UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2023

In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

1. Andhra
2. Gandhara
3. Kalinga
4. Magadha

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The ancient Dhanyakataka in Andhra Pradesh was the capital of the later Satavahanas. It covers present-day Amaravati and Dharanikota. Buddhism had existed in this region even before the Mauryan period. The famous Buddhist sites of Amaravati and Dhanyakataka (Dharanikota) are associated with Buddha, as a birthplace of one of the previous births of Buddha & a preaching site of Buddha, respectively. During Emperor Ashoka’s reign, Buddhism in Dhanyakataka gained prominence. The Amaravati Stupa (Mahachaitya) dates back to the Mauryan period, as confirmed by an Ashokan edict found at the site. The region was a stronghold of the Mahasanghika school of Theravada Buddhism.
• In the post-Mauryan period, Buddhism continued to thrive under the royal patronage of the Satavahanas and Ikshvakus. Under the Satavahanas, Dhanyakataka became the most important centre of Mahayana Buddhism, leading to the emergence of several Buddhist sites, including: Amaravati, Bhattiprolu, Chezrala, Goli (Guntur), Jaggayyapeta, Gudiwada, Ghantasala, Guntapalle, and Bezwada (Vijayawada). These sites contained stone-built stupas, chaityas and viharas. In the first century CE, the Satavahanas expanded their rule over coastal Andhra and shifted their capital to Dhanyakataka. This led to increased Roman trade, bringing prosperity to the region and further strengthening Buddhist establishments.

Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect

• Gandhara: It is the present-day area of Northern Pakistan and Afghanistan.
• Kalinga: It is a historical region that encompassed modern-day Odisha.
• Magadha: This region is located on the Indo-Gangetic plains in eastern India and spreads over the modern state of Bihar.

Additional Information: Sthaviravadins and Mahasanghikas After the 2nd Buddhist council, the Sangha split into the Sthaviravadins and Mahasanghika Schools. The 2nd Buddhist Council was held at Vaishali under the patronage of Kalasoka and was presided over by Sabakami. The Sthaviravadins adhered to a strict monastic life and rigid disciplinary laws as originally prescribed. Sammatiyas, Vibhajyavadins and Vatsiputriyas are prominent offshoots of the Sthaviravadins school. The Mahasanghikas group adopted modified disciplinary rules and was the first to attribute divinity to Buddha. Lokottaravadins, Ekavyavaharikas, Kaukkutikas and Caitika are prominent offshoots of the Mahasanghika school.

Answer: (a) Andhra; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• A stupa is a mound-like structure that enshrines relics of the Buddha or Buddhist monks and is venerated in Buddhism, though the tradition itself predates Buddhism. In Vedic society, funerary practices such as pitramedha involved collecting ashes or bodily remains in an urn and constructing a memorial mound over it. References to such mound-like structures appear in the Vedic Samhitas, and the term ‘estuka’ in the Rigveda likely denoted any raised heap or pile on the ground. Over time, especially after the Buddha’s passing, stupas became closely associated with Buddhism.

Statement 2 is correct

• Stupa contained relics regarded as sacred; the entire stupa came to be venerated as an emblem of both the Buddha and Buddhism.

Additional Information According to Buddhist sources, the remains of the Buddha’s body were divided into eight parts and placed under the Stupas. Initially, 8 Stupas (Saririka Chaityas) were constructed at 8 centres Rajagrihya, Vaishali, Kapilavastu, Allakappa, Ramagrama, Vethadipa, Pava and Kushinagara. Emperor Ashoka (circa 272–232 BCE), a devoted Buddhist, opened seven of the eight stupas redistributed, which led to the construction of other Stupas. The worship of Stupas led to their ornamentation, and a specific type of architecture developed for their construction.

Statement 3 is correct

• Stupa can be:
  • Relic stupas: Contain the relics of the Buddha and other religious figures.
  • Object stupas: Enclose objects that belonged to the Buddha or his disciples.
  • Commemorative stupas: Built to commemorate significant events in the lives of the Buddha and his disciples.
  • Symbolic stupas: Represent various aspects of Buddhist theology.
  • Votive stupas: Constructed to commemorate visits or to gain spiritual benefits.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

1. Capital cities
2. Ports
3. Centres of iron-and-steel making
4. Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Tamils of the Sangam age had trading contacts with the Mediterranean world (Greece and Rome), Egypt, China, Southeast Asia and Sri Lanka. The literary works such as Silappadikaram, Manimekalai, and Pattinappalai frequently refer to contact with Greek and Roman traders. The Sangam texts mention the ports of Musiri (Muchiri, an important port in the Chera kingdom), Puhar (Kaveripattinam, ancient port of the Cholas) and Korkai (major Pandya port), the three great ports of the three great rulers of the times, prominently. The Periplus of the Erythraean Sea also provides valuable accounts of trade, mentioning ports like Tondi, Musiri, Comari (Cape Comorin/Kanyakumari), Colchi (Korkai), Poduke (Arikamedu), and Sopatma. It further notes the use of large vessels called Colandia, which sailed from the Tamil coast to the Ganges, indicating the scale and connectivity of maritime commerce during this period.

Answer: (b) Ports; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?

1. Kings employing women bodyguards.
2. Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters.
3. Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals.
4. A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Poems within Sangam literature were composed on two broader themes of akam (love) and puram (mostly based on war but also included public poetry such as poems on good and evil, community and kingdom). The goal of the hero of the puram poems was pukal (glory, fame) and a heroic death was greatly valued. It was believed that the spirit of a warrior who died in battle dwelt in paradise.
• Practice of vattakirutal: The practice of vattakirutal was one in which a defeated king committed ritual suicide by starving himself to death, accompanied by those who had been close to him during his lifetime.

Option (a) and (c) are incorrect

• Important activities by women as mentioned in Sangam poems:
  • There are also references to kings employing women bodyguards.
  • Women were involved in cattle rearing and dairy farming. The terms ayichchiyar, kovichchiyar, and idaichchiyar were used for shepherdesses.
  • Sangam texts refer to women spinners as parutti pentukal. However, there are no references to women weavers
  • The viraliyar were women bards and dancers belonging to the panar community of wandering minstrels.
  • Young girls kept watch over the agricultural fields and drove away birds and animals.
  • Women are also mentioned in connection with the making and selling of toddy made out of fermented rice.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Sangam poetry shows the existence of a vibrant and sophisticated literary culture in ancient Tamilakam.
• A 2^nd century CE inscription from Mannarkoil mentions the katikai. This term, derived from the Sanskrit ghatika, may refer to an assembly of learned persons, an institution of higher learning, or a place where such an assembly or institution was located.

Answer: (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following dynasties:

1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. None

Explanation

Hoysala is incorrect

• The Hoysalas ruled over parts of the present Karnataka and most of the Tamil region. The kingdom achieved independent status by the close of the 12^th century, but its end came at the beginning of the 14^th century. The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur but was later moved to Halebidu.
• In the 12^th century, taking advantage of the internecine warfare between the Western Chalukya Empire and Kalachuris of Kalyani, they annexed areas of present-day Karnataka and the fertile areas north of the Kaveri delta in present-day Tamil Nadu. By the 13^th century, they governed most of Karnataka, minor parts of Tamil Nadu and parts of western Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in the Deccan Plateau. The first independent ruler of the kingdom was Ballala II (1173-1220). In the early part of the 14^th century, Alauddin Khalji sent a large army commanded by Malik Kafur to control southern India. In 1310, the last ruler of Hoysala, Vira Ballala III, surrendered all his treasures to the Delhi forces after the siege of Dwarasamudra. In 1343 CE, Vira Ballala III was captured and killed while fighting the independent sultanate of Madurai. The sovereign territories of the Hoysala Kingdom were merged with the areas administered by Harihara I in the Tungabhadra River region.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Gahadavala is incorrect

• Following the decline of the Gurjara-Pratiharas, the Middle Ganga Valley experienced instability, which was ended when King Chandradeva established the Gahadavala dynasty in c. CE 1089. From Kanauj, the Gahadawalas ruled over the major portions of the Gangetic doab from 1089 to 1194 CE. They gradually squeezed the Palas out of Bihar and made Banaras a second capital. The Gahadawalas had a bitter struggle and enmity with the Chahamanas. Govindachandra (c. 1114 – 1155 CE), the grandson of Chandradeva, was the most powerful ruler of his dynasty. The kingdom reached its zenith under his reign.
  • As a prince, he defeated the Ghaznavids and the Palas.
  • As a sovereign, he defeated the Kalachuris of Tripuri and annexed some of their territories.
• Jaichandra (c. 1170 – 1194 CE), the grandson of Govindachandra, was the last great ruler of the Gahadawala dynasty. In 1194, he was defeated by the Ghurid army under Qutb-ud-Din Aibak, effectively ending the dynasty’s imperial power. The kingdom completely ceased to exist when Jayachandra’s successors were defeated by the Delhi Sultanate Mamluk dynasty ruler Iltutmish. After the sacking of Kanauj by Muhammad of Ghor in 1194 and its subsequent capture by the Delhi Sultanate in the early 13th century, some survivors of the Gahadavala dynasty, led by Jaichandra’s son and grandson Siyaji (Shiv Ji), fled west to the Marwar region of Rajasthan. They founded the Rathore clan and ruled the state of Marwar (Jodhpur state).

Image Source: Wikipedia

Kakatiya is incorrect

• The Kakatiyas (c. 1110 – 1326 CE) were a Telugu dynasty that ruled from Warangal from the 12^th and 14^th centuries. They ruled over much of present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, as well as parts of eastern Karnataka, northern Tamil Nadu, and southern Odisha. The Telugu Kakatiyas were initially subordinate to the Western Chalukyas. The Kakatiya ruler, Prola II (c. 1110 – 1158 CE), declared independence and started the sovereign Kakatiya Dynasty.
• Ganapathi Deva (r. 1199-1262 CE) was the greatest Kakatiya ruler. He brought the entire Telugu region under his rule. He was succeeded by his daughter, Rudramma Devi (c. 1262-89 CE), who was one of the few women rulers of India. Marco Polo, a Venetian merchant who visited India around 1289–1293, noted Rudrama Devi’s rule. Rani Rudramma Devi was succeeded by her grandson, Prataparudra. In 1309, he was defeated by Malik Kafur but managed to save the kingdom by agreeing to pay an annual tribute to Delhi. In 1320, the Khalji dynasty was replaced by the Tughluq dynasty in Delhi. Taking advantage of this, Prataparudra asserted his independence. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq sent his son, who defeated the Kakatiyas. After the end of the Kakatiya dynasty, new kingdoms emerged and were finally united under the Musunuri Nayakas.

Image Source: Wikipedia

The Ramappa temple in Warangal represents the finest example among Kakatiya temples and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Yadava is incorrect

• The Yadavas (Seuna or Sevuna) of Devagiri (c. 1187 – 1317) was a medieval Indian dynasty ruled from its capital Devagiri (present-day Daulatabad, in the Sambhajinagar district, Maharashtra). Initially, Yadavas ruled as feudatories of the Western Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas. By the end of the twelfth century, as the Chalukya power declined, the Yadava king Bhillama V declared independence. In the thirteenth century, the dynasty reached its height under King Singhana and ruled an area stretching from the Narmada River in the north to the Tungabhadra River in the south in the western Deccan. Its territory included present-day Maharashtra, northern Karnataka and parts of Madhya Pradesh. In 1307, the Delhi Sultanate ruler Alauddin Khalji sent a large army, commanded by Malik Kafur, to capture the Devagiri fort. Malik Kafur overran the kingdom and took Ramachandra a prisoner to Delhi. However, Ramachandra was released after six months and allowed to rule his kingdom as a vassal under the Sultanate army. Finally, the kingdom was annexed by the Khalji sultanate in 1317.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

Literary work	Author
Devichandragupta	Bilhana
Hammira-Mahakavya	Nayachandra Suri
Milinda-panha	Nagarjuna
Nitivakyamrita	Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched

• Devichandragupta is a Sanskrit play written by Vishakhadatta. It sheds light on how Chandragupta II came to the throne and married Dhruvadevi. Another work of Vishakhadatta, the Mudrarakshas, is an important source of information on the rise of Chandragupta to power, mentioning people and tribes such as the Yavanas, Sakas, Kiratas, Cambojas, Bhalikas, Parasikas, Khasas, Gandharas, Cinas, Kaulutas, Maghas and others who existed during the reign of Chandra Gupta II.

Additional Information Bilhan was an 11th-century Kashmiri poet, renowned for his poem “Chaura-panchasika” or “The Love Thief.” Another significant work by Bilhana is the epic “Vikramankadevacharita,” in Sanskrit, which is based on his patron King Vikramaditya VI of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.

Pair 2 is correctly matched

• Hammira Mahakavya is a 15^th century Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri. It is a legendary biography of the 13^th century Chahamana king Hammira. While not entirely accurate from a historical point of view, the text provides valuable information about the medieval history of north-western India. Another important work ok Nayachandra Suri is Rambhamanjari.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched

• Milindapanho (by the Buddhist sage Nagasena), written in Pali (Buddhist non-canonical text), consists of a dialogue on various philosophical issues between the Indo-Greek king Milinda (Menander) and the monk Nagasena.

Additional Information Non-canonical texts or semi-canonical texts are texts that are not the sayings of the Buddha, but commentaries and observations on canonical texts, treatises on the Dharma/Dhammapada, historical information, quotes, definitions, grammars, and other writings in Pali, Tibetan, Chinese, and other East Asian languages. For example: Nettipakarana (The Book of Guidance, which gives a connected account of the Buddha’s teachings), Visuddhimagga (The Path to Purity, written by Buddhaghosa, deals with development from the purity of discipline to nibanna/enlightenment), Nidanakatha (first connected life story of Buddha). Nagarjuna He is considered to be the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism. He was a friend and contemporary of Satvahana King Gautamiputra of Andhra. The Mūlamadhyamakakārikā is the foundational text of the Madhyamaka school composed by Nāgārjuna (explains about the doctrine of emptiness, or shunyata).

Pair 4 is correctly matched

• Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri. The text is divided into chapters, each of which addresses ethical issues and various aspects of statecraft. His other important work is Yashastilaka.

Some important texts that directly deal with statecraft and ethics. Arthashastra by Kautilya: A foundational work on statecraft, governance, diplomacy, and economic policy. Manusmriti – Discusses social order, duties, law, and ethical conduct. Kamandakīya Nītisāra: A Sanskrit work belonging to c. 700-750 CE. Ḷaghu Arhannīti: A small manual in Prakrit verse (c. 1088-1172 CE) on civil and criminal laws by Hemachandra, a Jain scholar Nītikalpatarū: A Sanskrit treatise attributed to King Bhoja, available in manuscript only.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

“Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

1. Buddhism
2. Jainism
3. Shaivism
4. Vaishnavism

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of Jainism. Jaina metaphysics is both realistic and pluralistic (Metaphysics is a branch of philosophy that explores the fundamental nature of reality, existence, and the universe). As per Jain doctrine, the universe functions through the interaction of living souls and the five categories of non-living entities: ether (akasa), the means or condition of movement (dharma), the means or condition of rest (adharma), time (kala), and matter (pudgala). Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of entities such as stones, rocks, running water, and many other natural objects not looked upon as living by other sects.

Answer: (b) Jainism; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and canal- cum-aqueduct several a kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

1. Devaraya I
2. Mallikarjuna
3. Vira Vijaya
4. Virupaksha

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Deva Raya I (c. 1406–1422 CE) was a prominent ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire known for his contributions to irrigation, military organisation, and cultural patronage. He commissioned a massive dam across the Tungabhadra River along with a canal-cum-aqueduct system to supply water to the capital, and also constructed another dam on the Haridra River to support agriculture. The celebrated Hazara Rama Temple, a fine example of Deccan architecture, was built during his reign. His court was visited by travellers such as Nicolo Conti and Afanasy Nikitin, who left valuable accounts of the empire. Deva Raya I strengthened the Vijayanagara army by improving cavalry forces, employing Turkic archers, and importing quality horses from Arabia and Persia. He was also a patron of Kannada literature and architecture, with the noted Jain poet Madhura associated with his court, continuing from the time of his father Harihara II.

Additional Information The Vijayanagar kingdom constituted four dynasties — Sangama (c.1336–1485 CE), Saluva (c.1485–1503 CE), Tuluva (c.1503–1570 CE) and Aravidu (till the end of the 17th century). Harihara and Bukka (c.1336–1377 CE) were founders of the Sangama dynasty of the Vijayanagar kingdom. Mallikarjuna, Vira Vijaya, and Virupaksha were rulers of the Sangama Dynasty, but historical records are unclear about their exact timelines, and their rule did not see significant accomplishments.

Answer: (a) Devaraya I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

1. Ahmad Shah
2. Mahmud Begarha
3. Bahadur Shah
4. Muhammad Shah

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Bahadur Shah was a sultan of Gujarat from 1526 to 1535 and again from 1536 to 1537. He was the Sultan of the Muzaffarid dynasty who ruled the Gujarat Sultanate, a late medieval kingdom of India.
• In 1532, Gujarat came under attack by the Mughal Emperor Humayun and fell. Bahadur Shah sought Portuguese assistance in regaining control over Gujarat and, in exchange, ceded Bassein, Diu, Daman, and Bombay to the Portuguese in 1534. Bahadur Shah regained the kingdom in 1536, but the relationship between Bahadur Shah and the Portuguese worsened. Finally, he was assassinated by the Portuguese aboard a ship while negotiating with them.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Ahmad Shah succeeded Muzaffar Shah (founder of the Muzaffarid dynasty) in 1411 CE. He is regarded as the true architect of the Gujarat Sultanate, having brought the nobility under control, established a stable administration, and successfully expanded and consolidated the kingdom. He imposed the jizyah tax in Gujarat but simultaneously demonstrated administrative inclusivity by appointing Hindus like Manik Chand and Motichand to key ministerial positions. In 1413 CE, he initiated the relocation of the capital from Patan to the newly founded city of Ahmedabad.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The most famous sultan of Gujarat was Mahmud Begarha (1459-1511).He was called Begarha because he captured two of the most powerful forts (garhs):
  • Girnar in Saurashtra (now called Junagarh) and
  • Champaner in south Gujarat.
• Many works were translated from Arabic to Persian during his reign. His court poet was the Sanskrit scholar, Udayaraja, who wrote a book called the Raja- Vinoda. Under his reign, the Gujarat Sultanate reached its zenith, encompassing vast territories bordered by the Arabian Sea, Malwa, Khandesh, Jalor, and Nagaur.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Muizz-ud-Din Muhammad Shah II, born Karim Khan was a ruler of the Muzaffarid dynasty, who reigned over the Gujarat Sultanate from 1442 to 1451. He expanded and strengthened the Sultanate.

Answer: (c) Bahadur Shah; Difficulty Level: Medium

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

1. The Regulating Act
2. The Pitt’s India Act
3. The Charter Act of 1793
4. The Charter Act of 1833

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Charter Act of 1833 Provision: The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India. William Bentinck was the last Governor-General of Bengal and the. First Governor-General of India.
  • The Governor General’s Executive Council was expanded to include the Law Member, bringing the total number of members to four. (Pitt’s Act of 1784 reduced it to three). Macaulay was the first Law Member of the Governor-General’s Council. He influenced the government’s educational policy for many years.
  • The Governor-General in Council was given the power to legislate for all British territories in India. Hence, the Governors of Bombay and Madras were deprived of their legislative power.
  • The Council was given the power to control, superintend, and direct the Company’s civil and military affairs.
  • The Bombay, Bengal, Madras and other regions were subjected to complete control of the Governor General in Council.
  • The Governor-General was empowered to appoint the Law Commission to study, collect and codify various rules and regulations prevalent in India.
  • It ended the Company’s monopoly on the tea trade and trade with China.
  • The Company was to have only political functions (deprived of commercial functions).
  • The Charter Act of 1833 instructed the government to abolish slavery.
    • 1807: Britain passed the Abolition of the Slave Trade Act, outlawing the trans-Atlantic slave trade (British Atlantic slave trade).
    • 1833: Britain passed the Abolition of Slavery Act, ordering the gradual abolition of slavery in all British colonies.
    • 1843: The Indian government abolished slavery.
    • India was to pay the Company’s debts. The company’s shareholders were guaranteed a dividend of 10.5% per annum.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Regulating Act 1773:
  • In 1773, the British Parliament decided to control the Company’s Administration and passed the Regulating Act.
  • It was the British Parliament’s first act to regulate the Company’s affairs in India.
  • The Act made changes in the constitution of the Court of Directors.
  • The Court of Proprietors would now elect twenty-four members every four years, with six directors retiring annually instead of all directors being elected yearly.
  • The actions of the Directors were subjected to the supervision of the British Government.
  • The Directors of the Company were required to submit all communications about the civil and military affairs of Bengal (administration of Bengal) and the revenues of India to the British Government.
  • The status of Governor of Bengal was raised to the Governor-General of Bengal, and Governors of other provinces in India were subordinate to him.
  • The Governor-General was to be assisted by a council of four members.
  • Decisions were to be made by majority vote, and the Governor-General had a casting vote.
  • The Governor General in Council was given the power:
    • To administer the Bengal Presidency (civil and military administration)
    • To superintend and control the presidencies of Madras and Bombay in matters of war and peace.
  • The Governors of Madras and Bombay were required to regularly send information to the Governor-General regarding the Company’s government revenues and interests.
  • The Governor General was directly controlled by the Court of Directors and kept it fully informed of the Company’s affairs.
  • The Act established a Supreme Court of Justice at Calcutta with the Chief Justice and three judges to give justice to Europeans, their employees and the citizens of Calcutta.

Warren Hastings was the last Governor of Bengal (1772-73) and the first Governor-General of Bengal from 1773 to 1785.

The Governor-General did not possess the power of veto.

Before the Regulating Act of 1773, the three EIC presidencies were independent, and no one was subordinate to another.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Pitt’s India Act 1784:
  • Pitt’s Act gave the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and administration in India.
  • The Act established a Board of Control consisting of six commissioners, including two Cabinet ministers. The Board of Control was established:
    • To guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India.
    • To control all matters of civil and military affairs and revenue of the British territories in India.
  • In important and urgent matters, the Board of Control had the power to send direct orders to India through a secret committee of Directors.
  • Pitt’s Act reduced the number of members of the Governor-General’s Council to three. One of them was to be the Commander-in-Chief. This enabled the Governor-General to get a majority even if he could get the support of only one member.
  • The Governor-General and Council were made subordinate to the British Government. They were forbidden to declare war and enter into any treaty without the sanction of the directors or the secret committee.
  • The Company’s possessions in India came under the supremacy of the British Parliament and were called British possessions.

Option (c) is incorrect

• The Charter Act of 1793:
  • The Act renewed the company’s commercial privileges for next 20 years.
  • The royal approval was mandated for the appointment of the governor-general, the governors, and the commander in-chief.
  • All higher administrative posts worth more than £ 500 a year salary were to be held by Englishmen. This policy was also applied to other branches of Government, such as the army, police, judiciary, and engineering.
  • The company after paying the necessary expenses, interest etc, from the Indian revenues, was to pay 5 lakh pounds annually to British government.
  • The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions and this led to disappearing of the Maal Adalats.
  • The Home government members were to be paid out of the Indian revenues which continued up to 1919.

Answer: (d) The Charter Act of 1833; Difficulty Level: Easy

In essence, what does Due Process of Law’ mean?

1. The principle of natural justice
2. The procedure established by law
3. Fair application of law
4. Equality before law

Explanation

• In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court expanded the meaning of “procedure established by law” to effectively incorporate the concept of due process. It held that any procedure depriving a person of life or personal liberty must be just, fair, and reasonable, and the law itself must also satisfy the requirements of Articles 14, 19, and 21. With this interpretation, both substantive and procedural due process were read into Article 21, thereby embedding the essence of natural justice. Consequently, whenever a person is deprived of life or personal liberty, the guarantees of fairness inherent in natural justice apply. These principles primarily include nemo judex in causa sua (no one should be a judge in their own cause, ensuring absence of bias) and audi alteram partem (the right to be heard, meaning no one should be condemned unheard).

Answer: (a) The principle of natural justice; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
2. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• ‘Prisons’ is a State subject under State List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. The management and administration of Prisons fall exclusively within the domain of the State Governments and are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894, and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments.
• Thus, States have the primary role, responsibility and authority to change the current prison laws, rules and regulations. Therefore, it is true that the Prisons Act of 1894 placed the responsibility of prisons under the jurisdiction of Provincial governments (State governments), which explains why State governments have the authority to establish their own rules and regulations for prison management.

Additional Information The Ministry of Home Affairs, through the Bureau of Police Research and Development, prepared the ‘Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act, 2023’ and forwarded it to all States and UTs in May 2023, for adoption. In an attempt to overhaul the 1894 Colonial Act, the Model Prisons Act seeks to establish provisions for granting parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners to encourage good conduct. Additionally, it aims to provide separate accommodation for women and transgender inmates, ensure the physical and mental well-being of prisoners, and focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates.

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

1. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
2. It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
3. It defines and limits the powers of government.
4. It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Explanation

Statement (c) best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country

• The primary purpose of a constitution is to establish the framework for government and define its powers and limitations. In the Indian Constitution for example, it is specified that in most instances, Parliament gets to decide laws and policies, and that Parliament itself be organised in a particular manner.
• It ensures that the government’s powers are clearly outlined and restricted to prevent abuse of power and protect citizens’ rights. Constitutions limit the power of government in many ways. The most common way of limiting the power of government is to specify certain fundamental rights that all of us possess as citizens and which no government can ever be allowed to violate. The exact content and interpretation of these rights vary from constitution to constitution. But most constitutions will protect a basic cluster of rights.

Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

1. 1st Amendment
2. 42nd Amendment
3. 44th Amendment
4. 86th Amendment

Explanation

• This question has been dropped in the official answer key released by the Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (X) Dropped.

Consider the following organisations/bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

The National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body

• It was set up in 1993 by an act of Parliament. The 102^nd Amendment Act of 2018 gave constitutional status to the. NCBC.

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is not a constitutional body

• It is a statutory body constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, which was later amended by the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA) 2006.

The National Law Commission is not a constitutional body

• The Law Commission of India (executive body) is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs, with a definite set of terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law.

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is not a constitutional body

• It is a statutory body established in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act (CPA) 1986. It is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the SC or a sitting or a retired CJHC.
• Jurisdiction: To entertain a complaint valued at more than two crores. Appellate and Revisional jurisdiction from the orders of State Commissions or the District commission.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Article 71 of the Indian Constitution talks about matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a President or Vice-President:
  • Any disputes or doubts relating to the election of the President or Vice-President are adjudicated exclusively by the Supreme Court of India, and its decision is final.
  • If the Supreme Court declares the election of a person as President or Vice-President invalid, any actions performed by them in their official capacity before the date of the court’s decision shall remain legally valid.
  • Parliament has the power to make laws on any matter related to or connected with the election of the President or Vice-President, in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The election of a person as President or Vice-President shall not be called in question on the ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the electoral college electing him. There’s no provision for postponing the presidential election.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution does not prescribe any time-limit within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. This is also known as the President’s pocket veto.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 2 is correct

• The role of the Rajya Sabha in passing Money Bills is restricted. Such Bills can originate only in the Lok Sabha. Once a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within 14 days, along with its non-binding suggestions. If the Lok Sabha rejects these recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed by both Houses in the original form approved by the Lok Sabha. Even if the Rajya Sabha fails to return the Bill within 14 days, the Bill is deemed passed in the same manner. Therefore, in the case of Money Bills, the Rajya Sabha holds only an advisory role.

Statement 1 is correct

• Ordinary Bills and certain Financial Bills require agreement from both Houses of Parliament for passage, meaning the Rajya Sabha can reject or amend them. While the Rajya Sabha cannot alter Money Bills (Art. 110), it has equal power over Ordinary and Financial Bills, with deadlocks resolvable through joint sittings.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The President can summon (does not become necessary) a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve differences over a deadlock. There is no provision for a joint sitting for differences over a Money Bill.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• According to Section 36D of the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA):
  • (1) The State Government shall constitute a Community Reserve Management Committee, which shall be the authority responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the Community Reserve.
  • (2) The Committee shall consist of [not less than five representatives] nominated by the Village Panchayat or where such Panchayat does not exist by the members of the Gram Sabha and one representative of the State Forests or Wild Life Department under whose jurisdiction the Community Reserve is located.
  • [(2A) Where a community reserve is declared on private land under sub-section (1) of section 36C, the community reserve management committee shall consist of the owner of the land, a representative of the State Forests or Wild Life Department under whose jurisdiction the community reserve is located and also the representative of the Panchayat concerned or the tribal community, as the case may be.]
  • (3) The Committee shall be the competent authority to prepare and implement the management plan for the Community Reserve and to take steps to ensure the protection of wildlife and its habitat in the reserve.
  • (4) The Committee shall elect a Chairman who shall also be the Honorary Wild Life Warden on the Community Reserve.
  • (5) The Committee shall regulate its own procedure, including the quorum.

Statement 2 is correct and Statement 4 is incorrect

• Once a forest is designated as a community reserve, hunting and agricultural activities, including jhum cultivation (a traditional method of slash-and-burn agriculture), are not allowed within that area.

Statement 3 is correct

• People of such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District, and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In the Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas.

Statement 2 is correct

• The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district, and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the block.
• Most of the districts form scheduled areas only partially.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said areas.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
2. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• The Supreme Court of India has consistently referred to the notions of “efficiency” and “merit,” while adjudicating the validity of various reservation policies.
• The Court has held in several judgments — Indra Sawhney v Union of India 1993; M Nagaraj v Union of India 2006 — that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335, which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration,” while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts. This was done while the Constitution does not define the term “efficiency of administration.”This gap in interpretation was filled by a two-judge bench in the B K Pavitra (II) v Union of India (2019), as it held that “efficiency of adminis­tration in the affairs of the union or of a state must be defined in an inclusive sense, where diverse segments of society find representation as a true aspiration of governance by and for the people.”

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be easily identified as wrong because the Constitution often mentions concepts without clearly defining them. Article 335 refers to “efficiency of administration” but does not define it. Hence, Statement II is incorrect, making option (c) the correct answer.

Additional Information: Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment) Article 16 prohibits discrimination against matters of public employment or appointment on the grounds of race, religion, caste, sex, place of birth, descent, or residence. It provides special provisions for backward classes in matters of public employment or appointment. Article 16(4) allows the State to make reservations in appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens. Article 16(4A) was inserted by the 77th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1995. It provides for the reservation of promotions in public employment for SCs and STs. Article 16(4B) was inserted by the 81st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000. It allows the State to carry over the unfilled vacancies reserved for SCs and STs to subsequent years. It is referred to as the “carry forward rule”. Indra Sawhney & Ors. vs. Union of India & Ors. (1992) Upheld the reservation validity but set a 50% cap, except in extraordinary cases. M. Nagaraj & Others vs. Union of India & Others (2006) Established guidelines for providing reservations in promotions for SCs and STs.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
2. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is correct

• India does have significant uranium deposits, but it still relies heavily on coal for electricity production due to several factors. Coal continues to play a central role in India’s energy landscape, contributing 55% to the national energy mix and fuelling over 74% of total power generation, according to the Economic Survey.

Statement-II is incorrect

• Uranium Enrichment: When uranium is mined, it consists of approximately 99.3% uranium-238 (U238), 0.7% uranium-235 (U235), and < 0.01% uranium-234 (U234). Only the U-235 isotope (0.7%) is fissionable. The remaining 99.3% is mostly the U-238 isotope, which does not contribute directly to the fission process. However, it is possible to increase or enrich the percentage of U-235.
  • Methods used for Enrichment: The Gaseous Diffusion process, Gas centrifuge enrichment process and laser separation technology.
  • Low-enriched uranium (LEU): Uranium enriched to less than 20% U-235. (That in power reactors is usually 3.5 – 5.0% U-235.)
  • High-enriched uranium (HEU): Uranium enriched to 20% U-235 or more.
  • For nuclear weapons, Uranium enriched to at least 90% U-235.

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be easily identified as wrong because the percentage mentioned is clearly exaggerated and can be identified using basic understanding of the topic. Nuclear power plants use low-enriched uranium (~3–5%), not 60% enrichment, which is closer to weapons-grade levels. Hence, Statement II is incorrect.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
2. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-1 is correct Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-1 is correct

• Marsupials are mammals that give birth to relatively undeveloped young, which then continue to grow and develop outside the womb, typically in a pouch. There are around 270 species of marsupials. About 72 of these are found in Central and South America, one–the opossum–in North America, and a few in Papua New Guinea. Around 200 marsupial species are found in Australia, which is the largest number by far. Australian marsupials include wallabies, kangaroos (including tree kangaroos), possums, Tasmanian devils, bilbies, quolls, numbats, phascogales, quokkas and many others, including the extinct Tasmanian tiger (thylacine). They are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II is incorrect

• Most Australian marsupials live in dry scrub or desert habitat.
• In South America, marsupials live in tropical rainforests.
• Marsupials can inhabit various parts of the forest, from the trees to the forest floor, where some, like wombats, burrow underground.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Medium

‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

1. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
2. The United Nations Environment Programme
3. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
4. The World Wide Fund for Nature

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It aims to reduce threats to ecosystems and their native species by increasing awareness of ways to prevent, control or eradicate invasive species.

Additional Information IUCN is an international organization (NGO) working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It is involved in data gathering and analysis, research, field projects, advocacy, lobbying and education. The organization is best known for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide. Its headquarters are in Gland, Switzerland. The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. In the IUCN Red List, the official term “threatened” is a grouping of three categories: Critically Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable. Species are classified by the IUCN Red List into nine groups: International Arrangements to Control Invasive Alien Species Global Invasive Species Programme: It is supporting the implementation of Article 8(h) of CBD with IUCN as a partner organisation to address the global threat from Invasive Alien Species (IAS). Convention on Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS or Bonn Convention): It considers IAS as a threat to migratory species. Ramsar Convention: COP 7 resolution addresses threats of invasive species to wetland ecosystems. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS): States are required to protect and preserve the marine environment from intentional or unintentional introduction of alien species.

Option (b) is incorrect

• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP): an agency of the United Nations. It coordinates the UN’s environmental activities. It assists developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and practices. It was founded as a result of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment in 1972. It has overall responsibility for environmental problems among United Nations agencies. Addressing climate change or combating desertification is overseen by other UN organisations, like the UNFCCC and the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification.
• UNEP’s activities cover a wide range of issues regarding the atmosphere, marine and terrestrial ecosystems, environmental governance and green economy. The World Meteorological Organisation and UN Environment Programme established the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in 1988. UN Environment is also one of several Implementing Agencies for the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and the Multilateral Fund for the Implementation of the Montreal Protocol. It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group. UNEP has registered several successes, such as the 1987 Montreal Protocol and the 2012 Minamata Convention, a treaty to limit toxic mercury.
• HQ: Nairobi, Kenya.

• Important Reports by UNEP:
  • Emission Gap Report,
  • Global Environment Outlook,
  • Frontiers, Invest into Healthy Planet.
• Major Programmes of the UNEP
  • Clean up the World
  • Billion Tree Campaign
  • World Environment Day (June 5th)

Option (c) is incorrect

• The Brundtland Commission, officially known as the World Commission on Environment and Development, was established by the United Nations in 1983. It is renowned for introducing the concept of sustainable development, emphasizing the need to meet present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own. Their landmark report, “Our Common Future (1987),” outlined strategies for balancing economic development with environmental protection. The publication of the report is considered a milestone in triggering international awareness and discourse on the importance of global sustainable development.

Option (d) is incorrect

• World Wide Fund for Nature (World Wildlife Fund): It is an international non-governmental organisation founded in 1961.
• It is the world’s largest conservation organization. WWF works in nearly 100 countries.
• HQ: Gland, Switzerland.
• Logo: Giant panda.
• The Living Planet Report has been published every two years by WWF since 1998.
• Notable worldwide campaigns: Earth Hour and Debt-for-Nature Swap.

Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Lion-tailed Macaque is incorrect

• Lion-tailed macaques are diurnal.

Malabar civet is correct

• It is endemic to India and was first reported from Travancore, Kerala.It is nocturnal in nature and found exclusively in the Western Ghats.
• Habitat: Wooded plains and hill slopes of evergreen rainforests.
• Threats: Deforestation and commercial plantations are major threats.
• IUCN status: CR

Sambar Deer is incorrect

• The sambar is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. It is one of the largest members of the deer family. It is the state animal of Odisha.
• Behaviour: Sambar deer are crepuscular, meaning they are most active at dawn and dusk. Although they may also be active at night, they are not strictly nocturnal.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

1. Butterflies
2. Dragonflies
3. Honeybees
4. Wasps

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Honeybees possess one of the most complicated examples of nonhuman communication. They can tell each other where to find resources such as food, water, or nest sites with a physical “waggle dance.” This dance conveys the direction, distance and quality of a resource to the bee’s nestmates. The waggle dancer gives the instructions, and the followers learn where they can find the indicated resource.

Answer: (c) Honeybees; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Certain mushrooms have medicinal properties and are used in traditional medicine for treating various ailments. Medicinal mushrooms that have an anti-inflammatory and immune-enhancing effect include maitake (Grifola frondosa), shiitake (Lentinus edodes), reishi (Ganoderma lucidum), and turkey tail (Trametes versicolor).

Statement 2 is correct

• Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. For example, Psilocybin, found in magic mushrooms, is a naturally occurring psychedelic drug that induces hallucinogenic effects. It alters perception, thinking, sense of time, and emotions, causing hallucinations.

Statement 3 is correct

• Certain mushrooms produce natural compounds that act as insecticides, deterring or killing insects. Mushrooms such as Lactarius fuliginosus and Lactarius fumosus have insecticidal properties.

Statement 4 is correct

• Bioluminescence is the ability of a living organism to produce and emit light. mushrooms (e.g., Armillaria, Mycena) emit light. A few years back, a mushroom documentation project in the forests of Northeast India revealed not only 600 varieties of fungi but also led to the discovery of a bioluminescent variety of mushrooms. The new species — named Roridomyces phyllostachydis — was sighted in Meghalaya’s Mawlynnong in East Khasi Hills district and later at Krang Shuri in West Jaintia Hills district. It was a new species from the genus Roridomyces, and was also the first-ever fungus in this genus to be discovered in India. It is now one of the 97 known species of bioluminescent fungi in the world.

PMF Concept Hack When statements use words like “some”, they are non-extreme. In biology, even if a single species shows a property, the statement becomes correct. So, trying to eliminate such statements is risky. Here, all statements say “some mushrooms…”, and such properties (medicinal, psychoactive, insecticidal, bioluminescent) are known in different species

Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Most Indian squirrels are arboreal (tree-dwelling). They build nests (dreys) in trees, not burrows in the ground.

Statement 3 is correct

• Squirrels are omnivores (they eat both plants and animals). Their favorite foods include: acorns, seeds, nuts, berries, tree buds, insects, bird eggs, and amphibians. They sometimes do resort to scavenging, feeding on the remains of termites, beetles, moths and wasps.

Statement 2 is correct

• Squirrels don’t just gather the food they need at that moment; they gather and stock up for the future. These rodents take up residence in nests that offer storage space, like the hollow of a tree, an empty animal burrow or a house’s attic.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Certain extremophiles called hyperthermophiles (e.g., archaea found near hydrothermal vents) can grow at temperatures exceeding 100°C under high-pressure conditions.

Statement 2 is correct

• The microorganisms live in every part of the biosphere, and some of them are even capable of growing at low temperatures, including those below the freezing point. Psychrophiles are microorganisms that can grow at 0 °C and below, have an optimum growth temperature close to 15 °C.

Statement 3 is correct

• Acidophiles are organisms that can thrive in environments of high acidity, at a pH of 3.0 or below. Examples of acidophilic bacteria include Helicobacter pylori, Alicyclobacillus and Acetobacter acet. Acidophiles are found in highly acidic environments such as sulphuric pools, areas polluted by acid mine drainage, and even our own stomachs.

Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

1. Fishing cat
2. Orangutan
3. Otter
4. Sloth bear

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Researchers have observed orangutans in the wild using sticks to extract seeds from fruits and to scrape insects out of holes in trees.
• They are one of the extant species of great apes.
• Great Apes: Common Chimpanzee, Orangutans, Gorilla and the Gracile Chimpanzee or Bonobo.
• Found on the islands of Sumatra in Indonesia and Borneo. There are three types of orangutans taxonomically: the Sumatran, the Bornean, and the Tapanuli.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Fishing Cats (Prionailurus viverrinus): Fishing cats are nearly twice the size of domestic cats. They are skilled swimmers, often entering water to hunt fish, as their name suggests. These nocturnal hunters also prey on frogs, crustaceans, snakes, birds, and scavenge carcasses of larger animals. The fishing cat is the State animal of West Bengal.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Otters are members of the mammalian family called Mustelidae. They are shy and have elusive habits, adapting to a variety of habitats ranging from marine to freshwater environments. They are invariably associated with water, with a few exceptions.
• Otters are found the world over, except in Australia, New Zealand, Madagascar, and other oceanic islands. India is home to 3 of the 13 species of otters found worldwide. These are – Eurasian Otter (Lutra lutra); Smooth-coated Otter (Lutra perspicillata) and Small-clawed otter (Aonyx cinereus).

Option (d) is incorrect

• Sloth Bears are also called Honey Bears. They live in dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands.

Answer: (b) Orangutan; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are entirely human-made. They are commonly used as aerosol propellants and foam-blowing agents, and are also employed in fire protection systems as clean agents for fire suppression. However, they are not used as lubricants. While HFCs do not contribute to ozone depletion, they have global warming potentials (GWPs) that are hundreds to thousands of times higher than that of carbon dioxide.

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Jhelum originates from a spring at Verinag in J&K, located at the foot of the Pir Panjal Range. It is called Vyeth in Kashmiri, Vetesta in Sanskrit, and Hydaspes in Greek. It is the main waterway of the Kashmir Valley, which flows through Srinagar and Wular Lake. This transboundary river joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
• Major tributaries: Liddar, Dudhganga and Sindh.
• Important cities: Srinagar, Baramulla and Uri.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Kolleru Lake was previously a lagoon, but now it is several kilometres inland due to the coastline of emergence and delta formation. The lake is fed directly by the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams and is connected to the Krishna and Godavari systems via several inflowing drains and channels (not directly fed by the Krishna River). It was declared a Ramsar site in 2002 for its ecological importance.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Kanwar Lake, also known as Kabartal locally, is located in Bihar’s Begusarai district. It is a residual oxbow lake & Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake.
• It is formed due to the meandering of the Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of Ganga. It is a rainfed lake, according to waterbody experts and fills up during the monsoon season. Challenges faced by Kanwar Lake: Increasing silt accumulation, deforestation, and land disputes.

Additional Information: Gandak River Originates near the Tibet-Nepal border at a height of 7,620 m It receives a large number of tributaries in Nepal Himalaya. Its important tributaries are the Kali Gandak, the Mayangadi, the Bari and the Trishuli. It flows into the Ganga at Hajipur in Bihar. Burhi Gandak Originates from the western slopes of the Sumesar hills near the India-Nepal border. It joins the Ganga near Monghyr town. Image Source: IITK

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Port	Well known as
Kamarajar Port	First major port in India registered as a company
Mundra Port	Largest privately owned port in India
Visakhapatnam	Largest container port in Port India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. All three pairs
4. None of the pairs

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, it is the 12^TH major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The port was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908, in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956, in October 1999. It is the only corporatised major port and is registered as a company.

Statement 2 is correct

• Mundra Port is the largest private port of India, located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. Formerly, it was operated by Mundra Port and Special Economic Zone Limited (MPSEZ), owned by Adani Group, which was later expanded into Adani Ports & SEZ Limited (APSEZ).

Image Source: Indian Express

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust, also known as Nhava Sheva, is the largest container port in India. It is located on the Western Coast in Maharashtra.
• Port of Visakhapatnam, a natural harbour, is located on the East Coast.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following trees:

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Jackfruit is incorrect

• Jacktree is a medium-sized evergreen tree, and typically reaches 8-25 m in height. It is a tropical climacteric fruit belonging to the Moraceae family, native to the Western Ghats of India and common in Asia, Africa, and some regions of South America. It is known to be the largest edible fruit in the world.

Mahua and Teak are correct

• The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of the Himalayas, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood, etc., are the main species of these forests.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Arable land (% of land area) in China and India was reported at 11.5% and 51.8%, respectively, in 2023, according to the World Bank’s Development Indicators.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Although India possesses a large area of irrigated land, China has developed more extensive irrigation infrastructure and irrigates a greater share of its arable land. Consequently, the proportion of irrigated land relative to total arable land is higher in China than in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• China produces much more from each hectare of land than India does.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
2. Marakkanam Salt Pans
3. Naupada Swamp
4. Rann of Kutch

Explanation

Rann of Kutch is correct

• The Rann of Kutch area was once a sprawling shallow of the Arabian Sea until a constant geological shift closed off the connection with the sea. Over the years, the region eventually became a seasonal marshy salt desert. During monsoons, the marsh fills up with water, and in the summers, the water dries to create a crunchy, white, salty bed of land.

Marakkanam Salt Pans is incorrect

• The Marakkanam salt pans are spread over an area of 4,000 acres and are one of the largest producers of salt in Tamil Nadu (Tamil Nadu is the second largest producer of salt in India, next to Gujarat).

Naupada Swamp is incorrect

• Naupada Swamp is located in Andhra Pradesh. It serves as an important habitat for diverse bird species, such as the spot-billed pelican (Pelicanus philippensis). The wetland gained attention due to considerable worry surrounding a nematode infestation affecting its ecosystem.

Bhitarkanika Mangroves is incorrect

• The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa), which are the second largest in the Indian sub-continent, harbour a high concentration of typical mangrove species and high genetic diversity. The Bhitarkanika Mangroves have the highest density of Saltwater Crocodiles (Crocodylus porosus) in the country. Gahirmatha beach, located in the Bhirtarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, supports the largest known nesting ground of olive ridley turtle in the world.

Answer: (d) Rann of Kutch; Difficulty Level: Medium

Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

1. Aluminium
2. Copper
3. Iron
4. Titanium

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and Rutile (TiO2) are both minerals that contain high concentrations of titanium.

Additional Information Titanium is a metal that has a silver-grey appearance. Properties: high strength, lightweight, and corrosion-resistant, heat-resistant (due to high melting point), and biocompatible (compatible with living tissues and has low reactivity with the human body). Occurrence: found in nature only as an oxide, not in its pure metallic form. It is found in various minerals, rocks, and soils. It is also present in plants, animals, natural waters, deep-sea dredgings, meteorites, and stars. Ores: The most abundant titanium ore is ilmenite. Other titanium ores include rutile and titanite. Ilmenite: It is an iron-black, heavy, metallic oxide mineral. It is composed of iron and titanium oxide. It is commonly found in igneous rocks. Rutile: It has a distinctive reddish-brown colour and a higher titanium dioxide content than ilmenite. It occurs in igneous and metamorphic rocks and is often found in association with ilmenite. Titanite: It is a calcium titanium silicate mineral. It is green, yellowish-green, brown, or black in colour. It is commonly found in metamorphic and igneous rocks. Top Producers of Titanium: 1st China > 2nd Russia > 3rd Japan > 4th Kazakhstan > 5th Ukraine Uses: nuclear applications, defence, aerospace, marine, and construction industries, high-performance alloys, electrical goods, medical implants, and jewellery. An oxide is a chemical compound that contains at least one oxygen atom bonded to one or more other elements. Oxides are formed when an element reacts with oxygen.

Answer: (d) Titanium; Difficulty Level: Medium

About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

1. Argentina
2. Botswana
3. The Democratic Republic of the Congo
4. Kazakhstan

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is the world’s largest producer of cobalt, responsible for over 70% of global mine production.

Additional Information Cobalt is an important ferromagnetic alloying metal having irreplaceable industrial applications. It is extracted as a by-product of copper, nickel, zinc or precious metals. Superalloys made of cobalt are wear & corrosion-resistant at elevated temperatures. Cobalt reserves are mainly in the Democratic Republic of Congo (51%), followed by Australia (17%). Besides, major reserves are also located in Cuba (7%), the Philippines and Russia (4% each), and Canada (3%). In India, 69% of deposits are concentrated in Odisha and 31% in Jharkhand. Presently, there is no production of cobalt in the country from primary cobalt resources. The demand for cobalt is usually met through imports.

Answer: (c) The Democratic Republic of Congo; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

1. Cameroon
2. Nigeria
3. South Sudan
4. Uganda

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Located in Central Africa, the Congo Basin is home to the world’s second-largest rainforest.
• It covers six countries: Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon.

Additional Information The Congo Basin is the world’s second-largest carbon sink. The Congo River (formerly the Zaire River) is the second-longest river in Africa. It is the third-largest river in the world by discharge volume, following the Amazon and Ganges. It is also the deepest river in the world. It rises in the highlands of Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.

Answer: (a) Cameroon; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Amarkantak Hills are at confluence of Vindhya and the Sahyadri Ranges.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Amarkantak Hills is the highest peak of the Maikal range, which links the Vindhyachal and Satpura ranges.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Billigirirangan Hills are not part of the Satpura range. This hill range is located in southwestern Karnataka, at the border with Tamil Nadu’s Erode District.

Biligiri Ranganatha Temple TR, Wildlife Sanctuary Being at the confluence of the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats, the sanctuary is home to ecosystems that are unique to both mountain ranges. Vegetation: Evergreen, deciduous, sholas, and grasslands. Major Fauna: Wild elephants, tiger, gaur, sambhar, chital. Threats: Quarrying, sandalwood smuggling, elephant poaching.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats (south of the Panna River) in southern Andhra Pradesh. Tirupati, a major Hindu pilgrimage town and Srivenkateshwara National Park are located in these ranges.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Golden Quadrilateral is a network of highways connecting India’s four top metropolitan cities, namely Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata, thereby forming a quadrilateral. The project was launched in 2001 as part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP). The East-West Corridor links Porbandar (Gujarat) in the west to Silchar (Assam) in the east. This corridor connects 7 states – Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is a 1,360 km long route under construction, connecting Moreh (Manipur), India, with Mae Sot, Thailand, via Myanmar. The IMT highway is part of India’s Look East policy and aims to boost trade and commerce in the ASEAN–India Free Trade Area and Southeast Asia. India has proposed extending the highway to Cambodia, Laos, and Vietnam, forming the ~3,200 km East-West Economic Corridor. The E-W Economic Corridor between Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam became operational in 2015.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The 2800 km BCIM corridor was proposed to link Kunming in China’s Yunnan province with Kolkata, passing though nodes such as Mandalay in Myanmar and Dhaka in Bangladesh before heading to Kolkata. China-Myanmar Economic Corridor (CMEC) is the newest of the six land corridors under the BRI, and has assumed prominence in place of the Bangladesh China India Myanmar (BCIM) corridor which has largely stalled.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
2. Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Recon struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
3. Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Any dividends or interest income earned from InvITs is fully taxable according to the investor’s income tax slab rate. Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are pooled investment vehicles. InvITs invest in income generating commercial real estate properties and infrastructure assets via special purpose vehicles (SPV) through equity or debt instruments. Like mutual funds, they pool small amounts from individual and institutional investors and invest in infrastructure projects.
• For example: IRB InvIT is a publicly listed infrastructure investment trust in India that primarily invests in toll road projects. It generates income through toll collections from vehicles using its highways. The income is then distributed to unitholders as dividends. The tax treatment for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) as per the Finance Act 2023:

  

Statement 2 is correct

• InvITs are classified as borrowers under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act).
  • The Finance Act of 2021 amended the SARFAESI Act of 2002 to designate pooled investment vehicles as borrowers.
• This Act provides a legal framework for the securitisation of financial assets and allows for the enforcement of security interests in the event of a default.

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
2. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I

• In the post-pandemic recent past, numerous central banks globally increased interest rates primarily to combat rising inflation. Central banks typically believe they can manage inflation through various monetary policy tools. Raising rates increases borrowing costs, which can lead to reduced spending and investment. Central Banks generally assume they can counteract rising consumer prices through monetary policy. Monetary policy can’t resolve the remaining pandemic-related bottlenecks in global supply chains and the disruptions in commodity markets caused by the war in Ukraine. It can, however, slow overall demand to address demand-related inflationary pressures, so a tightening of financial conditions is the goal.

Additional Information: Monetary Policy It is a macroeconomic policy. It is a policy related to money supply in the economy. In India, the RBI manages the money supply through Quantitative and Qualitative instruments. Quantitative instruments influence the total volume of credit [Money Supply]. Qualitative instruments are used to influence the availability of credit among various types of borrowers. While managing money supply, the RBI keeps inflation and economic growth in mind primarily.

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
2. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is correct

• In order to meet their nationally determined contributions (NDCs), one mitigation strategy that is becoming popular with several countries is carbon markets. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement provides for the use of international carbon markets by countries to fulfil their NDCs. Carbon markets are essentially a tool for putting a price on carbon emissions— they establish trading systems where carbon credits or allowances can be bought and sold. A carbon credit is a kind of tradable permit that, per United Nations standards, equals one tonne of carbon dioxide removed, reduced, or sequestered from the atmosphere. Carbon allowances or caps, meanwhile, are set by countries or governments based on their emission-reduction targets. According to the United Nations Development Program report released in 2022, interest in carbon markets is growing globally: 83% of NDCs submitted by countries mention their intent to use international market mechanisms to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement-II is correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• Carbon markets generally function by channelling resources from emitters—primarily in the private sector—to entities capable of reducing or removing greenhouse gas emissions, which may include both private players and government bodies. Therefore, Statement 2 can also be considered correct.
• The transfer of resources from the private sector to the State is not the reason why these mechanisms are expected to become among the most widely used tools in the fight against climate change.

Additional Information: What is Article 6 of the Paris Agreement? Article 6 of the Paris Agreement aims to establish frameworks for international carbon markets to help countries meet their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). It comprises three interlinked components: Article 6.2: Provides accounting and reporting guidance for trading mitigation outcomes between countries (Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs)). Article 6.4: Establishes a UNFCCC-supervised carbon crediting mechanism for high-integrity credits. It is similar to the Clean Development Mechanism of the Kyoto Protocol. Article 6.8: Enables non-market cooperative approaches to enhance climate action without credit trading.

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization?

1. Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
2. Oversight of settlement and payment systems
3. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
4. Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Sterilization involves measures taken by a central bank to counterbalance the effects of its foreign exchange operations on the domestic money supply. When a central bank engages in buying or selling foreign currencies in the foreign exchange market, it influences the domestic money supply. To mitigate these effects, central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), use Open Market Operations (OMO) as one of their main tools.

Additional Information Open Market Operation (OMO) is a monetary policy tool central banks use to control money supply and interest rates. OMO involves the purchasing and selling of government securities (G-Sec) in the open market. How OMO Works: When a central bank buys G-Secs, it injects money/liquidity into the economy. When the central bank sells G-Secs, it drains money/liquidity from the economy. Economic Goals for Which OMOs are Used: Controlling the money supply Influencing interest rates Stabilising financial markets Implementation of monetary policy Exchange rate management Signalling monetary policy intentions in future Supporting government debt management

Option (b) is incorrect

• This is related to ensuring the smooth functioning of the financial system but is not directly related to sterilization.

Option (c) is incorrect

• This function is crucial for managing government finances and liquidity but does not directly relate to sterilization. Sterilization specifically addresses the need to counteract the effects of foreign exchange operations on the domestic money supply.

Option (d) is incorrect

• This involves supervision and regulation of financial institutions but is not connected to sterilization.

Answer: (a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following markets:

1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

The Government Bond Market and the Stock Market are included in the capital markets

• The term capital market refers to facilities and institutional arrangements through which long-term funds, both debt and equity, are raised and invested. It consists of a series of channels through which the community’s savings are made available to industrial and commercial enterprises and the public in general. It directs these savings toward their most productive use, leading to economic growth and development. The capital market consists of development banks, commercial banks and stock exchanges.
• The main instruments traded in the capital market are equity shares, debentures, bonds, preference shares, etc. The government bond market is a segment of the capital market that focuses on the trading of long-term debt securities. Similarly, the stock market is part of the capital market, trading equity securities that represent ownership interests in companies.

• The Capital Market can be divided into two parts: Primary Market and Secondary Market.

The Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market are not included in the capital markets

• The main instruments traded in the money market are short-term debt instruments such as T-bills, trade bills reports, commercial paper and certificates of deposit. The call money market handles very short-term borrowing and lending, typically overnight, and is not part of the capital market. Similarly, the treasury bill market deals with short-term government debt instruments and is also excluded from the capital market.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

1. Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
2. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
3. Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
4. A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Many marginal farmers in an area organise themselves into groups and synchronise and harmonise selected agricultural operations, best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field‘. The SFLF was conceptualised in Vietnam in 2011. In this, the farmers organised themselves into groups and synchronised their operations, such as nursery bed management, transplanting, and harvesting, collectively to achieve economies of scale. The SFLF farmers purchased inputs (seed and fertiliser) and sold paddy as a group to increase their bargaining power in price negotiations.
• An overwhelming majority of the Indian farmers, around 80 per cent, are small and marginal farmers, with less than one hectare of farmland per family. With the goal of doubling farmers’ income becoming a national priority in India, strategic engagement with small and marginal farmers has been emphasised.
• It is crucial for the country to reassess its agricultural strategy to better support these farmers. An innovative approach, such as the ‘small farmers, large field’ (SFLF) model, could offer a promising solution.

Image Source: Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Answer: (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Among the 14 kharif crops for which the Centre announces Minimum Support Prices (MSP) each year, niger or ramtil (Guizotia abyssinica) is included. Despite being a lesser-known oilseed, it is offered one of the highest MSPs, reflecting its relatively higher cost of production and market considerations. The area under its cultivation has been steadily shrinking over the past three decades. In 1985-86, niger was cultivated on around 0.6 million hectares (ha), according to a 2013 report by the All India Coordinated Research Project on Sesame and Niger (AICRP). In 2020-21, the cultivated area shrank by 80 per cent to just over 0.1 million ha, the lowest among the 14 kharif crops with MSP.

Statement 3 is correct

• Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking, the press cake post oil-extraction as livestock feed, and also consume the seeds as a condiment. Niger seed oil has medicinal properties, which is the reason for its commercial demand by the cosmetics, perfumeries and other allied industries. The crop can grow even on denuded soils and requires minimal water, fertilisers, or pesticides. However, its cultivation is often affected by amarbel, a twining parasitic plant scientifically known as Cuscuta chinensis, which can regularly damage niger plants.

Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the investments in the following assets:

1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Brand recognition, Intellectual property and Mailing list of clients are considered intangible investments

• Intangible assets are assets that don’t take a physical form but still deliver value. In this group are assets like software, patents, copyrights, trademarks, trade secrets and recipes.
• Many intangible assets can be put under the umbrella of intellectual property. A brand is a distinct symbol, logo, or name that companies use to set their products apart in the market. Brand equity is considered an intangible asset because its value stems from consumer perception rather than a physical entity.
• Intellectual property (IP) includes intangible assets like patents, trademarks, copyrights, and trade secrets, which are legal rights protecting inventions, artistic works, and business names.
• A company’s mailing list of clients is another intangible asset, consisting of past customers. It is essential for targeted marketing, allowing companies to promote products and services to specific customer segments and attract new business opportunities.

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All five

Explanation

Forest and ecology, Demographic performance and Tax and fiscal efforts are part of the criteria, other than population area and income distance, for the horizontal tax devolution

• The share of States from the divisible pool (vertical devolution) stands at 41% as per the recommendation of the 15^th FC. The distribution among the States (horizontal devolution) is based on various criteria. (See the figure below):

Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Affordable housing, Renewable energy and Health care are correct

• In February 2023, the UNOPS Executive Board decided to phase out the former Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative following a series of management failures. S3i aimed to invest in large-scale infrastructure projects in developing countries, focusing on its mandated areas of:
  • affordable housing,
  • renewable energy and
  • Health
• It does not focus on mass rapid transport infrastructure.

Additional Information UNOPS origins trace back to 1973, and until 1994, the Office for Project Services was part of the UN Development Programme. By decision of the UN General Assembly, UNOPS became a separate, self-financing entity within the UN development system on 1 January 1995. UNOPS is mandated to expand implementation capacity across peace and security, humanitarian, and development efforts. Through its project services — including infrastructure, procurement, project management, human resources, and financial management services — UNOPS supports governments, the United Nations, and other partners in achieving Member States’ Global Goals, and local objectives for people and countries.

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. They are recruited from amongst all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for betterment of the community. Amenities and facilities given to Home Guards include free uniform, duty allowances and award for gallantry, distinguished and meritorious services. Members of Home Guards with three years’ service in the organisation are trained in policing, in maintenance of law and order, prevention of crime, anti-dacoity measures, border patrolling, prohibition, flood relief, fire-fighting, election duties and social welfare activities.

Statement 2 is correct

• The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.

Statement 3 is correct

• Home Guards are of two types – rural and urban. In the border States, Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) have been raised to serve as an auxiliary to the Border Security Force. The organisation is spread across all States and Union Territories except Kerala.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action	The Act under which it is covered
Unauthorised wearing of police or military uniforms	The Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties	The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others	The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched

• The Official Secrets Act was first enacted in 1923 and was retained after Independence. The law, applicable to government servants and citizens, provides the framework for addressing espionage, sedition, and other potential threats to the nation’s integrity. The law makes spying, sharing ‘secret’ information, unauthorised use of uniforms, withholding information, interference with the armed forces in prohibited/restricted areas, among others, punishable offences. The information could be any reference to a place belonging to or occupied by the government, or to documents, photographs, sketches, maps, plans, models, official codes, or passwords. The OSA does not define “secret” or “official secrets”. Public servants could deny any information, terming it a “secret” when asked under the RTI Act.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched

• It is covered under the Official Secrets Act 1923: “No person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of the Armed Forces of the Union engaged on guard, Sentry, patrol, or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place.”

Additional Information The Imperial Legislative Council passed the Indian Evidence Act in 1872, establishing the guidelines for admissible evidence in Indian courts. It applies to all civil and criminal proceedings. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhinyam, 2023 (BSA) replaces the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 (IEA).

Pair 3 is correctly matched

• The Arms (Amendment) Bill, 2019, amended the Arms Act, 1959.
• The Act added new offences. These include:
  1. forcefully taking a firearm from police or armed forces, punishable with imprisonment between 10 years and life imprisonment, along with a fine,
  2. Using firearms in celebratory gunfire which endangers human life or the personal safety of others, punishable with imprisonment of up to two years, a fine of up to one lakh rupees, or both.
  • Celebratory gunfire refers to the use of firearms in public gatherings, religious places, marriages or other functions to fire ammunition.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Regions often mentioned in news	Reason for being in news
North Kivu and Ituri	War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
Nagorno-Karabakh	Insurgency in Mozambique
Kherson and Zaporizhzhia	Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched

• These regions are located in the eastern Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC). The conflict in the DRC dates back to the 1990s, following the aftermath of the Rwandan genocide in 1994. Ethnic tensions from the genocide spilled over into the DRC, leading to two civil wars in 1996 and 1998. The eastern DRC has since been plagued by violence and insurgency involving various rebel groups. The eastern provinces of North Kivu, South Kivu, Ituri, and Tanganyika are home to over 120 insurgent groups, including the prominent Mouvement du 23 Mars (M23), Allied Democratic Forces (ADF), and the Cooperative for Development of the Congo (CODECO). These groups engage in violence over territory, natural resources, and ethnic rivalries. The ongoing violence has resulted in the displacement of millions. Ethnic intolerance, insurgency, and political instability have contributed to widespread displacement, with many people fleeing the violence and human rights abuses perpetrated by various armed groups.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched

• Nagorno-Karabakh is a disputed territory between Armenia and Azerbaijan in the South Caucasus mountainous region.
• Historically, the majority population of this region has been ethnically Armenian (Christian-majority).
• In 1991, following the collapse of the Soviet Union, Nagorno-Karabakh declared independence from Azerbaijan (Muslim-majority).
• No country, not even Armenia, has so far recognised the independence of Nagorno-Karabakh.
• Turkey and Pakistan openly support Azerbaijan.
• Russia has military bases in Armenia.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched

• In September 2022, Russia conducted the referendums to annex four Russia occupied Ukraine provinces — Luhansk, Donetsk, Zaporizhzhia and Kherson.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
2. Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is correct

• Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Recently, in 2020, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Bahrain made historic strides by officially normalizing diplomatic relations with Israel.
• These breakthroughs were facilitated by the Abraham Accords, a series of agreements brokered by the United States.

Additional Information Abraham accord (Israel-Arab normalisation) is an agreement for normalising relations between Israel and four Arab countries: Bahrain (August 2020) United Arab Emirates (September 2020) Sudan Morocco In 2020, Israel, UAE and Bahrain signed an agreement to normalise ties. The USA brokered it. Subsequently, Morocco and Sudan were added. Recently, Kazakhstan has also officially joined the historic Abraham Accords. What are Arab countries? Arab” is a cultural and linguistic term. It refers to those who speak Arabic as their first language. The Arab World consists of 22 countries in the Middle East and North Africa: Algeria, Bahrain, the Comoros Islands, Djibouti, Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Morocco, Mauritania, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Sudan, Syria, Tunisia, the United Arab Emirates, and Yemen. Iran and Turkey are not Arab countries, and their primary languages are Farsi and Turkish, respectively. Image Source: Wikipedia

Statement-II is incorrect

• Israel did not sign the Arab Peace Initiative, also known as the “Saudi Initiative,” which was put forth by Saudi Arabia in 2002 during the Arab League Summit in Beirut. The proposal, designed as a potential resolution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, received endorsement from the Arab League. However, Israel did not formally agree to the terms outlined in the initiative.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award	For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
Arjuna Award	For the lifetime achievement by sportsperson
Dronacharya Award	To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar	To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

• The six core awards which constitute India’s National Sports Awards are the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award or simply the Khel Ratna, the Arjuna Award, the Dronacharya Award, the Major Dhyan Chand Award, the Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy, also called the MAKA Trophy, and the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar.

Pair 1 is correctly matched

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (erstwhile Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award) is the highest sporting honour of India. Instituted in 1991–1992. The award is conferred annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson over a period of four years immediately preceding the year during which the award is to be given shall be honoured with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award for excellence in Sports & Games at the international level, i.e. Olympic/Asian/ Commonwealth/World Games/Championships/World Cup and equivalent recognised international tournaments.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched

• ‘Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement in Sports and Games’ is given to honour sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and who continue to contribute to the promotion of sports events after their retirement. The Arjuna Award for outstanding performance in Sports and Games’ is given for good performance over a period of the previous four years and for showing qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and a sense of discipline.

Pair 3 is correctly matched

• ‘Dronacharya Award for outstanding coaches in Sports and Games’ is given to coaches for doing outstanding and meritorious work on a consistent basis and for enabling sportspersons to excel in International events.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched

• Awarded to organisations or corporates (both private and public) and individuals for playing a role in the area of sports promotion and development over the last three years, the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar has been a fixture in the National Sports Awards list since 2009.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 Olympiad was held in Chennai. This was the first time the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’ (a Tamil word meaning ‘”younger brother”).

Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect

• The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
• The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Vera Menchik Cup.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Area of conflict mentioned in news	Country where it is located
Donbas	Syria
Kachin	Ethiopia
Tigray	North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched

• The Donbas region, located in eastern Ukraine, holds historical, cultural, and economic significance. It includes the heavily industrialized areas of Donetsk and Luhansk, which drew international attention in 2023 when Russian forces occupied these regions.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched

• Located in northern Myanmar, Kachin garnered attention in the news due to a military airstrike that resulted in the tragic loss of dozens of lives.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched

• Situated in northern Ethiopia, Since, 2020, the region of Tigray in northern Ethiopia has been embroiled in a persistent and ongoing conflict.

sAnswer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

1. Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
2. Establishment of Chinese military bases
3. Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
4. Successful coups

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan are associated with successful Military Coups.
• Chad: A military government has ruled the country since April 2021, when a group of senior military officers seized power in a coup d’état following the death of 30-year president Idriss Déby Itno.

• Guinea: In September 2021, a military coup occurred in Guinea, led by the special forces unit known as the National Committee for Reconciliation and Development (CNRD). The coup ousted President Alpha Condé, who had been in office for over a decade.
• Mali: It has undergone two military coups since August 2020, when the army ousted elected president Ibrahim Boubacar Keita.
  • Sudan: In the wake of widespread protests that resulted in the removal of President Omar al-Bashir in April 2019, Sudan underwent a sequence of political transformations, including a military coup.

Answer: (d) Successful coups; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following heavy industries:

1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Fertilizer Plants: Green hydrogen can be used to produce ammonia, a key ingredient in fertilizers, through a process that reduces carbon emissions compared to traditional methods that rely on natural gas.
• Oil Refineries: Green hydrogen can be used in refineries to reduce the carbon intensity of fuel production, particularly in processes like hydrotreating and hydrocracking, which are used to remove impurities from crude oil.
• Steel Plants: Green hydrogen can replace carbon-intensive coke and coal in the steelmaking process, leading to significant reductions in carbon emissions.

Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Consider the following statements about G-20:

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Evolution of G20: It was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis. It was started as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues. It was upgraded to the level of Heads of State in the wake of the 2007 global financial crisis. In 2009, it was designated the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”. It initially focused on broad macroeconomic issues, but has since expanded its agenda to include sustainable development, health, energy, the environment, climate change, and anti-corruption.

Additional Information The African Union (AU) is a continental body representing all African countries (55 member states). It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (1963-1999). Mali, Sudan, and Guinea were suspended in 2021, and Burkina Faso was suspended in 2022 after the military took power. The aims of the AU are: To achieve greater unity and solidarity between African countries and their people. To defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity, and independence of its Member States. To promote democratic principles and institutions, popular participation, and good governance. To promote peace, security, and stability on the continent. To accelerate the political and socio-economic integration of the continent.

Statement 2 is correct

• Digital Public Infrastructure was one of the key priorities during India’s G20 Presidency in 2023. It is a cross-cutting theme across various Working Groups, including Digital Economy, Health, Education and Global Partnership for Financial Inclusion. DPI includes population-scale digital systems and platforms that support basic, society-wide functions, effectively serving as “rails” for digital transactions, such as digital identification, digital payments, data sharing and verifiable credentials. They can underpin entire sectors, such as in health and education, and unlock opportunities for global and regional cooperation by monitoring climate commitments, improving access to justice or enabling digital commerce.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

1. archaeological excavations
2. establishment of English Press in Colonial India
3. establishment of Churches in Princely States
4. construction of railways in Colonial India

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were prominent figures in the field of archaeology and were involved in various archaeological excavations and studies related to Indian history and heritage.
• Alexander Rea (1858-1924): He was a prominent British archaeologist renowned for his discoveries in South India. He is particularly noted for uncovering a sarcophagus at Pallavaram in Tamil Nadu and finding 20 gold diadems at the Adichanallur site in Tuticorin district. His detailed descriptions of the sites and artefacts guided subsequent excavations. Recently, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) discovered a similar gold diadem at this site, validating Rea’s findings and further establishing the historical significance of this location.

Additional Information Sarcophagus: It is a stone or terracotta coffin – is often associated with ancient Egyptian, Greek or Roman burials. Adichanallur site is an ancient and historical Iron-age burial site located in Thoothukudi District Tamil Nadu, set along the banks of the Tamirabarani (Porunai) river. This archaeological site was one of five declared to be developed as ‘Iconic Sites’ in the Union Budget 2020-21.

• A. H. Longhurst: He was a notable British archaeologist and art historian recognised for his work in India and Ceylon. He is particularly remembered for leading systematic excavations at Nagarjunakonda from 1927 to 1931, greatly enhancing knowledge of the region’s archaeological and cultural heritage.

Additional Information In 1926, the discovery of archaeological riches in the valley of Nagarjunakonda (Nagarjuna’s Hill, named after the celebrated Buddhist philosopher) was reported by AR Saraswati, an assistant to the Archaeological Superintendent for Epigraphy, Archaeological Survey of India. Nagarjunakonda, located in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh. Excavations led by Albert Henry Longhurst from 1927 to 1931 yielded a number of Buddhist monasteries and other monuments besides numerous limestone sculptures. Later, apart from secular structures, the valley also constituted many Brahmanical temples situated around the citadel. Nagarjunakonda during the ancient period came to the limelight when Vasishthiputra Chamtamula, the founder of Ikshvaku dynasty snatched it from the Satavahana dynasty in 2nd quarter of 3rd c. C.E. The illustrated expanse of Ikshvaku was evident in the excavations that unearthed Vijayapuri on the right bank of the Krishna River. In the 1950s, the construction of the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam threatened to submerge the site. This led to a major salvage operation, marking the first large-scale rescue archaeology project in India. Monuments and relics were meticulously excavated, documented, and relocated to an open-air museum on an island in the reservoir, preserving the architectural and cultural heritage of Nagarjunakonda. Note: Salvage archaeology often involves the transplantation of ancient monuments to a safer area. It ensures that cultural resources that are likely to be impacted by constructions are properly documented and excavated before they are destroyed.

• Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Eliot are associated with the excavation at Amaravati. James Burgess was the founder of The Indian Antiquary in 1872 and an important archaeologist of India in the nineteenth century. He did educational work in Calcutta, 1856 and Bombay, 1861, and was Secretary of the Bombay Geographical Society, 1868-73.

Additional Information Amaravati, a significant Buddhist site from the 3rd century BCE, was initially uncovered by British explorers. Colonel Colin Mackenzie first discovered the site in 1797. In 1845, Sir Walter Smith excavated the south-west part of the mound, uncovering several sculptured pieces. Later efforts by Robert Sewell (1877), James Burgess (1881), and Alexander Rea (1888-89) involved systematic excavation and recording of the site’s sculptural elements. Sir Walter Elliot, commissioner of Guntur, conducted hasty excavations at the Amaravati site in 1845, discovering the stupa’s western gateway and making some sketches. His documentation was largely inaccurate and did not enhance existing knowledge about the stupa. However, his notable contribution was transporting 121 sculptural pieces to London in 1860, which became known as the Elliot Marbles. The Amaravati stupa, referred to as maha-chaitya in inscriptions, boasts a history spanning over fifteen centuries.

Answer: (a) archaeological excavations; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Site	Well known for
Besnagar	Shaivite cave shrine
Bhaja	Buddhist cave shrine
Sittanawasal	Jain cave shrine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched

• Besnagar (Bhilsa or Vidisha) in Madhya Pradesh is not especially known for having a Shaivite cave shrine.
• It is known for the Heliodorus Pillar (Garuda Pillar), dedicated to the God Vishnu, set up by a Greek named Heliodorus (the Greek ambassador to the Shunga) who is said to have adopted Hinduism and became a disciple of Lord Vishnu. Today, the pillar is worshipped by the locals as “Khamba Baba“.

Image Source: Vidishaonline

Pair 2 is correctly matched

• Bhaja rock-cut caves in Maharashtra are among the examples of Buddhist cave architecture in India.
• In western India, many Buddhist caves dating back to the second century BCE onwards have been excavated. Mainly three architectural types were executed—(i) apsidal vault-roof chaitya halls (found at Ajanta, Pitalkhora, Bhaja); (ii) apsidal vault-roof pillarless hall (found at Thana-Nadsur); and (iii) flat-roofed quadrangular hall with a circular chamber at the back (found at Kondivite). The main Hinayanist rock-cut caves are at Bhaja, Kondane, etc. The Bhaja cave complex consists of a group of 22 rock-cut caves. These rock-cut caves are further divided into two main groups – Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monastic caves).

Pair 3 is correctly matched

• Sittanavasal is the name used synonymously for the hamlet and the hillock that houses the Arivar Kovil (temple of Arihats – Jains who conquered their senses. The artwork on the ceiling of the sanctum and the ardha mandapam of Arivar Kovil is an early example of post-Ajanta cave paintings of the fourth to sixth centuries, done using the fresco-secco technique (a process that dispenses with preparation of the wall with wet plaster). It is considered by historians to be one of the oldest inhabited areas in the district, and a major centre of Jain influence. This is the only place in Tamil Nadu where we can see Pandya paintings.

The artwork at the Sittanavasal rock cave temple in Pudukottai district.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
2. Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• The Swadeshi Movement, launched on August 7, 1905, encouraged the development of indigenous industries and supported handloom weavers.
• To honor this legacy, the Government of India designated August 7 as National Handloom Day in 2015.

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

1. Statement-I: One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm × 400 mm.
2. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

• The National Flag is a horizontal tricolour of:
  • India saffron (Kesari) at the top (indicates strength and courage)
  • White in the middle (indicates peace and truth)
  • India green at the bottom (indicates fertility, growth, and auspiciousness of the land)
• The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
• The flag code states that the tricolour can be of nine standard dimensions; however, 600mm x 400mm is not one of them.

Additional Information In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel with 24 equally spaced spokes. It represents the Ashoka Chakra (indicates there is life in movement and death in stagnation). The Constituent Assembly of India adopted the design of the National Flag on 22 July 1947. Display, hoisting and use of the Tricolour is governed by the Flag Code of India, 2002 and the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971. Flag Code of India, 2002 It brings together all laws, practices, and instructions for the display of the National Flag. It allowed Indian citizen to hoist the Indian flag over their homes, offices and factories on any day and not just National days, as was the case earlier. 2021 Amendment The National Flag made of polyester or machine-made were allowed. Now, the National Flag shall be made of hand-spun and handwoven or machine-made cotton, polyester, wool, silk, and khadi bunting. 2022 Amendment It allowed the tricolour to fly both day and night. Notably, earlier, the Indian flag was allowed to be flown between sunrise and sunset only.

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

1. Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
2. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in our country on 26^th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was elected by the Constituent Assembly under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R Ambedkar for preparation of a draft Constitution.

Image Source: ConstitutionofIndia

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Switzerland in one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
2. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

• Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. It is the world’s largest gold refining centre and transit hub. In addition to being the largest exporter of gold based on value, Switzerland is also consistently the largest importer of gold based on value in the world.
• This can be explained by the fact that Switzerland refines some 70 percent of the world’s gold: Switzerland imports unrefined gold, and exports it in its refined form.

• The top 3 countries with the most gold reserves include the United States, Germany and Italy

Image Source: forbesindia

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the ‘Trade and Technology Council’.
2. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is correct

• The EU-US Trade and Technology Council serves as a forum for the United States and European Union to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on these shared values. It was established during the EU-US Summit on 15 June 2021 in Brussels.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The focus is not on controlling technological progress and physical productivity but on coordinating approaches regarding these areas.
• Through the Council, the EU and the US are working together to:
  • ensure that trade and technology serve EU-US societies and economies, while upholding EU-US common values
  • strengthen EU-US technological and industrial leadership
  • expand bilateral trade and investment

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be easily identified as wrong because “bring technological progress under their control” sounds overstated, whereas such forums are officially framed around cooperation, standards, and coordination, not control.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider, the following statements:

1. Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
2. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• According to the latest Global Trade Outlook and Statistics report, India’s share of global goods exports was 1.8% in 2023, while its share of imports was 2.8%. In the area of digitally delivered services, India’s share increased to 6% in 2023, up from 4.4% in 2019. In global commercial services, India’s share in exports is seen 4.4% in 2023 at $344 billion, up 11% on-year, whereas imports were flat at $247 billion.

Statement 2 is correct

• The PLI Scheme is a policy to promote domestic manufacturing to enhance India’s self-reliance and global competitiveness. The scheme provides financial incentives to eligible companies based on their incremental sales of products manufactured in India over a base year. By offering financial incentives to manufacturers, the PLI scheme aims to attract domestic and foreign investment in key sectors, thereby stimulating economic growth and industrial development. The scheme covers 14 key sectors, including electronics, automobiles, pharmaceuticals, textiles, food processing, telecom, solar PV modules and white goods.
  • The 14 sectors are: (i) Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components, (ii) Critical Key Starting Materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients, (iii) Manufacturing of Medical Devices (iv) Automobiles and Auto Components, (v) Pharmaceuticals Drugs, (vi) Specialty Steel, (vii) Telecom & Networking Products, (viii) Electronic/Technology Products, (ix) White Goods (ACs and LEDs), (x) Food Products, (xi) Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles, (xii) High efficiency solar PV modules, (xiii) Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery, and (xiv) Drones and Drone Components.
• Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium

 

Consider the following statements:

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a binding diplomatic agreement among European Union (EU) member states. Economic policies and activities are coordinated cohesively to safeguard the stability of the economic and monetary union. The SGP aims to ensure that countries in the EU do not spend beyond their means. To achieve this goal, a set of fiscal rules are enforced to limit budget deficits and debt relative to gross domestic product (GDP).
• The SGP is focused on fiscal discipline and does not cover the sharing of infrastructure or technologies among EU countries.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

All statements are incorrect

• The Global Compact on Migration is the first-ever UN global agreement on a common approach to international migration in all its dimensions. On December 19, 2018, the United Nations General Assembly officially endorsed the compact through a vote, with 152 countries supporting the resolution (not all countries). It is of a non-legally binding nature.
• It is intended to: Address all aspects of international migration, including the humanitarian, developmental, human rights-related and other aspects;
  • Make an important contribution to global governance and enhance coordination on international migration;
  • Present a framework for comprehensive international cooperation on migrants and human mobility;
  • Set out a range of actionable commitments, means of implementation and a framework for follow-up and review among Member States regarding international migration in all its dimensions;
  • Be guided by the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the Addis Ababa Action Agenda; and
  • Be informed by the Declaration of the 2013 High-Level Dialogue on International Migration and Development.
• The GCM is primarily focused on international migration and does not directly address internal migration or the situation of internally displaced persons.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following countries:

1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. Only five

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Ukraine shares a border with:
  • Belarus to the north
  • Russia to the east
  • Sea of Azov & Black Sea to the south
  • Moldova & Romania to the southwest
  • Hungary, Slovakia & Poland to the west

• The capital is Kyiv (Kiev), located on the Dnieper River. The most notable rivers of Ukraine include the Dnieper, Dniester, Southern Buh & Siversky Donets. Most of the rivers of Ukraine drain into the Black Sea & Azov Sea, which belong to the larger Mediterranean basin (flow in a southerly direction).
• Important Cities: Kyiv, Kharkiv, Odesa, Donbas Region, Mykolaiv, Mariupol, Simferopol, etc

Answer: (a) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
2. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
3. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
4. Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect

• On average, equatorial areas receive approximately 2.4 times more insolation than polar areas.

Statement (b) is incorrect

• Infrared rays do not constitute roughly two-thirds of isolation. Solar radiation is electromagnetic radiation in the 0.28…3.0 µm wavelength range. The solar spectrum includes a small share of ultraviolet radiation (0.28…0.38 µm) which is invisible to our eyes and comprises about 2% of the solar spectrum, the visible light which range from 0.38 to 0.78 µm and accounts for around 49% of the spectrum. Infrared radiation with long wavelength (0.78…3.0 µm), which makes up most of the remaining 49% of the solar spectrum.

Statement (c) is correct

• The atmosphere is largely transparent to short-wave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the Earth’s surface. Within the troposphere, water vapour, ozone, and other gases absorb much of the near-infrared radiation.

Statement (d) is incorrect

• The visible light spectrum is the segment of the electromagnetic spectrum that the human eye can view. More simply, this range of wavelengths is called visible light. Typically, the human eye can detect wavelengths from 380 to 750 nanometers. Other portions of the spectrum have wavelengths that are either too large or too small, and energies that are beyond the biological limits of our perception. Infrared waves are not part of the visible spectrum, and they lie just beyond the visible red light in the electromagnetic spectrum.

Answer: (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
2. Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Soils in tropical rainforests are generally poor in nutrients. Intense and continuous rainfall leads to leaching, where soluble nutrients are washed away from the topsoil, preventing their accumulation.
• The high temperature and humidity in tropical rainforests accelerate the decomposition of organic matter. Microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi rapidly break down dead plants and animals, releasing nutrients. Although nutrients are released quickly, they are immediately absorbed by dense vegetation or lost through leaching. As a result, the soil itself does not become nutrient-rich

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
2. Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement-I is incorrect

• During summer, although land heats up more quickly and to higher temperatures than water, the overall temperature difference between land and water is not as noticeable because both are relatively warm.
• Conversely, in winter, land cools down faster and to lower temperatures than water, resulting in a more pronounced temperature difference between them.

Statement-II is correct

• Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat required per unit mass to change its temperature by one degree. The specific heat of water is 2.5 times that of landmass; water takes longer to heat up and cool down.

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Seismic waves are waves of energy that travel through the Earth’s layers and are a result of earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, magma movement, large landslides and large human-made explosions. The refraction or reflection of seismic waves is used to study the structure of the Earth’s interior. The terms seismic waves and earthquake waves are often used interchangeably. Seismic waves, or earthquake waves, are basically of two types: body waves and surface waves.
• Body waves: Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions, travelling through the interior of the Earth. Hence, the name body waves.
  • There are two types of body waves:
    • the P-waves or primary waves (longitudinal in nature ― wave propagation is similar to sound waves), and
    • the S-waves or secondary waves (transverse in nature ― wave propagation is similar to ripples on the surface of the water).
• Primary Waves (P-waves): Primary waves are called so because they are the fastest among the seismic waves and hence are recorded first on the seismograph.
  • P-waves are also called as the longitudinal waves because the displacement of the medium is in the same direction as, or the opposite direction to, (parallel to) the direction of propagation of the wave; or compressional waves because they produce compression and rarefaction when travelling through a medium; or pressure waves because they produce increases and decreases in pressure in the medium.
  • P-waves create density differences in the material, leading to stretching (rarefaction) and squeezing (compression) of the material.

Statement 2 is correct

• These waves are of relatively high frequency and are the least destructive among the earthquake waves. The trembling on the earth’s surface caused by these waves is in the up-down direction (vertical). They can travel through all media, and their velocity depends on the medium’s shear strength (elasticity). Hence, the velocity of the P-waves in Solids > Liquids > Gases. These waves take the form of sound waves when they enter the atmosphere. P-waves are about 1.7 times faster than the S-waves.

• Secondary Waves (S-waves): Secondary waves (secondary, they are recorded second on the seismograph) or S-waves are also called transverse waves, shear waves, or distortional waves. They are analogous to water ripples or light waves. Transverse waves, or shear waves, mean that the direction of vibrations of the particles in the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material they pass through (distorting the medium). S-waves arrive at the surface after the P-waves. These waves are high-frequency and have slightly greater destructive power than P-waves. The trembling on the earth’s surface caused by these waves is from side to side (horizontal). S-waves cannot pass through fluids (liquids and gases) as fluids do not support shear stresses. They travel at varying velocities (proportional to shear strength) through the solid part of the Earth.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:

1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Some coal-fired thermal power plants in India use seawater for cooling. For example, situated in Gujarat’s Kutch district, the Mundra Thermal Power Station ranks as India’s second-largest, boasting a capacity of 4,620MW. Primarily fueled by imported Indonesian coal, the plant draws seawater from the Gulf of Kutch.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The World Resource Institute’s (WRI) report finds that 40 per cent of the country’s thermal power plants are located in areas facing high water stress, a problem since these plants use water for cooling.
• The report says, “scarce water is already hampering electricity generation in these regions—14 of India’s 20 largest thermal utilities experienced at least one shutdown due to water shortages between 2013 and 2016, costing the companies $1.4 billion’’. Almost 90 per cent of India’s thermal power generation depends on freshwater for cooling.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• There are many privately owned coal-based thermal power plants. For example, Mundra coal power plant is owned by Adani Power Limited mentioned above.

PMF Concept Hack All three statements use the word “none”, which is a strong absolute claim and usually a red flag in UPSC questions. In reality, some coastal Coal-based thermal power plants do use seawater, some are located in water-stressed regions, and many are privately owned.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Easy

‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

1. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
2. Converting crop residues into packing material
3. Producing biodegradable plastics
4. Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Wolbachia method is used to control the spread of viral diseases transmitted by mosquitoes. It involves introducing Wolbachia, a type of bacterium that can block viruses, into mosquitoes or their eggs and releasing them into the wild. This way, Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes can breed with native mosquitoes and reduce their ability to transmit diseases such as Dengue, Zika, and chikungunya. Wolbachia are extremely common bacteria that occur naturally in 50% of insect species, including some mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies, and butterflies.

Answer: (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Carbon sequestration is the process of capture and long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide. It has been proposed as a way to slow the atmospheric and marine accumulation of greenhouse gases.
• The practice of extensively spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands, referred to as enhanced weathering, entails accelerating the natural process of carbon dioxide capture from the atmosphere. Through this method, the basalt undergoes a reaction with carbon dioxide, leading to the formation of stable carbonates, thereby effectively storing carbon.

Statement 2 is correct

• Ocean alkalinization is an approach to carbon removal that involves adding alkaline substances to seawater to enhance the ocean’s natural carbon sink. These substances could include minerals, such as olivine, or artificial substances, such as lime or some industrial byproducts. Adding alkalinity to the ocean removes carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere through a series of reactions that convert dissolved CO2 into stable bicarbonate and carbonate molecules, which in turn causes the ocean to absorb more CO2 from the air to restore equilibrium.

Statement 3 is correct

• Abandoned subterranean mines can be effectively used as storage sites, where captured carbon dioxide is pumped in as carbonated water.

Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy

‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

1. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
2. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
3. Using air-bome devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
4. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Aerial metagenomics involves the collection and analysis of genetic material, usually in the form of DNA, from the air in a particular habitat. This approach allows researchers to study the genetic diversity and composition of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microscopic entities that may be present in the atmosphere. It enables comprehensive determination of the diversity and metabolic potential of the organisms present in an aerosol sample.

Answer: (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go; Difficulty Level: Medium

‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

1. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
2. Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues
3. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
4. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Microsatellite DNA analysis is a powerful tool for studying the evolutionary relationships among various fauna (animals) and assessing genetic diversity within and between populations. Also known as short tandem repeats (STRs), it is a specific type of repetitive DNA sequence found in the genome of organisms.
• By analysing microsatellite markers, researchers can gain insights into the genetic structure, gene flow, and evolutionary history of species.

Answer: (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women.

Statement 1 is incorrect

• JSY is a 100 % centrally sponsored scheme and it integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care. It is a central intervention implemented by states.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• Under the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK) scheme, all pregnant women and infants will get free treatment benefits at public health institutions, including zero expenses for delivery.
• The JSSK scheme emphasises the elimination of out-of-pocket expenses for both Pregnant Women and sick infants.
• Under JSSK, a newborn and sick child up to 1 year (infants) will get following Benefits:
  • Free drugs and consumables.
  • Free essential Diagnostic.
  • Free provision of Blood.
  • Free diet facilities.
  • Free transport facilities from home to health institutions, between health institutions in case of referral.
  • Free drop back facility from institution to home.
  • Exception from all kind of user charges.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements in the context interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Anaemia is a condition in which the number of red blood cells or their oxygen-carrying capacity is insufficient to meet the body’s physiological requirements, which vary by age, sex, altitude, smoking habits, and during pregnancy. In 2018, the Government of India launched the Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy with the target to reduce anaemia in the vulnerable age groups, such as women, children and adolescents in a life cycle approach, providing preventive and curative mechanisms through a 6X6X6 strategy including six target beneficiaries, six interventions and six institutional mechanisms for all stakeholders to implement the strategy.
• Under the AMB strategy, the interventions for tackling the problem of anaemia in all the States and UTs include:
  • Prophylactic Iron (not Prophylactic calcium) and Folic Acid Supplementation in all six target age groups.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Intensified year-round Behaviour Change Communication (BCC) Campaign for:(a) improving compliance to Iron Folic Acid supplementation and deworming, (b) enhancing appropriate infant and young child feeding practices, (c) encouraging increase in intake of iron-rich food through diet diversity/quantity/frequency and/or fortified foods with focus on harnessing locally available resources, and (d) ensuring delayed cord clamping after delivery (by 3 minutes) in health facilities
• Testing and treatment of anaemia, using digital methods and point of care treatment, with special focus on pregnant women and school-going adolescents.

Statement 4 is correct

• Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis
• Management of severe anaemia in pregnant women is undertaken by administration of IV Iron Sucrose/Blood transfusion
• Providing incentives to the ANM for identification and follow-up of pregnant women with severe anaemia in high priority districts (HPDs)
• Training and orientation of Medical Officers and front-line workers on newer Maternal Health and Anaemia Mukt Bharat guidelines
• Field-level awareness by ASHAs through community mobilisation activities and IEC and BCC activities

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraftes.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Carbon fibres are super stiff and high-strength, but are extremely light in weight. Thus, carbon fibres are widely used in various industries, including aerospace, automotive, sporting goods, construction, and manufacturing.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Carbon fibre waste or other fibre composites can be recycled using four types of technologies Pyrolysis, Solvolysis, Depolymerization, and Mechanical Recycling.
• Recycling carbon fibre is challenging because the material cannot be easily melted down; the polymer resin must be burned off or chemically dissolved, resulting in shorter, less robust fibres.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following actions:

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive.
3. Detection of the tit of smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.

In how many of the above action is the function of accelerometer required?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

All statements are correct

• An accelerometer measures the vibration or acceleration of motion in a structure. When subjected to forces from vibration or changes in motion, the mass inside the accelerometer compresses the piezoelectric material, generating an electrical charge proportional to the applied force.
• Accelerometers have diverse applications across academic and consumer domains.
• For instance, in laptops, accelerometers protect hard drives from damage by detecting sudden drops and turning off the hard drive to prevent damage.
• In the automotive industry, accelerometers are crucial for detecting car crashes and deploying airbags almost instantaneously.
• Additionally, accelerometers in smartphones and digital cameras rotate the display according to the device’s orientation.

Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Biofilters are systems that use microorganisms attached to an inorganic or organic medium as a carrier. These microorganisms can degrade various compounds. The main purpose of biofilters is to remove pollutants from a fluid stream by breaking them down. Biofilters are crucial for removing organic waste, including uneaten feed, from the water in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS). This helps maintain water quality.

Statement 2 is correct

• One of the primary functions of biofilters is to convert toxic ammonia (produced from fish waste) into less harmful nitrate.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Biofilters constructed based on identified “ideal specifications” can consistently eliminate significant amounts of nutrients, removing up to 70% of nitrogen and 85% of phosphorus. Additionally, these biofilters prove highly effective in clearing suspended solids.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Objects in space	Description
Cepheids	Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
Nebulae	Stars which brighten and dim periodically
Pulsars	Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Cepheids, also called Cepheid Variables, are stars which brigthen and dim periodically. This behaviour allows them to be used as cosmic yardsticks out to distances of a few tens of millions of light-years.
• Cepheids are reasonably abundant and very bright. Astronomers can identify them not only in our Galaxy but also in other nearby galaxies. They are very special variable stars because their period (the time they take to brighten, dim and brighten again) is regular (that is, does not change with time), and a uniform function of their brightness. That is, there is a relation between the period and brightness such that once the period is known, the brightness can be inferred.

Additional Information To understand Cepheid Variables better, look at the example given below: Using two of the world’s most powerful space telescopes — NASA’s Hubble and ESA’s Gaia — astronomers have made the most precise measurements to date of the universe’s expansion rate. This is calculated by gauging the distances between nearby galaxies using special types of stars called Cepheid variables as cosmic yardsticks. By comparing their intrinsic brightness as measured by Hubble with their apparent brightness as seen from Earth, scientists can calculate their distances. Gaia further refines this yardstick by geometrically measuring the distances to Cepheid variables within our Milky Way galaxy. This allowed astronomers to more precisely calibrate the distances to Cepheids that are seen in outside galaxies.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Outlined below are the steps involved in a star’s evolution, from its formation in a nebula to its death as a white dwarf or a neutron star.
  • Nebula: a cloud of gas (mostly hydrogen and helium) and dust in space. Nebulae are the birthplaces of stars.
  • Protostar: an early stage of a star formation where nuclear fusion is yet to begin.
  • T Tauri Star: a young star still undergoing gravitational contraction; it represents an intermediate stage between a Protostar & a low-mass main sequence star.
  • Main Sequence Star: E.g., Sun – full of life (nuclear fusion at the core is in full swing).
  • Red Giant (in case of a small star) and Red Supergiant (in case of a large star).
  • Planetary Nebula (in case of a small star) and Supernova (in case of a large star).
  • White dwarf (in case of a small star) and Neutron Star or Black Hole (in case of a large star).

Pair 3 is correct

• Neutron stars are formed when a massive star runs out of fuel and collapses. The very central region of the star – the core – collapses, crushing together every proton and electron into a neutron.
• If the core of the collapsing star is between about 1 and 3 solar masses, these newly-created neutrons can stop the collapse, leaving behind a neutron star. (Stars with higher masses will continue to collapse into stellar-mass black holes.)
• Most neutron stars are observed as pulsars. Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation at very regular intervals that typically range from milliseconds to seconds.
• Pulsars have very strong magnetic fields, which funnel jets of particles out along the two magnetic poles.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Israel
4. Japan

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Navigation Systems of the World: There are 4 Global Navigation Systems. They are:
  1. Global Positioning System (GPS) from the U.S.
  2. Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) from Russia
  3. Galileo from the European Union
  4. BeiDou from China
• There are 2 Regional Navigation Systems. They are:
  1. NavIC from India
  2. Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) from Japan

How Do Navigation Systems Works? Satellite Navigation is based on a global network of satellites that transmit radio signals. The working of the navigation system is based on the trilateration & triangulation principle. Triangulation and Trilateration work with line-of-sight Triangulation measures precise angles (not distance) Trilateration measures precise time data to pinpoint a location

Answer: (d) Japan; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket- powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Cruise missiles are jet-propelled and travel at subsonic speeds throughout their flight. In contrast, ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only during the initial boost phase, after which they follow an arcing trajectory to their target.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Agni-5 missiles are intercontinental ballistic missiles created by DRDO. It uses a three-stage solid-fuelled engine. It is capable of carrying nuclear warheads. The latest Agni variant features technology. MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle). The BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed through a joint venture between India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM).

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Mercury-dependent artisanal and small-scale gold mining (ASGM) is one of the largest source of mercury pollution on Earth. In this practice, elemental mercury is used to extract gold from ore as an amalgam.
• The amalgam is typically isolated by hand and then heated—often with a torch or over a stove—to distil the mercury and isolate the gold. Mercury released from tailings and vaporised mercury exceed 1000 tonnes each year from ASGM.

Statement 2 is correct

• Fly ash generated by thermal power plants is one of the ways mercury is released into the environment.
• Coal-based Thermal Power Plants (TPPs) are responsible for a disproportionately large share of emissions compared with the industrial sector (60 per cent of PM, 45 per cent of SO2, 30 per cent of NO2, and 80 per cent of mercury (Hg)).

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Mercury is the only liquid state metal, which finds very wide commercial application in industries, electrical appliances, mercurial catalysts, healthcare sector for extensive use in thermometers, sphygmomanometer, dental amalgams, agriculture for seed treatment, as laboratory reagents etc. The mercury is highly toxic in both forms (a) elemental; (b) compounds, irrespective of whether inhaled, ingested or absorbed through the skin. While mercury is highly toxic, the statement that there is “no known safe level of exposure” is not entirely accurate under some regulatory standards, which establish permissible exposure limits. You can refer to the link for more info about regulatory standards: https://cpcb.nic.in/uploads/News_Letter_Mercury_2017.pdf (Pg-49-54).

PMF Concept Hack Statement 3 can be eliminated easily because it makes an extreme claim — “no known safe level of exposure.” Such absolute statements are usually avoided in science questions, as safe exposure limits are generally defined. Statements 1 and 2 are well-known sources of mercury pollution (gold mining and coal power plants).

Additional Information Mercury is a naturally occurring element that is found in air, water and soil. Exposure to mercury – even small amounts – may cause serious health problems, and is a threat to the development of the child in utero and early in life. Mercury may have toxic effects on the nervous, digestive and immune systems, and on lungs, kidneys, skin and eyes. Mercury is considered by WHO as one of the top ten chemicals or groups of chemicals of major public health concern. Mercury emitted into the air eventually settles into water or onto land where it can be washed into water. Once deposited, certain microorganisms can change it into methylmercury, a highly toxic form that builds up in fish, shellfish and animals that eat fish. Most human exposure to mercury is from eating fish and shellfish contaminated with methylmercury. In Japan, mass mercury poisoning (Minamata disease) was observed in the 1960s, caused by eating fish from Minamata Bay contaminated with methylmercury. Natural sources of mercury include volcanic eruptions and emissions from the ocean. Anthropogenic (human-caused) emissions include mercury that is released from fuels or raw materials, or from uses in products or industrial processes.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Green hydrogen has numerous applications and can be used in fuel cells to power vehicles and provide electricity. It can indeed be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. Hydrogen fuel cells have a high energy density and are more efficient than traditional combustion engines, making them an attractive option for powering vehicles. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.

Additional Information Hydrogen is a colourless, odourless, highly flammable, non-toxic gas. It is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe. On earth, it never occurs freely. It exists combined with other elements, e.g., water (H2O). It has to be produced using other sources of energy. Hence, it is an energy carrier (like electricity) and not an energy source. Hydrogen is a clean molecule that produces only water and water vapour as by-products when used as fuel. However, the process of extracting it is energy-intensive. Energy carriers: They allow energy transport in a usable form from one place. Green Hydrogen, is produced by the process of electrolysis, where water is split into hydrogen and oxygen using electricity generated from renewable sources like solar, wind, or hydropower. This process results in a clean and emission-free fuel that has immense potential to replace fossil fuels and reduce carbon emissions. Electrolysis: The process by which electric current is passed through a substance to effect a chemical change. In a chemical change, the substance loses or gains an electron (oxidation or reduction). Another method of producing Green Hydrogen is from biomass, which involves the gasification of biomass to produce hydrogen. Both these production methods are clean and sustainable, making Green Hydrogen an attractive option for the transition to a low-carbon future.

Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ` 15 crore and ` 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• MSME classification was revised in 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat package, replacing the earlier investment-only criteria of the MSMED Act, 2006. As per the revised criteria, Medium enterprises are those with: Investment in plant and machinery/equipment up to ₹50 crore, and Annual turnover up to ₹250 crore.
• Note: New MSME classification criteria announced in Union Budget 2025-26.

Statement 2 is correct

• In terms of Master Direction on ‘Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification’ dated September 4, 2020, all bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the conditions prescribed in Master Direction on ‘Priority Sector Lending (PSL) qualify for classification under priority sector lending.

Additional Information Priority Sector Lending refers to the mandatory lending targets set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for banks and financial institutions to ensure that certain sectors of the economy receive adequate credit and financial support. The objective of priority sector lending is to promote inclusive growth, reduce regional imbalances, and support marginalized sections of society. According to the RBI’s Master Direction on PSL, the central bank had identified agriculture, MSMEs, export credit, education, housing, social infrastructure, renewable energy, and others as priority sectors based on their social and economic significance. Under the PSL guidelines, banks are required to allocate a specified percentage of their total lending to these priority sectors. Currently, for domestic commercial and foreign banks with 20 branches and above, the overall PSL target is set at 40 per cent of their total adjusted net bank credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures (CEOBE). For regional rural banks and small finance banks, the total PSL target is 75 per cent of ANBC or CEOBE whichever is higher. In case, banks fail to meet their PSL targets, they have to deposit the allocated amount to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with NABARD and to other funds with NABARD, SIDBI, Mudra, National Housing Bank, etc., as decided by the RBI from time to time, according to the RBI’s master direction on PSL.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Alternatives to SWIFT and the U.S. dollar are coming from two directions: cryptocurrencies and central bank digital currencies. Through CBDCs, countries will be able to exchange digital currencies bilaterally without going through SWIFT or similar settlement systems. CBDCs can lower transaction costs and increase accessibility/financial inclusion, as they can be designed either as a direct claim on the issuing central bank or as a form of digital cash that can be transferred peer-to-peer without going through a bank.

Cryptocurrencies	Central Bank digital currencies
Private companies or individuals generally run cryptocurrencies.	CBDC is controlled and tracked by a country’s central bank and corresponds to that country’s fiat currency.
Bitcoin’s price may vary by hundreds or even thousands of dollars in a short period of time due to speculations.	A CBDC issued by the Central Bank would (ideally) be worth as much as its physical counterpart.
Investors often buy large quantities of Bitcoin or other cryptocurrencies and hold them in the hope of making a profit.	CBDCs are not meant to be investment vehicles.
Cryptocurrencies and CBDCs are both blockchain-based digital currencies.

Statement 2 is correct

• A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. For example, China has been exploring expiration dates with its digital yuan, or DCEP (It is the digital version of the yuan, China’s physical currency). Which means the currency will expire if not used in a certain timeframe.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

1. the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
2. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
3. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
4. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Beta is a measure of the volatility of a stock, or any other financial security, based on the magnitude of change in its price compared to the market as a whole. In mainstream finance, stocks with high beta are generally considered to be riskier than stocks with low beta.
• Stocks with high beta, since they are riskier, are also considered to be better investments for investors seeking higher returns.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Arbitrage is the process of simultaneously buying and selling an asset from different platforms, exchanges or locations to cash in on the price difference (usually small in percentage terms). While getting into an arbitrage trade, the quantity of the underlying asset bought and sold should be the same. Only the price difference is captured as the net pay-off from the trade. The pay-off should be large enough to cover the costs involved in executing the trades (i.e. transaction costs). Else, it won’t make sense for the trader to initiate the trade in the first place.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Asset allocation is an investment strategy that a portfolio manager uses to balance risk and reward.
• It helps decide which financial security and asset to work in the market.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Basis risk is the potential risk that arises from mismatches in a hedged position. Basis risk occurs when a hedge is imperfect, so that losses in an investment are not exactly offset by the hedge.

Answer: (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market; Difficulty Level: Hard

 

Consider the following statements:

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• A major effort to provide banking services to the weaker and unorganised sector was the Bank Self-Help Group Linkage Programme that was launched in the early 1990s. The programme was launched by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in 1992 to link the unorganised sector with the formal banking sector. Under this programme, banks were allowed to open savings accounts for Self-Help Groups (SHGs). Banks provide loans to the SHGs against group guarantee, and the quantum of loan could be several times the deposits placed by such SHGs with the banks.

Additional Information Self Help Groups (SHGs) (registered/unregistered entities) are small groups of poor people (usually have a membership of 15 to 20 members). The members of an SHGs face similar problems. They help each other to solve their problems. SHGs promote small savings among their members. The savings are kept with the bank. This is the common fund in the name of the SHGs. The SHGs gives small loans to its members from its common fund. In India, the Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) in Ahmedabad initiated the concept of self-help groups (SHGs) in 1972. These groups aim to enhance the economic and livelihood security of poor women working in the informal sector. During the 1980s, several non-governmental organisations (NGOs) started organising rural women through SHGs. The SHG programme gathered momentum during the 1990s when the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) formally launched the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme.

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) NABARD was established in 1982 under an Act of Parliament as a wholly owned entity of the government of India on the recommendation of the B. Sivaraman committee. RBI’s agricultural credit functions and the refinance functions of the then-Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) were transferred to NABARD. Its mission is to promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development through participative financial and non-financial interventions, innovations, technology and institutional development.

Statement 2 is correct

• SHG is a small group of rural poor who have voluntarily come forward to form a group for the improvement of the social and economic status of the members. The concept underlines the principle of Thrift, Credit and Self-Help. Members of SHG agree to save regularly and contribute to a common fund.
• The members agree to use this common fund and such other funds (like grants and loans from banks), which they may receive as a group, to give small loans to needy members as per the decision of the group. The concept of joint liability plays a significant role in SHG loans. This means that all members of the group are collectively responsible for repaying the loan taken by an individual member.

Statement 3 is correct

• In India, mainly three different models of linkage of SHGs to the financial institutions have emerged. They are:
  • Banks, themselves, form and finance the SHGs.
  • SHGs are formed by NGOs and other agencies but financed by banks.
  • Banks finance SHGs with NGOs and other agencies as financial intermediaries.
• Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) assist Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in obtaining necessary credit. As of February 2023, some 8.9 million SHGs have availed loans of Rs 2.54 lakh crore, according to DAY-NRLM data. In 2023-24 (till February 2024), these groups dispersed loans amounting to Rs 1.7 lakh crore.

Few Important initiatives for SHGs The Lakhpati Didis initiative, launched in 2023, targets to uplift three crore SHG households to a minimum annual income of ₹1 lakh within three years. It focuses on diversified livelihood activities, district-level planning, household support, Government department convergence, and capacity building of staff and community members. Saras Aajeevika portal and eSARAS mobile App (launched in 2023) showcase a wide array of authentic handcrafted products, such as linen items, furniture, apparel, pickles, etc., made by SHGs. By creating a dedicated marketplace for their indigenously crafted products, the platform thus catalyses rural women into new-age entrepreneurs The ‘SARAS Mela’ by the Ministry of Rural Development helps SHG beneficiaries sell their products directly in urban markets, eliminating middlemen and improving artisans’ margins. It allows rural producers to engage with buyers, tailor products to consumer preferences, and hone their marketing skills. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM): It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) in 2011. In 1999, after restructuring the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP), the MoRD launched the Swarnajayanti Grameen Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) to promote self-employment. SGSY is remodelled to form NRLM, thereby plugging the shortfalls of the SGSY programme. DAY-NRLM is implemented through a network of SHGs & Community-Based Organizations (CBOs). In 2021, the program had over 100 million members and had disbursed over ₹1 trillion in loans. It provides financial services to SHGs and CBOs, such as loans, savings, and insurance. It gives skill training to SHG members in entrepreneurship, business management, life skills, etc. It helps SHG members to access markets for their products.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
2. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. This approach has led to several challenges and missed opportunities for improving public health outcomes.
• For example, over the past 40 years, India has experienced a significant shift in its health landscape, with non-communicable diseases (NCDs) becoming the country’s biggest health crisis. NCDs, including heart diseases, cancer, chronic respiratory diseases, and diabetes, now account for around 66% of all deaths in India (2019 data), up from 25% in 1990. These diseases contribute to a substantial economic burden, with costs projected to reach ₹511 lakh crore ($6.2 trillion) by 2030. Preventive healthcare can significantly mitigate the impact of NCDs.Measures such as adult vaccinations, regular health analysis, healthy lifestyle choices, and early screening can prevent a substantial portion of NCD-related deaths. Despite the clear benefits, India’s healthcare system has been slow to adopt a preventive approach, largely focusing on treating diseases rather than preventing them.

Statement 2 is correct

• Under India’s decentralized healthcare delivery approach, the states are primarily responsible for organizing health services. The Constitution of India obliges the government to ensure the “right to health” for all. Right to health is an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Each state is required to provide free universal access to healthcare services.

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’. India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
2. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• According to the report, Countries with the largest area under irrigation include China (73 Mha), India (70 Mha), the USA (27 Mha) and Pakistan (20 Mha). The proportion of total groundwater abstraction used for irrigation varies significantly in these countries. India, the largest groundwater user globally, at an estimated 251 km³ per year, uses 89% of its groundwater abstraction for irrigation.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• India uses approximately 89% (2022 report data) of its extracted groundwater for irrigation. This constitutes the major share of the total groundwater extracted in the country. The Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra plains, covering a mere 20% of the geographical area, possess 60% of the country’s groundwater resources, accentuating the concentrated distribution.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statement are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Under Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, the Union has the responsibility to safeguard every State against external aggression and internal disturbances, and to ensure that the governance of each State is conducted in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct

• Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, a person who is arrested must be informed of the grounds of arrest and has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice. Such a person must also be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding travel time, and cannot be detained beyond this period without the magistrate’s authority. However, Clause (3) of Article 22 provides exceptions to these safeguards. It states that these rights do not apply to enemy aliens or to persons arrested or detained under laws relating to preventive detention. Therefore, in cases of preventive detention, the State is not constitutionally bound to provide access to legal counsel.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• As per the Section 32 (1) of the Prevention Of Terrorism Act (POTA) 2000:
  • Notwithstanding anything in the Code or in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), but subject to the provisions of this section, a confession made by a person before a police officer not lower in rank than a Superintendent of Police and recorded by such police officer either in writing or on any mechanical or electronic device like cassettes, tapes or sound tracks from out of which sound or images can be reproduced, shall be admissible in the trial of such person for an offence under this Act or the rules made there under.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

1. Angola
2. Costa Rica
3. Ecuador
4. Somalia

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Somalia faced its worst drought in four decades, spanning from 2021 to 2023, resulting in a critical food crisis for 7.9 million people—about half of Somalia’s population. Drought-related impacts continue to affect 4.3 million individuals across Somalia, including an estimated 727,000 who are teetering on the brink of starvation. Additionally, Somalia has endured prolonged civil unrest and conflict for many years, characterised by political instability, armed confrontations, and widespread violence, contributing to a multifaceted and prolonged crisis.

Answer: (d) Somalia; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted in response to India’s commitments under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD),1992.
• Aims of BDA 2002:
  • To protect India’s rich biodiversity and associated knowledge
  • To promote sustainable use of India’s biodiversity
  • To regulate the biological resources to ensure equitable sharing and check biopiracy.

• BDA 2002 established a three-tier structure to regulate access to India’s biodiversity and associated knowledge:
  • National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the national level
  • State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level
  • Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level
• Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) is primarily responsible for the preparation of peoples’ biodiversity registers (PBRs) containing comprehensive knowledge on the availability and knowledge of local biological resources, their medicinal, or any other use or associated traditional knowledge.
• The BMCs also have important functions in determining access and benefit-sharing (ABS), including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
• BMCs are, thus, key to the realisation of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol negotiated within the CBD.

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD),1992 CBD is a multilateral treaty adopted at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. The treaty that entered into effect in 1993 is legally binding. 195 UN states and the European Union are parties to the convention; India is a party to it. The Convention has three main goals: Conservation of biological diversity (or biodiversity) Sustainable use of its components Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources To achieve these goals, there is general agreement on three things: Indiscriminate use of biological resources needs to be halted Sustainable use of these resources needs to be regulated People and communities helping to protect these resources need to be rewarded Under CBD, two protocols have been adopted: Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (2003) Nagoya Protocol on access and benefit sharing (2014)

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The manner of election of the President is provided in Article 55 of the Constitution. The President is chosen by an electoral college using the system of proportional representation through a single transferable vote.
• The Electoral College consist of:
  • the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
  • the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States [including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry vide the Constitution (Seventieth Amendment) Act, 1992 (Article 54).
• Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and the Assemblies, and members of state Legislative Councils, are not part of the electoral college.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The higher the number of elective assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that state.
• To understand this, take an example of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka:

Name of State	Number of Assembly seats	Population (1971 Census)	Value of vote of each MLA	Total value of votes for the state (B x D)
A	B	C	D	E
Andhra Pradesh	175	2,78,00,586	159	27,825
Karnataka	224	2,92,99,014	131	29,344
West Bengal	294	4,43,12,011	151	44,394

• In this example, although Karnataka has more assembly seats (224) than Andhra Pradesh (175), the value of each MLA’s vote in Karnataka (131) is lower than in Andhra Pradesh (159). This shows that simply having more assembly seats does not increase the value of each MLA’s vote.

Additional Information The Presidential election uses a special voting method to tally the votes. A different voting weightage is assigned to an MP and an MLA. The value of each MLA’s vote is determined based on the population of their state and the number of MLAs. Due to a Constitutional Amendment passed in 2002, the population of the state, as per the 1971 census, is taken for the calculation. An example to understand the value of the vote of an MLA: Total population of Andhra Pradesh (1971 census): 2,78,00,586 Total no of seats in the state Assembly: 175 The total value of all members of each state assembly is calculated by multiplying the number of elective seats in the assembly by the number of votes for each member – for example – Andhra Pradesh – 175×159=27,825. The total value of votes of all the states added together is divided by the total number of elected MPs of Parliament (Lok Sabha 543 + Rajya Sabha 233) to get the value of votes of each MP. India’s sixth President, Mr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy who served from 1977 to 1982 was the only President to be elected unopposed.

Statement 3 is incorrect

Name of State	Number of Assembly seats	Population (1971 Census)	Value of the vote of each MLA	Total value of votes for the state (B x D)
A	B	C	D	E
Kerala	140	2,13,47,375	152	21,280
Madhya Pradesh	230	3,00,16,625	131	30,130

• This also answers the 2^nd statement that a higher number of elective assembly seats does not necessarily lead to a higher value of the vote for each MLA of that state.

Statement 4 is correct

Name of State	Number of Assembly seats	Population (1971 Census)	Value of vote of each MLA	Total value of votes for the state (B x D)
A	B	C	D	E
Puducherry	30	4,71,707	16	480
Arunachal Pradesh	60	4,67,511	8	480

• The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard