UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2026

Practicing UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyze the latest exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2026 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2026

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

1. Nat Bhairavi
2. Kamavardhini
3. Hanumatodi
4. Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Indian national anthem, Jana Gana Mana, is composed in the Carnatic raga Dheera Shankarabharanam, which corresponds to the Hindustani classical raga Bilawal. The name Shankarabharanam translates to “the ornament of Shiva,” and the raga is widely regarded in music therapy for its calming and healing qualities.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Naṭabhairavi is a raga in Carnatic music. It corresponds to the Asavari thaat of Hindustani music.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Kamavardhini (popularly known as Pantuvarali) is known for evoking deep, intense longing; its Hindustani equivalent is Puriya Dhanashri (in the Poorvi thaat).

Option (c) is incorrect

• Hanumatodi, more popularly known as Todi, is a raga in Carnatic music. The equivalent of Carnatic Todi in Hindustani is Bhairavi thaat.
• Note: Dheera Shankarabharanam is associated with India’s National Anthem “Jana Gana Mana”. Thus, UPSC expects aspirants to develop an interconnected understanding of topics that appear in newspapers, government initiatives, cultural institutions, and national symbols, rather than trying to memorise every raga or art form separately. Questions of this nature are often designed by UPSC to maintain unpredictability and keep the cutoff balanced. It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific fact. We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam; Difficulty Level: Hard

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

1. Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
2. Providing support to Indian importers
3. Encouraging the export of cotton produce from India
4. Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Explanation

Statement a) is the correct answer

• The Hilton-Young Commission recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at 1s. 6d. (one rupee = 1 shilling and 6 pence). This was an artificially high (overvalued) rate compared to what many Indian nationalists and economists demanded (1s. 4d.). The British Government adopted this rate to facilitate the smooth and cheaper transfer of remittances from India to Britain. These included pensions of British officials, interest on public debt, military expenses, and dividends of British companies. A stronger rupee meant fewer rupees were needed to buy the required sterling for these remittances. It helped maintain India’s creditworthiness in the London money market, making it easier for the Government of India to raise loans in Britain.

Statement b) is incorrect

• An overvalued rupee made imported British goods cheaper for Indian buyers, benefiting British manufacturers and hurting Indian industries, which faced stiff competition from cheaper imports. Indian importers benefited, but this was not the main British motive.

Statement c) is incorrect

• The artificially fixed high exchange rate hurt Indian exports (including cotton).

Statement d) is incorrect

• The rate was fixed in relation to sterling, not primarily to prevent depreciation against gold.
• Note: This year marks the 100th anniversary of the landmark Hilton Young Commission report that paved the way for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). This question again shows how UPSC links static history with contemporary relevance. The Hilton-Young Commission (1926) has recently been in the news because 2026 marks the 100th anniversary of its recommendations, which ultimately paved the way for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Instead of asking directly about the RBI, UPSC framed a deeper conceptual question on the artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate. Such questions test whether students understand the broader colonial economic objectives behind monetary policies, rather than just remembering the name of a commission. The lesson for aspirants is clear: whenever an important institution, committee, anniversary, or report appears in current affairs, study not only the direct facts but also its historical background, objectives, economic implications, and connected themes. UPSC often asks questions from these deeper linkages rather than from surface-level information alone.

Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
2. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Emergence of urban life
2. Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• The references in Pali texts to coins such as kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika indicate the use of currency in ancient India. This, along with Archaeological findings of punch-marked coins, was associated with the sixth century BCE, which is often considered a major turning point in early Indian history.
• It is an era associated with:
  • Development of new towns or urban life (beginning of the second urbanisation in India)
  • Emergence of early states, kingdoms and empires
  • Growing use of iron
  • Flourishing arts, crafts and trade
  • Development of coinage (Coins or Metal Money): Metal coins first appeared around the sixth century BCE. The circulation of punch-marked coins shows a shift from barter-based exchange to a monetary economy where transactions increasingly used currency.

PMF Concept Hack This question is based on inference from the two statements. References to coins, punch-marked coins, and monetisation in Pali texts clearly suggest increasing trade and use of money, so the transition to a money economy can be inferred easily. At the same time, the growth of trade and the use of coins are closely linked to the emergence of urban life. Hence, from the statements themselves, both developments can be inferred.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 only
4. 3 and 4

Explanation

1 is incorrect

• Mallegitti Shivalaya is a 6^th-century rock-cut Hindu temple located in Badami, a town in the Bagalkot district of Karnataka. The temple was carved out of a single monolithic sandstone hill during the reign of the Chalukya dynasty. The temple is roofed with Dravidian shikhara.

2 is correct

• The Huchimalligudi Temple is a 7^th-century Hindu shrine in Aihole, Karnataka. Built by the early Chalukyas, it is famous for being one of the region’s earliest free-standing temples featuring a Nagara-style shikhara.

3 is correct

• Dashavatara Temple belongs to the Gupta period and is among the earliest temples linked with the development of the shikhara. Its curving Latina- or Rekha-Prasada-type shikhara marks it as an early example of the classical Nagara style of temple architecture.

4 is incorrect

• The Virupaksha Temple is the most intricate amongst the Pattadakal Group of Monuments. It was built by Queen Lokamahadevi around 740 CE to mark the victory of her husband King Vikramaditya II over the Pallava kings. This Dravidian-style architectural marvel features a pyramidal vimana heavily inspired by the Kailasanatha Temple in Kanchipuram.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognised in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

1. Deva (gods)
2. Yaksha (demi-gods)
3. Manushya (humans)
4. Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• According to Jainism, living beings have been trapped in the cycle of birth and death since time immemorial because of karmas attached to their souls. Liberation is possible only when the soul completely frees itself from these karmic bonds. Upon death, a living being may be reborn into one of four destinies (Gatis):
  1. Manushya: Human Beings
  2. Dev Lok: Celestial Beings
  3. Tiryancha: Animals
  4. Narak: Hellish Being

Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods); Difficulty Level: Medium

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

1. A joyous folk dance
2. Buddha in a meditative pose
3. The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
4. Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Bagh Caves, belonging to the Gupta period, are renowned for their mural paintings. The Hallisalasya painting in these caves is especially famous for its depiction of lively, joyous folk-dance scenes.

Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The earliest epigraphic evidence of the decimal place-value system in India is found in the Mankani Copper Plates (also known as the Sankheda plates), dated to 595–596 CE.

Statement 2 is correct

• By the ninth century, the place-value numeral system had become widely used across inscriptions in different parts of India, indicating its broad acceptance.

Statement 3 is correct

• Indian mathematical and cultural influence spread to Southeast Asia through trade and religious contacts. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.
• Note: Questions of this nature are often designed by UPSC to maintain unpredictability and keep the cutoff balanced. It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific fact. Therefore, students should approach these questions strategically rather than emotionally. An aspirant should attempt such questions only when they possess sufficient conceptual clarity or can eliminate options confidently through contextual understanding. If the question appears excessively specialised and no logical elimination is possible, it is often wiser to take a calculated decision to skip it rather than risk unnecessary negative marking. UPSC rewards smart decision-making as much as knowledge. The ability to identify which questions to leave is also an important examination skill. A good aspirant is not the one who attempts every question, but the one who maximises accuracy through intelligent risk management.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

1. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
2. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
3. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Inference 1 is correct

• While spindle-whorls have been found in Harappan excavations, the spinning wheel was a much later technological innovation. The absence of spinning wheels suggests spinning was done manually and, therefore, comparatively laborious. It was performed at the household level.

Inference 2 is correct

• The discovery of standardised weights and measuring scales with graduations shows that the exchanges were regulated by a precise system of weights. Such standardised weights show that the Harappan people were technologically and engineering-wise advanced.

Inference 3 is incorrect

• Harappan houses were being built around central courtyards with “their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms”. Large brick houses with courtyards, wells, and bathing areas indicate advanced urban planning. However, they do not suggest a common property system. In fact, the emphasis on individual household amenities and private residential space suggests a private property model.

PMF Concept Hack This is a good example of an inference-based UPSC question that can actually be solved through careful elimination, even if one does not know every factual detail. Statements I and II clearly support logical inferences: spindle-whorls indicate household spinning activity, while standardised weights and graduated scales reflect scientific and mathematical knowledge. However, Statement III becomes doubtful because the existence of well-built houses with private wells and courtyards does not automatically imply a “common property system.” In fact, private residential features suggest individual household ownership rather than collective property arrangements. Thus, by identifying the exaggerated or weak inference in Statement III, an aspirant can eliminate the options containing it and arrive at the correct answer. This shows that UPSC often rewards analytical reading and logical elimination as much as factual knowledge.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

1. The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
2. The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
3. The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
4. The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Explanation

Statement (c) is correct

• The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against a 30% increase in land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive rent extraction by zamindars and taluqdars.

Statement (a) is incorrect

• When the leadership of the Eka Movement fell into the hands of Madari Pasi, a radical peasant leader, it became violent, leading to the withdrawal of the Congress leaders. So, the movement was not thoroughly supported and organised by the Congress.

Statement (b) is incorrect

• The Eka Movement was not led by taluqdars; it was led by peasants, primarily tenants against Taluqdars. Bardoli Satyagraha was also not a movement of landless labourers.

Statement (d) is incorrect

• The Eka Movement was centred mainly in districts such as Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur and not Varanasi and Mirzapur. Bardoli is in South Gujarat and not specifically in Saurashtra.

Answer: (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

1. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
2. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 supports both I and II

• Ashma chakra (a stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) were used to draw water from wells. This supports the idea that well irrigation helped agriculture expand beyond river flood plains.

Statement 2 does not support the statements

• Tools like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle) indicate agricultural and forest-clearing activities, but they do not support irrigation through wells or the use of draught animals for lifting water.

Statement 3 supports Statement II

• Since oxen (draught animals) were already in use for heavy work like ploughing and cart-pulling, it is logical and historically accepted that the same animal power was employed to operate pulleys for drawing water from wells.

• Note: This question is highly inferential and analytical. One has to solve it primarily on the basis of the relationship between the given statements and the supporting evidence rather than through direct factual recall. Such questions show that UPSC is increasingly testing the ability to connect evidence to conclusions through logical inference and elimination, rather than mere factual memorisation.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Rigveda mentions rivers during the Vedic period, but it does not provide scientific evidence for Pleistocene shifts in river courses between the Indus and Ganga systems.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Robert Bruce Foote was a geologist known for prehistoric archaeology (Stone Age tools in India). He was not associated with explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna.

Statement 3 is correct

• This is the strongest scientific basis. River dolphins are freshwater species; their presence in both the Indus and Ganga-Brahmaputra river systems suggests that these drainage systems may have been connected in the past through river capture or stream diversion. The National Mission for Clean Ganga document notes that there was likely sporadic faunal exchange between the Indus and Ganges river dolphin populations via headstream capture between the Sutlej and Yamuna rivers. It also links this to the recognition of Platanista dolphins in the two river systems.

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

1. The meditation of the Buddha
2. The Buddha’s Enlightenment
3. The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
4. The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Early sculptors did not depict the Buddha in human form; instead, they showed his presence through symbols. The Empty Seat represents the Buddha’s meditation, specifically his state of deep concentration under the Bodhi Tree.

Symbol	Associated with
Lotus and Bull	Birth
Horse	Renunciation (Mahabhinishkramana)
Empty seat	Meditation of Buddha
Peepal tree	Enlightenment (Nirvana)
Wheel (Bodhi tree)	Dhammachakrapravartana (First sermon at Sarnath)
Stupa	Mahaparinirvana (Death)

Answer: (a) The meditation of the Buddha; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta: Chenab
2. Asikni: Jhelum
3. Parushni: Ravi
4. Yavyavati: Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 3 only
4. 4 only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In Vedic literature, Vitasta refers to the modern Jhelum River, not the Chenab. The word Asikni literally means “dark-coloured” and is identified with the modern Chenab River, not the Jhelum. The river Parushni mentioned in the Rigveda is correctly identified with the modern Ravi River. Similarly, the modern Beas River was known in ancient texts as Vipasha (Vipash).

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Amaravati Stupa was situated in the lower Krishna valley in present-day Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Amaravati Mahachaitya, originally a magnificent stupa, is now in ruins. It was one of the largest stupas in ancient India, larger than the one at Sanchi.

Statement 3 is correct

• Amaravati Art was known for its narrative relief sculptures depicting scenes from the life of the Buddha and other religious stories in white marble and limestone. It was predominantly Buddhist art, and during the Satavahana period, the Stupa at Amaravati was adorned with limestone reliefs depicting scenes from the Buddha’s life. Amaravati School influenced the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were taken to Sri Lanka and South-East Asia.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

1. Senguttuvan: Chera
2. Udiyanjeral: Chola
3. Nedunjeliyan: Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Senguttuvan is regarded by Chera poets as one of the greatest Chera rulers and is often referred to as the “Red Chera” or “Good Chera.” He conducted several successful military campaigns, including a victory over the Mokur chieftain. The post-Sangam Tamil epic Silappadikaram mentions his conquest of Viyalur in Nannan’s territory and the capture of the Kodukur fortress in the Kongu region. Senguttuvan also intervened in a Chola succession dispute, supporting one claimant while defeating the other nine rivals. Tradition further credits him with a northern expedition in which he fought an Aryan chieftain to obtain stone for the image of Kannagi, the heroine of Silappadikaram and revered as the goddess of chastity. It is said that he crossed the Ganga, performed a ceremonial bath in its waters, and then brought the sacred stone back to his kingdom.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Udiyanjeral was the ruler of the Sangam-era Chera dynasty and not the Chola dynasty.

Pair 3 is correct

• Nedunjeliyan was a title borne by several rulers of the Pandya dynasty, many of whom are mentioned in Sangam literature. Nedunjeliyan I is traditionally associated with the story of Silappadikaram and is believed to have died out of remorse after ordering the execution of Kovalan, the husband of Kannagi, who was later proven innocent. Nedunjeliyan II, on the other hand, is regarded as one of the most prominent Pandya rulers, noted for his military achievements and territorial expansion. Sangam traditions state that at a young age he defeated a powerful confederacy comprising the Cheras, Cholas, and five other chieftains in the famous battle of Talaiyalanganam, during which the Chera ruler was captured.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Although Bose won the Congress presidential election in 1939, he did not enjoy the support of Mahatma Gandhi and the Gandhian group within Congress. This was the fundamental reason for the formation of the Forward Bloc in 1939.

Statement 2 is correct

• Subhas Chandra Bose could win the Presidential election for the Tripuri Congress because all the left forces within the Congress supported him. The support of the left, particularly CSP, was crucial for Bose. However, they did not support Bose in Pant’s resolution. After the resolution was approved, Bose suddenly found himself isolated and finally resigned from the presidency of Congress in April 1939 and formed the Forward Bloc in May 1939 as a new party within the Congress.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Communists were generally sympathetic towards Bose at this stage and were not a major reason for his isolation.

Statement 4 is correct

• From 1936 onwards, all the left groups within Congress acted unitedly against the right wing of Congress. However, after the 1939 presidential election, the left leadership, particularly the CSP, realised that an effort to establish alternative leadership would weaken the national movement and isolate the Left from the mainstream. They also realised that Indian people could be mobilised into a movement only under Gandhiji’s leadership. Now, they chose to preserve unity within Congress rather than openly back Bose against the Congress leadership.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• In Awadh, many estates and forts were controlled by taluqdars who had exercised authority over land and local administration for generations. Before the arrival of the British, these taluqdars maintained armed retainers, constructed forts, and enjoyed considerable autonomy, provided they acknowledged the Nawab’s suzerainty and regularly paid revenue from their taluqs. However, after the annexation of Awadh, the British sought to curb the taluqdars’ influence by disarming them and demolishing their forts.

Statement 2 is correct

• A Summary Revenue Settlement was introduced in 1856. It was based on the assumption that the taluqdars were outsiders/interlopers who had acquired their lands through force and fraud. Therefore, their claims were largely ignored. Under the Summary Settlement, the British confiscated the estates of most taluqdars or zamindars. Figures show that in pre-British times, taluqdars held 67 per cent of the total number of villages in Awadh; by the Summary Settlement, this number had fallen to 38 per cent.

Statement 3 is correct

• British land revenue officers believed that by removing taluqdars, they would be able to settle the land with the actual owners of the soil and thus reduce the level of exploitation of peasants while increasing revenue returns for the state.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 1 can be eliminated first using basic colonial policy understanding. After annexation, the British sought to weaken the power of the Taluqdars of Awadh, so it is unlikely they would dispossess them of their estates while still allowing them to retain arms and forts. Statements 2 and 3 support each other logically—the British treated taluqdars as outsiders and attempted to collect revenue directly from peasants through the 1856 Summary Settlement.

Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) retained separate electorates for Muslims (introduced in 1909) and extended them to Europeans, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Sikhs. This was a major step in institutionalising community-based politics.

Statement 2 is correct

• This was a clear British strategy of “Divide and Rule”. After the Congress-League Lucknow Pact (1916) and rising nationalist sentiments, the British deliberately promoted communal divisions to weaken unified Indian nationalism.

Statement 3 is correct

• Deprived classes viewed separate electorates as safeguards for protecting their interests and securing political representation. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919 encouraged them to organize politically around the “favours” (special representation) offered by the British, contributing to community/caste-based alliances.

PMF Concept Hack This question can be solved through the central theme itself — the assertion talks about the rise of community-based political alliances after the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. Now check whether each statement strengthens that idea. Statement 1 clearly does, because separate electorates directly promote politics along community lines. Statement 2 also fits, as the British used such divisions to counter growing Indian nationalism. Statement 3 too supports the assertion, since groups receiving political benefits through separate electorates would naturally mobilize around them.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

1. Agra Gharana
2. Gwalior Gharana
3. Patiala Gharana
4. Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist from Karnataka and a distinguished exponent of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana. While he received some of his earliest training in the Gwalior Gharana style under Pandit Nilakanthabua Alurmath, he is renowned globally as a doyen of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana. He was especially known for mastery over rare ragas (aprachalit ragas) specific to this tradition, intricate melodic patterns, powerful and expressive khayal singing. He learned the intricacies of this gharana from Ustad Manji Khan and Ustad Burji Khan, who were the sons of the gharana’s founder, Ustad Alladiya Khan.
• Note: Aspirants should understand that questions of this nature are often meant to increase the paper’s depth and maintain cutoff balance. One should avoid mechanically memorising every artist-gharana combination. At the same time, this particular fact is directly covered in the PMF IAS Art & Culture book, showing the importance of having a strong command over standard sources. However, preparation should not remain limited only to static material. At the same time, students should avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly specific cultural questions if they lack sufficient clarity or the ability to eliminate options. UPSC rewards intelligent risk management as much as knowledge. If an aspirant is not reasonably confident, it is often better to leave the question and move to the next one rather than lose marks through blind guessing.

Additional Information: Gharanas of Hindustani Music Gharanas refer to the musical lineage of Hindustani musicians, each representing a style that distinguishes them from the other. The word gharana is derived from the Hindi word ‘ghar’ (‘house’) and refers to the place of origin of a particular musical ideology. Each gharana is associated with a particular region and has a lineage of musicians who transmitted their musical knowledge through generations. Gharanas play a crucial role in transmitting and preserving Hindustani classical music. Rigorous training under master musicians enables a disciple to inherit the technical aspects of music and its aesthetic sensibilities, improvisational techniques, and repertoire. Gharanas also serve as repositories of centuries-old musical knowledge while remaining dynamic and adaptable to changing artistic trends. The Gwalior gharana is considered as the oldest gharana. Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana: This gharana originated in the princely state of Jaipur in Rajasthan and was founded by Ustad Alladiya Khan. It is known for its adherence to the principles of raga purity, intricate ornamentation called gamak, and emotive expression. Its unique way of singing, called Khayal, with a focus on adding detailed decorations and complex rhythms to the music, is well known. Exponents include vocalists such as Kishori Amonkar and Mallikarjun Mansur. Gwalior Gharana: It is the oldest and most traditional school of Hindustani classical music. Ustad Hassu Khan and Ustad Haddu Khan are regarded as the founders of the Gwalior Gharana. Gwalior Gharana emphasises the purity of ragas and adheres to the traditional approach of ‘gayaki’ or singing style. Agra Gharana: It is based in Agra, Uttar Pradesh and traces its lineage to Ustad Ghagge Nazir Khan. The Agra Gharana emphasises clarity of diction, precision in rhythmic patterns, and a repertoire that includes classical Khayals and semi-classical forms such as Thumri and Dadra. Notable exponents include vocalists such as Ustad Faiyaz Khan, Ustad Vilayat Hussain Khan, and Ustad Khadim Hussain Khan. Patiala Gharana: It is rooted in the princely state of Patiala in Punjab and traces lineage to Ustad Ali Baksh and Ustad Fateh Ali Khan. It is characterised by its robust and emotive renditions and compositions in both classical and semi-classical genres, reflecting the diverse cultural influences of the Punjab region. The technique of the Patiala gharana is characterised by a gentle approach, intricate vocal embellishments, and a rich repertoire of bandishes (structured summaries of ragas). Exponents include Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, Ustad Barkat Ali Khan, and Ustad Amanat Ali Khan.

Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana; Difficulty Level: Hard

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

1. Rigveda
2. Atharvaveda
3. Ashtadhyayi
4. Arthashastra

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The term kshetra-patni, meaning ‘mistress of the field’, originates in the Atharvaveda (specifically in hymns related to agriculture).
• Note: We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly unconventional and obscure questions.

Answer: (b) Atharvaveda; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:

1. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
2. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
3. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Relationship 1 is correct

• BUR-4 data recording a 7.93% decrease in GHG emissions in 2020 provides empirical evidence consistent with India’s long-term emission reduction trajectory under LT-LEDS. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is the country’s official long-term roadmap for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It was submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) during the COP27 held at Sharm el-Sheikh in November 2022.
• India’s LT-LEDS outlines seven major strategic transitions:
  • Low-carbon development of the electricity sector in line with developmental needs.
  • Creation of an integrated, efficient, inclusive and low-carbon transport system.
  • Promotion of climate-resilient urban design, energy and material efficiency in buildings, and sustainable urbanisation.
  • Economy-wide decoupling of economic growth from emissions through an efficient, innovative and low-emission industrial system.
  • Promotion of CO₂ removal technologies and related engineering solutions.
  • Expansion of forest and vegetation cover in harmony with socio-economic and ecological considerations.
  • Strengthening the economic and financial framework required for low-carbon development and the long-term transition towards net-zero emissions by 2070.

Relationship 2 is correct

• Statement I implies a long-term, gradual approach to net-zero by 2070. Statement III argues for quick, short-term targets. These two approaches directly contradict each other.

Relationship 3 is incorrect

• Since Statements I and III contradict each other, they cannot together establish any shared premise, including long-term sustainability.

PMF Concept Hack This question can be solved easily by analysing the relationships carefully. Relationship 3 itself contradicts Statement I because the Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy is based on a long-term transition approach, whereas Statement III talks about quick short-term targets. So, all options containing 3 can be eliminated. Now only two options remain — 1 only and 1 and 2 only. Since Relationship 1 appears in both, it is most likely correct. Relationship 2 is also clearly true because Statement III directly contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 2

Answer: (b) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2. They have specialised brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Western Hoolock Gibbon is India’s only ape species and is found in North-east India, especially in Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary, Assam. It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 is correct

• Hoolock gibbons are highly arboreal and are adapted for brachiation, meaning they move by swinging from branch to branch using their long arms. This helps them travel efficiently through the forest canopy.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• They do not have a strong, heavy gorilla-like build. Gibbons are relatively small, light-bodied apes with long arms, specially adapted for fast canopy movement and swinging between trees.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Mangroves do reduce tidal and wave energy, but they do not store freshwater in a way that makes them ideal for paddy cultivation.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Mangroves are salt-tolerant, not salt-sensitive. Their roots can exclude or manage salt to survive in saline conditions, but they do not convert coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.

Statement 3 is correct

• Mangroves act as natural bio-shields by reducing the impact of tidal surges, cyclones, waves and coastal erosion. They also support rural livelihoods through fisheries, fuelwood, honey, fodder and other biomass-based resources.

PMF Concept Hack Statements 1 and 2 can be eliminated using basic ecological understanding of Mangrove. Mangroves are adapted to saline environments, but they are not meant for converting coastal regions into freshwater cultivation or aquaculture zones. Phrases such as “ideal sites for paddy cultivation” and “converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones” render the statements unrealistic. Statement 3 correctly captures the climate-resilience role of mangroves—they act as natural bio-shields against tidal surges and also support livelihoods through biomass and coastal resources. Hence, only Statement 3 is correct → (d)

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo shipping hub to reduce reliance on foreign and eliminate the need for collaborations.
2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Recently, the Vizhinjam International Seaport (VIS) was inaugurated in Kerala, marking India’s entry into the deep-water transhipment infrastructure space. It is designed as an international trans-shipment hub, not exclusively as a domestic cargo hub.
  • Deepwater Transshipment Port is a port where containers are transferred between ships en route to final destinations; critical for handling international cargo efficiently.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The port focuses on ultra-large container vessels and trans-shipment logistics, not passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.

Statement 3 is correct

• Significance of Vizhinjam Port:
  • Handles Ultra-Large Vessels: Natural depth of 18-20 meters supports large ships.
  • Low Sand Drift: Its curvilinear coastline minimises siltation, reducing the costs of maintenance and dredging.
  • Geostrategic Location, thus reducing dependency on foreign ports. Previously, 75% of India’s transhipment cargo was routed through Colombo, Singapore or Jebel Ali. Just 10 nautical miles from key international shipping lanes linking Europe, the Gulf and the Far East.
  • Indigenous Tech Integration: Features India’s first semi-automated port system, AI-driven control room and Indigenous Vessel Traffic Management System (VTMS).
  • Efficient Turnaround: Real-time traffic updates and optimised ship handling improve turnaround time and operational efficiency.
  • Complements Sagarmala Programme: Strengthens India’s port-led development and integration into global maritime value chains.
  • Readiness for Global Cargo Demand: Ability to serve Ultra Large Container Vessels (ULCVs) directly enhances India’s integration into global supply chains.

PMF Concept Hack Statements 1 and 2 can be eliminated using basic understanding. A major international transshipment port is not built exclusively for domestic cargo or mainly for tourism and heritage shipping. Words like “exclusively” and “primarily” make these statements too restrictive and unrealistic. Statement 3 correctly reflects the real purpose of Vizhinjam Port—its natural deep draft and strategic location help reduce dependence on foreign transshipment hubs and strengthen India’s position in regional maritime trade. Hence, only Statement 3 is correct → (d)

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
2. It flows through three countries.
3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

1. Indus
2. Brahmaputra
3. Sutlej
4. Teesta

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Satluj is an antecedent river. Antecedent rivers existed before the final uplift of the Himalayas and maintained their course by cutting deep gorges as the mountains rose.
• It originates in Tibet/China, enters India through Himachal Pradesh, and then joins the Chenab River (Indus system) in Pakistan.
• The Sutlej does not directly enter the sea and does not form a deltaic distributary system.

Answer: (c) Sutlej; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct

• Uttar Pradesh shares boundaries with 8 Indian States: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Bihar. It also touches Delhi, which is a Union Territory/NCT, and has an international boundary with Nepal.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Rajasthan has a long international boundary with Pakistan (~1070 kms), but it is not the longest international border among Indian States. The India-Bangladesh border is 4,096.70 km long and runs along West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. West Bengal alone has 2216.7 km, which is longer than Rajasthan’s international boundary with Pakistan

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Sikkim shares a boundary with only one Indian State, West Bengal, while it borders Tibet/China, Bhutan and Nepal internationally. Sikkim is not the only such State. Meghalaya also shares its boundary with only one Indian State, Assam, while it borders Bangladesh on the south and west.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland reflects the success of sustained local conservation efforts. Earlier, large-scale hunting of Amur Falcons was reported in Nagaland, but community participation, awareness campaigns, and protection measures helped turn the area into a major safe stopover site for these migratory birds.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Tracking technologies help scientists study and monitor the migration route of Amur Falcons, but they do not “guide” the birds back to their stopover sites. Migratory birds navigate naturally using biological and environmental cues.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Amur Falcons are migratory birds, not permanent residents of India. They use parts of India, including Nagaland, as a stopover during migration, mainly before continuing towards Africa.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative does not encourage monoculture. It promotes crop diversification and the integration of crops with allied activities such as horticulture, livestock, fisheries, agroforestry, and apiculture.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• RAD is focused on rainfed areas, not on expanding rice cultivation in irrigated regions. The operational guidelines state that RAD was made operational to mainstream the development of rainfed areas in a sustainable manner.

Statement 3 is correct

• RAD under NMSA focuses on the Integrated Farming System (IFS) for enhancing productivity and minimising risks associated with climatic variability.

PMF Concept Hack Statements 1 and 2 can be eliminated using basic understanding. A sustainable agriculture programme is unlikely to encourage monoculture, since diversification is important in rainfed farming. Similarly, a rainfed-area initiative focusing on irrigated rice cultivation also sounds mismatched.

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Eri silk from Assam received Oeko-Tex certification, guaranteeing chemical-safe textile manufacturing and enabling Indian exporters to compete in high-end global markets.

Statement 2 is correct

• The certification verifies that Eri silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards for premium eco-conscious markets.

Additional Information: Oeko-Tex Certification Oeko-Tex Certification is a globally recognised standard that ensures textiles are free from harmful substances and produced under environmentally friendly conditions. It assesses materials for safety and sustainability throughout the production process. Achieving this certification boosts consumer confidence and marketability by validating the product’s adherence to rigorous health and environmental standards Additional Information: Eri Silk Often referred to as “peace silk,” a unique and sustainable textile from the Eri silkworm (Samia ricini). Unlike traditional silk, where the silkworm is killed to extract the thread, Eri Silk is harvested after the moth has naturally emerged, making it a vegan and humane option. This method aligns with ethical and eco-friendly practices. Eri Silk has a slightly coarse texture compared to traditional silk but is valued for its warmth and durability. It has a natural, matte finish and is often used in garments, home textiles, and crafts. The natural colour of the Silk ranges from cream to light brown, but it can be dyed in various shades. It is a GI product of Assam, recognised for its origin and unique traditional production methods.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1. Bahrain
2. Syria
3. Qatar
4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea, which form part of the wider Indian Ocean maritime route. The Persian Gulf is a shallow marginal sea in the Indian Ocean, sandwiched between the Arabian Peninsula and southwestern Iran. Iran, Oman, UAE, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, Iraq, and Saudi Arabia border it. It connects to the Indian Ocean via the Strait of Hormuz. Syria lies on the east coast of the Mediterranean Sea, not inside the Persian Gulf. Egypt borders both the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. From the Red Sea side, ships can reach the Indian Ocean through the Bab-el-Mandeb–Gulf of Aden route, not through Hormuz.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

1. Ecuador
2. Peru
3. Bolivia
4. Colombia

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Tungurahua Volcano is located in the Ecuadorian Andes, near the city of Baños. UNESCO officially recognised it as a Global Geopark on 10 April 2025, along with Napo Sumaco, both in Ecuador.
• Note: Questions of this nature are often meant to increase the paper’s depth and maintain cutoff balance. UNESCO had added more than 15 new Global Geopark sites, and it is neither practical nor necessary for aspirants to memorize every single site and its exact location mechanically. Such questions are often “bouncer” questions meant to test the outer limits of factual awareness. Aspirants should therefore avoid spending disproportionate time and energy trying to mug up exhaustive lists of every UNESCO addition, park, or designation. The smarter strategy is to focus on major and repeatedly discussed sites, especially those connected with India, important geographical themes, environmental significance, or recurring current affairs relevance.

Additional Information: What are UNESCO Global Geoparks (UGGp)? UGGp are single, unified geographical areas where sites and landscapes of international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of protection, education and sustainable development. The UNESCO Global Geoparks designation now includes 229 sites across 50 countries. As of April 30, 2025, India does not have any UNESCO Global Geoparks. Criteria to be a UNESCO Global Geopark: Geological Heritage of International Value: Must have geological heritage of international value. Effective Management Structure: UNESCO Global Geoparks are managed by a body having legal existence recognised under national legislation. Visibility: UNESCO Global Geoparks promote sustainable local economic development mainly through geotourism. To stimulate geotourism in the area, it is crucial that a UGGp has visibility. Networking: Membership of the Global Geoparks Network (GGN) is obligatory for UGGp. Founded in 2004, the Global Geoparks Network (GGN) is a legally constituted not-for-profit organisation with an annual membership fee. Often referred to as “peace silk,” a unique and sustainable textile from the Eri silkworm (Samia ricini).

Answer: (a) Ecuador; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Madhav National Park, located in Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, was formally declared India’s 58^th Tiger Reserve in March 2025 by the NTCA.

Statement 2 is correct

• Sakhya Sagar, a man-made lake within the park, was designated a Ramsar Site in 2022.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The park lies entirely within Madhya Pradesh and does not share its area with Rajasthan.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The overall climate of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands is “humid, tropical coastal climate”, with proximity to the equator and sea ensuring a hot, humid and uniform climate.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands receive rainfall from both the south-west monsoon and the north-east monsoon due to their equatorial-maritime location in the Bay of Bengal. During the south-west monsoon, moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean bring heavy rainfall, while the north-east monsoon adds rainfall after picking up moisture over the Bay of Bengal.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The maximum precipitation is between May and December, not between December and May. Hence, this statement reverses the rainfall period and becomes incorrect.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The western coastal plains are an example of a submerged coastal plain. Due to its submergence, it is a narrow belt that provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Peninsular Block has generally remained a rigid block, except for some parts of its western coast which are submerged beneath the sea, and some other parts changed due to tectonic activity.

Statement 2 is correct

• The hills in the peninsular region are mainly of the relict type (residual hills). They are the remnants of the hills and horsts formed many millions of years ago. These hill ranges, along with river valleys, separate the plateaus of the Peninsular region. E.g., Aravali hills, Nallamala hills, Javadi hills, Veliconda hills, Palkonda range and Mahendragiri hills.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Deep gorges and V-shaped valleys formed by fast-flowing youthful rivers are associated with the Himalayas and other young fold mountains, not the old Peninsular Block. The river valleys in the Peninsula are shallow and have low gradients, whereas the Himalayas have fast-flowing rivers that form gorges and V-shaped valleys.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

1. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
2. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
3. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Relationship 1 is correct

• Sagarmala’s stated goal is port-led growth through coastal infrastructure. Actual outcomes like growth in coastal shipping and improved port rankings show this strategy worked, so Statement II validates Statement I.

Relationship 2 is correct

• Sagarmala 2.0 pursues the same port-led development goal but adds innovation and a 2047 national vision on top. It extends, not replaces, Statement I.

Relationship 3 is incorrect

• Statement I talks about infrastructure as a foundation. Statement III talks about innovation built on that foundation. One does not negate the other.

PMF Concept Hack This question is best solved through relationship analysis rather than factual memorisation. First, Relationship 3 can be eliminated easily because there is no contradiction between Statement III, which talks about innovation built on that foundation. One does not negate the other. Now only (a) 1 only and (b) 1 and 2 remain. Relationship 1 is naturally correct because Statement II describes positive outcomes (better shipping growth and port rankings), which validate the strategy mentioned in Statement I. Relationship 2 is also logically correct because Statement III clearly takes the original Sagarmala vision forward into a future-oriented innovation and maritime hub framework.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Rhynchostylis retusa is an epiphytic orchid, meaning it grows on trees rather than in soil.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The species is not endemic to North-east India. It is found across Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and extends to China, Indochina, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines.

Statement 3 is correct

• It is the state flower of both Arunachal Pradesh and Assam, where it is known as Kopou Phool and is integral to Bihu traditions.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1. They acted as army fortresses.
2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Moidams are royal burial mounds built by the Tai-Ahom dynasty over roughly 600 years, from the 13th to the 19th century. They served as burial grounds for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles, containing their remains along with grave goods. They were not fortresses, recreation centres, or battle drill centres. All other options describe military or leisure functions, which are incorrect.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.

Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?

1. Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
2. Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
3. Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
4. Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• FAO’s “Four Betters” under Blue Transformation are: better production, better nutrition, a better environment, and a better life. This is part of FAO’s Strategic Framework 2022-31.
• Note: We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly unconventional and obscure questions.

Additional Information UNOC is the main United Nations conference supporting SDG-14 (Life Below Water). It operates under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Conference Series: Held in 2017 (New York), 2022 (Lisbon), and 2025 (Nice); next in 2028 (Chile & South Korea). Multi-Stakeholder: Involves states, UN agencies, scientists, the private sector, and civil society.

Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect

• Changes in Lake Turkana’s water levels affected fault movement & magma generation in Lake Turkana.
• It is the world’s largest permanent desert lake and the largest alkaline lake, mainly situated in Kenya’s Great Rift Valley. Its northern end extends into Ethiopia.

Statement 3 is correct

• Known as “Jade Sea” for its turquoise colour, its basin was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1997. The Turkana Basin is a significant paleoanthropological site, often referred to as the “Cradle of Humankind” due to numerous hominin fossil discoveries. Three rivers, Omo, Turkwel, and Kerio, feed the lake, with the Omo River contributing nearly 90% of the total inflow. It has the world’s largest breeding colony of Nile crocodiles.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

1. Uttarakhand REDD+ project
2. ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
3. Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
4. Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project, located in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, is India’s first Plan Vivo-certified REDD+ project, registered under the Plan Vivo standard in 2011.

Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Genetic medicines aim to replace defective genes, repair faulty genes, silence harmful genes, or compensate for missing gene function.

Statement 2 is correct

• Genetic medicines require delivery systems called vectors/carriers such as engineered viruses (viral vectors) and lipid nanoparticles (LNPs). These help deliver genetic material into target cells.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Genetic medicines generally target a specific gene, specific DNA segment or RNA pathway. They do not alter the entire DNA sequence of an organism.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimisation to minimise prediction errors.
3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Large Language Models (LLMs) are advanced generative AI models trained on massive text datasets to understand, generate and manipulate human language with high accuracy. They are primarily built using deep learning techniques and transformer architectures. LLMs predict text by calculating probabilities for possible next tokens/words, and selecting one based on probability (sometimes with controlled randomness).

Statement 2 is correct

• LLMs are trained using optimisation algorithms (like gradient descent) to reduce prediction error during training.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• LLMs can reflect biases present in training data, societal patterns, internet content, and model design choices. Hence, outputs may contain bias despite mitigation efforts.

PMF Concept Hack Statements 1 and 2 describe the basic working of a large language model and sound technically reasonable. LLMs predict the next word based on probabilities and improve through mathematical optimisation that reduces prediction errors. Statement 3 can be eliminated easily because saying LLMs produce “unbiased outputs” is too absolute and unrealistic. AI models depend on training data and can reflect biases present in that data.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Stealth objects are designed to have a very small Radar Cross-Section (RCS) so that they reflect minimal radar signals back to the radar receiver. They are also coated with Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM) that absorb electromagnetic waves and reduce radar reflection.

Statement 2 is correct

• Stealth technology is not completely invisible to radar. Certain radar frequencies, especially low-frequency radars such as VHF and UHF bands, may detect stealth objects because stealth shaping and coatings are generally optimised against higher-frequency radar bands.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Metamaterials are generally researched and used to reduce or manipulate electromagnetic wave reflection and scattering, not to increase scattering. The objective of stealth technology is to minimise detectability by reducing the reflection of radar signals.

Additional Information Metamaterials are artificially engineered materials designed to exhibit properties not found in naturally occurring materials, especially in their interaction with electromagnetic waves. Their properties depend more on their structure (arrangement of unit cells) than on their chemical composition. They can manipulate electromagnetic waves in unusual ways. Properties of Metamaterials: Negative refractive index: It allows electromagnetic waves to bend in unconventional ways not seen in natural materials. Wave control capability: It enables precise manipulation of light, sound, or other waves. Structural dependence: It ensures that properties arise from engineered structure rather than composition. Customisability: It allows the design of materials for specific advanced technological applications

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• A black box is an electronic flight recording device installed in aircraft to help investigators determine the cause of a crash or technical failure. Painted bright orange or yellow. It reconstructs the sequence of events leading to an accident, enhancing safety and accountability. Mandatory on all commercial aircraft since 1967 to improve air safety standards. The Underwater Locator Beacon on a black box emits ultrasonic acoustic signals, not red light pulses, to aid underwater detection.

Statement 2 is correct

• Black boxes record both cockpit voice and flight data through two separate components: the Cockpit Voice Recorder and the Flight Data Recorder.

Statement 3 is correct

• The crash survivable memory unit is enclosed in stainless steel or titanium.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1. It is decarbonised hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) is known as Blue Hydrogen, not Green Hydrogen. Green Hydrogen is produced without fossil fuels.

Statement 2 is correct

• Green Hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity generated from renewable energy sources such as solar and wind power.

Statement 3 is correct

• The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to significantly reduce carbon emissions and targets the abatement of nearly 50 million metric tonnes (MMT) of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

PMF IAS Hack Statement 1 can be eliminated easily by any aspirant having basic awareness of Green hydrogen. Hydrogen produced from natural gas with CCS refers to Blue Hydrogen, not Green Hydrogen. Once Statement 1 is eliminated, only the combination containing Statements 2 and 3 is left. So, even if one is not fully aware of Statement 3, the answer can still be reached through elimination.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) was established in 2020, it is a single-window, independent, nodal agency that functions as an autonomous agency in the Department of Space (DOS). It facilitates private sector participation in space and serves as a single-point interface for space-related activities. It also works as an interface for the exchange of technologies, procedures, and best practices between NGEs (non-government entities) and government companies.
• Headquarters: Bopal, Ahmedabad.

Statement 2 is correct

• Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched a rocket powered by the world’s first single-piece 3D-printed rocket engine, marking a major milestone in private space technology.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Skyroot Aerospace has developed launch vehicles such as the Vikram series and cryogenic engine technologies, but it has not developed liquid fuel for the GSLV. The GSLV is developed and operated by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Drone swarms generally communicate using conventional radio frequencies such as Wi-Fi bands, RF links, or military communication bands. The Terahertz band is still largely experimental and is not the standard communication medium for operational drone swarms.

Statement 2 is correct

• Individual drones in a swarm can communicate with one another through networked communication systems, enabling coordinated movement, autonomous decision-making, and swarm intelligence.

Statement 3 is correct

• GPS Spoofing means a cyberattack that uses false GPS signals to mislead navigation systems. Attackers mimic legitimate GPS signals, tricking systems into perceiving incorrect locations, speeds, or altitudes. It is a commonly used counter-drone technique in which false GPS signals are transmitted to mislead drones regarding their actual position, thereby disrupting or neutralising drone swarm operations.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to Genome India Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Genome India Project, initiated in 2020, is not a part of the Human Genome Project. The Human Genome Project was an international initiative completed earlier to map the entire human genome, whereas the Genome India Project is an independent Indian initiative focused on India’s population genetics.
  • Human Genome Project is a publicly funded international collaborative research project aimed at: Determining the sequence of chemical base pairs which make up human DNA, & Identifying & mapping all of the genes of the human genome. It was formally launched in 1990 and finally declared complete in 2003.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Genome India Project is funded and coordinated by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

Statement 3 is correct

• The primary aim of the Genome India Project is to create a comprehensive catalogue of the genetic diversity of the Indian population, which can support precision medicine, disease research, and public health planning.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.
2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• National Quantum Mission aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with approximately 50–1000 physical qubits over different stages of implementation.

Statement 2 is correct

• The implementation of the National Quantum Mission includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in leading academic institutions and national R&D laboratories across India, focusing on: Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing and Metrology, and Quantum Materials and Devices.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep-sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) with an aim to develop technologies for exploring and sustainably utilising the deep ocean’s living and non-living wealth.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Ministry of Earth Sciences, through the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, is developing a manned submersible ‘Matsya 6000’, which aims to carry three people to a depth of 6000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors for ocean exploration and observation. The manned submersible Matsya 6000 is likely to be realised by 2026.

Statement 3 is correct

• India launched the Samudrayaan Project, under the umbrella of Deep Ocean Mission, to work on its first component of deep-sea exploration through a manned submersible.
• Note: This is a good example of a UPSC question that can be solved quite easily through elimination and basic current affairs awareness. Here, UPSC has actually given aspirants ample space to apply elimination techniques intelligently. An aspirant who has regularly followed current affairs related to the Deep Ocean Mission would immediately recognise that Statement 1 is incorrect, as the mission was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Once Statement 1 is eliminated, only the option containing Statements 2 and 3 remains. Questions of this nature often play a decisive role in clearing the cutoff because they are relatively straightforward for students with conceptual clarity and adequate current affairs coverage. These are the “low-hanging fruit” in the paper, and aspirants must learn to capitalise on such opportunities confidently rather than overcomplicating them.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

1. Esprit de corps
2. Equity
3. Accountability
4. Delegation

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mr X acted to ensure that the private contractor was held responsible for compromising vaccine quality. He reported the wrongdoing to the vigilance authority and terminated the contract in the public interest. This reflects the principle of accountability, where public officials and agencies are answerable for their actions and decisions.
  • Esprit de corps: Refers to team spirit and harmony among employees.
  • Equity: Means fairness and justice in treatment.
  • Delegation: Refers to assigning authority or responsibilities to subordinates.

Answer: (c) Accountability; Difficulty Level: Easy

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform—including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives—to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• A successful conflict resolution process should begin by acknowledging the cultural and emotional concerns of the tribal community. Respecting indigenous identity, traditions, and sacred spaces helps build trust and opens the door for constructive dialogue. Ignoring such concerns can intensify resentment and conflict.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Moving ahead with the project without addressing the concerns of the affected tribal community would be against principles of participatory governance, social justice, and sustainable development. Public health concerns are important, but they cannot justify disregarding the rights and sentiments of vulnerable communities.

Statement 3 is correct

• Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform is an effective conflict-resolution mechanism. Including tribal leaders, environmental experts, municipal authorities, and other stakeholders promotes transparency, mutual understanding, and collaborative problem-solving, helping to de-escalate tensions.

Statement 4 is correct

• An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) ensures evidence-based decision-making. Transparent sharing of findings builds credibility, reduces misinformation, and helps all stakeholders objectively assess environmental, cultural, and social consequences.

PMF Concept Hack Statement 2 can be eliminated easily because it takes a one-sided approach by claiming urban concerns “outweigh” tribal sentiments. In governance and conflict resolution, ignoring the rights and cultural identity of a vulnerable community generally worsens tensions instead of resolving them. Once Statement 2 is eliminated, only the combination 1, 3 and 4 is left → Answer: (a)

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project—a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Action 1 is incorrect

• Immediate public disclosure without verified proof may violate confidentiality, due process, and administrative ethics.

Action 2 is incorrect

• Recommending the contractor’s removal solely on the basis of confidential allegations and reports of poor workmanship would be inappropriate, as no misconduct or deficiency has been formally established.

Action 3 is correct

• Limited disclosure to an oversight committee balances transparency with confidentiality and due process, especially since allegations are not legally proven.

Answer (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

X was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. X explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

1. X is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
2. The view of Y that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
3. The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
4. The view of only Y is correct.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Article 13 of the Constitution of India defines the term “law” in a very broad and comprehensive manner. According to Article 13(3)(a), the term includes ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs, and usages having the force of law within the territory of India. The purpose of giving such a wide definition is to ensure that every form of law-making authority or legally enforceable practice remains subject to Fundamental Rights. In the passage, X correctly stated that ordinances, orders, rules, and regulations are included within the meaning of law. However, X rejected the view that customs and usages having the force of law are also included, even though Article 13 expressly mentions them. Since oppressive or discriminatory customs can also be struck down for violating Fundamental Rights, X’s interpretation is incomplete and legally incorrect. Therefore, only Y’s view is correct.

Answer (d) The view of only Y is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1. All three statements are correct.
2. There is no correct statement.
3. There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
4. There is only one correct statement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Article 393 explicitly provides the short title of the Constitution. It states: “This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.”

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Article 395 deals explicitly with repeals. It states: “The Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act, but not including the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949, are hereby repealed.”

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Article 394 explicitly mentions the date of commencement. It lists specific articles that came into force at once (on Nov 26, 1949) and then states: “…and the remaining provisions of this Constitution shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution.”

Answer (b) There is no correct statement; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 1 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. It came into force in April 2017. The Act replaced the Persons with Disabilities Act of 1995. It aims to provide equal opportunities to persons with disabilities in India. The Act expanded the criteria for disabilities and added more types of disabilities to the list. The GoI is empowered to add more types of disabilities to the list. The Act also provides for establishing a National Commission and state commissions for Persons with Disabilities.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015. Rooted in the vision of “Sabka Sath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas,” the campaign aimed to ensure universal accessibility across three vital domains: built infrastructure, transport systems, and the information and communication technology (ICT) ecosystem.
• Implementing Agency: Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a Government of India undertaking under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. It acts as an apex institution to provide concessional financial assistance and skill development training for the socio-economic empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) across the country.

PMF Concept Hack This question can be solved easily by any aspirant who has followed current affairs and remains calm while reading the statements. The key trap is in Statement 1. Most aspirants have repeatedly come across the name Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, in current affairs, government schemes, and reports. So, seeing 2018 should immediately raise suspicion. Once Statement 1 is eliminated, options (a), (c), and (d) are automatically removed, leaving only option (b). Thus, even without knowing the details of Statement 3, the answer can be reached through elimination.

Answer (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
2. All three statements are correct.
3. There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
4. There is no correct statement.
5. There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are governed under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule.

Statement 2 is correct

• Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified Sixth Schedule areas and certain North-eastern states are exempt from income tax on specific incomes.

Statement 3 is correct

• Article 243D of the Constitution reserves seats in Panchayats for SCs and STs, and mandates that at least one-third of those reserved seats be allocated to women from SC and ST communities.

Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, which include statement 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1. All the three statements are correct.
2. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
3. There is only one correct statement.
4. There is no correct statement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Unstarred Questions require a written answer, not an oral answer. A Starred Question is the one that requires an oral answer.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Starred Questions require an oral answer, not a written one.

Statement 3 is correct

• Since Unstarred Questions are answered in writing, no supplementary question can be asked on them.

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1. There is only one correct statement.
2. There are four correct statements.
3. There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
4. There is no correct statement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes from its members, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Committee has 30 members, with 20 elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 elected by the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• A Minister is not eligible for election to this Committee, with no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• Committee members hold office for a term not exceeding one year, not a fixed two-year term.
• Following are the functions of the Committee:
  • to consider the reports submitted by the * under article 338(5)(d) and 338A (5)(d) respectively of the Constitution and to report as to the measures that should be taken by the Union Government in respect of matters within the purview of the Union Government including the administration of the Union Territories;
  • to report on the action taken by the Union Government and the administration of the Union Territories on the measures proposed by the Committee;
  • to examine the measures taken by the Union Government to secure due representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in services and posts under its control (including appointments in the Public Sector Undertakings, Nationalised Banks, statutory and semi-Government bodies and in the Union Territories) having regard to the provisions of article 335;
  • to report on the working of the welfare programmes for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Union Territories; and
  • to examine other such matters as may deem fit by the Committee or are specifically referred to it by the House or the Speaker. This Committee, like other Parliamentary Committees has all the powers to call for the detailed information from the Ministries of the Government, Public Undertakings, Nationalised Banks, and various organisations in respect of subjects taken up by the Committee for examination of official and non-official witnesses.

Answer: (d) There is no correct statement; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced on Independence Day 2025, aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capabilities.

Statement 2 is correct

• The mission is designed for rapid, precise defence responses aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.

Statement 3 is correct

• PM Modi explicitly stated that by 2035, all important places including hospitals, railways, and centres of faith will be covered under a nationwide security shield.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

1. ‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Maitri Setu is a 1.9-kilometre-long bridge built over the Feni River that connects Sabroom in Tripura, India, to Ramgarh in Bangladesh.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Jhulaghat Suspension Bridge is a pedestrian hanging bridge crossing the Kali River, forming a natural international border between India and Nepal.

Statement 3 is correct

• Mechi Bridge and its approaches on the India-Nepal Border link Panitanki in India and Karkarvitta in Nepal.
• Note: This is a classic example of a hardcore factual UPSC question where the scope for logical elimination is quite limited. Unless an aspirant is familiar with these specific connectivity projects and border infrastructure initiatives, arriving at the correct answer becomes difficult. While one may be able to eliminate Statement 2 by knowing that Jhulaghat connects India and Nepal rather than India and Myanmar, the problem still remains. After eliminating Statement 2, the choice narrows to “1 only” and “3 only”, making the final answer dependent on factual knowledge of Maitri Setu and Mechi Bridge. At this stage, random guessing can be risky. Questions of this nature are often designed to maintain the paper’s difficulty level. Therefore, if an aspirant lacks sufficient factual certainty, we recommend avoiding guesswork and moving on.

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Zero FIR under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 can be registered only for cognizable offences. By including both cognizable and non-cognizable offences, the statement incorrectly extends the scope of the Zero FIR mechanism to offences for which it does not apply.

Statement 2 is correct

• As per 173 (3) of BNSS, “Without prejudice to the provisions contained in section 175, on receipt of information relating to the commission of any cognizable offence, which is made punishable for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer-in-charge of the police station may with the prior permission from an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, considering the nature and gravity of the offence:
  • Proceed to conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether there exists a prima facie case for proceeding in the matter within a period of fourteen days; or
  • Proceed with investigation when there exists a prima facie case.
• After the registration of Zero FIR, if necessary, primary investigation may be done by the Investigation officer of the same police station (e.g. Medical Examination of a Rape victim)

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, it is not obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Electronic communication is simply one of the permissible modes.

Answer: (d) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for coordinating economic intelligence and combating financial crimes like tax evasion, money laundering, and smuggling.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, with the mandate of detecting and prosecuting or recommending prosecution for white-collar crimes.

Pair 3 is correct

• The CBI, functioning under Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, is the premier investigating police agency in India. It plays a major role in preserving values in public life and ensuring the health of the national economy.

Answer (a) 1; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention
2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 2 and 4
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 3, 4 and 5

DROPPED QUESTION

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

1. The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.
2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planet, and Progress, it envisions a future where AI advances humanity, fosters inclusive growth, and safeguards our shared planet.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI was described as a voluntary and non-binding framework, not a binding framework.

Statement 3 is correct

• The New Delhi Declaration was structured around seven Chakras, including Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure & Trusted AI.

PMF Concept Hack This question can be approached through careful reading. Statement 2 can be viewed with suspicion because of the phrase “binding framework.” International declarations, charters, and summit documents are generally not legally binding unless explicitly framed as treaties or conventions (also binding frameworks are more news due to debate around them). If Statement 2 is eliminated, options (a), (b), and (c) get removed, leaving only option (d).

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2. IMT Trilateral Highway
3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a connectivity project between India and Myanmar. The Ministry of External Affairs states that it connects India’s eastern seaport to Sittwe Port in Myanmar, and further to North-East India through Myanmar using sea, river and road transport modes. Myanmar is an ASEAN member state.

Statement 2 is correct

• The India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway is an initiative involving India, Myanmar and Thailand, running from Moreh in Manipur to Mae Sot in Thailand through Myanmar. Both Myanmar and Thailand are ASEAN member states.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line is an India–Bangladesh rail connectivity project. MEA states that the Akhaura–Agartala rail link was planned to improve connectivity between Agartala and Akhaura. Since Bangladesh is not listed among ASEAN member states, this is not an India–ASEAN member-country cooperation project.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Project Supported by India)	List II (Country)
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project	1. Maldives
B. Restoration of Stor Palace	2. Afghanistan
C. District Hospital at Dickey	3. Bhutan
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies	4. Sri Lanka

Code:

1. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
2. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
3. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
4. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is a 720 MW hydropower project in India and Bhutan.
• India restored the historic Stor Palace in Kabul, Afghanistan, as part of a joint conservation initiative with the Aga Khan Trust for Culture (AKTC). Completed in 2016 at a cost of about $5.7 million, the project revived an important symbol of Afghanistan’s cultural and historical legacy.
• The District Base Hospital at Dickoya in Sri Lanka’s Central Province is a modern 150-bed multi-speciality healthcare facility, built and fully equipped with grant assistance from the Government of India.
• India provided significant financial and developmental assistance to the Maldives to build the state-of-the-art National College of Policing and Law Enforcement (NCPLE) in Addu City, which serves as the successor to the former Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies (ISLES).
• Note: We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 2 only

Explanation

1 is correct

• Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter jets are manufactured in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) under licence from Russia.

2 is correct

• T-90 Bhishma tanks are manufactured in India at the Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi, under technology transfer arrangements with Russia.

3 is incorrect

• Akula-class submarine is a Russian nuclear-powered attack submarine. India has leased such submarines from Russia, but they are not manufactured in India.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

1. The “Colombo Process” is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions.
2. The “Abu Dhabi Dialogue” is a voluntary and non-binding consultative process among Asian countries.
3. The Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) created by the proposal of a former UN Secretary-General is a voluntary forum where decisions are non-binding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Colombo Process is a voluntary and non-binding consultative process. Member states do not take binding decisions by consensus.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary, non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of both labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) is a voluntary, informal, and non-binding state-led process designed to address the multidimensional links between international migration and development. Proposed in 2006 by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan, it serves as an open platform for UN member states to share best practices.

Additional Information: Colombo Process India is the chair of the Colombo Process for 2024-26 for the first time since its inception in 2003. It is a regional consultative forum comprising 12 Asian nations concerning migration. The International Organization for Migration (IOM), Sri Lanka, provides technical and administrative support to the Colombo Process. Founders: Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Viet Nam. Observers include ADB, ASEAN, European Commission, ILO, International Committee of the Red Cross, IOM, SAARC, UNAIDS, UNDP, UN Women, World Bank, and Migrant Forum in Asia (MFA). Thematic Priority Areas Skills and Qualification Recognition Processes Fostering Ethical Recruitment Practices Pre-departure Orientation and Empowerment Promote Cheaper, Faster and Safer Transfer of Remittances Labor Market Analysis Abu Dhabi Dialogue In 2008, Member States of the Colombo Process and two countries of destination, Malaysia and Singapore, met with Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries and Yemen to discuss practices and policies about temporary contractual labour in Asia. The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (ADD) was then formed and the ADD Declaration adopted to address issues of temporary contractual labour mobility and to optimize labour mobility’s benefits for all participating countries. The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is composed of 18 countries. 11 countries of origin: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam; and seven countries of destination: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates (UAE), and Yemen. Republic of Korea, Japan and Singapore act as Observer States. The ADD serves as a platform for countries of origin and destination to discuss the management of temporary contractual labour mobility in Asia.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children’s Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organization

How many of the above have been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR): This is the only organisation on the list to win the prize twice (in 1954 and 1981) for its ongoing, ground-breaking work in assisting refugees globally.
• World Food Programme (WFP): Has won the prize once (in 2020) for its efforts to combat hunger and improve conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas.
• United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF): Has won the prize once (in 1965) for its international aid and support for children.
• International Labour Organisation (ILO): Has won the prize once (in 1969) for its efforts in improving peace amongst classes and pursuing decent work and justice for workers.
• Note: Questions of this nature are often designed by UPSC to maintain unpredictability and keep the cutoff balanced. It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific fact. We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (a) 1; Difficulty Level: Hard

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)	List II (Period of Operation)
A. UNUMIL	1. 2007–2010
B. MINURCAT	2. 2002–2005
C. MINUSTAH	3. 2003–2018
D. UNMISET	4. 2004–2017

Code:

1. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
2. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
3. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
4. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia): 2003–2018
• MINURCAT (United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad): 2007–2010
• MINUSTAH (United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti): 2004–2017
• UNMISET (United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor): 2002–2005
• Note: Questions of this nature are often designed by UPSC to maintain unpredictability and keep the cutoff balanced. It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific fact. We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (b) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)	List II (Location)
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory	1. NOIDA
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre	2. Bengaluru
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate	3. Colombo
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility	4. Thimphu

Code:

1. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
2. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
3. A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
4. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory: Thimphu (Bhutan)
• The BIMSTEC Energy Centre: Bengaluru
• The BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate (BCWC): Noida
• The BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility: Colombo (Sri Lanka)
• Note: Questions of this nature are often designed by UPSC to maintain unpredictability and keep the cutoff balanced. It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific obscure information. We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (c) 4-2-1-3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Indian Army Corps Headquarters

1. 3 Corps – Dimapur
2. 4 Corps – Tezpur
3. 14 Corps – Leh
4. 33 Corps – Srinagar

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• 33 Corps Headquarters is located at Sukna near Siliguri. It operates under the Eastern Command of the Indian Army.
• Note: We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly unconventional questions.

Answer: (d) 33 Corps – Srinagar; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of implementation is from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026.
2. The key objective is to enhance Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of Central funding is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan for implementation over a four-year period from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period).

Statement 2 is correct

• The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so that they can effectively contribute to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on localizing SDGs into thematic areas for villages (like healthy village, water-sufficient village, etc.).

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The funding is not 100% Central for all states. RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a shared funding pattern. For standard states, the funding is shared 60:40 (Centre: State). For North Eastern and Hilly States, it is 90:10, and it is only 100% centrally funded for Union Territories (UTs).

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus
2. Poland
3. Germany
4. Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 2 and 4 only

Explanation

1 is incorrect

• Belarus is not a member of the European Union.

2 is correct

• Poland is a member state, having joined the European Union in 2004.

3 is correct

• Germany is one of the original founding members of the European Union.

4 is incorrect

• Switzerland is not an EU member. While it participates in the European single market and the Schengen Area through a series of bilateral treaties, it has consistently voted to maintain its political independence from the EU.

PMF Concept Hack This question can be solved by eliminating Switzerland first. It is well known that Switzerland is not a member of the European Union. Switzerland has traditionally followed a policy of neutrality, is not a member of NATO, and joined the United Nations only in 2002, allowing the Swiss to host international organisations and mediate conflicts without taking sides. Once 4 is eliminated, options (a), (b), and (d) are automatically removed, leaving only option (c).

Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (INTERPOL Notice)	List II (Description)
A. Silver Notice	1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
B. Blue Notice	2. To collect additional information about a person
C. Black Notice	3. To provide warning about criminal activities
D. Green Notice	4. To identify and trace criminal assets

Code:

1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
2. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
3. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
4. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Silver Notice: To identify and trace criminal assets.
• Blue Notice: To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation.
• Black Notice: To seek information on unidentified bodies.
• Green Notice: To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety.

Answer: (c) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR platform is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2. Research and Management Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is indeed Vertical I under the NIRANTAR platform. The lead institute overseeing this vertical is the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata,

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The designated lead institute for Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun.

Statement 3 is correct

• Capacity Development Support is Vertical III of the platform. The Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal, serves as the designated lead institute for this vertical.
• Note: We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly unconventional questions.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January 2026. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. Signing of Memorandum of Understanding between All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg.
2. Signing of MoU between Mount Hockey Development and German Hockey Federation.
3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific.
4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 2 and 3
2. 1 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in traditional medicine was actually signed between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and Charité University, Berlin (Germany), not the University of Hamburg.

Statement 2 is correct

• A landmark MoU on Youth Hockey Development was officially signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation (Deutscher Hockey-Bund e.V.).

Statement 3 is correct

• Both nations officially agreed on the Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific to deepen maritime and security convergence under India’s Act East framework.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• No agreement or announcement regarding the opening of an Honorary Consulate of Germany in Lucknow was part of this Chancellor-level visit’s outcomes.
• Note: Questions of this nature are often designed by UPSC to maintain unpredictability and keep the cutoff balanced. It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific obscure information. We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements about DHRUV16 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme.
2. It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• DHRUV64 is the third chip fabricated under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme (following the earlier THEJAS32 and THEJAS64 processors). The DIR-V initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) aims to achieve self-reliance in microprocessor design and create a robust semiconductor ecosystem in India.

Statement 2 is correct

• DHRUV64 has been recognised as India’s first indigenously developed 64-bit dual-core microprocessor operating at a clock speed of 1.0 GHz.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal systems. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS 19445:2025.
2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently notified India’s first dedicated national standard for bomb disposal systems, officially designated as IS 19445:2025. It establishes comprehensive guidelines for evaluating bomb disposal systems (like bomb blankets, baskets, and inhibitors) against blast loads and splinter effects.

Statement 2 is correct

• A primary objective of this standard is to bring uniformity in evaluation practices. By establishing a transparent and uniform basis for procurement, testing, and certification, it aims to significantly improve the reliability and interoperability of equipment used across various security units (such as the Armed Forces, Central Armed Police Forces, and State Police).

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The standard was not developed in collaboration with a Russian institute. It was developed indigenously by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) at the request of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), DRDO. TBRL served as the convenor for the expert panel (under the Arms and Ammunition for Civilian Use Sectional Committee), working with Indian stakeholders such as the Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) to adapt global best practices to Indian threat scenarios and operational conditions.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’.

1. Michel T. Devoret
2. Richard Robson
3. John Clarke
4. Joel Mokyr

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• John Clarke was born in Cambridge, UK, and was a professor at the University of California, Berkeley when he was awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics. He shared the prize with Michel H. Devoret (born in France) and John M. Martinis (born in the US) for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit.
• Note: Questions of this nature are often designed by UPSC to maintain unpredictability and keep the cutoff balanced. It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific obscure information. We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (c) John Clarke; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
3. There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Grand Slam Rules make it clear that Grand Slam Tennis (GST) operates under a shared governance framework jointly managed by the four Grand Slam tournaments.

Statement 2 is correct

• The four Grand Slam Tournaments are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players with a ranking of 500 or better based on merit and without discrimination, subject only to the conditions herein set forth and to those provisions of the WTA Age Eligibility Rule adopted by the Grand Slam Tournaments and provided, however, that minors under the age of fourteen (14) shall not be eligible for entry. For purposes of this Rule, the player’s age as of the first day of the tournament’s Main Draw shall be used.
• Note: Statement 2 appears to be incorrect based on the Grand Slam Rules, which state that all internationally ranked tennis players with a ranking of 500 or better are eligible to enter Grand Slam tournaments. However, as per the UPSC Provisional Answer Key, the correct answer has been given as “1 and 2 only.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• No rule limits the number of wild cards an individual player may receive across Grand Slam tournaments. Wild cards are given at each organiser’s discretion.
• Note: It is neither practical nor necessary for an aspirant to know every such highly specific obscure information. We recommend aspirants avoid unnecessary guesswork in such highly factual questions.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

Semiconductor Plant	Location
CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd.	Gujarat
Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd.	Assam
HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd.	Madhya Pradesh
Silicon Port Ltd.	Odisha

Explanation

Option (c) is the correct answer

• The HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture semiconductor plant is located in Jewar, Uttar Pradesh, near the upcoming Noida International Airport. It is not in Madhya Pradesh. All other pairs are correctly matched: CG Power in partnership with Renesas and Stars Microelectronics is in Sanand, Gujarat; Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test is in Jagiroad, Assam; and SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

Answer: (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd.: Madhya Pradesh; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the Bharat Forecast System, is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayat cluster level.
2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Bharat Forecast System was developed to generate forecasts at the cluster-of-panchayats level, enabling hyper-local weather predictions at 6 km resolution.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, not IIT Delhi.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements with regard to the film “Boong”:

1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Boong won the BAFTA Award for Best Children’s and Family Film at the 79th BAFTA Awards held in London on 22 February 2026.

Statement 2 is correct

• The film is directed and written by Lakshmipriya Devi, marking her directorial debut.

Statement 3 is correct

• Boong is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
3. Consortium ‘blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Blockchain technology ensures both transparency and data security. Transactions recorded on a blockchain can be viewed by authorised participants within the network, while the data remains highly secure because each record is cryptographically protected and linked to preceding records, making unauthorised alterations extremely difficult.

Statement 2 is correct

• Blockchain is a distributed ledger where identical copies are maintained across multiple nodes in a network.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Blending public and private blockchain features describes a hybrid blockchain, not a consortium blockchain. A consortium blockchain is controlled jointly by multiple organisations.

Statement 4 is correct

• Cryptographic hashing makes it computationally infeasible to change or delete any data once it has been recorded and accepted.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has no stock and instead forwards customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier is called:

1. Dropshipping Model
2. Affiliate Revenue Model
3. Transaction Fee Revenue Model
4. Agency Revenue Model

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In the Dropshipping Model, the seller does not maintain inventory or stock. When a customer places an order, the seller forwards the order and shipping details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the product directly to the customer. The seller earns a margin on the sale without handling the inventory.

Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of RBI?

1. Credit access, Insurance depth and Banking access
2. Financial literacy, Access, Usage and Quality
3. Access, Usage and Quality
4. Access, Affordability and Transparency

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) comprises three sub-indices: Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%).

Additional Information Financial Inclusion is defined as the availability of affordable financial products and services to meet the needs of individuals and businesses in a responsible and sustainable way. It supports entrepreneurship and business growth, empowers women, and helps manage risks, thereby strengthening economic activity and boosting productivity. FI-Index is based on 97 indicators, and they quantify the progress in financial inclusion, mainly sensitive to the availability of financial services, ease of access, usage, unequal distribution and deficiency in services, financial literacy and consumer protection. The index ranges from 0 to 100, where 0 indicates no financial inclusion and 100 indicates complete financial inclusion. The index has 3 sub-indices, “Access”, “Usage” and “Quality”, with each sub-index having a respective weight of 35, 45 and 20 per cent respectively.

Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) initiative?

1. Allow government control over digital commerce transactions
2. Replace private e-commerce platforms
3. Create an open interoperable network enabling interoperability across platforms
4. Mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Open Network for Digital Commerce is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at creating an open and interoperable digital commerce network. It allows buyers, sellers, logistics providers, and payment systems to interact across different platforms, similar to how UPI works for digital payments. Its main objective is to promote open participation in e-commerce, reduce platform dependency, increase opportunities for small businesses and retailers, and enable interoperability between different applications and platforms.

Answer: (c) To create an open interoperable network enabling interoperability across platforms; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central- Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

1. UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
2. In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
3. UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
4. In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Explanation

Statement (d) is incorrect

• The fundamental difference between UPI and the Digital Rupee lies in who holds the liability. Money transferred via UPI is “commercial bank money” (your bank deposits), meaning it is a liability of your respective commercial bank. The Digital Rupee (CBDC), however, is a direct liability of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It is a sovereign fiat currency, just like physical cash. Even though commercial banks distribute the Digital Rupee wallets, the digital currency inside them is backed directly by the central bank.

Statement (a) is correct

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system that transfers money instantly between bank accounts, whereas the Digital Rupee or Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a sovereign digital form of currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India, similar in nature to paper currency.

Statement (b) is correct

• In a UPI transaction, while the user sees an instant debit/credit, actual settlement between the banks happens in batches on the back end. With the Digital Rupee, the transfer of the token from one wallet to another is the final settlement itself, exactly like handing a physical ₹500 note to someone.

Statement (c) is correct

• Since UPI moves bank deposits, every transaction is routed through the bank’s core banking system and appears on your statement. The Digital Rupee moves wallet-to-wallet directly. To mimic the privacy of physical cash, these transactions do not appear on your standard bank account statement.

Answer: (d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenisation are correct?

1. RWA tokenisation is the process of turning real-world assets into digital tokens on blockchain.
2. Tokenisation of real-world assets allows fractional ownership.
3. Tokenisation provides investment opportunities for individuals.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• RWA (Real-World Asset) tokenisation is the process of converting the rights to physical or traditional financial assets (such as real estate, gold, commodities, or bonds) into digital tokens on a blockchain.

Statement 2 is correct

• Because tokenised assets exist on blockchain networks, they can be bought, sold, and traded 24/7 without the restrictions of traditional market hours. Additionally, by dividing assets into smaller digital shares, it promotes “fractional inclusion,” allowing smaller investors to participate in markets that were previously out of reach.

Statement 3 is correct

• By enabling fractional ownership and lowering the minimum investment threshold, tokenisation democratises access to high-value, high-growth assets (like commercial real estate, infrastructure projects, or fine art) for individual retail investors in India and globally.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

1. Green Bond
2. Social Bond
3. Sustainability Bond
4. Sovereign Bond

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• A Sustainability Bond is a bond whose proceeds are used to finance or refinance a combination of green/environmental and social projects.
• Green Bond: only environmental projects
• Social Bond: only social projects
• Sovereign Bond: issued by a government, not necessarily linked to green/social use.

Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements about M1xchange role in Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral-based loans to MSMEs.
2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices.
3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• M1xchange does not provide traditional collateral-based loans. Instead, it operates on a completely collateral-free model. The financing is based on the credit profiles of large corporate buyers rather than on the MSME itself.

Statement 2 is correct

• M1xchange is an RBI-approved TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform. Its primary function is to facilitate the discounting of invoices and bills of exchange for MSMEs. This allows MSMEs to unlock working capital by selling their approved invoices to financiers (banks or NBFCs) on the platform before the actual due date.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• M1xchange is a TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform approved by the Reserve Bank of India to help MSMEs receive early payment against invoices. It acts as a digital marketplace or platform for trade receivables, not a Credit Rating Agency (like CRISIL, ICRA, or CARE). It does not assign credit ratings to companies.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following best describes the Crowding Out Effect in fiscal policy?

1. Increased private investment due to higher Government spending
2. Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates reducing private investment
3. Taxation leads to increased private investment
4. Government borrowing has no impact on aggregate demand

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Crowding Out Effect happens when the government borrows heavily to finance its spending. Since both the government and private businesses borrow money from the same financial market, greater government borrowing increases competition for available funds. As demand for loans rises, interest rates usually increase. Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive for companies, so businesses may postpone or reduce investments such as expansion, new projects, or purchasing machinery. So, More government borrowing → higher interest rates → lower private investment

Answer: (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technologies including AI, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise REEs.
2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025.
4. Rare Earth Elements are not included in critical minerals.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Rare Earth Elements are widely used in modern strategic and high-technology sectors including AI, robotics, defence systems, and space exploration.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• China has the highest share in rare earth mining, but it is not followed by India. The US, Australia, and Myanmar rank higher than India in REE production.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to strengthen domestic and global critical mineral supply chains.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• REEs are a set of 17 elements, not 13. They are also included in India’s list of 30 critical minerals.

PMF IAS Hack Statement 4 can be eliminated first using basic understanding. The term critical minerals includes minerals that are strategically important for modern technologies, and Rare Earth Elements are among the most discussed critical minerals globally. So saying REEs are not included in critical minerals is unlikely. Once Statement 4 is eliminated, only options (a) and (b) remain. At this stage, you do not even need to worry much about Statement 2. Statement 1 is a general understanding statement—modern technologies such as AI, robotics, EVs, and space technologies are widely known to depend on REEs. Since Statement 1 appears only in option (a), the answer becomes (a) 1 and 3 only.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. Aviation Hull Insurance covers physical damage caused by war, hijacking and hostile action.
2. Under the Montreal Convention, airlines are liable to pay compensation to passengers irrespective of negligence.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Aviation Hull Insurance covers the physical aircraft, including its body, engines, and on-board equipment.

Statement 2 is correct

• Under the Montreal Convention (1999), ratified by over 130 countries including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to families of deceased passengers regardless of fault.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds from multiple investors through web-based platforms or social networking sites.
2. Small and Medium Enterprises can raise debt and equity capital without rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Crowdfunding is the practice of funding a project or venture by raising small amounts of money from a large number of people (the “crowd”). This is typically facilitated through internet-based platforms and social networking sites, which act as intermediaries between the fundraisers and the public.

Statement 2 is correct

• Crowdfunding provides an alternative source of finance for Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs), often with fewer formalities and lower costs compared to traditional financing methods such as bank loans or public issues.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

Committee	Objective	Organisation
R.N. Malhotra Committee	Comprehensive reforms of insurance sector	IRDAI
L.C. Gupta Committee	Roadmap for derivatives trading	SEBI
Urijit R. Patel Committee	Framework for inflation targeting	RBI
Y.H. Malegam Committee	Reforms for microfinance sector	RBI

How many of the above rows are correctly matched?

1. 2 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4

Explanation

Row 1 is incorrect

• The R.N. Malhotra Committee (1993) was set up to recommend comprehensive reforms for the insurance sector. It recommended reforms in the insurance sector and opening it to private players. It was constituted by the Government of India, not IRDAI. In fact, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) was established in 1999 following this committee’s recommendations.

Row 2 is correct

• The L.C. Gupta Committee was constituted by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in 1996 to develop a regulatory framework for derivatives trading in the Indian capital market.

Row 3 is incorrect

• The Urjit R. Patel Committee was appointed by the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) in 2013 to revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework, which led to the formal adoption of flexible inflation targeting in India. It was not related to the housing sector.

4 is correct

• The Y.H. Malegam Committee was constituted by the RBI in 2010 to study the issues and concerns in the Microfinance Institutions (MFI) sector and suggest regulatory reforms.

Answer: (d) 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements about Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
2. All NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with RBI.
3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheques.
4. Deposit insurance of DICGC is not available for NBFC deposits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• NBFCs are explicitly prohibited from accepting demand deposits (like savings or current accounts deposits that can be withdrawn at any time). Only banks are authorised to accept demand deposits. Some NBFCs can accept deposits, but only term deposits (fixed deposits) for a specified period.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Not all NBFCs have to register with the RBI. To avoid dual regulation, certain categories of NBFCs regulated by other financial regulators are exempted from RBI registration. For example, Venture Capital Funds, Merchant Banking companies, and Stock Broking companies are registered with SEBI; Insurance Companies are regulated by IRDAI; Nidhi companies are regulated by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs; and Chit Fund companies are regulated by the respective State Governments.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Unlike banks, NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system. Consequently, they cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.

Statement 4 is correct

• The deposit insurance facility provided by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), which currently insures bank deposits up to ₹5 lakh per depositor, is only available for commercial and cooperative banks. It is not available for depositors of NBFCs.

Answer: (a) 1 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are among indicators used in MPI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Both NITI Aayog’s MPI and the global UNDP MPI use the Alkire-Foster methodology to identify poverty using a dual-cutoff counting method that measures poverty through multiple deprivations rather than income alone.

Statement 2 is correct

• NITI Aayog’s National MPI covers 12 indicators, compared to 10 in the global UNDP MPI.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Maternal Health and Bank Account are indicators unique to NITI Aayog’s MPI. The global UNDP MPI does not include either of them. (The question is about MPI in general and not specific to NITI Aayog’s MPI. Please see the infographic).

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium