritage Sites Related to Buddhism in India Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara (Bihar) Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi (Madhya Pradesh) Mahabodhi Temple Complex (Bodh Gaya, Bihar) Ajanta Caves (Aurangabad, Maharashtra) Ellora Caves (Maharashtra)

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It states that Parliament, while exercising its constituent power, may amend any provision of the Constitution by adding to it, varying it, or repealing it, following the procedure specified for this purpose. However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following countries:

1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 5
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 3 and 5 only

Explanation

Japan, Italy and South Korea are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates

• Countries such as Japan, Italy, and South Korea are frequently highlighted in the media for facing challenges related to low birth rates, ageing populations, or overall population decline.
  • In Italy, the average number of children per woman fell from 1.24 in 2022 to 1.2 in 2023, as per government data. Experts warn that if the current demographic trend persists, Italy’s population — currently around 59 million — could shrink by nearly 1 million by 2030.
  • Japan reported a decline in births for the eighth consecutive year in 2023, setting yet another record low.
  • In South Korea, government figures indicate an 8% drop in the fertility rate in 2023 compared to the previous year. (South Korea’s birthrate rose in 2024 for the first time in nine years).

Additional Information: What is the ‘fertility rate’ and how different it’s from ‘birth rate’? Both fertility rate and birth rate are indicators of population growth, but they are not the same. The fertility rate indicates the average number of children a woman of childbearing age is expected to have; a fertility rate of 2.1 is considered the “replacement rate.” On the other hand, the birth rate measures the number of live births occurring each year for every 1,000 people in a given population. The total fertility rate is essential for ensuring a stable population over time, as it allows each generation to replace itself, while the birth rate provides insights into the speed at which a population is expanding.

Nigeria and South Africa are incorrect

• Nigeria has a high population growth rate at 2.4%, which is sustained by high fertility at about 5.2 children per woman. The country has the world’s largest youth population and a median age of 18.1 years. About 70% of the population is under 30, and 42% is under the age of 15.
• South Africa’s fertility rate is above the replacement level of 2.1.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Article 109 of the Indian Constitution provides for the special procedure in respect of Money Bills. It states that:

Statement 2 is correct

• A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha); it can only be introduced in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Statement 3 is correct but statement 4 is incorrect

• Once the Lok Sabha passes a Money Bill, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations and the Rajya Sabha shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations and the House of the People may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States.
• If the Lok Sabha accepts any of the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations, the Bill is considered to have been passed by both Houses with those amendments.
• If the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations, the Bill is deemed to have been passed in its original form as approved by the Lok Sabha.
• If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within 14 days, it is also deemed to have been passed in its original form as passed by the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

Army	Airforce	Navy
Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant Commander
Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 3 only

Explanation

Only row 3 is correct

• The topmost ranks in the columns are the highest officer ranks, and they decrease as they go down the column.

Indian Army	Indian Navy	Indian Air Force
Field Marshal	Admiral of the Fleet	Marshal of the Air Force
General	Admiral	Air Chief Marshal
Lieutenant General	Vice Admiral	Air Marshal
Major General	Rear Admiral	Air Vice Marshal
Brigadier	Commodore	Air Commodore
Colonel	Captain	Group Captain
Lieutenant Colonel	Commander	Wing Commander
Major	Lieutenant Commander	Squadron Leader
Captain	Lieutenant	Flight Lieutenant
Lieutenant	Sub-Lieutenant	Flying Officer

Image Source: GoMilitary.in

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India

Select the Correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• After the enactment of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, Section 3 of the 1971 Act was substituted to redefine the Council’s composition. Under the amended provisions, the Council comprises:
  • The Governors of the concerned States
  • The Chief Ministers of those States
  • Three members nominated by the President
• The Union Home Minister was designated as the ex officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council (NEC) in 2018, following a Union Cabinet decision. However, he is not included as a member under Section 3 of the Act.

Additional Information North Eastern Council (NEC): It is the nodal agency of MoDNER overseeing the economic and social development of the NER. It was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 initially as an apex-level advisory Body, for securing balanced and coordinated development and facilitating effective coordination amongst the seven States of the North Eastern Region. Subsequent to the amendment of the NEC Act in December 2002, Sikkim was added as the 8th Member State, and the NEC was mandated to function as a statutory Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern Region. The headquarters of the council is situated in Shillong. Functions: The council discusses any matter in which some or all of the States represented in the Council have a common interest and advises the Central and State governments concerned, particularly concerning: Any matter of common interest in economic and social planning. Any matter concerning inter-State Transport and Communications. Any matter relating to Power or Flood-control projects of common interest. North Eastern Region (NER) It consists of eight states — Assam, AP, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, and Sikkim. It accounts for 7.9% of the total geographical area of the country. It shares its boundary with four countries viz, China, Myanmar, Bhutan and Bangladesh. The western side of the North-East is connected to the eastern part of the Indian subcontinent by a narrow land corridor, sometimes referred to as the Siliguri Corridor or “Chicken’s Neck“. Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MoDNER) It is responsible for the matters relating to the planning, execution and monitoring of development schemes and projects in the North-Eastern Region. This is the only Ministry with territorial jurisdiction.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18^th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• According to 128^th Constitution Amendment Bill (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (106^th Amendment) Act, 2023), the reservation of one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies shall come into effect after an exercise of delimitation is undertaken based on figures from the first Census that is conducted after the Act is enacted.
• The 18^th Lok Sabha is currently in session, following the declaration of election results on 4^th June 2024.

Additional Information 74 MPs (14%) elected to the 18th Lok Sabha are women. This is marginally lower than in 2019, when 78 women were elected.16% of these women MPs are under 40. Country Quota in Parliament Quota in Political Parties U.S.A No No UK No Yes France No Yes Germany No Yes Canada No Yes South Africa No Yes Australia No Yes

Statement 2 is correct

• It provides the reservation of one-third of seats in the LS and state Assemblies for women for fifteen years.

Statement 3 is correct

The Act provides for horizontal reservation, ensuring that one-third of the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are further reserved for women belonging to those categories.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 1 can be eliminated using current-affairs understanding—the provisions of Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam are linked to the next census and delimitation exercise, so they do not automatically come into effect from the current 18th Lok Sabha. Once Statement 1 is eliminated, only option (c) is left → 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Exercise MITRA SHAKTI is a Joint Military exercise between India and Sri Lanka.

Statement 2 is correct

• The ninth edition of the Joint Military exercise “Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023” was held in Aundh (Pune). The exercise was conducted from 16th to 29th November 2023. The aim of the exercise was to jointly rehearse the conduct of Sub-Conventional operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Scope of the exercise included synergising joint responses during counter-terrorist operations. Both sides practised tactical actions such as raids, search-and-destroy missions, and heliborne operations. In addition, Army Martial Arts Routine (AMAR), combat reflex shooting and Yoga was also part of the exercise curriculum.

Statement 4 is correct

• MITRA SHAKTI-IX was the first time that the annual exercise saw participation of the two Air Forces in addition to the two Armies, making it the first bi-service edition.

Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

1. a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
2. the parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
3. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
4. the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Writ of Prohibition (“To forbid”): Issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction it does not possess. While the writ of ‘Mandamus’ directs activity, the writ of ‘Prohibition’ directs inactivity.
• Against whom: Issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies and cannot be issued against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, or private entities.

Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Article 342 in the Constitution of India:
  • 342.(1): The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
  • (2): Parliament may, by law, include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid, a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.

Statement 2 is correct

• The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific, and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Article 112 says that the President shall, in respect of every financial year, cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the “annual financial statement“.
• Note: As per the UPSC official answer key, this statement is correct.

Statement 2 is correct

• Article 113 of the Constitution states that any proposal or estimate seeking the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India should be presented to the Lok Sabha in the form of a Demand for Grants. Demand for Grants is an expenditure estimate, including provisions related to revenue expenditure, capital expenditure, and grants, that is expected to be incurred in the next financial year. Hence, each ministry presents its own Demand for Grants in the Lok Sabha as part of the Union Budget. However, Article 113 (iii) prescribes that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the President of India’s prior approval.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

1. Bhupender Yadav
2. Nalin Mehta
3. Shashi Tharoor
4. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Dr Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s current Minister of External Affairs, is the author of both The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World and Why Bharat Matters. The India Way offers insights into India’s foreign policy strategies amid global uncertainties. Why Bharat Matters, published in 2024, delves into India’s evolving role on the global stage, emphasizing its cultural heritage and strategic initiatives.

Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Country	Reason for being in the news
Argentina	Worst economic crisis
Sudan	War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
Turkey	Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. All three pairs
4. None of the pairs

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Argentina’s annual inflation rate surged to 211.4% in December 2023, marking the highest level since the early 1990s. This significant increase was driven by a combination of factors, including a sharp devaluation of the Argentine peso and economic policies.

Pair 2 is correct

• On 15 April 2023, a civil war began during Ramadan between two rival factions of the Sudanese military government: the Sudanese Armed Forces under Abdel Fattah al-Burhan and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces under the Janjaweed leader, Hemedti. The war has created the world’s largest humanitarian crisis and worst displacement crisis, and it has led to Sudan becoming the only country in the world experiencing famine. India’s evacuation effort to bring back citizens stranded in Sudan was named Operation Kaveri.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Turkey did not rescind its NATO membership.

Answer: (b) Only two pairs; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
2. Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Suez Canal and the SUMED Pipeline are strategic routes for Persian Gulf crude oil, petroleum products, and liquefied natural gas (LNG) shipments to Europe and North America.
• The 200-mile long SUMED Pipeline transports crude oil northbound through Egypt from the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea. Crude oil flows through two parallel pipelines that have a total maximum flow capacity of 2.8 million barrels per day. The SUMED Pipeline is the only alternative route to transport crude oil from the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea if ships cannot navigate through the Suez Canal.

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• The Red Sea was in the news due to Houthi rebel attacks on commercial ships since late 2023, disrupting global trade routes. The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed tropical basin connected to the Indian Ocean through the Bab-al-Mandab Strait. It flows to the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal. It is located in a hot and arid region surrounded by deserts, experiences a climate with very low precipitation, often less than 100 mm (4 inches) annually, due to subtropical high-pressure systems and the influence of surrounding deserts.
  • The Red Sea supports a unique environment because of the lack of any permanent rivers that flow into it. It has an overall negative water balance (i.e. the evaporation is greater than the precipitation and combined river runoff).

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

1. Locomotives using fossil fuels
2. Ships using fossil fuels
3. Extraction of metals from ores
4. Power plants using fossil fuels

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• According to the EPA, the largest sources of SO2 emissions are from fossil fuel combustion at power plants (73%) and other industrial facilities (20%).cAnswer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
2. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In the event of a U.S. debt default, holders of Treasury Bonds may be unable to claim their payments promptly, as such a default reflects the government’s inability to fulfill its debt commitments, potentially delaying or denying payments to bondholders.
• U.S. government debt is not backed by physical assets such as gold or real estate. Rather, it is supported by the government’s “full faith and credit,” which relies on its power to tax, borrow, and print money.
• Thus, the lack of hard asset backing (Statement-II) is the reason bondholders can’t enforce payment in the event of a default (Statement-I).

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-l: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
2. Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• A syndicated loan is a large loan extended to a major borrower by a group of lenders working together. This arrangement helps distribute the risk, ensuring that no single lender is solely responsible for the entire amount if the borrower defaults.
• As a result, the risk of default is shared among multiple lenders, reducing individual exposure.
• Banks can give loans in the local currency viz. Indian Rupee or in foreign currencies.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Syndicated loans can involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit line, or a combination of the two

Answer: (X) Dropped;

Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India RBI alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• Digital Rupee or e₹ is India’s Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC). It is the digital form of India’s physical currency, the Rupee (₹). e₹ is issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in digital form and offers features similar to physical cash, like convenience of use, guarantee of RBI, finality of settlement, etc. e₹ is stored in the user’s digital wallet and can be used to receive/send money, and/or make payment for transactions, just like any physical ₹ note.
• In terms of Section 26 of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, every ₹ bank note shall be legal tender at any place in India in payment or on account for the amount expressed therein and is guaranteed by the Central Government. e₹, being a digital form of the ₹ bank note, is legal tender and is the liability of the Reserve Bank of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The digital rupee is not inherently insured against inflation. Its value can still erode due to inflation, just like physical currency.

Additional Information: Difference between e₹ and UPI? e₹ is a digital form of ₹ whereas UPI is a means of payment. In addition to being used for payments, e₹ also serves as a ‘store of value’, i.e., e₹ can be withdrawn from one’s bank account and kept separately in the e₹ wallet. Difference between cryptocurrency and CBDCs? Cryptocurrencies and CBDCs are both blockchain-based digital currencies. Private companies or individuals generally run cryptocurrencies. CBDC is controlled and tracked by a country’s central bank and corresponds to that country’s fiat currency. Bitcoin’s price may vary by hundreds or even thousands of dollars in a short period of time due to speculations. A CBDC issued by the Central Bank would (ideally) be worth as much as its physical counterpart. Investors often buy large quantities of Bitcoin or other cryptocurrencies and hold them in the hope of making a profit. CBDCs are not meant to be investment vehicles.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Explanation

Nayaputta is incorrect

• “Nayaputta” is associated with Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, rather than Gautama Buddha. The Pāli Nikāyas refer to him as Nigantha Nataputta.

Shakyamuni and Tathagata are correct

• Gautama Buddha was known by the following names:
  • Shakyamuni – The sage (muni) of the Shakya clan.
  • Mahamuni – The Great Sage.
  • Tathagata – One who has attained the enlightenment or the “Thus Gone One.”
  • Siddhartha – His childhood name.
  • Buddha – The Enlightened or Awakened One.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Archaeological Site	State	Description
Chandraketugarh	Odisha	Trading Port town
Inamgaon	Maharashtra	Chalcolithic site
Mangadu	Kerala	Megalithic site
Salihundum	Andhra Pradesh	Rock-cut shrine

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Chandraketugarh, located near the Bidyadhari River about 35 kilometres northeast of Kolkata in West Bengal, is a 2,500-year-old archaeological site that flourished from the pre-Mauryan to the Pala-Sena period. Once a thriving port city, it played a significant role in international maritime trade, being connected to the Bay of Bengal through the Bidyadhari and Padma rivers. The site is renowned for its exquisite terracotta sculptures, seals, coins, and pottery, reflecting the artistic and cultural excellence of its ancient inhabitants. Chandraketugarh is believed to have maintained early trade links with Southeast Asia, the Mediterranean region, and, indirectly, the Greco-Roman world.

Pair 2 is correct

• Inamgaon is located in the Pune district in Maharashtra. It is a post-Harappan Chalcolithic site. It is situated on the right bank of the Ghod River, a tributary of the Bhima. Multiple cultural phases, including the Jorwe Culture and the Malwa Culture, are found here. It is one of the most thoroughly excavated and well-reconstructed Chalcolithic sites on the Deccan plateau.

Pair 3 is correct

• Mangadu, in Kerala is an archeological site where megaliths are found in large numbers.

Pair 4 is incorrect

• Salihundam (on the banks of Vamsadhara river), a village in Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh, is an important Buddhist site from ancient Kalinga and a prominent tourist destination. Unlike the rock-cut caves of Ajanta and Ellora, the stupas, viharas, and chaityas at Salihundam are built of brick and stone, reflecting a distinct architectural style. During excavations, relic caskets, four stupas, a Chaityagriha, structural temples and a number of sculptures reflecting the three phases of Buddhism – Theravada, Mahayana and Vajrayana were found, dating back to about the 2nd century BC to the 12^th century AD.

PMF Concept Hack If one has analysed PYQs properly, UPSC had already asked about Chandraketugarh in the 2021 Prelims paper, and it is located in West Bengal, not Odisha. So, Row 1 is incorrect, and options (a) and (d) can be eliminated immediately. Now, among the remaining options, Inamgaon is a very commonly read Chalcolithic site from NCERTs and standard ancient history sources. Hence, Row 2 is clearly correct. Therefore, the correct answer becomes (b) 2 and 3.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

1. Krishnadevaraya
2. Narasimha Saluva
3. Muhammad Shah III
4. Yusuf Adil Shah

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Krishna Deva Raya (1509 – 29), maintained friendly relations with the Portuguese. Portuguese governor Albuquerque sent his ambassadors to Krishna Deva Raya. In 1510, Krishna Deva Raya permitted the Portuguese to build and fortify the factory at Bhatkal on the Arabian Sea coast in Karnataka.
  • Bhatkal: Bhatkal was the main port of the Vijayanagar Empire, where traders from around the world sold their goods, particularly horses and weapons for sugar, pepper, spices, and high-quality white rice. It is situated on the Arabian Sea coast in Karnataka
• Krishna Deva Raya also established a monopoly on Portuguese horses. The Portuguese even offered to buy the neutrality of the Raya by promising him assistance in recovering Goa from Bijapur and giving him a monopoly in the supply of horses.

Additional Information Veer Narasimha Raya, the elder half-brother of Krishnadevaraya, founded the Tuluva dynasty in 1505. He ruled the empire till 1509. In 1505, he gave permission to the Portuguese governor Francisco De Almeida to build the factory at Anjediva.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Saluva dynasty was founded by Saluva Narasimha, who reigned for only a brief period. (1485 – 1505 CE).

Option (c) is incorrect

• Muhammad Shah III was the sultan of the Bahmani Sultanate from 1463 to 1482. During his time, Mahmud Gawan, a Persian noble, became a prime minister and nominated the affairs of the state for the next 20 years.
• During the prime ministership of Mahmud Gawan, the Bahmani kingdom gradually expanded and reached its height of power and territorial limits.

Option (d) is incorrect

• By 1526, the Bahmani kingdom disintegrated into five independent sultanates:
  • Imad Shahi of Berar (1490 – 1574 CE): Founded by Imad-ul-Mulk. It was annexed by Ahmadnagar in 1574.
  • Nizam Shahi of Ahmadnagar (1490 – 1633 CE): Founded by Malik Ahmad. It was annexed by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in 1633.
  • Adil Shahi of Bijapur (1490 – 1686 CE): Founded by Yusuf Adil Shah. It was annexed by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1686.
  • Qutb Shahi of Golconda (1518 – 1687): Founded by Quli Qutb Shah (Quli Qutb Shah). It was annexed by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1687.
  • Barid Shahi of Bidar (1526 – 1619): Founded by Ali Barid. It was annexed by Bijapur in 1619

Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, statements: consider the following

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Answer: (X) Dropped;

Consider the following statements:

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither I nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Upanishad uses parables to convey complex philosophical concepts in a simple, relatable, and symbolic manner.
• Important Parables from the Upanishads:
  • Story of Uddalaka and Svetaketu: It is a brief dialogue between the father (Uddalaka) and his son (Svetaketu) from the Chandogya Upanishad. It teaches us that God exists in everything.
  • Story of Gargi: This is story of Gargi (who is known for her intelligence) and Yajnavalkya from Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. It teaches us that we should be humble and respect those who are wiser.
  • Story of Yama-Nachiketa: This is a story of Nachiketa, a boy who goes to the Yama (Lord of Death) to learn about death and what happens after it, from Katha Upanishad.

Statement 2 is correct

• Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. The origins of the Puranas may have overlapped to some extent with the Vedas, but their composition extended into the 4th–5th centuries CE, and in some cases even later. There are 18 Mahapuranas (great Puranas), and many more Upapuranas (secondary Puranas).

PMF Concept Hack StateRment 1 can be eliminated first because the phrase “There are no parables” is too absolute. Upanishads contain many stories, dialogues, and symbolic teachings, so such an extreme claim is unlikely. Statement 2 is a basic chronology fact—Upanishads are part of later Vedic literature and were composed much earlier than the Puranas.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The International Grains Council (IGC) is an intergovernmental organisation that seeks to:
  • Further international cooperation in grains trade;
  • Promote expansion, openness and fairness in the grains sector;
  • Contribute to grain market stability and to enhance world food security.
• Secretariat: London
• Members: Membership of the IGC consists of all the parties to the Grains Trade Convention, 1995.
• India is a member country.
• The IGC holds two regular Council Sessions each year, either in London or, by invitation, in member
• countries.
• Its functions are:
  • To oversee the implementation of the Grains Trade Convention, 1995;
  • To discuss current and prospective grain market developments;
  • To monitor changes in national grain policies and their market implications.
  • It services the Food Aid Committee, established under the Food Aid Convention 1999.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• It is not mandatory for a country to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat

PMF Concept Hack Statement 2 can be eliminated using basic trade understanding. International trade in rice and wheat cannot be restricted only to members of one organisation; such a condition would be too restrictive and impractical. Statement 1 is most likely correct because India is usually a member of major international councils related to key sectors such as grains and food trade.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

1. Chhau dance
2. Durga puja
3. Garba dance
4. Kumbh mela

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Garba is a traditional dance performed during the Hindu festival of Navaratri, worshipping feminine energy or ‘Shakti’. It was included in the 2023 UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage List.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Chhau dance, originating from eastern India, encompasses narratives from epics, folklore, and abstract themes, distinguished by styles from Seraikella, Purulia, and Mayurbhanj. It was included in the list in 2010.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Durga Puja is an annual festival celebrated primarily in Kolkata and other parts of India, dedicated to the worship of the goddess Durga over ten days in September or October. It was included in the list in 2021.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Kumbh Mela was included in 2017.

Answer: (c) Garba Dance; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
2. Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Since gaining independence in the 1960s, many countries in the Sahel have experienced violent extremism due to the confluence of weak and illegitimate governance, economic decline, and the worsening effects of climate change. In recent years, there have been military coups in Mali (2020 and 2021), Niger (2023), Burkina Faso (2022), Guinea (2021), and Chad (2021). These coups have weakened civilian institutions, disrupted international support, and in many cases worsened military responses to insurgencies, thereby contributing directly to regional instability.

Additional Information Sahel region: The Sahel stretches from the Atlantic Ocean to the Red Sea. The Sahara Desert surrounds it in the north and the Savannah to the south. As per the United Nations Integrated Strategy for the Sahel (UNISS), the region has ten countries, i.e. Senegal, Gambia, Mauritania, Guinea, Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Chad, Cameroon and Nigeria. Mali, Niger, Burkina Faso, Chad, and Mauritania form the G5 Sahel, the core of the Sahel region. With its abundance of energy and mineral resources, including uranium, gold, and oil, the Sahel is one of the world’s most endowed regions. For instance, Mali is Africa’s third-largest gold producer, and Burkina Faso is the fourth-largest and fastest-growing producer of gold in the African Continent, and Niger is the world’s leading source of uranium.

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
2. Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• Following the June 2023 decision to resolve six WTO disputes between the US and India through Mutually Agreed Solutions, India lifted additional duties on eight US-origin products, including apples, walnuts, and almonds. As a result, imports of American apples have increased significantly.

Statement II is correct

• The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 prohibits import, manufacture, use or sale of GM food without FSSAI’s approval.

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• A Speaker can be removed through disqualification proceedings or a no-confidence motion in the House. However, as per Article 94 of the Constitution, such a resolution can only be moved after a 14-day notice. Following their removal, a Speaker is allowed to attend the proceedings but is not permitted to preside over them.
• When a resolution for the removal of Speaker is under consideration:
  • The Speaker, although present, shall not preside over the proceedings.
  • The Speaker has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of, the House of the People.
  • Entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes.