UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2022

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2022 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2022 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2022

“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

1. Asian Development Bank
2. International Monetary Fund
3. United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
4. World Bank

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• IMF Lending Instruments: The IMF lends money to the economies in peril in the form of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), which is a basket of five currencies — US dollar, Euro, Chinese Yuan, Japanese Yen b British Pound. It can be executed through loans, cash, bonds, or stock purchases. Lending is done through programs designed for specific purposes. According to the IMF, these include the standby arrangement, standby credit facility, extended fund facility, the extended credit facility, rapid financing instrument, rapid credit facility, flexible credit line, short-term liquidity line, the precaution and liquidity line, resilience and sustainability facility, staff monitored program, policy support instrument and policy coordination instrument.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a financial institution established in 1966.
• It has its headquarters in Manila, Philippines. It was conceived in the early 1960s as a financial institution that would be Asian in character and foster economic growth and cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region. It aims to make Asia and the Pacific prosperous, inclusive, resilient, & sustainable while tackling poverty.
• ADB promotes private sector development, gender empowerment, regional integration, etc.
• Functions: ADB assists its members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance and grants.
  • It focuses on projects that help promote private investments in the region that will have a significant development impact and lead to accelerated, sustainable, and inclusive growth.
  • Eighty per cent of ADB’s lending is concentrated in the public sector lending in five operational areas:
    1. Education
    2. Environment
    3. Regional Cooperation
    4. Finance sector development
    5. Private sector lending
• Membership
  • ADB has 68 members (originally 31).
  • 49 members are from Asia and the Pacific.
  • 19 members are from outside the Asia Pacific region.

• Contribution of member states and Voting
  • The ADB was modelled closely on the World Bank/IMF and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed proportionately with members’ capital subscriptions.
• Contributions:
  • Japan and USA (15.7 % each)
  • China (6.4 %)
  • India (6.3 %)
• India is a founding member of ADB and the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder.
• ADB aligns its operations in the country to the government’s developing priorities.

Option (c) is incorrect

• United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative (UNEP FI) is a partnership between UNEP and the global financial sector to mobilize private sector finance for sustainable development. UNEP FI works with more than 450 banks, insurers, and investors and over 100 supporting institutions – to help create a financial sector that serves people and planet while delivering positive impacts.

Option (d) is incorrect

• The World Bank is an international organisation (189 member countries) focused on providing financing, advice, and research to support the economic development of developing countries.

Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund; Difficulty Level: Medium

 

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• RBI has developed Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indices for the rupee against two baskets of currencies.
• One basket has six currencies: US dollar, euro, Chinese yuan, British pound, Japanese yen, and Hong Kong dollar.
• The other NEER index covers a larger basket of 40 currencies, representing countries contributing to about 88% of India’s annual trade.
• NEER indices are calculated based on a reference base year value of 100 for 2015-16.
• Increases in NEER values indicate the rupee’s effective appreciation against these currencies, while decreases suggest overall exchange rate depreciation

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) reflects movements in the rupee’s external value against a basket of currencies, it doesn’t consider inflation, which affects the rupee’s internal value.
• REER adjusts the NEER for inflation differentials between the home country and its trading partners.
• An increase in REER implies that the costs of products exported from India are rising more than the prices of imports into the country. This results in a loss of trade competitiveness, which may not be favourable in the long term.

Statement 3 is correct

• If domestic inflation increases faster than inflation in other countries, the REER will increase even if the NEER remains constant. This will lead to a divergence between NEER and REER.

Additional Information Effective Exchange Rate (EER): The rupee’s strength or weakness depends on its exchange rate with the US dollar and other global currencies. This includes a basket of currencies of India’s major trading partners, known as the rupee’s effective exchange rate (EER). The Effective Exchange Rate (EER) is measured using an index similar to the Consumer Price Index (CPI). The CPI measures the average retail price of a standard consumer basket of goods and services over a specific period relative to a fixed base period. Similarly, the EER measures the weighted average of the rupee’s exchange rates against the currencies of India’s major trading partners. Currency weights in the EER are determined by each country’s share in India’s total foreign trade. There are two measures of the Effective Exchange Rate (EER). Nominal EER or NEER. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER).

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Open Market Operation (OMO) is a monetary policy tool central banks use to control money supply and interest rates. OMO involves the purchasing and selling of government securities (G-Sec) in the open market. When the Reserve Bank feels there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to selling government securities, thereby sucking out rupee liquidity (to control high inflation, the RBI would sell government securities to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system). Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, the central bank buys securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market

Statement 2 is correct

• To counter the depreciation of the rupee in the global market against the US Dollar, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) would intervene by selling dollars, thereby increasing the supply of dollars relative to the rupee.

Statement 3 is correct

• Lower interest rates in the US or the EU typically lead to a widening interest rate differential between these regions and India. This makes Indian markets more attractive to foreign investors seeking higher returns. As a result, there is an increased inflow of foreign capital into Indian markets.
• The influx of foreign capital increases the demand for Indian Rupees and can lead to a strengthening of the Rupee. At the same time, the supply of foreign currencies, like the US Dollar, increases.
• A stronger Rupee could reduce the cost of imports and improve the trade balance. To manage the effects of a stronger Rupee, which could negatively affect exports and other sectors, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may intervene in the foreign exchange market.
• This typically involves buying dollars to stabilise the Rupee and prevent excessive appreciation.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support low-income countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• The Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI), or Common Framework, is a unique mechanism to provide low-income countries (LICs) with orderly and coordinated debt restructurings, with broad creditors’ participation. The G20 set up the Common Framework in 2020 under the Saudi Arabia G20 presidency.
• It was also endorsed by the Paris Club. It was designed to provide debt treatments to countries eligible for the DSSI, which was rolled out during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information The Paris Club is an informal group of official creditors, primarily Western nations. Its role is to find sustainable solutions to the payment difficulties experienced by debtor countries. As debtor countries undertake reforms to stabilise and restore their macroeconomic and financial situation, Paris Club creditors provide an appropriate debt treatment. According to the Economist’s glossary of terms, the Paris Club is: “The name given to the arrangements through which countries reschedule their official DEBT; that is, money borrowed from other governments rather than BANKS or private FIRMS. It currently has 22 permanent members. India and China are not members of the Paris Club.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBS provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• IIBs are bonds in which both coupon payments and Principal amounts are protected against inflation. The inflation index used in IIBs may be the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) or the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
• Since the principal and interest payments of IIBs are adjusted based on inflation, the government can offer lower fixed coupon rates. This is because the real return to investors is protected by the inflation adjustment.
• Let us take an example to understand how IIBs work: Suppose an investor purchases an IIB with a face value of Rs. 10,000, a ten-year maturity, and a coupon rate of 3% above inflation. If the inflation rate is 4% at the time the bond is issued, the investor will receive an annual interest payment of Rs. 312 (3% of INR 10,400) in the first year.
  • If the inflation rate increases to 5% in the second year, the investor will receive an annual interest payment of Rs. 327.60 (3% of INR 10,920) in the second year.
  • The coupon rate will remain at 3% above inflation throughout the ten-year tenure.
  • This process continues until the maturity of the bond, ensuring that the investor receives a fixed income stream that keeps pace with inflation.
  • If the inflation rate is lower than the fixed interest rate, then the total interest payment would be lower than the fixed rate. On the other hand, if the inflation rate exceeds the fixed interest rate, the total interest payment would be higher, providing investors with some protection against inflation.

Statement 2 is correct

• IIBs are designed to protect investors from inflation by ensuring that the principal and interest payments are adjusted according to the inflation rate, thereby preserving the real value of the investment.

Statement 3 is incorrect’

• In India, both the interest received and capital gains on IIBs are taxable. While interest income is subject to income tax, capital gains from the sale of IIBs are taxed under the capital gains tax regime.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect

As per the norms, Marketplace e-commerce entities are prohibited from: (i) listing affiliated enterprises as sellers on their platforms, and (ii) sharing information that could unfairly benefit these affiliated enterprises. Additionally, affiliated enterprises are not permitted to engage in activities that are prohibited for the marketplace e-commerce entity itself.

• E-commerce entity providing a marketplace will not exercise ownership or control over the inventory i.e. goods purported to be sold. Such ownership or control over the inventory will render the business into an inventory-based model. An inventory of a vendor will be deemed controlled by an e-commerce marketplace entity if more than 25% of the vendor’s purchases are from the marketplace entity or its group companies.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following activities constitute the real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Activities 1 and 2 are part of the real sector

• The domestic economy can be divided into three larger sectors: nonfinancial corporations, households, and Non-profit institutions serving households (NPISHs) in the real sector.
• Hence, there are three sectors of the domestic economy:
  • General government sector
  • Real sector
  • Financial sector
• Sectorization of the domestic economy from the view of monetary statistics is also important to identify money-issuing and holding sectors. Thus, the financial sector is the economy’s money-issuing sector; the real sector is the economy’s money-holding sector; the general government sector is not a money holder, although it may influence the quantity of money through its operations. The real sector of the economy, as noted, consists of enterprises (nonfinancial corporations), households, and nonprofit institutions serving households. From the point of view of monetary and financial statistics, the households and nonprofit institutions serving households are, in some cases, combined into one subsector named “Other resident sectors”. Farmers harvesting crops and textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics are both examples of production activities. Therefore, they belong to the real sector.

Activities 3 and 4 are not part of the real sector

• The financial sector consists of corporations principally engaged in financial intermediation or in auxiliary financial activities that contribute to financial intermediation. Financial intermediation may be defined as a productive activity in which an institutional unit incurs liabilities on its own account to acquire financial assets through financial market transactions. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company and a corporate body issuing bonds overseas are financial activities. Hence, they fall outside the real sector.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

1. An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
2. A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country based on the profits arising out of its investment
3. An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
4. A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• “Indirect Transfers” refers to situations where shares of a foreign company are transferred, but those shares derive substantial value from assets located in India. Even though the transaction occurs outside India (between foreign entities), India claims taxation rights because the underlying value is linked to Indian assets. This concept became prominent after the Vodafone International Holdings v. Union of India case and subsequent amendments to the Income Tax Act.

• Vodafone case:
• Background: Hutchison Telecommunications International Limited (HTIL), a company based in Hong Kong, held a majority stake in Hutchison Essar Limited (HEL), which operated in India. Vodafone, a UK-based company, wanted to enter the Indian telecom market and decided to acquire HTIL’s stake in HEL.
• The Transaction: Vodafone structured the deal in a way that it purchased shares of a Cayman Islands-based company that held the stake in HEL. The transaction took place outside India, between two foreign entities (Vodafone and HTIL), involving shares of a foreign company.
• The Issue: Although the transaction happened abroad, the Indian tax authorities argued that the substantial value of the transferred shares was derived from assets located in India (HEL’s telecom business). The Indian government claimed that Vodafone should have withheld capital gains tax and paid it to the government, since the transaction’s value was tied to Indian assets.
• In the provided question:
• “A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India” directly reflects the Vodafone scenario. The shares being transferred are foreign, but their value is largely derived from HEL’s Indian assets (its telecom business). This situation exemplifies “indirect transfers” because the Indian tax authorities sought to tax the transaction based on the underlying assets located in India, even though the actual transfer of shares happened outside India.

Answer: (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acquiring new technology is a capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Example

Statement 1 is correct

• Acquiring new technology is a capital expenditure. This is because it involves spending money on an asset that is expected to provide benefits for a long period, typically more than a year. New technology can enhance productivity, efficiency, or create new revenue streams, thus generating long-term value for the organization.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Debt financing is not considered capital expenditure; rather, it is a method of raising funds. Similarly, equity financing is also a method of raising funds and not categorized as revenue expenditure.

Parameters	Debt financing	Equity financing
Meaning	Debt financing involves borrowing money from external sources, such as: Bank Financial institutions, or Individual investors The borrowing company promises to Repay the principal amount, and Make timely payments of interest	Equity financing involves selling a portion of ownership in the business to investors in exchange for capital. In the case of a company, it refers to selling equity shares in the equity market
Example	A manufacturing company in India takes out a loan of Rs. 10,00,000 from a bank to purchase new machinery. The company agrees to repay the loan amount along with an interest rate of 10% per annum over the next five years.	A technology startup in India raises Rs. 50,00,000 in equity financing from a group of angel investors. In exchange, it offered 20% of the paid-up capital, or we can say 20% ownership stake in the company.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• A portion of household financial savings in India does indeed go towards government borrowings.
• This can happen through various channels, such as Small savings schemes, Popular schemes like Public Provident Fund (PPF), National Savings Certificates (NSCs), and Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) are invested in government debt.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Government of India raises funds by issuing dated securities, which are long-term bonds with a fixed maturity. These are issued through auctions at market-determined interest rates based on demand and supply. They form a major component of the government’s internal debt, i.e., debt owed to domestic investors.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Under the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the power to make laws on the Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Contempt laws in India have their roots in the pre-independence period, with the Contempt of Court Act, 1926 being the first significant legislation addressing the issue. This Act granted all High Courts the authority to take cognizance of contempt committed against themselves as well as subordinate courts and to punish the offenders accordingly. After independence, the 1926 Act was replaced by the Contempt of Courts Act, 1952, which extended these powers to the Courts of Judicial Commissioner, allowing them to inquire into or adjudicate cases of contempt concerning themselves or subordinate courts. In 1960, a bill was introduced to consolidate and amend the existing contempt laws in India. A special committee, chaired by Mr. H.N. Sanyal, was formed and submitted its report in 1963. Most of the committee’s recommendations were accepted, leading to the enactment of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, which subsequently repealed the 1952 Act.

Statement 2 is correct

• The power of court to punish for contempt of itself is part of sovereign power. Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution recognize the existence of such power in the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
• Article 129: This article designates the Supreme Court as a “court of record” and grants it the power to punish for contempt of itself. A “court of record” is a court whose acts and judicial proceedings are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. The decisions of such courts are considered as legal precedents, and the court has the authority to punish those who disobey its orders or show disrespect to its authority.
• Article 215: Similar to Article 129, this article declares that every High Court is a “court of record” and confers upon it the power to punish for contempt of itself. This ensures that High Courts, like the Supreme Court, maintain their authority and the dignity of their proceedings.
• The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 regulates the powers of the courts to punish for their contempt.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Constitution does not define civil contempt and criminal contempt; these are defined under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

Statement 4 is correct

• The authority to legislate on matters related to contempt of court is vested in the Parliament.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Legal firms themselves are not recognized as advocates. However, corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are not inherently excluded from being considered advocates; they can be recognized as advocates if they are duly enrolled with a Bar Council.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Bar Council of India is a statutory body created by Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961 to regulate and represent the Indian Bar. It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar.
• It also sets standards for legal education and grants recognition to Universities whose degree in law will serve as qualification for enrolment as an advocate. It also protects the rights and interests of advocates and establishes funds to support welfare schemes for them. Each state’s State Bar Council is affiliated with the Bar Council of India.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/ her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Constitution vests in Parliament the power to amend the Constitution. Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament. This bill may be presented by either a minister or a private member, and crucially, it does not necessitate prior approval from the president.

Additional Information IC can be amended in three ways: Simple majority Special majority under Article 368 Special majority and ratification of half of the states under Article 368 Simple majority Many articles of the IC can be amended by the simple law of the Parliament (simple majority). For amending these articles, there is no difference at all between amendment and ordinary law. The amendments in these articles are not considered amendments under Article 368. Special majority Other articles of the IC (that do not fall under the first category) can be amended like the procedure given in Article 368 of the IC. Under Article 368 of IC, there are two different methods for amending the two different sets of Articles. These are: Amendment by a special majority of two houses of Parliament. Amendment by a special majority of two houses of Parliament and ratification by half of the State legislatures (These Articles involve the federal character of the Constitution). Article 368 lists six parts of the Constitution which can be amended only after state ratification: Articles 54 and 55, dealing with the election of the President of India. Articles 73 and 162, dealing with the extent of executive power of the Union and states. Articles 124-147 and 214-231, which deal with the powers of the SC and the HCs. Articles 245 to 255, dealing with the Seventh Schedule of IC. Article 82, dealing with the representation of states in Parliament. Article 368 itself. Informally, the Constitution is also amended through judicial interpretation. For example, the process of appointment of judges to the higher judiciary.

Statement 2 is correct

• Under the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971, the President is bound to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill; he can neither withhold it nor return the bill for reconsideration. Once the President gives assent, the bill becomes a Constitutional Amendment Act, and the Constitution stands amended accordingly.

Statement 3 is correct

• Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Additional Information Article 108(1) of the Constitution provides that when a Bill (other than a Money Bill or a Bill seeking to amend the Constitution) passed by one House is rejected by the other House or the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments made in the Bill or more than six months lapse from the date of the receipt of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it. The President may, unless the Bill has lapsed by reason of dissolution of Lok Sabha, notify to the Houses by message, if they are sitting, or by public notification, if they are not sitting, his intention to summon them to meet in a Joint Sitting. The President has made the Houses of Parliament (Joint Sittings and Communications) Rules in terms of clause (3) of article 118 of the Constitution to regulate the procedure with respect to Joint Sitting of Houses. So far, there have been three occasions when Bills were considered and passed in a Joint Sitting of the Houses of Parliament

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union The government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Constitution does not classify the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks, viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister.
• All this has been done following the British practice and in view of administrative convenience.
• Section 2 of the Salaries and Allowances of Ministers Act, 1952, has, however, accorded legislative sanction to such classification in the Indian context.

Statement 2 is correct

• Number of Council of Ministers at Union & State Level After 91st CAA, 2003:
  • Art 75 (1A): The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent.
  • Art 164 (1A): The minimum strength of the council of ministers, including the CM, in a state as per the Constitution, is 12, and the maximum is 15 per cent of the strength of the Legislative Assembly.
  • In the case of smaller States like Sikkim, Mizoram, Goa, and Arunachal Pradesh, having 32, 40 and 40 members in the Legislative Assemblies, respectively, a minimum strength of 7 ministers is prescribed.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Approval (ratification) of a National Emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution must be done by both Houses of Parliament, not exclusively by the Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct

• No-confidence Motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha. No prior reason needs to be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• According to Article 61 of the Constitution, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. Only after receiving a majority in both houses will the said Authority be impeached.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Under the Anti-Defection Law, a nominated member may join a political party within six months of entering the House, but not thereafter.

Statement 2 is correct

• The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.

 

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Under Article 88, the “Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member”. However, he “shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote” in the House. This right is not extended to the Solicitor General of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president.
• This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. The Indian Constitution does not require him to resign when the government that appointed him steps down.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Mandamus (“We command”): Its purpose is to command a public official or body to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform.
• Who can file: A person whose rights are directly affected by the non-performance of a duty.
• Against whom: public official, a public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or the government, but not private individuals.
• Cannot be issued:
  • against a private individual or body,
  • to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force,
  • when the duty is discretionary in nature,
  • to enforce a contractual obligation,
  • against the President of India, the State Governors, and the Chief Justice of a High Court.

Statement 2 is correct

• A writ of mandamus can be issued against a government corporation or company only when it is performing a public duty, making the original statement incomplete. The key principle is that mandamus is meant to enforce the discharge of public duties, not purely private functions.

Statement 3 is correct

• Quo Warranto (“By what authority”): Its purpose is to challenge the legal right of a person to hold a public office. Prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
• Who can file: Any interested person and not necessarily the aggrieved person.
• Issued in case of substantial public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. Cannot be issued in the case of ministerial or private offices.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

• Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission serves to implement a key objective of National Health Policy 2017 i.e. creation of a digital health technology eco-system aiming at developing an integrated health information system that improves efficiency, transparency, and citizens’ experience, with linkage across public and private healthcare. It was earlier known as the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM). It is a Central Sector Scheme and is implemented by the National Health Authority (NHA).
• Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).

Statement 3 is correct

• It has been launched for promoting digitization of healthcare and creating an open interoperable digital health ecosystem for the country. It aims to do so by prescribing common health data standards, developing core modules such as registry of health facilities, healthcare professionals etc required for interoperability; so that various digital health systems can interact with each other by enabling seamless sharing of data across various healthcare providers who may be using different digital health systems.

PMFIAS Concept Hack Statement 1 can be eliminated easily because the word “must” indicates an extreme/mandatory claim, whereas such schemes are generally voluntary. Once Statement 1 is eliminated, options containing it are removed, and only Statement 3 is left, making it the correct answer (b) 3 only.

Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Deputy Speaker is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• There is no mandatory provision that the Deputy Speaker must be elected from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. The position can be held by a member from any party, depending on the election.

Statement 3 is correct

• When presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker, and his rulings are final in that context.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every member notice of this date. At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker, if elected.
• For example, in the case of Sardar Hukam Singh’s election (the first person from the Opposition to hold the position of Deputy Speaker was Sardar Hukam Singh, a member of the Shiromani Akali Dal (SAD)) Deputy Speaker in 1956, the motion was proposed by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and seconded by the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, S N Sinha.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

1. Cotton
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Wheat

Explanation

Option (b) is the correct answer

• Rice cultivation is a major contributor to global greenhouse gas emissions, particularly methane (CH₄) and nitrous oxide (N₂O). These emissions arise from the traditional practices of flooding rice paddies and the burning of rice straw and stubble.
• Methane Emissions from Rice Cultivation: Rice paddies are typically flooded during growth, creating anaerobic conditions that lead to the generation of methane by methanogenic bacteria. Methane is a potent greenhouse gas with a global warming potential (GWP) significantly higher than carbon dioxide. It is estimated that rice cultivation contributes approximately 36 million metric tons of methane annually, accounting for 2.5% of radiative forcing.
• Nitrous Oxide Emissions: Nitrous oxide, another potent greenhouse gas, is primarily emitted from rice fields where water levels are intermittently managed. Alternate wetting and drying (AWD) is a technique used to reduce methane emissions by allowing the fields to dry out between irrigation cycles. However, this practice can increase nitrous oxide emissions, as the aeration of the soil during drying periods enhances microbial activity that produces nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide has a GWP greater than carbon dioxide and a much longer atmospheric lifetime, making it a significant contributor to climate change.

Answer: (b) Rice; Difficulty Level: Medium

“System of Rice Intensification” of Cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) incorporates a water-management technique known as Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD), which involves controlled irrigation of rice fields instead of continuous flooding. This approach offers multiple benefits: it reduces methane emissions by limiting anaerobic conditions, lowers water usage and irrigation demand, and decreases fuel and electricity consumption associated with pumping. SRI also requires fewer seeds for transplanting and reduces dependence on chemical fertilisers and other agrichemicals. At the same time, it enhances paddy yields, thereby lowering production costs. Overall, the combination of higher output and reduced input costs results in improved net income for farmers.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

1. Lake Victoria
2. Lake Faguibine
3. Lake Oguta
4. Lake Volta

Explanation

Option (b) is the correct answer

• Lake Faguibine, located in northern Mali, has turned into a desert due to severe and prolonged droughts since the 1970s. The lake was historically fertile and relied on seasonal floods from the Niger River. However, climate change and erratic rainfall patterns have reduced water inflow to the lake.

Mali Mali is a landlocked country in West Africa. It is bordered by: Algeria to the north Niger to the east Burkina Faso and Mauritania to the south Senegal and Guinea to the southwest The capital of Mali is Bamako. Niger River The Niger River is the third-longest river in Africa, after the Nile and the Congo. The Niger Delta is Africa’s largest delta. It is the main river of West Africa. It flows through 11 countries: Guinea, Mali, Niger, Benin, Burkina Faso, Nigeria, Cameroon, Chad, and Libya. It originates in the Fouta Djallon Mountains of Guinea and it flows through the Sahara Desert, the Sahel, and the Niger Delta into the Gulf of Guinea in the Atlantic Ocean.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Lake Victoria is Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America. It is bordered by Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%). It is a source of the White Nile River, which flows northward and eventually joins the Blue Nile in Sudan to form the Nile River, which drains into the Mediterranean Sea. Lake Victoria touches the Equator on its northern side.

Nile River It is the longest river in the world. It rises south of the Equator and drains into the Mediterranean Sea. Its basin includes parts of Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Uganda, South Sudan, Ethiopia, Sudan, and the cultivated part of Egypt. Two main branches Blue Nile coming from the Ethiopian and Eritrean highlands (Source of 85% of total flow). White Nile, coming from the Great Lakes region. The White Nile meets the Blue Nile at Khartoum, the Sudanese capital. The Blue Nile originates from Lake Tana in Ethiopia.

Option (c) is incorrect

• It is situated in southeastern Nigeria. It is a freshwater lake, part of the River Niger basin.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Located in Ghana, it is one of the world’s largest artificial lakes, created by the Akosombo Dam on the Volta River. Lake Volta serves as a major source of hydroelectric power for Ghana and supports fishing and transportation. It has faced challenges related to ecological impacts and displacement of local communities.

Volta River The Volta River Basin spans approximately 400,000 km² across six countries: Benin, Burkina Faso, Côte d’Ivoire, Ghana, Mali, and Togo. Size: It is the ninth largest river basin in sub-Saharan Africa. Distribution: About 85% of the basin is in Burkina Faso and Ghana, while Togo, Benin, Côte d’Ivoire, and Mali share the remaining 15%. The Volta River Basin ultimately drains into the Gulf of Guinea. The river flows southward through Ghana, where it empties into the Atlantic Ocean via the Gulf of Guinea.

Answer: (b) Lake Faguibine; Difficulty Level: Hard

Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

1. Cauvery
2. Manjira
3. Pennar
4. Tungabhadra

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The gorge of Gandikota is situated on the Pennar River in Andhra Pradesh and is known as the Grand Canyon of India. The Pennar River carved the granite rock of Erramala Hills and formed Gandikota Canyon.

Additional Information A gorge is any valley formed by a source of water flowing between tall slabs of steep rocks. Gorges are formed as a result of erosion of rocks over a long period of time. Pennar River The Pennar (also known as Uttara Pinakini) is one of the major rivers of the peninsula. The Pennar rises in the Chenna Kasava hill of the Nandidurg range, in Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka and flows towards east eventually draining into the Bay of Bengal. The total length of the river from origin to its outfall in the Bay of Bengal is 597 km. Located in peninsular India, the Pennar basin extends over states of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka having an area of ~55 thousand Sq.km The fan shaped basin is bounded by the Erramala range on the north, by the Nallamala and Velikonda ranges of the Eastern Ghats on the east, by the Nandidurg hills on the south and by the narrow ridge separating it from the Vedavati valley of the Krishna Basin on the west. The other hill ranges in the basin to the south of the river are the Seshachalam and Paliconda ranges. The major part of basin is covered with agriculture accounting to 58.64% of the total area.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Kaveri (Cauvery) River rises at an elevation of 1,341 m at Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range near Cherangala village of Kodagu (Coorg) district of Karnataka. The total length of the river from origin to outfall is 800 km. The Cauvery basin extends over the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, draining an area of 81,000 sq km.
• Tributaries of the Cauvery River
  • Left Bank: the Harangi, the Hemavati, the Shimsha and the Arkavati.
  • Right Bank: Lakshmantirtha, the Kabbani, the Suvarnavati, the Bhavani, the Noyil, and the Amaravati join from the right.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Manjira River originates from Gaurwadi in the Balaghat Hills of Ahmednagar District, Maharashtra.
• Flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana, it spans approximately 724 kilometres. The Manjira is a significant right-bank tributary of the Godavari River.

Option (d) is incorrect

• It is formed by the unification of the Tunga and the Bhadra originating from Gangamula in the Central Sahyadri (Western Ghats). Tungabhadra is a tributary of Krishna river that flows through Hampi, the capital of Vijayanagara Empire.
• Tributaries: Bhadra, Haridra, Vedavati, Tunga, Varda and Kumdavathi.
• The famous Virupaksha temple is on the banks of Tungabhadra.

Answer: (c) Pennar; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

	Peak	Mountains
	Namcha Barwa	Garhwal Himalaya
	Nanda Devi	Kumaon Himalaya
	Nokrek	Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched

• Namcha Barwa (7,782 m) is located in the Great Himalaya, not the Garhwal Himalaya.

Additional Information The Great Himalaya: Also known as Inner Himalaya, Central Himalaya or Himadri. Average elevation of 6,100 m above sea level and an average width of about 25 km. It is mainly formed of the central crystallines (granites and gneisses) overlain by metamorphosed sediments [limestone]. The folds in this range are asymmetrical with a steep south slope and a gentle north slope, giving ‘hog back (a long, steep hill or mountain ridge)’ topography. This mountain arc convexes to the south just like the other two. Terminates abruptly at the syntaxial bends. One in the Nanga Parbat in north-west and the other in the Namcha Barwa in the north-east. This mountain range boasts the tallest peaks in the world, most of which remain under perpetual snow.

Pair 2 is correctly matched

• Nanda Devi (7,816 m) is correctly matched to the Kumaon Himalaya. It is located in the state of Uttarakhand, between the Rishiganga valley on the west and the Goriganga valley on the east.
• The surrounding Nanda Devi National Park was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1988. Nanda Devi is a two-peaked massif, forming a 2 kilometres (1.2 mi) long high ridge, oriented east-west.
• The west summit is higher, and the eastern summit is called Nanda Devi East. Together the peaks are referred to as the twin peaks of the goddess Nanda.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched

• The Nokrek Peak is located in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, where it forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau. The entire area is mountainous, and Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo hills, rising up 1,412 metres.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

1. Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
2. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
3. Region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
4. The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The term “Levant” refers to the geographic region along the eastern Mediterranean shores. It primarily encompasses the countries of Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Jordan, Cyprus, and parts of southern Turkey. The Levant region got its name from the French lever, which means “to rise.”

Answer: (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following countries:

1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan?

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (c) is the correct answer

• Afghanistan is a landlocked country bounded by the:
  • East & south by Pakistan and 106 km border length with India.
  • West by Iran
  • North by Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan & Tajikistan
  • It also has a short border with Xinjiang, China, at the end of Wakhan Corridor
• It has a strategic location along the Silk Road connected to the Middle East and other parts of Asia.
• It is inhabited by ethnic Pashtuns, Tajiks, Hazaras, and Uzbeks.
• The geography in Afghanistan is varied but is mostly mountainous and rugged, with some unusual mountain ridges accompanied by plateaus and river basins.
• It is dominated by the Hindu Kush range, the western extension of the Himalayas that stretches to eastern Tibet via the Pamir Mountains & Karakoram Mountains in Afghanistan’s far north-east.

Answer: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In India, monazite has been the principal source of rare earths. It occurs in association with other heavy minerals, such as ilmenite, rutile, zircon, etc., in the beach sands and inland placer deposits.

Statement 2 is correct

• It also contains thorium and uranium.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Although India possesses large deposits of monazite (not in the entire coastal sands), the heavier rare earths are not present in sufficient quantities in this mineral.
• Monazite is found in the coastal tracts of Cuttack and Ganjam districts of Orissa. In Andhra Pradesh, thick ilmenite and monazite placers are found around Vishakapatnam and Bhimunipatnam. The beach sands in Kerala and Tamil Nadu are also very rich in monazite. Approximately 7.23 million tonne Rare Earth Oxides (REO) Equivalent contained in 13.15 million tonne monazite resource, occurring in the coastal beach and teri / red sand in parts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat and in the inland alluvium in parts of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu.

Statement 4 is correct

• Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the Government of India (GOI) under Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), is the only entity which has been permitted to produce and process monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well as for export.

PMFIAS Concept Hack Statement 3 can be eliminated because the phrase “entire Indian coastal sands” is too broad—such minerals occur only in specific coastal stretches, not everywhere. Once Statement 3 is eliminated, all options containing it are removed, leaving only option (b).

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the:

1. First half of the month of June
2. Second half of the month of June
3. First half of the month of July
4. Second half of the month of July

Explanation

Option (b) is the correct answer

• In the above figure, you will see that on 21st June, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the sun.
• The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a result, these areas receive more heat. The areas near the poles receive less heat because the sun’s rays are slanted. The North Pole is inclined towards the sun, and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months. Since a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere is receiving sunlight, it is summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June. At this time in the Southern Hemisphere, all these conditions are reversed. It is winter season there. The nights are longer than the days. This position of the Earth is called the Summer Solstice.

Answer: (b) Second half of the month of June; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Wetland / Lake	Location
Hokera Wetland	Punjab
Renuka Wetland	Himachal Pradesh
Rudrasagar Lake	Tripura
Sasthamkotta Lake	Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu & Kashmir, not Punjab. It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to Jhelum basin. It serves as an important breeding and staging ground for a variety of migratory birds, particularly during the winter months.

Pair 2 is correct

• Renuka Wetland is located in Himachal Pradesh. It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations.

Pair 3 is correct

• Rudrasagar Lake is located in Tripura. It is a reservoir fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti. It is an ideal habitat for Three-Striped Roof Turtle (CR).

Pair 4 is incorrect

• Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala.

• Note: All the wetlands and lakes mentioned, Hokera Wetland, Renuka Wetland, Rudrasagar Lake, and Sasthamkotta Lake are designated as Ramsar sites.

Answer: (b) Only two pairs; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following:

1. Aarogya Setu
2. COWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Open-source digital platforms are software platforms whose source code is made publicly available for anyone to view, modify, and distribute. Unlike proprietary software, where the code is kept secret and controlled by the developer or company, open-source platforms encourage community collaboration and transparency. Free and Open-Source Software (FOSS) presents an alternative model for building digital technologies at a population scale. It results in many benefits, reduced costs, no vendor lock-in, the ability to customise for local context, and greater innovation through wider collaboration.
• Several public services, including Aadhaar, GSTN, DigiLocker, Diksha, Aarogya Setu, and the Covid-19 vaccination platform CoWIN, are built upon open-source digital platforms.

Additional Information The DigiLocker platform, launched in 2015, is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY) under the Digital India programme. It operates as an app to store users’ digital records. It is a cloud-based platform designed to store citizens’ digital documents. The stored documents can also be shared and verified through DigiLocker. Aarogya Setu Developed by: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology It is a mobile application developed to connect essential health services with the people of India in our combined fight against COVID-19. The App is aimed at augmenting the initiatives of the Government of India, particularly the Department of Health, in proactively reaching out to and informing the users of the app regarding risks, best practices and relevant advisories pertaining to the containment of COVID-19. COWIN COVID Vaccine Intelligence Network (CoWIN) system is a comprehensive cloud-based IT solution for planning, implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of COVID-19 vaccination in India. It provide real time information of vaccine stocks, their storage temperature and individualized tracking of beneficiaries of the COVID-19 vaccine. This platform will assist the program managers across all levels through automated session allocation for pre-registered beneficiaries, their verification and for generating a digital certificate upon successful completion of the vaccine schedule. DIKSHA DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) is a national platform for school education, an initiative of National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT), under the aegis of the Ministry of Education (MoE), GoI. Launched in 2017. The platform is founded on core principles such as open architecture, open access, open licensing, and emphasizes choice and autonomy. Built on open-source technology developed in India, it integrates internet-scale technologies and supports diverse use cases and solutions for teaching and learning tailored to the needs of Indian education.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:

1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Web 3.0 represents the next phase in the evolution of the internet, aiming to create a decentralized, user-controlled web. Unlike the current Web 2.0, where centralised corporations control platforms and data, Web 3.0 leverages technologies like blockchain to give users more control and ownership over their data and online interactions. It empowers users to control their personal data.
• Instead of data being stored on centralised servers owned by corporations, data in Web 3.0 is stored on decentralised networks, often using blockchain technology. This shift allows users to decide who can access their data and how it is used, aligning with the principle of user autonomy.

Statement 2 is correct

• Web 3.0 facilitates the creation of blockchain-based social networks. These platforms operate on decentralised ledgers, enabling users to maintain control over their content and interactions without relying on a central authority. Such networks enhance privacy, security, and transparency, addressing many of the concerns associated with traditional social media platforms.

Statement 3 is correct

• Web 3.0 is designed to be operated collectively by its users, rather than being controlled by a single corporation. Decentralised Autonomous Organisations (DAOs) are a key feature of Web 3.0, enabling communities to democratically govern platforms. This collective operation ensures that decisions about the platform are made by the users, for the users, rather than by corporate entities.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:

1. SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud-based service where, instead of downloading software on a desktop PC to run and update, users access the software and its functions via the internet. In SaaS, users often have some level of customisation options. Customisation capabilities vary depending on the SaaS provider and the specific application.

Statement 2 is correct

• SaaS applications are typically designed to be accessible from various devices, including mobile phones and tablets. This is a fundamental aspect of SaaS, which aims to provide users with flexibility and accessibility from anywhere with an internet connection.

Statement 3 is correct

• These are examples of SaaS applications. They provide email services over the internet, and users access their email accounts through web browsers or mobile apps. These services exemplify how SaaS works by offering software over the web without requiring local installation or maintenance.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?

1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is a missile technology concept that involves: A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and de-orbits over a target on the Earth. Scientists and engineers in the erstwhile Soviet Union developed FOBS in the 1960s. It involves launching a nuclear weapon into low-Earth orbit – around 150 km – where it will stay as it floats above the planet, before de-orbiting back down over the intended target. The primary advantage of FOBS lies in its ability to approach a target from unexpected directions. Traditional missile defence systems, which are often oriented to detect threats from known trajectories, may struggle to counteract FOBS due to its ability to manoeuvre and approach from different angles. In October 2021, China has tested a hypersonic FOBS that can travel at speeds significantly higher than those of traditional missiles, making it even harder to track and intercept.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and de-orbits over a target on the Earth; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

1. Cloud Services
2. Quantum Computing
3. Visible Light Communication Technologies
4. Wireless Communication Technologies

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Quantum computers use qubits (quantum bits) as the basic unit of information. Binary bits can represent either 0 or 1, but qubits can exist in a superposition of states, meaning they can represent both 0 and 1 simultaneously. This allows qubits to carry more information. This property also allows quantum computers to perform multiple calculations parallelly.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Cloud Services refer to the delivery of computing services such as servers, storage, databases, networking, software, and more over the cloud (internet).

Option (c) is incorrect

• Visible Light Communication (VLC) refers to the use of visible light for communication purposes, such as Li-Fi (Light Fidelity). VLC uses light in the visible spectrum to transmit data wirelessly.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Wireless Communication Technologies involve the transmission of data over electromagnetic waves without physical connections. This includes technologies like Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and cellular networks.

Answer: (b) Quantum Computing; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following communication technologies:

1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered communication Short-Range devices/technologies?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV) systems typically operate within a confined area such as a building or campus using wired or short-range wireless links, placing them in the short-range category. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is inherently a short-range technology, typically operating from a few centimetres to a few metres for object identification. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN), commonly known as Wi-Fi, also operates over limited distances—tens of meters indoors and up to a few hundred meters outdoors—thus falling under short-range communication when compared to long-range technologies like cellular or satellite systems.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Biofilms are a collective of one or more types of microorganisms that can grow on many different surfaces. Microorganisms that form biofilms include bacteria, fungi and protists. One common example of a biofilm is dental plaque, a slimy buildup of bacteria that forms on tooth surfaces. Biofilms are ubiquitous and form on virtually all surfaces immersed in natural aqueous environments, e.g., water pipes, living tissue, tooth surfaces, and implanted medical devices (such as catheters and pacemakers) and dental implants.

Statement 2 is correct

• Persistent challenges in food processing settings involve the presence of biofilms. For example, in Cheddar cheese production, biofilms formed by Lactobacillus curvatus pose a potential issue, as they may result in a defect characterised by the formation of calcium lactate crystals. Moreover, these biofilms can adhere to equipment surfaces, posing a formidable challenge for removal.

Statement 3 is correct

• Biofilms can significantly increase antibiotic resistance, making bacteria up to 1,000 times more resistant compared to their planktonic forms. This is due to reduced antibiotic penetration, altered microenvironments, and the persistence of bacteria in dormant states within the biofilm.
• For instance, Staphylococcus epidermidis and Klebsiella pneumoniae show much higher resistance in biofilms than in free-floating forms.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements in respect to probiotics:

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest, but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Probiotics are live microorganisms that are beneficial for health when consumed in adequate amounts. They can include various strains of bacteria (such as Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium) and yeast (such as Saccharomyces boulardii). These microorganisms are used in probiotic supplements and fermented foods to support gut health and overall wellness.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Probiotic organisms are present in both the food we eat and naturally in the human gut. They are a part of the normal gut microbiota and help maintain a balanced environment in the intestines. When consumed as part of food or supplements, they can contribute additional beneficial strains to the existing gut microbiome.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Some probiotic strains, especially certain types of Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, can help digest lactose, the sugar found in milk. This is particularly beneficial for individuals who are lactose intolerant, as these probiotics can help break down lactose and reduce digestive discomfort.

PMFIAS Concept Hack Statement 2 can be eliminated using simple understanding, probiotics are beneficial microorganisms already present in our body. So, saying they do not naturally occur in our gut is incorrect.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

1. The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik. V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Covishield was developed by Oxford University in collaboration with AstraZeneca. AstraZeneca’s vaccine formula was licensed to Pune-based vaccine maker Serum Institute of India (SII) during the coronavirus pandemic to manufacture Covishield. The vaccine has been developed by using a weakened version of the adenovirus.
• Adenovirus causes infections in chimpanzees, and its genetic material is the same as that of the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 coronavirus. The spike protein is the part of SARS-CoV-2 that the virus uses to enter a human body cell. The vaccine contains the genetic material of the SARS-CoV-2 virus spike protein. After vaccination, the spike protein is produced on the cell surface, priming the immune system to attack SARS-CoV-2 if it later infects the body.

Statement 2 is correct

• Sputnik V is a vector-based vaccine, similar to Covishield. It employs two different human adenovirus vectors to deliver genetic material that encodes the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2.

Statement 3 is correct

• Covaxin was India’s first indigenous vaccine against Covid-19.Developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research and National Institute of Virology, Pune. It is an inactivated vaccine.
• An inactivated vaccine is one which is developed by inactivating the live microbe that cause the disease. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate but keeps it intact so that the immune system can still recognise it and produce an immune response.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Solar storms, particularly solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs), can significantly affect the ionosphere, which is a layer of Earth’s atmosphere that influences radio signals and GPS systems. It can cause ionisation changes that disrupt the signals used by GPS satellites. This disruption can lead to inaccuracies in GPS positioning and navigation systems.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Tsunamis result from seismic events like earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and underwater disturbances, not solar flares.

Statement 3 is correct

• It can induce geomagnetic currents in Earth’s magnetic field, which can cause fluctuations in electrical grids. These geomagnetic induced currents (GICs) can overload transformers and other components of power grids, leading to potential damage, voltage instability, and even blackouts. The most notable example of this was the 1989 geomagnetic storm that caused a massive blackout in Quebec, Canada.

Statement 4 is correct

• It increases the energy and density of charged particles entering Earth’s magnetosphere, which can intensify auroras (Northern and Southern Lights).

Statement 5 is incorrect

• There is no direct evidence linking solar storms to increased risk of forest fires. Forest fires are usually caused by natural factors like lightning or human activities, not by solar activity.

Statement 6 is correct

• It has the potential to interfere with delicate electronic components aboard satellites orbiting the Earth, leading to malfunctions in various systems.

Statement 7 is correct

• It can disrupt high-frequency (HF) radio signals, which are used for communication with aircraft, particularly over polar regions. These regions are more susceptible to geomagnetic disturbances because they are close to the poles, where the Earth’s magnetic field lines converge. As a result, solar storms can cause degradation or loss of radio signals, affecting communications with aircraft flying in these areas.

PMFIAS Concept Hack For solar storms, think of electromagnetic and satellite-related impacts, not geological or direct burning effects. So, GPS failure, power grid damage, auroras, satellite orbit disturbance, and polar radio disruption are possible. But tsunamis and forest fires over much of the planet are exaggerated and unrelated effects, so we can eliminate Statements 2 and 5.

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

1. Database created by coalition organizations of Research organizations
2. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
3. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
4. Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis that monitors government efforts to address climate change, assessing them against the goals set by the Paris Agreement. Established in 2009, CAT is a collaboration between Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute, providing impartial analyses to policymakers. CAT evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies, and actions, using climate model to project likely temperature increases in the 21st century. Additionally, it extends its analysis to the global level by aggregating country actions, offering insights into the pathways required to meet temperature goals. Covering around 39 countries and the EU, CAT encompasses around 85% of global emissions. It includes major emitters and a representative sample of smaller emitters, collectively representing approximately 85% of global emissions and 70% of the global population.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The IPCC is the UN body for assessing the science related to climate change. It was established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) in 1988. It has 195 member states. The IPCC produces reports that support the UNFCCC.
• IPCC reports cover all relevant information to understand the risk of human-induced climate change, its potential impacts and options for adaptation and mitigation.
• The IPCC does not carry out its own original research. Thousands of scientists and other experts contribute on a voluntary basis. In accordance with its mandate, the IPCC prepares at regular intervals comprehensive Assessment Reports of scientific, technical and socio-economic information relevant for the understanding of human induced climate change, potential impacts of climate change and options for mitigation and adaptation.

Option (c) is incorrect

• United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change:
  • International environmental treaty that came into existence under the aegis of UN.
  • UNFCCC is negotiated at the Earth Summit 1992.
  • Signed in 1992, New York City.
  • At present, UNFCCC has 198 parties.
  • Role: UNFCCC provides a framework for negotiating specific international treaties (called “protocols”) that aim to set binding limits on greenhouse gases.
  • Objective of UNFCCC: Stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous consequences.
  • Legal Effect: Treaty is considered legally non-binding.
  • The treaty itself sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries.
  • The secretariat of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change is located on the UN Campus in Bonn, Germany.

Option (d) is incorrect

• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):
  • UNEP is an agency of the United Nations.
  • It coordinates the UN’s environmental activities.
  • It assists developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and practices.
  • It was founded as a result of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment 1972.
  • It has overall responsibility for environmental problems among United Nations agencies.
  • Addressing climate change or combating desertification, are overseen by other UN organizations, like the UNFCCC and the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification.
  • UNEP’s activities cover a wide range of issues regarding the atmosphere, marine and terrestrial ecosystems, environmental governance and green economy.
  • UN Environment is also one of several Implementing Agencies for the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and the Multilateral Fund for the Implementation of the Montreal Protocol.
  • It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group.
  • UNEP has registered several successes, such as the 1987 Montreal Protocol, and the 2012 Minamata Convention, a treaty to limit toxic mercury.

Answer: (a) Database created by coalition organizations of Research organizations; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. “The Climate Group” is an international nonprofit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct, and statement 5 is incorrect

• The Climate Group is an international nonprofit organisation that focuses on accelerating climate action by mobilising networks of businesses, governments, and other stakeholders. It operates various initiatives and campaigns to reduce carbon emissions and promote sustainable practices. By creating and managing large networks, The Group works to amplify climate action and influence global policy.
• Founded: The organisation was founded in 2003 and officially launched in 2004.
• Offices: Has offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam, and Beijing.
• Network: Grown to include over 500 multinational businesses across 175 markets worldwide.
• Climate Group acts as secretariat of the Under2 Coalition, which is the largest network of subnational governments committed to reaching net zero emissions by 2050 or earlier.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• In 2019, the EP100 Cooling Challenge, led by Climate Group and the Alliance to Save Energy, was launched. EP100 member companies were challenged to identify ways of cooling their operations as efficiently as possible , optimising the contribution of efficient, clean cooling to their energy productivity goals.

Statement 3 is correct

• EP100 brings together companies committed to enhancing energy efficiency. This initiative supports innovation and helps companies improve their competitiveness while working towards emission reduction targets.

Statement 4 is correct

• There are Indian companies that are members of EP100, demonstrating their commitment to improving energy efficiency and contributing to global emission reduction efforts.
• For example – Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd. has joined EP100, committing to double its energy productivity by 2030. Additionally, two prominent Indian cement companies, Dalmia Cement and JSW Cement, have embraced key Climate Group initiatives.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

“If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

1. The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation, and evaporation.
2. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles, and mammals thrive.
3. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
4. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Wetlands play a critical role in maintaining ecological balance and supporting biodiversity.
• Often described as the “kidneys of the Earth,” wetlands are essential for filtering and regulating water, akin to how kidneys filter blood in the human body. Their functions include:
  • Wetlands act as natural filters. Aquatic plants in wetlands absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients from the water, helping to cleanse and purify it.
  • Water Storage and Flood Prevention: Wetlands store water and gradually release it, acting as natural sponges. They absorb excess water during floods, slowing it down and distributing it more evenly across floodplains. This prevents flooding and manages water flow.
  • Groundwater Recharge: Wetlands allow water to percolate into the ground, replenishing groundwater supplies. This function is crucial for maintaining water resources during dry periods.
  • Erosion Control: By trapping sediments, wetlands help prevent soil erosion. This stabilization is especially important in areas prone to soil degradation.
  • Biodiversity Support: Wetlands provide habitats for a wide range of species, including plants, birds, fish, and amphibians. They support complex food webs and contribute to high levels of biodiversity.
  • Recreational and Cultural Value: Wetlands offer spaces for recreation and have cultural significance, providing areas for activities like birdwatching and fishing, and contributing to local cultural traditions.

Answer: (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The World Health Organisation (WHO) has established guidelines on outdoor (ambient) air pollution levels, which are widely used as reference tools by policymakers across the world to set standards and goals for air quality management. The guidelines provide evidence-based, health-based standards for specific air pollutants that cities should adopt as air quality targets. Initially set in 2005, they were updated in 2021. The WHO guidelines state that annual average concentrations of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3, while 24-hour average exposures should not exceed 15 µg/m3 more than 3 – 4 days per year.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Ozone pollution peaks during sunny, warm periods because ozone forms in the atmosphere through a reaction between nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of ultraviolet (UV) light from the sun.
• High temperatures and sunlight accelerate photochemical this reaction. In contrast, inclement weather, such as rain or overcast skies, reduces UV radiation and can wash away or disperse pollutants, leading to lower ozone levels. Thus, high ozone levels are typically associated with sunny, warm conditions rather than inclement weather.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• PM10 (particulate matter with a diameter of 10 micrometres or less) generally poses less of a health risk compared to PM2.5. PM10 can irritate the eyes, nose, and throat, but is less likely to penetrate deeply into the lungs and enter the bloodstream. In contrast, PM2.5 (fine particulate matter) can reach deep into the lungs, and some particles can even enter the bloodstream, leading to significant health risks.

Statement 4 is correct

• Excessive ozone levels in the air indeed trigger asthma symptoms. Ozone is a respiratory irritant that can exacerbate asthma by inflaming and irritating the airways. Exposure to high levels of ozone can increase the frequency and severity of asthma attacks, making it harder for individuals with asthma to breathe.

Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Morel mushrooms, commonly known as Gucchi in India, belong to the Morchella family that grows in a diverse range of habitats such as coniferous forests, deciduous forests, alpine and subalpine pastures. These macrofungal species are found in the foothills of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Jammu & Kashmir. Morel mushrooms are rich in iron, carbohydrates, proteins, fibre, vitamins B and D, and have antitumor, antimicrobial, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties. Gucchi mushrooms are one of the costliest among fungi in the world. They are highly valuable, with prices ranging from Rs 10,000 to Rs 30,000 per kilogram.

Additional Information Mushrooms are types of fungi, not plants. Mushrooms are heterotrophs. This means they rely on food sources in their surroundings for nutrients, such as animal waste, plant matter, and organic carbon. They can be grouped into edible and non-edible types. Edible mushrooms include common varieties like button, shiitake, and oyster mushrooms. Non-edible mushrooms may be poisonous or have other harmful effects. Fungi Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include moulds, yeasts, and mushrooms within the kingdom of Fungi. They come in both unicellular and multicellular forms. Yeasts represent the simplest unicellular type, while moulds like Rhizopus, Mucor, and Penicillium are examples of multicellular fungi.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• While Gucchi mushrooms grow in the wild in the Himalayan foothills, they are not commercially cultivated. The collection of these mushrooms is done from wild habitats, and they are not farmed.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1. Its fibers can be blended with wool and cotton fibers to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Polyethylene terephthalate is commonly used in textiles and can be blended with natural fibers such as wool and cotton. This blending process enhances the properties of the fabrics, such as durability, strength, and resistance to wrinkles and shrinkage.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• PET containers are widely used for packaging non-alcoholic beverages, such as water and soft drinks. However, they are not suitable for alcoholic beverages, particularly those with higher alcohol content.
• Alcohol can interact with PET, leading to potential degradation of the container and affecting the quality and safety of the beverage. For alcoholic beverages, glass or certain types of plastic designed specifically for alcohol are preferred.

Statement 3 is correct

• One of the significant advantages of PET is its recyclability. PET bottles can be collected, cleaned, and processed into new products. Recycled PET can be turned into a variety of items, including new bottles, clothing fibers (such as fleece jackets), carpets, and other consumer goods.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• While PET can be incinerated, this process does generate greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide.
• Incineration of PET, like other plastics, releases carbon dioxide and potentially other pollutants, which can contribute to climate change. Recycling PET helps to minimize the need for incineration and reduces the overall environmental footprint of PET products.

Additional Information PET (also abbreviated PETE) is short for polyethylene terephthalate, the chemical name for polyester. PET is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used for packaging foods and beverages. The basic building blocks of PET are ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid, which are combined to form a polymer chain. The resulting spaghetti-like strands of PET are extruded, quickly cooled, and cut into small pellets. The resin pellets are then heated to a molten liquid that can be easily extruded or molded into items of practically any shape. PMFIAS Concept Hack Statement 2 can be eliminated because the word “any” is too broad—PET containers cannot safely store all types of alcoholic beverages, as it depends on chemical compatibility. Statement 4 can also be eliminated because burning plastic releases greenhouse gases, so it cannot be said that there are no emissions. Thus, Statements 1 and 3 are correct → Answer: (a)

Answer: (a) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following is not a bird?

1. Golden Mahseer
2. Indian Nightjar
3. Spoonbill
4. White Ibis

Explanation

Option (a) is not a bird

• Golden Mahseer (Tor putitora) is a species of fish, not a bird.
• Golden mahseer is a large, golden-coloured fish endemic to the Himalayan region. It is also known as the Tiger of Indian Rivers because it is the toughest freshwater sport fish. It is the national fish of Pakistan. It is also the state fish of the states of Arunachal Pradesh, HP, Uttarakhand, MP and the UT of J&K.
• Distribution: Basins of the Indus, Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers.
• Habitat: High-energy streams and rivers in montane and submontane regions. It has adapted to thrive in dams and lakes.
• Threats: Habitat degradation, fishing, recreational activities, pollution and natural disasters
• IUCN: EN

Option (b) is a bird

• A bird species belonging to the family Caprimulgidae. It is distributed throughout India and other parts of South Asia. It is active during twilight.
• Habitat: Inhabits various environments including forests, gardens, and urban parks.
• Least Concern according to the IUCN Red List.

Option (c) is a bird

• Spoonbill refers to several species of wading birds in the family Threskiornithidae, known for their distinctive spoon-shaped bills. Examples include the Roseate Spoonbill and the Eurasian Spoonbill.
• They are globally distributed, found on every continent except Antarctica.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Option (d) is a bird

• White Ibis is characterized by its white plumage, long legs, and a long, curved bill. White Ibises are typically found in wetlands and shallow waters across various regions.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (a) Golden Mahseer; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
4. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Nitrogen fixation is a process in which atmospheric nitrogen gas is converted into combined forms, that is, ammonia or organic nitrogen, with the help of bacteria and cyanobacteria.
• Alfalfa is a well-known leguminous plant with a strong ability to fix nitrogen. It forms symbiotic relationships with Rhizobium bacteria, making it a valuable crop for improving soil fertility.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Amaranth is a leafy green vegetable that does not have the ability to fix nitrogen. It is not a legume and does not form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Statement 3 is correct

• Chickpea is another leguminous plant that fixes nitrogen. Like alfalfa, chickpeas have root nodules where Rhizobium bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the plant can absorb. This process not only benefits the chickpea plant itself but also enhances the nitrogen content in the soil for subsequent crops.

Statement 4 is correct

• Clover is widely recognized for its nitrogen-fixing ability. It is often used in crop rotation and as a cover crop to improve soil health by adding nitrogen to the soil, thereby reducing the need for chemical fertilizers.

Statement 5 is incorrect

• Purslane is a succulent plant, is not a nitrogen-fixing plant. Like amaranth, it does not belong to the legume family and does not contribute to nitrogen fixation in the soil.

Statement 6 is incorrect

• Spinach, another leafy green vegetable, is also not a nitrogen-fixing plant. It does not have the necessary root nodules or the symbiotic bacteria required for nitrogen fixation.

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

1. Restoration of damaged coral reefs
2. Development of building materials using plant residues
3. Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
4. Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/ protected areas

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Biorock technology, also known as mineral accretion technology, is a method used for the restoration of damaged coral reefs. The technology involves the electroaccumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are submerged on the sea bed and connected to a power source, typically solar panels.
• Here’s how the process works:
  • A small electrical current is passed through electrodes in the water, creating a positively charged anode and a negatively charged cathode.
  • Calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the cathode, forming calcium carbonate (CaCO₃).
  • Coral larvae naturally adhere to the calcium carbonate, allowing them to grow faster since they don’t have to expend energy on building their skeletons.

Answer: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs; Difficulty Level: Medium

The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

1. Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
2. Development of gardens Using genetically modified flora
3. Creation of mini forests in urban areas
4. Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the creation of mini forests in urban areas.

  

Answer: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Government of India Act 1919 introduced the dyarchy at the provincial level, i.e. dual government in the provinces. Under this, the provincial administration was divided between reserved and transferred subjects.
• Reserved List: The councillors nominated by the Governor controlled reserved subjects and were not responsible to the provincial legislature. It included key subjects such as defence (the military), foreign affairs, Police, justice, control over printing presses, irrigation, land revenue, factories etc.
• Transferred List: Transferred subjects were controlled by the ministers responsible to the provincial

  legislature. It included agriculture, health, Local self-government, health, education and some departments relating to agriculture.

• The residual powers were vested in the Governor-General in Council.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

1. Clothing
2. Coins
3. Ornaments
4. Weapons

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to small coins, particularly those used in South India between the 9th and 19th centuries. These coins were notable for their extremely small size, often weighing as little as 0.3 grams and having a diameter of less than a centimeter. Despite their small size, fanams played a significant role in the regional economy and were commonly used for everyday transactions.
• While these tiny coins were in circulation, India was also home to some of the world’s largest and most impressive coins. For example, Mughal Emperor Jahangir minted enormous gold coins (Mohur), some with a diameter of 21 centimeters and weighing around 12 kilograms, which were often presented as gifts to foreign dignitaries.

Additional Information: Tanka: A standard silver coin used during the Delhi Sultanate, particularly under the Khilji rulers. Jittal: Smaller value copper coins used alongside the tanka. Fanam: A small gold coin used in South India, including the Vijayanagar Empire. Pagoda: A gold coin used in the Vijayanagar Empire, later inspiring similar coins like the ‘Single Swami’ and ‘Three Swami’ Pagodas issued by European trading companies. Rupiya: Silver coin issued by Sher Shah Suri. It remained in use during the Mughal period, Maratha era and British India.

Answer: (b) Coins; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Only Rash Behari Bose was associated with the Ghadar Party

• The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary movement formed by Indian immigrants in the United States and Canada with the aim of overthrowing British rule in India. Rash Behari Bose was closely associated with the Ghadar movement and played a key role in revolutionary activities, including the Delhi Conspiracy Case. However, Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee were not prominently linked to the Ghadar Party.

Additional Information Rashbehari Bose: Born on May 25, 1886, in Bengal, he played a crucial role in India’s fight for freedom. The Bengal partition in 1905 sparked his revolutionary spirit. Working at the Forest Research Institute, Bose learned to make crude bombs. In 1912, he planned a bomb attack on Lord Hardinge in Delhi. He was also part of the Ghadar party’s conspiracy in 1915, aiming to spark a revolt within the army. A skilled master of disguise, Bose fled to Japan in 1915, posing as Rabindranath Tagore’s relative. He became a Japanese citizen and founded the Indian Club of Tokyo. In 1942, he established the Indian Independence League in Tokyo. When Mohan Singh created the Indian National Army (INA) in Singapore, Rashbehari Bose got excited and left Tokyo for Southeast Asia. In Bangkok, they decided to put the INA under the Indian Independence League, with Rashbehari Bose as the chairman. When Subhash Bose came to Singapore, Rashbehari Bose happily handed over control of the Indian Independence League and the INA to him in July 1943. Barindra Kumar Ghosh: Born in England, educated in Deoghar, and received military training from Baroda. Highly influenced by his brother, Sri Aurobindo Ghosh. Early Revolutionary Groups: The first revolutionary groups were organized in 1902 in Midnapore and Calcutta. Notable members included Jnanendranath Basu, Promotha Mitter, Jatindranath Banerjee, and Barindra Kumar Ghosh. Jugantar: Published the Bengali weekly Jugantar in 1906. Secret Revolutionary Activities: The Jugantar secret arm was disguised as a fitness club in Bengal, with Maniktala, Kolkata, serving as a secret location for bomb-making and arms collection. Recruitment: Worked alongside Jatindranath Mukherjee (Bagha Jatin) in recruiting young revolutionaries. Arrest and Trial: Arrested on 2nd May 1908 in connection with the Alipore Bomb Case; initially sentenced to death, but with the intervention of Deshbandhu Chittaranjan Das, the sentence was commuted to life imprisonment. Deportation: Deported to the Cellular Jail, Andaman, in 1909. Journalistic Career: After his release from jail, became associated with Dainik Basumati and The Statesman. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee: He was a prominent Indian freedom fighter, revolutionary, and Rajya Sabha member. Hindustan Republican Association (HRA): Co-founded the HRA in 1924, which later evolved into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association. Anushilan Samiti: Actively involved in the Anushilan Samiti, a revolutionary organization. Kakori Conspiracy: Implicated in the Kakori conspiracy case of 1926, resulting in a life sentence for his role in the train robbery aimed at funding revolutionary activities. Authorship: Wrote two significant works: Indian Revolutionaries in Conference and In Search of Freedom. Political Alignments: Briefly aligned with the Congress Socialist Party in 1937, then formed the Revolutionary Socialist Party in 1940 and served as its General Secretary until 1953. Post-Independence: Re-engaged with the Congress Party after India’s independence and represented Uttar Pradesh in the Rajya Sabha from 1956 until his death.

Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct

• To gain India’s cooperation in the War, the British Government, headed by Conservative Prime Minister Winston, sent a mission headed by a cabinet minister, Sir Stafford Cripps, to India in March 1942.
• Some of the Cripps proposals, embodied in a Draft Declaration, were:
  • Immediately after the war, an Indian union with dominion status would be established, with the right to secede from the Commonwealth.
  • Any Indian province could stay outside the Indian Union and directly negotiate with Britain.
  • The princely states that did not wish to accede to India could continue in their pre-existing relations with the British crown.
  • After the war, a constituent assembly would be set up.
    • The members would be elected by the provincial assemblies and nominated by the rulers in the case of the princely states.
    • In the meantime, the actual control of defence and military operations would be retained by the British Government.
  • The proposals also promised the protection of minorities.
  • The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions:
    • Any province unwilling to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union.
    • The constitution-making body and the British government would engage in negotiations to draft a treaty that would effect the transfer of power and protect the rights of racial and religious minorities.

Additional Information Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad were the official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission. They objected to: The provision for Dominion Status rather than complete independence (Purna Swaraj). Right of the provinces to secede (It went against the policy of national unity). The British Government’s refusal to accept the Congress demand for the immediate transfer of effective power to Indians. The representation of the princely states in the constituent assembly by the nominees of the rulers rather than by the people of the states. Mahatma Gandhi called the proposal a post-dated cheque on a tottering bank. Almost all the Indian parties rejected this Declaration. The Muslim League criticised the idea of a single Indian union and demanded a definite declaration by the British in favour of the creation of a separate state for the Muslims. The Hindu Mahasabha and liberals criticised the provision of the right of the provinces to secede. The Depressed Classes, the Sikhs, the Indian Christians, and the Anglo-Indians demanded more safeguards for their communities.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Parishishtaparvan and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana are Jaina texts

• Parishishtaparvan (12th century), authored by Hemachandra, provides a historical account of early Jaina teachers along with references to political developments. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana (9th century), composed by Jinasena and Gunabhadra, contains detailed narratives of Jaina tirthankaras, saints, kings, and heroes, as well as discussions of social and cultural themes.

Nettipakarana and Avadanashatka are Buddhist texts

• Nettipakarana belongs to the Tipitaka tradition and explains the teachings of the Buddha, and Avadanashataka is part of Buddhist Avadana literature, which presents moral stories related to the Buddha and other figures.

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

A historical person	Known as
Aryadeva	Jaina scholar
Dignaga	Buddhist scholar
Nathamuni	Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. None of the pairs
2. Only one pair
3. Only two pairs
4. All three pairs

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched

• Aryadeva was a Buddhist philosopher, not a Jaina scholar. He was a disciple of Nagarjuna, associated with the Madhyamaka school of philosophy. Aryadeva’s Hundred Verses Treatise (Bai lun) was one of the three basic texts of the Chinese Madhyamaka school founded by the central Asian monk Kumarajiva.

Additional Information The founder of the Madhyamaka school was Nagarjuna (2nd century CE). His most important work was the Mula-Madhyamaka-Karika (Root Verses on the Middle). The idea of shunyata (emptiness) is an important feature of this work. Idea of Sunyata: Shunyata does not mean that nothing exists. It means that appearances are misleading, and that permanent selves and substances do not exist. Later important thinkers of the Madhyamaka school included Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka, Chandrakirti, and Shantideva.

Pair 2 is correctly matched

• Dignaga was one of the main Mahayana thinkers, including Nagarjuna, Vasubandhu, Asanga, Aryadeva, and Buddhapalita. These scholars significantly advanced Mahayana Buddhist philosophy and logic, with their texts forming the foundation for subsequent Buddhist thought.
• Their contributions include intricate analyses of emptiness, perception, and epistemology, which deeply influenced both Buddhist and non-Buddhist intellectual traditions in India and beyond.

Pair 3 is correctly matched

• Early medieval Tamil literature includes the inspired and intense devotional poetry of the Vaishnava saints (Alvars) and Shaiva saints (Nayanars or Nayanmars) and their hagiographies. Vaishnava poetry took off with the compositions of Peyalvar, Puttalvar, and Poikaialvar. In the 10th century, Nathamuni collected the Alvar hymns into the canon known as the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. The Alvarvaipavam is a sacred biography of the Vaishnava saints.

Additional Information Shaiva devotional literature began with the compositions of Tirumular and Karaikal Ammaiyar. The hymns of the Nayanar saints were compiled in the 10th century by Nambi Andar Nambi and this compilation formed the core of the Shaiva canon, the Tirumurai. Nambi also wrote a work called the Tiruttondar Tiruvantati about the saints. In the 12th century, the accounts of the Shaiva saints were collected in a text called the Periyapuranam. All these texts provide valuable insights into the religious and social history of early medieval South India.

Answer: (c) Only two pairs; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The first Mongol incursion into India took place in 1221 during the reign of Iltutmish of the Delhi Sultanate, whereas Jalal-ud-din Khalji ruled much later, from 1296 to 1298 CE.

Additional Information: Mongol Dynasty Foundation of the Mongol Dynasty (1206 CE): A council of Mongol tribesmen elected the warrior Temujin as their leader and conferred upon him, at the age of 44, the title of Genghis – meaning “Mighty” – Khan. In the Indian subcontinent, he is known as Changez Khan Global Conquest and Empire Expansion Mongols, under Genghis Khan and his successors, created the largest land empire in history. Conquered territories: China, Russia, Central Asia, Persia, Iraq, Syria, Afghanistan, Kashmir, and parts of Eastern Europe (Hungary and Poland). Empire Partition Post-Genghis Khan (1227 CE) Yuan Dynasty: China, founded by Genghis’s grandson Kublai Khan. Golden Horde: Russia, founded by Genghis’s grandson Batu Khan. Chaghatai Khanate: Central Asia, founded by Genghis’s son Chaghatai Khan. Ilkhanate: Western Asia, founded by Genghis’s grandson Hulagu Khan.

Statement 2 is correct

• In 1303, the Mongols, led by Targhi, advanced towards Delhi , hoping to take advantage of Alauddin Khalji’s absence during his Chittor campaign. Moving swiftly with little resistance, they inflicted widespread destruction and laid siege to Delhi, preventing Alauddin from entering the city. The situation was further aggravated as the capital had been weakened—one army had been dispatched towards Warangal via Bengal and returned severely depleted, while Mongol forces had seized the fords across the Yamuna, cutting off reinforcements from the Doab. In response, Alauddin established a strongly fortified camp at Siri, positioning his forces between the Yamuna and the old city of Delhi. He reinforced his defences by digging a ditch around the camp and erecting wooden planks, making it resemble a wooden fort, as noted by Barani. However, the Mongols, unlike their earlier counterparts, displayed lax discipline—they frequented nearby tanks, consumed wine, and even sold grain at low prices, inadvertently easing the city’s distress. After maintaining this ineffective siege for about two months, the Mongols eventually withdrew without engaging in a decisive battle.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Mongols sent one major expedition to Delhi during Mohammed bin Tughlaq’s regime in 1327. Tughlaq paid a ransom and sent them away. The Mongols gradually lost power after that.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Indian history, which of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

1. Arab merchants
2. Qalandars
3. Persian calligraphists
4. Sayyids

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Sayyid dynasty was the fourth dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate from 1414 to 1451. They succeeded the Tughlaq dynasty and ruled that sultanate until they were displaced by the Lodi dynasty. The sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah), and they were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during the Delhi sultanate.
• This set them apart from the larger group of theologians who were generally referred to as “Dastar Bandan” (turban wearers).
• Like the wandering Yogis, the wandering Islamic mystics were popularly known as Qalandars

Answer: (d) Sayyids; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The Dutch established their factories/ warehouses on the East Coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Gajapati dynasty’s end came soon after (1542), whereas the Dutch East India Company was formed in 1602 through a charter.

Additional Information The Dutch East India Company was formed in 1602 through a charter. The Dutch were primarily interested in spice trade. Therefore, they paid more attention to the Far East. India was just a trading depot for them. They established their first factory at Petapuli in North Coromandal in 1606, followed by another at Masulipatam in the same year. Gradually, they realized that Indian textiles could be the best commodity for exchange with the spice islands (Indonesian Archipelago). This necessitated expansion of their network in India. They established their factories at Pulicat (1610), Cambay (1620), Surat and Agra (1621), Hariharpur (1633), Patna (1638). Dacca (1650), Udaiganj (1651), Chinsura (1653), Qasimbazar, Baranagore, Balasore and Negapatam (1659-60). Rise of the Gajapati Dynasty Kapilendra, minister to Bhanudeva IV (Eastern Ganga Dynasty), usurped the throne in 1435, establishing the Gajapati rule in Odisha. Expansion under Kapilendra: 1464-1465: Expanded his domain to South Arcot and parts of the Deccan plateau. 1459: Defeated Humayun Shah Bahmani, securing the Deccan from Bahmani invasions. 1450: Defeated Sultan Nasiruddin of Bengal, earning the title Gaudesvara. 1453: Incorporated Rajahmundry into his empire. Challenges and Conquests: Towards the end of Kapilendra’s reign, Saluva Narasimha of Vijayanagar expelled the Oriyas from the Kaveri basin. Pratapa Rudra Deva’s Reign (1497-1540): Faced continuous clashes with Vijayanagar and Bengal. In 1515, lost significant territories to Krishnadeva Raya of Vijayanagar, including Udayagiri and Kondavidu. In 1519, sued for peace, with the Krishna River becoming the dividing line between their empires. His daughter was married to Krishnadeva Raya. Decline and Fall of the Gajapati Dynasty: After Pratapa Rudra’s death in 1540, the Gajapati Empire weakened significantly. The dynasty came to an end by 1542, following successive military defeats and internal strife

Statement 2 is correct

• Alfonso de Albuquerque (1509-15) succeeded Almeida as the Portuguese governor in India in 1509.
• He was the real founder of the Portuguese empire in India. With the help of the emperor of Vijayanagar, Albuquerque attacked and captured Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510. In the same year, Albuquerque established the factory at Panji. He banned the practice of sati in Goa. Albuquerque established Portuguese domination over the entire Asian coast from Hormuz in the Persian Gulf to Malacca in Malaya and the Spice Islands in Indonesia. He used a permit system (Cartaze System) for other ships and exercised control over the major shipbuilding centres in the region. Albuquerque quickly occupied several port cities in India and islands in the Indian Ocean. Goa, Malacca, and Hurmuz (at the mouth of the Persian Gulf) were acquired in 1510, 1511 and 1515, respectively.

Statement 3 is correct

• The English East India Company (EIC) established a factory in Madras (now Chennai) on a piece of land granted by Damarla Venkatapathy Nayak, an influential chieftain under the Vijayanagara Empire.
• This land, referred to as Madrasapatnam, was where Fort St. George was founded by the British in 1639. Therefore, the factory at Madras was indeed established on land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following is correct?

1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Arthashastra discusses various aspects of social and economic life, including the conditions of slaves. According to it:
  • a man could be a slave by birth, by voluntarily selling himself, by being captured in war, or as a result of a judicial punishment. (This statement is given in (NIOS) National Institute of Open Schooling course books but as per the UPSC official answer key this statement is incorrect).
  • If a female slave gave birth to a son fathered by her master, The female slave would be granted legal freedom. The child would be considered the master’s legitimate son, entitled to inherit property and other rights.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. The tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial borrowing (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

• Dropped Question.

Answer: (X)

Consider the following States:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

1. Only one State
2. Only two States
3. Only three States
4. All four States

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh is a tea-producing state

• Andhra Pradesh is not traditionally known as a significant tea-producing state in India.
• While it does have some tea cultivation, particularly in regions like the Araku Valley, it is not among the major tea-producing states in the country.

Kerala is a tea-producing state

• Kerala is one of India’s prominent tea-producing states, particularly in regions like Munnar, Wayanad, and Idukki. The high-altitude regions of the Western Ghats provide the perfect environment for tea cultivation, with appropriate temperatures, adequate rainfall, and well-drained soils. Munnar, in particular, is famous for its sprawling tea gardens, and the tea produced here is well-known for its quality and flavour.

Himachal Pradesh is a tea-producing state

• Himachal Pradesh, especially the Kangra Valley, is famous for its tea production. The state’s tea industry has historical significance, with tea cultivation dating back to the 19^th century. Kangra tea is renowned for its unique flavour and aroma, and the region produces both black and green teas. The geographical conditions, including altitude and climate, are ideal for growing tea in Himachal Pradesh.

Tripura is a tea-producing state

• Tripura has a substantial tea industry. The state’s climate, characterised by moderate temperatures and high rainfall, is conducive to tea cultivation. Tea gardens in Tripura are spread across various districts, and the industry provides employment to a significant portion of the population.

Answer: (d) All four States; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• In India, credit rating agencies (CRAs) are not regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI); rather, they are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

Statement 2 is correct

• ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited) was set up in 1991 by leading financial/investment institutions, commercial banks and financial services companies as an independent and professional investment Information and Credit Rating Agency. It is a Public Limited Company, with its shares listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange.

Additional Information In India, a public limited company is a type of corporation whose shares are available for purchase by the general public through stock exchanges like the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) or the National Stock Exchange (NSE). This type of company must have at least seven shareholders and has no upper limit on the number of shareholders. It is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which mandates regular financial disclosures and compliance with corporate governance standards to ensure transparency. Shareholders in a public limited company have limited liability, meaning their financial responsibility is confined to the amount they have invested in the company’s shares. The company is managed by a board of directors elected by the shareholders, and its shares can be traded freely on the stock market, providing liquidity and access to capital for the company.

Statement 3 is correct

• Brickwork Ratings (BWR), is a SEBI-registered Indian Credit Rating Agency founded by bankers, credit rating professionals, former regulators as well as professors, and is committed to promoting Financial Literacy.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB) which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends the selection of a head for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Note: In 2021, the Delhi High Court deemed the Bank Board Bureau (BBB) an ineffective authority.
• To resolve this issue, the BBB was dissolved, and a new body, the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), was established with the approval of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister.
• BBB was headed by a chairman, a central government nominee.

Statement 2 is correct

• BBB recommended the selection of a head for Public Sector Banks.

Statement 3 is correct

• The BBB also assisted Public Sector Banks in formulating strategies and capital-raising plans. This includes advising on strategic issues, improving governance, and enhancing the overall performance of PSBs.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• A convertible bond is a fixed-income corporate debt security that yields interest payments but can be converted into a predetermined number of common stock or equity shares. The conversion of the bond to stock can occur at certain times during the bond’s life and is usually at the bondholder’s discretion. Convertible bonds typically offer a lower interest rate compared to non-convertible bonds. This is because the bondholder is given the option to convert the bond into equity, which has potential upside benefits if the company’s stock price rises.

Statement 2 is correct

• Convertible bonds provide a degree of protection against rising consumer prices through their conversion feature. While they do not directly adjust for inflation, the potential for stock price appreciation can result in increased value for bondholders who convert their bonds into equity.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

Indian is a member of which of the above?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• India is a member of all of the above-mentioned organisations

Additional Information Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a multilateral development bank dedicated to enhancing economic and social outcomes across Asia and beyond. Missile Technology Control Regime Missile Technology Control Regime is a multilateral export control regime. The regime was formed in 1987 by the G-7 industrialised countries. The MTCR is not a treaty and does not impose any legally binding obligations on members. Instead, it is an informal political understanding among states that seeks to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. In this context, the MTCR focuses on rockets and unmanned aerial vehicles (other than manned aircraft) capable of delivering a payload of at least 500 kilograms to a range of at least 300 kilometres and on equipment, software, and technology for such systems. There are currently 35 countries that are members (Partners) of the MTCR India became a MTCR member in 2016. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation SCO is a Eurasian intergovernmental organisation and economic and security alliance.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest-growing economies in the world in recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time, Vietnam’s low labor costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2 and 4
2. 3 and 5
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 2

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Vietnam’s economic success is largely due to its open economic policies and integration into global supply chains. The country’s focus on export-led growth and global engagement has driven significant economic expansion and poverty reduction. Between 2002 and 2021, Vietnam’s GDP per capita increased by 3.6 times, reaching nearly $3,700. Concurrently, poverty rates ($1.9 per day) fell dramatically from over 32 percent in 2011 to below 2 percent today. Vietnam’s output growth surged after it opened its economy to market forces. Since 1996, GDP has risen by 344%. Vietnam’s GDP growth has outpaced that of the Asia-Pacific region (260%) and Frontier Markets (193%).

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Vietnam, a one-party Communist state and has been a unified country since 1975, when the armed forces of the Communist north seized the south.

Statement 4 is correct

• The availability of low-wage labor has driven the robust growth of Vietnam’s manufacturing sector over the past decade, making it an appealing option for industries looking for cost-effective and stable manufacturing solutions.

Statement 5 is incorrect

• According to Asian Development Bank Report, e-services including digital financial services are at a nascent stage in Vietnam.

India – Vietnam Relations Historical Ties: Mahatma Gandhi and President Ho Chi Minh exchanged messages during their countries’ independence struggles. Strategic Partnership: India-Vietnam relations were elevated to a “Comprehensive Strategic Partnership” in 2016 and both countries have shared security concerns, including border issues with China. International groupings: High-level interactions include meetings at the G7 Plus Summit, India-ASEAN Summit, and the UNFCCC. Trade and Economic Cooperation: Bilateral trade reached USD 14.82 billion in 2023-2024. Exports: Engineering goods, agricultural products, and pharmaceuticals. Imports: Electronics, machinery, footwear, and garments. Development assistance: India supports Vietnam through training, capacity building, and socio-economic development projects. For example, Quick Impact Projects under the Mekong Ganga Cooperation framework. Defense and Security Cooperation: The VINBAX exercise is a joint military exercise between India and Vietnam, gifting the missile corvette INS Kirpan to Vietnam and joint military exercises. Capacity building: India provides training programs and scholarships to Vietnam, contributing to Vietnam’s socio-economic development. Indian diaspora: Around 8,500 Indians live in Vietnam and are employed in various sectors, and Indian businesses have a presence in Vietnam.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

In India which one of the following is responsible for maintaining for price stability by controlling inflation?

1. Department of Consumer Affairs
2. Expenditure Management Commission
3. Financial Stability and Development Council
4. Reserve Bank of India

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Monetary policy is the process by which the monetary authority of a country (RBI) controls the money supply in the economy for the purpose of achieving GDP growth and price stability. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934. The main goal of monetary policy is to ensure price stability while also promoting economic growth. Having stable prices is crucial for sustainable growth.

Answer: (d) Reserve Bank of India; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are a type of cryptographic asset on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other. Unlike cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin or Ethereum, which are fungible and can be traded or exchanged at equivalency, NFTs are non-fungible, meaning each token has a unique value and cannot be directly exchanged one-for-one with another. NFTs can represent both digital and physical assets. The NFT acts as a digital proof of ownership for that asset, allowing it to be traded in the digital space while still representing something tangible in the physical world.
• For example, OpenSea.io is one of the largest NFT marketplaces, touted as the largest NFT marketplace. You can find digital art, collectables, including game items, domain names, and even digital representations of physical assets at OpenSea.

Statement 2 is correct

• The defining characteristic of NFTs is their uniqueness, which is guaranteed by their existence on a blockchain. Each NFT has a unique identifier that distinguishes it from any other token. Blockchain technology ensures that this uniqueness is preserved and transparent to all participants, making it impossible to duplicate or counterfeit NFTs. The immutability of blockchain records provides a secure and verifiable way to prove ownership and authenticity.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Unlike fungible tokens (like Bitcoin or Ethereum), NFTs cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency because each NFT has its own value, which is not interchangeable with another NFT.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs	States
Ghataprabha	Telangana
Gandhi Sagar	Madhya Pradesh
Indira Sagar	Andhra Pradesh
Maithon	Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched

• The Ghataprabha Reservoir is situated in the northern part of Karnataka.

Additional Information Ghataprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River. Origin: The river originates in the Western Ghats at an elevation of 884 meters. Course: It flows eastward for 283 kilometres before merging with the Krishna River. Gokak Falls: The river drops 53 meters at Gokak Falls in the Belgaum (Belagaavi) District of Karnataka. Tributaries: The Hiranyakeshi River and the Markandeya River are tributaries of the Ghataprabha.

Pair 2 is correctly matched

• Gandhisagar Dam is situated in the Mandsaur district of the state of Madhya Pradesh. The Dam is constructed on the Chambal River.

Additional Information The Chambal rises in the highlands of Janapao Hills (700 m) in the Vindhyan Range. It flows through the Malwa Plateau. It joins the Yamuna in Etawah district of Uttar Pradesh. The river flows much below its banks due to severe erosion because of poor rainfall and numerous deep ravines have been formed in the Chambal Valley, giving rise to badland topography. The total length of the river is 1,050 km. Dams on the Chambal The Gandhi Sagar dam is the first of the four dams built on the Chambal River, located on the Rajasthan-Madhya Pradesh border. The Rana Pratap Sagar dam is a dam located 52 km downstream of Gandhi Sagar dam on across the Chambal River in Chittorgarh district in Rajasthan. The Jawahar Sagar Dam is the third dam in the series of Chambal Valley Projects, located 29 km upstream of Kota city and 26 km downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar dam. The Kota Barrage is the fourth in the series of Chambal Valley Projects, located about 0.8 km upstream of Kota City in Rajasthan. Water released after power generation at Gandhi Sagar dam, Rana Pratap Sagar dam and Jawahar Sagar Dams, is diverted by Kota Barrage for irrigation in Rajasthan and in Madhya Pradesh through canals.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched

• Indira Sagar Dam is a multipurpose dam project at Madhya Pradesh. It was built on Narmada River which flows from Central India to Western India.

Additional Information Narmada is the largest west flowing river of the peninsular India. Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhyan Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south. It rises from Maikala range near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh, at an elevation of about 1057 m. Narmada basin extends over states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh having an area ~1 Lakh Sq.km. It is bounded by the Vindhyas on the north, Maikala range on the east, Satpuras on the south and by the Arabian Sea on the west. Its total length from its source in Amarkantak to its estuary in the Gulf of Khambhat is 1,310 km. The hilly regions are in the upper part of the basin, and lower middle reaches are broad and fertile areas well suited for cultivation. Jabalpur is the only important urban centre in the basin. The river slopes down near Jabalpur where it cascades (a small waterfall, especially one in a series) 15 m into a gorge to form the Dhuan Dhar (Cloud of Mist) Falls. Since the gorge is composed of marble, it is popularly known as the Marble Rocks. It makes two waterfalls of 12 m each at Mandhar and Dardi. Near Maheshwar the river again descends from another small fall of 8 m, known as the Sahasradhara Falls. There are several islands in the estuary of the Narmada of which Aliabet is the largest. The Narmada is navigable upto 112 km from its mouth. Tributaries of Narmada River Since the river flows through a narrow valley confined by precipitous (dangerously high or steep) hills, it does not have many tributaries. The absence of tributaries is especially noted on the right bank of the river where the Hiran is the only exception. The other right bank tributaries are the Orsang, the Barna and the Kolar. A few left bank tributaries drain the northern slopes of the Satpura Range and join the Narmada at different places. The major Hydro Power Project in the basin are Indira Sagar, Sardar Sarovar, Omkareshwar, Bargi & Maheshwar.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched

• Maithon is located on the banks of river Barakar. The Barakar is the most important tributary of the Damodar.
• The Maithon Dam is located about 48 kms from the Coal City of Dhanbad, Jharkhand.

Additional Information The Damodar River rises in the hills of the Chotanagpur plateau and flows through a rift valley. Rich in mineral resources, the valley is home to large-scale mining and industrial activity. It has a number of tributaries and subtributaries, such as Barakar, Konar, Bokaro, Haharo, etc. The Barakar is the most important tributary of the Damodar. Several dams have been constructed in the valley, for the generation of hydroelectric power. The valley is called “the Ruhr of India”. It used to cause devastating floods as a result of which it earned the name ‘Sorrow of Bengal’. Now the river is tamed by constructing numerous dams. It joins the Hugli River 48 km below Kolkata. The total length of the river is 541 km.

Answer: (c) Only three pairs; Difficulty Level: Hard

In India, which one of the following Compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

1. Central Statistics Office
2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
3. Labour Bureau
4. National Technical Manpower Information System

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Labour Bureau, established in 1920, is an attached office under the Ministry of Labour & Employment and is responsible for the collection, collation and dissemination of labour, employment and price statistics. It is also a major source of primary data on several important economic indicators. These include the Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers, Agricultural and Rural Labourers, Wage Rate Indices, wages, earnings, absenteeism, labour turnover, industrial relations, socio-economic conditions of workers in the organised and unorganised sectors of industry, etc.
• It provides statistics on work stoppages, closures, retrenchments, and lockouts, which are useful in making policies for maintaining cordial and harmonious relations between the management and the workers. The Bureau also collects administrative statistics under the 11 Labour Acts. With the formulation of the four Labour Codes, the Bureau is also proposed to be designated as the nodal agency for the collection of statistical returns under all four Labour Codes.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Central Statistical Office is the statistical arm of Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
• The major functions of CSO are as under:
  • Nodal Agency: Oversees the planned development of the statistical system, setting norms and standards for data collection, processing, and dissemination.
  • Coordination: Manages statistical work for Government Ministries/Departments and State Statistical Bureaus, and advises on statistical methodology and analysis.
  • Index and Surveys: Compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) monthly, conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), and provides data on the manufacturing sector.
  • Economic Censuses: Organizes all-India Economic Censuses and enterprise surveys, processes data from socio-economic surveys.
  • International Liaison: Maintains relationships with international statistical organizations such as UNSD, ESCAP, IMF, ADB, FAO, and ILO.
  • National Accounts: Prepares and publishes estimates of national product, consumption expenditure, capital formation, and State Domestic Product (SDP).
  • Sample Surveys: Conducts large-scale surveys to address socio-economic issues such as employment, health, and literacy.

Option (b) is incorrect

• It operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Department has been given charge for matters related to Internal Trade, welfare of traders and their employees and Startups. The role of DPIIT is to promote/accelerate industrial Development of the Country by facilitating investment in new and upcoming technology, foreign direct investment and support balanced development of industries.

Option (d) is incorrect

• National Technical Manpower Information Systems (NTMIS) is a scheme of the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education) in 1983 to provide up-to-date and meaningful manpower information on a continuing basis to enable the concerned authorities to anticipate areas of growth in the field of science and technology and consequently plan for technical manpower development on a scientific basis. This scheme is funded by the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).

Answer: (c) Labour Bureau; Difficulty Level: Medium

In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

1. CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India.
2. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• The Coal Controller’s Organization is a subordinate Office of Ministry of Coal, having its offices at Kolkata, Delhi and field Offices at Dhanbad, Ranchi, Bilaspur, Nagpur, Sambalpur and Kothagudem.
• The Coal Controller Organisation performs various functions under different statutes/rules to ensure fair production and commercial transactions of coal, including quality surveillance.
• To ensure fair production and commercial transactions, it has been entrusted with the following responsibilities:
  • It maintains coal production data of all private and public sector coal mines in the country. The information is collected on monthly basis.
  • Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.
  • Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal.
  • To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.
  • Undertaking the development of coal mines in a scientific manner.
  • To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and the owner arising out of the declaration of the grade and size of coal.
  • To regulate the disposal of stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery.
  • Quality surveillance with respect to maintenance of grade, loading of coal in wagons/ trucks according to laid down procedures regarding grades and sizes.
  • To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine, seam or a section of seam or to sub-divide a mine.
  • Assessment and collection of excise duty levied on all raw coal raised and dispatched.
  • Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of the Central and State Governments, national and international organisations.
  • Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957– Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt.
• Ensuring that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time is not the function of Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO).

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which is one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

1. This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people.
2. This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
3. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
4. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Under this Schedule, the Governor is empowered to make regulations for ensuring peace and good governance in Scheduled Areas, after consulting the Tribes Advisory Council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land from tribal to non-tribal persons or even among members of Scheduled Tribes, and also regulate the allotment of land to Scheduled Tribe members.

Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) was launched in June 2015 at the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). It serves as a platform to enable and support safe and sustainable sanitation in India by bringing together multiple organisations through a variety of catalytic actions. While ISC plays a significant role in sanitation advocacy, it is not funded by the Government of India or the World Health Organisation (WHO). Instead, ISC focuses on unlocking WASH (Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene) financing, particularly from the private sector, and collaborates with various organisations such as Water for People, IRC, and TARU Leading Edge. ISC hosts the India chapter of Sustainable Sanitation Alliance (SuSanA) in partnership with the 7 coalition members.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. Established as an autonomous body in 1976 under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), NIUA provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast urbanizing India. It focuses on research and capacity building in urban policy and planning but is not classified as the “apex body” of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The institute works closely with MoHUA and other government sectors, but the description in the statement does not accurately reflect NIUA’s role. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is the apex authority of Government of India at the national level to formulate policies, sponsor and support programme, coordinate the activities of various Central Ministries, State Governments and other nodal authorities and monitor the programmes concerning all the issues of housing and urban affairs in the country.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, of 1986?

1. Central Water Commission
2. Central Ground Water Board
3. Central Ground Water Authority
4. National Water Development Agency

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA): CGWA was constituted in January 1997 under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986. It is responsible for the regulation and control of groundwater development and management at the central level.
• Powers & Functions: Exercise of powers under section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for issuing directions and taking such measures in respect of all the matters referred to in sub-section(2) of section 3 of the said Act.
  • To resort to penal provisions contained in sections 15 to 21 of the said Act.
  • To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose.
  • Exercise of powers under section 4 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the appointment of officers.

Option (a) is incorrect

• CWC is a premier technical organization in India in the field of water resources. Functions as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation. It is entrusted with initiating, coordinating, and furthering schemes for the control, conservation, and utilization of water resources across the country. Focus areas include flood control, irrigation, navigation, drinking water supply, and water power development. Undertakes investigations, construction, and execution of water resource schemes as required.
• It is headed by a chairman, who holds the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India.

Option (b) is incorrect

• It is a multi-disciplinary scientific organisation under the Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti. The agency responsible for scientific inputs for the management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation, and regulation of India’s groundwater resources.
• Mandate:
  • Development and dissemination of technologies.
  • Monitoring and implementation of national policies for the sustainable and scientific development of groundwater resources.
  • Exploration, assessment, conservation, augmentation, pollution protection, and equitable distribution of groundwater resources based on economic and ecological principles.
• Key activities:
  • National Aquifer Mapping and Management (NAQUIM): Involves the preparation of Aquifer Maps and Management Plans.
  • Ground Water Exploration: Identifies groundwater-worthy areas and potential aquifers.
  • Geophysical Surveys: Delineates groundwater-bearing zones.
  • Groundwater Resource Assessment: Periodic evaluation of the country’s groundwater resources.
  • Monitoring: Regular monitoring of groundwater levels and quality through observation wells.
  • Data Dissemination: Sharing groundwater data and knowledge.
  • Groundwater Modeling: Conducting models for understanding groundwater dynamics.
  • GIS and Remote Sensing: Utilized for groundwater studies.
  • Regulation and Control: Groundwater development and management regulated by CGWA in coordination with State Government Organizations.

Option (d) is incorrect

• NWDA was established in 1982 as a Registered Society to conduct detailed studies, surveys, and investigations for the Peninsular Component of the National Perspective Plan (NPP) for Water Resources Development.

Answer: (c) Central Ground Water Authority; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June, and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The United Nations Credentials Committee is not set up by the UN Security Council; rather, it is established by the General Assembly at the beginning of each regular session. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President. It operates under the authority of the General Assembly, not the Security Council.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Credentials Committee schedule is not as such fixed to meet in in March, June, and September each year.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon (Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).
• For example: In the scenario involving Afghanistan and Myanmar, the UN Credentials Committee was tasked with reviewing competing claims about representation from both countries.
  • Afghanistan: The Taliban sent a communication to the UN Secretary-General nominating Suhail Shaheen as Afghanistan’s envoy to the UN, while the previous representative, Ghulam Isaczai, appointed by the ousted Ashraf Ghani government, was listed to speak on behalf of Afghanistan. The Credentials Committee was review these conflicting credentials and decide who should represent Afghanistan.
  • Myanmar: Following the coup, Myanmar’s military rulers have dismissed the previous UN Ambassador, Kyaw Moe Tun, and appointed Aung Thurein as the new representative. The Credentials Committee was tasked to review this change in representation.
  • The Credentials Committee assess these credentials and submit a report with its findings to the General Assembly. The General Assembly then decide on the appropriate representation for both countries based on the Committee’s report.

Answer: (a) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

1. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
2. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
3. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies In the North Pole and South Pole.
4. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In 2017, the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, or Polar Code, was adopted by the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) to provide a clear set of rules to protect not only ships and crews, but also Indigenous communities and wildlife which depend on the fragile marine ecosystem of the Arctic. For the first time, it set out a series of measures and guidelines for all ships operating in the polar regions.
• It is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL).

Answer: (a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organizations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observes in the UN General assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1and 2 are correct

• The UNGA also makes key decisions for the UN, including:
  • appointing the Secretary-General on the recommendation of the Security Council
  • electing the non-permanent members of the Security Council
  • approving the UN budget
  • It may grant non-member states (example- Holy see), international organizations (example- African Union) and other entities Permanent Observer Status. The status of a Permanent Observer is based purely on practice, and there are no provisions for it in the United Nations Charter. The process is described in a legal opinion of 15 August 2008, published in the 2008 United Nations Juridical Yearbook.

Statement 3 is correct

• Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has an overseas office in Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect

• Tea Board of India is a statutory organization founded in 1953 by the Act of the Indian Parliament under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The leading members of the Board are representatives of the parliament, of the major tea-making enterprises, of trade companies, as well as exporters, labor unions and consumers.

Statement 3 is incorrect and Statement 4 is correct

• The Headquarters of the Tea Board of India is located in Kolkata and has its offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg, London and New York.

Answer: (d) 1 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

1. Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
2. Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
3. Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
4. Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/program

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Greenwashing, or Green Sheen, occurs when a company falsely presents itself as environmentally conscious for marketing reasons while lacking substantial commitment to sustainability. Instances of greenwashing encompass the promotion of food products as healthy solely based on the use of natural ingredients, regardless of whether those natural sugars or fats are genuinely considered healthy. This deceptive practice extends to areas like alternative medicine and natural remedies. The term was coined by environmentalist Jay Westerveld in 1986.
• Types of Greenwashing:
  • Greenhushing: Companies withhold information about their sustainability goals and progress.
  • Green-crowding: Hiding in a group to avoid scrutiny of unsustainable practices.
  • Greenshifting: Shifting the responsibility of adopting sustainable measures onto consumers or individuals instead of taking meaningful corporate action.
  • Greenlighting: Highlighting specific sustainability initiatives to distract from harmful activities.
  • Greenlabelling: Using labels that suggest products are green or sustainable, which, upon closer examination, are misleading.

Additional Information Blue-washing refers to the practice of companies promoting themselves as socially responsible or ethical by associating with reputable organizations or initiatives, such as the United Nations Global Compact, without implementing substantial changes or reforms There are two primary contexts in which bluewashing occurs: Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR): Companies may sign on to initiatives like the UN Global Compact to appear responsible and improve their public image, but they may not actually adhere to the principles or make meaningful changes in their operations. Digital Ethics and Security: Companies may use vague or misleading claims about their digital ethics, data privacy, or AI security to create a false impression of being more secure and ethical than they actually are. In both cases, bluewashing involves a discrepancy between the company’s stated values or commitments and its actual practices.

Answer: (a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect

• Low, thick clouds (example-Stratus Clouds) primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. High, thin clouds (example -Cirrus Couds) primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth. Whether a given cloud will heat or cool the surface depends on several factors, including the cloud’s altitude, its size, and the make-up of the particles that form the cloud.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in northwestern Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from the South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in the Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

• Bidibidi is located in northwestern Uganda, not Kenya. It is one of the largest refugee settlements in the world, specifically designed to accommodate the influx of South Sudanese refugees. Established in September 2016, Bidibidi was created to address the rapid increase in refugee numbers from South Sudan’s civil war, particularly those fleeing from the Greater Equatoria region. It has grown significantly, reaching a population of over 280,000 people.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya is home to many people who fled the civil war in Somalia. Established in 1991 as a temporary shelter for 90,000 refugees from Somalia’s civil war, Dadaab has grown into one of the largest refugee camps in the world, now housing over 300,000 residents. The camp continues to accommodate refugees fleeing ongoing conflicts, famine, and instability in Somalia. Despite being in operation for over two decades, the camp is still expanding to address the needs of new arrivals from Somalia and other conflict-affected regions.

Additional Information: List of important refugee camps in the world often mentioned in the news Kakuma Refugee Camp: Location: Northwest Kenya Established: 1992, originally Over 201,000 refugees, primarily from South Sudan and Somalia Za’atari Refugee Camp: Location: Jordan Established: 2012, in response to the Syrian war Current Population: More than 83,000 refugees Kutupalong Refugee Camp: Location: Cox’s Bazar, Bangladesh Established: August 2017, for Rohingya refugees fleeing violence in Myanmar Current Population: More than 931,000 refugees Um Rakuba Refugee Camp: Location: Sudan Established: November 2020, for refugees fleeing violence in Ethiopia’s Tigray region Current Population: More than 16,870 refugees Palestinian refugee camps located in the Gaza Strip: Rafah Camp, Jabalia Camp, Khan Younis Camp, Al-Shati Camp, Nuseirat Camp, Bureij Camp, Maghazi Camp, Deir al-Balah Camp.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following countries

1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organisation of Turkic States?

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 5
4. 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Organization of Turkic States, initially known as the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States (Turkic Council), was established in 2009 as an intergovernmental organization. Its primary objective is to foster comprehensive cooperation among Turkic States.
• The founding member states—Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Türkiye—were later joined by Uzbekistan as a full member during the 7th Summit in Baku in October 2019. Hungary attained observer status at the 6th Summit in 2018. In the 8th Summit in 2021, Turkmenistan joined as observer status. In November 2022, the Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus and in 2023, the Economic Cooperation Organisation (ECO) became Observer Members of the Organisation.

Answer: (c) 2 and 5; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar-powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Bhadla Solar Park is the world’s largest solar park located in which is spread over a total area of 14,000 acres in Bhadla, Phalodi tehsil, Jodhpur district, Rajasthan.

Statement 2 is correct

• Kerala’s Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) became the world’s first solar-powered airport in 2015, when it transformed a patch of land previously reserved for cargo handling into a solar plant. The entrepreneurial vision won the airport in 2018 the much-coveted ‘Champion of the Earth’ award, which is the highest environmental honour granted by the United Nations.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Largest floating solar photovoltaic project of India is not located in Goa.
• The following important FSPs are either commissioned or will be completed soon:
  • Ramagundam Reservoir FSP of 100 MW in Telangana with a 100 MW plant is one of largest commissioned FSP in India.
  • Omkareshwar Reservoir FSP of 600 MW in Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh, is being built on the Narmada River, which is presently used for a hydel project and is spread over 100 sq km. There would be six 100-MW units in a grid-connected photovoltaic project.
  • Kayamkulam FSP: Tata Power Solar Systems has commissioned India’s one of the largest floating solar power projects, with a 101.6 MWp capacity, on a 350-acre water body in Kayamkulam, Kerala. It is the first Floating Solar Photovoltaic (FSPV) project in India under a power purchase agreement, with all generated power sold to the Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB). This project supports India’s goal of achieving 500 GW of solar power by 2030.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or landlocked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• According to Article 3 of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), every State has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance with this Convention.

Statement 2 is correct

• Article 17 of UNCLOS provides that all states, whether coastal or landlocked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. Passage is innocent so long as it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of the coastal State. Such passage shall take place in conformity with this Convention and with other rules of international law.

Statement 3 is correct

• Article 57 of UNCLOS states that the exclusive economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Additional Information UNCLOS (Law of the Sea Treaty) is an international agreement that came into force in 1994. It establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities. UNCLOS establishes general obligations for safeguarding the marine environment and protecting the freedom of scientific research on the high seas. It can hold states liable for damage caused by violation of their international obligations through its three institutions: International Tribunal for Law of Sea, International Seabed Authority (ISA), and Commission on the limits of the continental shelf. The convention gives a clear definition of Internal Waters, Territorial Waters, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone and Continental Shelf. It provides rights to landlocked states for access to and from the sea without taxation of traffic through transit states. Members: It has 167 member states and the European Union. India is a member.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with the Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

1. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around the South China Sea.
2. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea.
3. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defense capabilities.
4. Though the International Court, of Justice, declared them as no man’s land, some Southeast Asian countries claim them.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Japan and China have been in a long-running dispute over the Senkaku islands that Beijing calls the Diaoyu. Currently, the Government of Japan controls and administers the territory. The Senkaku Islands are an uninhabited group of islands situated in the East China Sea. These islands are strategically located, rich in potential oil and natural gas resources, and situated in prime fishing areas. Control over them impacts military and shipping routes in the region.

A few important island disputes that are frequently mentioned in the news: Chagos Archipelago: Disputed between the United Kingdom and Mauritius. Rececntly, United Kingdom (U.K.) has officially transferred sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius. Kuril Islands: Disputed between Russia and Japan. Russia controls the islands, but Japan claims the four southernmost islands. Disputed between Russia and Japan. Russia controls the islands. The island chain stretches north across the Pacific Ocean from the Japanese island of Hokkaido to the southern tip of Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula. Four islands – which Russia calls the Southern Kurils and Japan calls the Northern Territories – are the subject of a 60-year-old dispute between the two nations. Falkland Islands/Malvinas: The isolated and sparsely-populated Falkland Islands, a British overseas territory in the south-west Atlantic Ocean, remain the subject of a sovereignty dispute between Britain and Argentina. The UK controls the islands, but Argentina claims them as Malvinas. Dokdo/ Takeshima: The island grouping at the centre of a diplomatic dispute between South Korea and Japan is known by several names. Greater Tunb, Lesser Tunb, and Abu Musa Isladns: It is a long-standing territorial conflict between Iran and the United Arab Emirates. South China Sea Dispute:

Answer: (b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the Easy China Sea; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Country	Important reason for being in the news recently
Chad	Setting up of permanent military base by China
Guinea	Suspension of Constitution and Government by Military
Lebanon	Severe and prolonged economic depression
Tunisia	Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• In early December 2021, media reports alleged that China was trying to build its military base in Equatorial Guinea. Although no such base or construction seems to have come to fruition so far. Djibouti hosts China’s first international military base, strategically enhancing China’s influence and military reach in Africa. (located in the Horn of Africa, adjacent to the Gulf of Aden).

Pair 2 is correct

• On September 5, 2021, the armed forces in Guinea staged a coup, capturing the country’s President. The military leaders detained the president, announcing the dissolution of the government and the suspension of the constitution.

Pair 3 is correct

• Lebanon has been experiencing a prolonged and severe economic crisis, characterised by a significant economic downturn, currency devaluation, and widespread poverty. The crisis has been exacerbated by the Beirut port blast and ongoing political instability.

Pair 4 is correct

• In July 2021, the President of Tunisia declared the suspension of the country’s Parliament, dismissing Prime Minister Hicham Mechichi and the Cabinet.

Answer: (c) Only three pairs; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

The region often mentioned in the news	Country
Anatolia	Turkey
Amhara	Ethiopia
Cabo Delgado	Spain
Catalonia	Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Anatolia is a historical and geographical region that encompasses most of Turkey’s Asian part. It is also known as Asia Minor. The region has been part of various empires throughout history, including the Roman and Ottoman Empires. Today, Anatolia is a significant part of modern Turkey.

Pair 2 is correct

• The Amhara Region is located in the northwestern part of Ethiopia. It is the homeland of the Amhara people. Amhara region is often mentioned in the news due to historical conflicts among Oromo, Amhara and Tigrayan groups of Ethiopia.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. It was in the news because Mozambique’s Al-Shabaab extremist group has been carrying out attacks in the country’s northernmost province, Cabo Delgado, since 2017.

Pair 4 is incorrect

• Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the northeastern corner of Spain.
• In 2021, mass protests broke out across Spain’s Catalonia region after its former separatist leader Carles Puigdemont was arrested.

Answer: (b) Only two pairs; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Indian laws about wildlife protection does not explicitly state that wild animals are the sole property of the government. Instead, it provides the government with the authority to protect and manage wildlife for the broader public interest.

Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect

• The law governing the subject of wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides equal protection for wild animals, regardless of where they are found. Only if the wild animal poses a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State. Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

1. Ant
2. Cockroach
3. Crab
4. Spider

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Certain species of ants are incredibly well-known for their cultivation of fungi. This provides them with a reliable source of food. For instance, leafcutter ants are an example of a species that engages in industrial-scale farming of fungi. They cut and bring fresh plant matter to their underground farms daily, cultivating a specific, fully domesticated fungus that sustains their colonies, which can consist of millions of ants.

Answer: (a) Ant; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Site of Ashoka’s major Rock Edicts	Location in the State
Dhauli	Odisha
Erragudi	Andhra Pradesh
Jaugada	Madhya Pradesh
Kalsi	Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched:

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Location of above-mentioned Edicts are:
  • Kalsi (Dehradun district, Uttarakhand)
  • Dhauli (Puri district, Orissa)
  • Jaugada (Ganjam district, Orissa)
  • Erragudi (Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh)

Answer: (b) Only two pairs; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

King	Dynasty
Nanuka	Chandela
Jayashakti	Parmara
Nagabhata II	Gurjara-Pratihara
Bhoja	Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The Chandella dynasty initially served as feudatories of the Gurjara-Pratiharas of Kannauj and were engaged in conflicts with the Pratiharas, the Pala dynasty, and the Kalachuris of Chedi to their south. The dynasty was founded in the early 9th century CE by Nannuka (c. 831–845 CE), who ruled a small kingdom and established his capital at Khajuraho (Kharjjuravahaka). The Chandellas later gained prominence for their remarkable contributions to art and architecture, especially the fully developed Nagara-style temples at Khajuraho. Notable examples include the Lakshmana Temple Khajuraho built during the reign of Yashovarman (c. 930–950 CE), the Vishvanatha Temple Khajuraho constructed under Dhanga (c. 999–1002 CE), and the Kandariya Mahadeva Temple Khajuraho erected during the reign of Vidyadhara (c. 1030 CE).

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Jaishakti (c. 865−885 CE), was a Chandela king, not a Parmara king.

Pair 3 is correct

• The Gurjara-Pratiharas, also known as the Pratiharas, originated from the Gurjaras—primarily pastoralists and warriors. Their name is linked to the epic hero Lakshmana, who served as the doorkeeper (pratihara) to his brother Rama, from which the dynasty derived its title. The dynasty was founded by a Brahmana, Harichandra, in the region around Jodhpur in southwestern Rajasthan. The Gurjara-Pratiharas played a crucial role in resisting Arab expansion east of the Indus. Prominent rulers included Nagabhata I, Nagabhata II (c. 800–833 CE), Mihir Bhoja, and Mahendrapala I. By the 11th century CE, the dynasty declined and was displaced by the Ghaznavids. Their territories were subsequently taken over by regional powers such as the Chahamanas in Rajputana, the Chaulukyas in Gujarat, and the Paramaras in Malwa.

Piar 4 is incorrect

• Bhoja I / Mihir Bhoja (c.836−885 CE) Grandson of Nagabhatta II, who had a long reign of over 46 years and proved to be the most successful and popular ruler of Pratiharas. In the early years of his reign he was defeated by the Palas, Rashtrakutas and the Kalachuris, but he subsequently made a comeback. With the aid of feudatories such as the Chedis and the Guhilas, he won victories over the Palas and the Rashtrakutas. He had his capital at Kannauj, which was also called Mahodaya.

Answer: (b) Only two pairs; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

1. Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
2. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
3. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics.
4. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

During the Sangam period, although the idea of varna was known, society was not rigidly stratified into higher and lower ranks as in north India. For instance, Brahmans existed and performed Vedic rituals and advised chiefs, but they did not enjoy special privileges. Social identity was largely based on occupation—such as artisans, salt traders, and textile merchants—rather than birth. Economic differences were visible: the wealthy lived in well-decorated brick houses and wore fine clothes, while the poor resided in mud huts with minimal clothing. War heroes held a distinguished place, and memorial stones called nadukal or virukkal were erected in their honour and even worshipped. Women appear to have been educated, as evidenced by their contributions to Sangam literature. They also participated in various economic activities like paddy cultivation, cattle rearing, basket-making, and spinning. However, the practice of Sati (known as tippayadal) existed, though it was not compulsory, as widows are mentioned in society. Despite this, widows faced a difficult life, being restricted from adornment and social participation.

Answer: (b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets; Difficulty Level: Easy

“Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

1. Akbar
2. Humayun
3. Shajahan
4. Aurangzeb

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Nizam Panipati translated Yogavasistha (a treatise on Vedantic philosophy) as an appendix to Ramayana and dedicated it to Prince Salim during the reign of Akbar. Yogavasistha is a Hindu spiritual text traditionally attributed to Valmiki. It recounts a discourse of the sage Vasistha to a young Prince Rama, during a period when the latter is in a dejected state.

Additional Information: Persian Translations of Indic Works Coinciding with the foundation of Ibadat Khana, Akbar established his translation bureau (maktab khana) in 1574-1575 at Fathpur Sikri and attached it to the royal library. Largely Sanskrit texts were translated into Persian. However, Persian translations of some Arabic and Turkish texts were also carried out. The most notable among them was the Persian translation of Baburnama by his illustrious noble Abdul Rahim Khan-i Khanan. The translation project in Akbar’s court probably began in 1575-1576 with the arrival of Shaikh Bhawan, a Brahman convert, to Akbar’s court. The earliest works translated from Sanskrit with the help of Shaikh Bhawan by Haji Ibrahim Sirhindi was Atharva Veda (Bed Atharban) sometime before 1583. In 1582, Akbar commissioned the translation of the Mahabharata (Razmnama) and ordered Badauni to translate the text; later, the task was completed by Mulla Shri, Naqib Khan and Sultan Haji Thanesari. Abul Fazl composed the Preface of the Persian text. The tsk was completed by 1584. First the Sanskrit text was rendered in ‘Hindi’ by Pandits/scholars, then it was rendered into Persian. Utmost care was also taken in the accuracy of translations. Badauni also translated the Ramayana, a project that was completed in 1591. Among the Sanskrit texts of non-religious nature, the most important one translated into Persian at Akbar’s court was Bhaskaracharya’s Lilavati, a work on Arithmetic (hisab) translated by Faizi. Kalhan’s Rajatarangini was translated by Shah Muhammad Shahabadi. Some of the Sanskrit works were not actually retranslated but were actually the ‘retelling of the Sanskrit texts in Persian’. In the category falls Faizi’s Nal Daman. These translations points to the fact that in Akbar’s translation project it was Mahabharat that was central, suggestive of the dominance of Vaishnava traditions, in contrast to Shaivite traditions at Akbar’s court. Emphasis and interests in Upanishadic philosophy, one finds, could be generated only under Dara Shukoh’s patronage (Sirr-i Akbar) during Shah Jahan’s reign.

Answer: (a) Akbar; Difficulty Level: Hard

The world’s second tallest statue in the sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja

1. The best means of salvation was devotion.
2. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
3. Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
4. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Ramanuja spoke of universal salvation through devotion to God, compassion, humility, equality, and mutual respect, which is known as the Sri Vaishnavam Sampradaya. The philosophy propounded by Ramanuja was Vishishtadwaita or qualified monism. Vishishtadvaita signifies non-dualism of a qualified whole but is characterised by multiplicity. In other words, it believes in “all diversity subsuming to an underlying unity” (qualified monoism). Ramanuja emphasized devotion to a personal God, identified with Vishnu, who is both immanent (present within the world) and transcendent (beyond it). He held that liberation (moksha) is attained through loving devotion (bhakti) combined with divine grace.
• Srirangam Ranganatha temple in Tamil Nadu is associated with his tradition. His greatest contribution is the propagation of the concept of “vasudhaiva kutumbakam”, which translates as “all the universe is one family”

Answer: (a) The best means of salvation was devotion; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somanath Temple at Verval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratistha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Located in Prabhas Patan, Veraval, Gujarat, Somnath Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is the first among the Twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Lord Shiva. The first version of the Somnath temple was built around the 9th century CE. It is believed that this holy temple was first built by the Moon God in gold, by Ravana in silver, by Krishna in wood, and by Bhimdev in stone. Reconstructed several times after repeated destruction by Muslim invaders and the Portuguese, the present temple was built in the Chaulukya style of Hindu temple architecture and completed in May 1951. The present temple is in the Māru-Gurjara style (Chaulukya or Solanki style) of architecture.

Statement 2 is correct

• According to Al Beruni, the temple, built of stone approximately a century before Mahmud’s attack (placing its construction in the 10th century), was situated within a fortress surrounded by the sea on three sides, possibly indicating the need for protection due to its wealth. Al-Beruni mentions that Mahmud ordered the breaking of the upper part of the icon, and portions of it were taken as plunder to the city of Ghazni.

Additional Information Alberuni (c. 972-1048) was a Persian scholar from the Khwarezm region and spent a large part of his life in Ghazni in modern-day Afghanistan, capital of the Ghaznavid dynasty. He was the first prominent Muslim Indologist was one of the greatest intellectuals of the eleventh century. Alberuni accompanied the invading hordes of Mahmud to the Indo-Gangetic valley as a freelance observer in 11th century. He was a polymath and was a man of ‘encyclopedic learning’. He travelled extensively in various parts of the country, studied the language, religion and philosophy of the Hindus and wrote the classic account of the country and its people in Arabic, entitled Tarikh-ul Hind.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• On May 11, 1951, when the “installation ceremony of the linga” was held at the temple, President Rajendra Prasad.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

1. They protect the body from environmental allergens.
2. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
3. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
4. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Immunity refers to the overall capacity of the body to combat disease-causing organisms (pathogens), and it is provided by the immune system. The primary and secondary immune responses involve two specific types of lymphocytes found in the blood: B-lymphocytes (B-cells) and T-lymphocytes (T-cells).
• Both B-cells and T-cells contribute to acquired immunity. B-cells play a key role in the antibody-mediated immune response. They produce antibodies that circulate in the bloodstream and target pathogens. On the other hand, T-cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response. Unlike B-cells, T-cells do not secrete antibodies themselves, but they assist B-cells in producing them.

Answer: (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products that enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• A nanoparticle is a small particle that ranges between 1 to 100 nanometres in size (100 nm is 25 times smaller than ~25 micrometer – diameter of a human hair). Undetectable by the human eye, nanoparticles can exhibit significantly different physical and chemical properties to their larger material counterparts.
• Nanoparticles occur widely in nature and are objects of study in many sciences such as chemistry, physics, geology and biology. Natural nanomaterials have been present abundantly throughout Earth’s formation and its evolutionary history spanning. Engineered nanomaterials represent a relatively recent development they constitute only a small fraction of the overall mass when compared to natural and incidental varieties. Similar to their natural and incidental counterparts, engineered nanomaterials can exert both positive and negative effects on the environment.

Statement 2 is correct

• Numerous cosmetic products that we use in our daily lives incorporate nanotechnologies. Within these cosmetic formulations, metal and metal oxide nanoparticles (NPs) play a significant role. Notably, titanium dioxide and zinc oxide nanoparticles are commonly included as ingredients to enhance sun protection in these products.

Image Source: Daily mail

Statement 3 is correct

• While not all nanoparticles are inherently harmful, some, depending on their composition, size, and surface properties, can pose potential risks to human health and the environment if they enter the ecosystem. The potential risks include respiratory issues, oxidative stress, and accumulation in organs.

PMFIAS Concept Hack Nanoparticles occur naturally (e.g., volcanic ash, ocean spray), so claiming they exist only due to humans is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct, as metal oxide nanoparticles (like zinc oxide, titanium dioxide) are widely used in cosmetics. Statement 3 is also correct, as some nanoparticles that enter the environment can pose health risks.

Answer: (d) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

1. Assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. Distinguish among species that look alike.
3. Identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. It is a long, thin molecule that carries our genetic code and is coiled up tightly inside the nucleus of every cell in our body. DNA barcoding is a method of specimen identification using short, standardized segments of DNA. Every species has its own barcode, just as every person has their own fingerprint. These DNA barcodes can be compared to a reference library to provide an ID.
• DNA barcoding involves analyzing a specific region of DNA to identify species, but it does not provide information about the age of an individual organism.

Statement 2 is correct

• DNA barcoding is a powerful tool used to distinguish between species that are morphologically similar (i.e., species that look alike). It works by comparing the DNA sequence of the barcode region between species. Even closely related species often have distinct barcode sequences, allowing them to be accurately differentiated. This method is particularly useful in identifying cryptic species—species that are genetically distinct but visually indistinguishable.

Statement 3 is correct

• DNA barcoding can be used in the food industry to verify the authenticity of ingredients and to detect contamination or adulteration by undesirable species. For instance, it can identify specific plant or animal materials that are not supposed to be in a processed food product, ensuring the safety and integrity of the food supply.

Answer: (d) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulfur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/ are the cause(s) of acid rain?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Acid rain, or acid deposition, is a broad term that includes any form of precipitation with acidic components, such as sulfuric or nitric acid, that fall to the ground from the atmosphere in wet or dry forms. This can include rain, snow, fog, hail, or even acidic dust. When the pH of the rainwater drops below. 5.6, it is called acid rain. It is caused by atmospheric pollution from acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen emitted from the burning of fossil fuels. It is also recognised that acidic smog, fog, and mist move out of the atmosphere and settle on dust particles, which in turn accumulate on vegetation as acid depositions. When rain falls, the acid from these depositions leak and form acid dews.
• Ozone is not a direct contributor to acid rain; although it has harmful environmental effects, it does not act as a precursor in its formation. Similarly, carbon monoxide, while a pollutant that helps in the formation of ground-level ozone, does not play a role in causing acid rain
• Gases that cause acid rain:

Acidic gases	Source
SOx (Sulphur oxides)	Fossil fuel burning, power plants, smelting of metal sulphide ores, industrial sources, industrial production of sulfuric acid in metallurgical, chemical and fertiliser industries, volcanoes, seas and oceans, decomposition of organic matter.
NOx (Nitrogen oxides – NO, NO2 and N2O)	Fossil fuel burning, lightning, biomass burning, forest fires, oceans, power plants. (NO and N2O are mentioned in the NIOS Environment)

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium