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UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2018

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Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2018 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2018 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2018

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the first Lok Sabha, the largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
  2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
  3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • In the First Lok Sabha, the single largest opposition party was the Communist Party of India, not the Swatantra Party.

Additional Information: India’s first general election

  • Election Period: Held between October 25, 1951, and February 21, 1952.
  • Chief Election Commissioner: Organised by India’s first CEC, Sukumar Sen.
  • Lok Sabha Seats: A total of 489 seats were contested across 401 constituencies. Since some had more than one seat assigned to them.
  • A total of 53 political parties participated.
  • 14 were considered national parties, and the rest were state parties.
  • Indian National Congress (INC): The dominant party in the election. Won 364 of the 479 seats contested.
  • Communist Party of India (CPI): Runner-up party with 16 seats.
  • Socialist Party: Led by Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia. Secured 12 seats out of 254 contested.

Swatantra Party

  • It was founded in the year 1959 by leaders opposing the socialist policies of the Congress government. Some of the prominent leaders of the time, including C Rajagopalachari, Minoo Masani and N G Ranga collaborated to form a liberal-conservative party. The party stood for market-based economy and the dismantling of the license raj. Contested its first general election in the year 1962. The Swatantra Party eventually joined the umbrella opposition to Indira Gandhi’s Congress (R) after the emergency years, the Janata Party dwindling into insignificance thereafter.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Leader of the Opposition was officially recognised for the first time in 1969.
    • In 1969, in the fourth Lok Sabha, following the split in the Congress, the leader of the Congress (O), Ram Subhag Singh, became the first person to be formally recognised and given the status of leader of the opposition.

Infographic explaining the role, recognition, and significance of the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in India, featuring a central figure at a podium with text boxes detailing constitutional mentions, salary, rank, and election criteria. Key points include LoP's recognition since 1969, requirement of 10% MPs in the House, roles such as shadow Prime Minister, committee participation, and providing alternative governance perspectives, highlighted with numbered sections and colorful icons.

Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 defines the Leader of the Opposition as the member who leads the largest opposition party in either House and is recognised by the presiding officer. Although the Act does not explicitly mention the 10% membership requirement, it is implied through the recognition condition. Directions 120 and 121, issued under Rule 389 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, lay down the criteria for recognition of parties or groups. These directions were issued by the first Lok Sabha Speaker, G. V. Mavalankar, and are popularly known as Mavalankar’s Rule.
  • As per Direction 121(1)(c), a party must have at least one-tenth of the total membership (quorum strength) to be recognised. Accordingly, in the present Lok Sabha, a party must have at least 55 members for its leader to be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. Hard and waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves
  3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • In desert areas, plants exhibit several modifications to reduce water loss. Hard, waxy leaves help minimise transpiration by forming a protective layer, while tiny leaves reduce the surface area available for evaporation, conserving moisture. Additionally, many desert plants have thorns instead of leaves, which further limits water loss by preventing transpiration through leaf surfaces. Therefore, all three modifications—hard, waxy leaves; tiny leaves; and thorns—are adaptations that inhibit water loss in arid environments.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agriculture Household”, consider the following statements:

  1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural household among its rural household.
  2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 per cent belong to OBCs.
  3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agriculture households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agriculture activities
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, conducted Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households in its 70th round (January – December, 2013). Rajasthan had the highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 per cent) among its rural households, and Kerala had the lowest (27.3 per cent).
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Out of the total estimated agricultural households in the country, about 45 per cent belonged to Other Backwards Classes.
Statement 3 is correct
  • As per the report, Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for the majority of the agricultural households in all the major States, except Kerala, where about 61 per cent of the agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

  1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
  2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The National Green Tribunal, established in 2010, as per the National Green Tribunal Act, is a specialised judicial body equipped with expertise solely for the purpose of adjudicating environmental cases in the country. The Tribunal has a presence in five zones- North, Central, East, South and West. The Principal Bench is situated in the North Zone, headquartered in Delhi.
  • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), a statutory organisation, was constituted in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established to provide efficient and timely resolution of cases concerning environmental protection, forest conservation, and the preservation of natural resources. The NGT can hear cases related to air, water, and soil pollution, climate change, and biodiversity, among other environmental issues.
  • Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It aims:
    • to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and
    • to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. The validity of a law passed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court, and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951, along with Article 31-B, with a view to giving a “protective umbrella” to land reform laws to save them from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights.
    • Article 31-B saves conflict of laws with fundamental rights by giving validation based on “fictional immunity” that laws enacted under it and placed in the Ninth Schedule are immune to challenge in a court of law, even if such a law violates fundamental rights
  • The SC upheld the validity of Article 31-B and Parliament’s power to place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule (I R Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007).
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • But as per the SC judgement, laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial scrutiny and do not enjoy a blanket protection.
  • Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after the Keshwanand Bharti Judgment on April 24, 1973, when it propounded the “basic structure” doctrine, were open to challenge.
  • It laid down a dual test to examine the validity of a Ninth Schedule Law, i.e. first check whether it violates any fundamental right, and if yes, whether the violation also damages or destroys the basic structure. If the answer to both questions is in the affirmative, then only a law placed in the Ninth Schedule can be declared unconstitutional.

Infographic detailing schedules of Indian Constitution, inspired by 1935 Government of India Act, originally containing 8 schedules with 4 added later. Each schedule is listed with articles, key topics like states, languages, tribal administration, and election candidates, using color-coded sections, icons, and brief descriptions for clarity.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

  1. The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
  2. The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
  3. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
  4. The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The “Merchant Discount Rate” MDR is the fee that a merchant has to pay to a bank for every transaction, which is split between the bank which has issued the card, the lender whose point-of-sale terminal is being used and payment gateways like MasterCard or Visa.
Answer: (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?

  1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
  2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Full Membership of the NSG to India would mean:
    • Access to Advanced Technology:  Access to technology for a range of uses, from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India, from the NSG, which is essentially a traders’ cartel. India has its own indigenously developed technology, but to access state-of-the-art technology possessed by NSG member countries, it has to become part of the group.
    • Scaling Nuclear Power: To meet its clean energy goals, India needs to increase nuclear power production. Full membership is necessary for access to all technologies.
    • Economic and Strategic Benefits: NSG membership would enable India to commercialize nuclear technology, enhancing high-tech manufacturing, and boosting innovation.
    • Regional Cooperation: With NSG technologies, India could enhance civil nuclear cooperation with neighbours like Sri Lanka, and potentially sell advanced reactors to countries such as Bangladesh.

Additional Information

  • The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) was established in 1974, consisting of nuclear supplier countries, to support nuclear non-proliferation by enforcing two guidelines Governing:
    • Nuclear Exports
    • Nuclear-Related Exports
  • One crucial element of the NSG Guidelines is the “Non-Proliferation Principle,” introduced in 1994, which mandates that suppliers authorise transfers only when sure that such transfers will not contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons. The 48 members of the NSG include the five nuclear-weapon states, the US, the UK, France, China and Russia.
  • India is not a member (this grouping was formed in the aftermath of India’s 1974 nuclear test with the aim of ensuring non-proliferation of nuclear weapons and nuclear technology).
    • Although the NSG guidelines prohibit its participating states from engaging in nuclear commerce with a non-NPT state, the 2008 waiver approved by members of the NSG — under Washington’s active diplomacy — lifted nuclear trade sanctions on India.
    • NSG waiver helped India to successfully negotiate more than a dozen civil nuclear cooperation agreements.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • It does not automatically make a country a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).

Additional Information

  • The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is an international agreement designed to prevent the proliferation of nuclear weapons and technology. Negotiated between 1965 and 1968 by the Eighteen Nation Committee on Disarmament, UN-sponsored organisation based in Geneva, Switzerland, the treaty entered into force in 1970.
  • The NPT boasts more member countries than any other arms limitation and disarmament agreement.
  • However, four UN Member states have never joined the NPT, including India, Israel, Pakistan, and South Sudan.

Diagram explaining Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) with key details including entry into force in 1970, aim to limit nuclear weapons, and its role as a cornerstone of collective security and peacekeeping. It highlights 191 state parties, lists non-state and nuclear-weapon states, and outlines three pillars: non-proliferation, disarmament, and peaceful uses of nuclear energy, with icons and brief descriptions for each pillar.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
  2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statements 1 is incorrect
  • Equalisation levy is a direct tax levied on online transactions/payments made to non-residents for providing specified Services to a resident in India. The government introduced this tax to help Indian service providers to compete with foreign service providers and provide fair competition. The levy on the digital economy was first introduced in the 2016 Finance Act (not part of income tax) at 6% as (effectively) a Digital Services Tax on non-resident providers of online advertising.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Non-resident entities cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAs) because the Equalisation Levy is not classified as an income tax. Instead, it is a distinct levy imposed on specified services provided by non-residents to residents.
  • Note: The Government of India abolished the 6% Equalisation Levy on online advertisements, effective from April 1, 2025.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government.
  2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
  3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The FRBM Review Committee, led by N. K. Singh, recommended that the general (combined) government debt be reduced to 60% of GDP by 2023—comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for State Governments—to promote fiscal discipline and long-term sustainability.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Central Government has higher domestic liabilities, amounting to about 46% of GDP in 2016–17, while the liabilities of State Governments were around 23% of GDP.
Statement 3 is correct
  • According to the Constitution of India, Article 293 addresses the matter of borrowing by State Governments. In clauses (3) and (4) of Article 293, it is stipulated that State Governments are required to seek the consent of the Central Government when seeking to raise new loans if they are already indebted to the Central Government. Consent from the Central Government may be granted, but it is subject to specific conditions.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
  2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years (2013-2017). According to the credit rating agency ICRA report in 2017, India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with a contribution of around 10 % in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (around 60% of requirement). From a 10-year perspective, India’s edible oil imports have increased from 11.6 mt (valued at Rs 60,750 crore) in 2013-14 to 16.5 mt (Rs 138,424 crore) in 2022-23, with the jump pronounced in the last three years.

Two tables and one line chart present data on India's edible oil imports, production, and vegetable oils inflation from 2013-14 to 2022-23. Tables show import quantities and values, and production volumes of various oils, while the chart compares domestic and global vegetable oil inflation trends, highlighting a peak domestic inflation of 124.87% and a recent decline to -20.67%.

Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Customs duties are imposed on many types of imported edible oils. There have been instances of temporary duty reductions, but not all imported edible oils are free of customs duties.

Additional Information: Edible Oil Production and Consumption in India – Statistics

  • Oilseeds account for 14.3% of the gross cropped area in India. Together, soybean (36%), groundnut (32%), and rapeseed mustard (29%) account for 97% of the total edible oilseeds production. Approx. 70% of the oilseeds are cultivated in rainfed ecosystems. During the past five decades, the average yield of annual oilseeds has almost tripled. Oilseeds account for about 8% of the agricultural exports.
  • India is the 4th largest vegetable oil economy next to the USA, China and Brazil. It ranks 1st in the production of castor, safflower, sesame, and niger, 2nd in groundnut, and 3rd in rapeseed-mustard.
  • Total domestic production of edible oils is far below the annual requirement of over 25 million tonnes. In 2022-23, India’s edible oil production from domestic sources amounted to around 10.3 mt (only 38.6%). India is the largest importer of vegetable oils (15% share), followed by China and the USA. It imports 55-60% of its edible oil requirements. Of imported edible oils, the share of palm oil is 60%, followed by soybean oil (25%) and sunflower (12%).
  • Sunflower oil is imported from Russia (1.5 mt), Romania (0.6 mt), Ukraine (0.5 mt) & Argentina (0.4 mt).
  • Soyabean oil is imported primarily from Argentina & Brazil, while palm oil from Indonesia and Malaysia.
  • Sunflower oil is predominantly consumed in Southern states (70%) followed by Maharashtra (10-15%).
  • Soyabean oil is predominantly consumed in the North and East (along with locally-produced mustard), and also in the West (with sunflower and indigenous groundnut and cottonseed oil).
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna; stayed in America for some time, and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

  1. Aurobindo Ghosh
  2. Bipin Chandra Pal
  3. Lala Lajpat Rai
  4. Motilal Nehru

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Lala Lajpat Rai (1865-1928) wrote biographical books on Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, Shrikrishna and Swami Dayanand. Some of his noteworthy literary works include “The Story of My Deportation” (1908), “Arya Samaj” (1915), “The United States of America: A Hindu’s Impression” (1916), “England’s Debt to India” (1917), and “Young India: An Interpretation and a History of the Nationalist Movement from Within”. In 1927, Katherine Mayo’s book Mother India unfairly criticised Indian civilisation, portraying India as backwards and justifying British rule. In response, Lala Lajpat Rai authored Unhappy India in 1928, debunking Mayo’s claims. Rai argued that India’s socio-economic problems were largely due to colonial exploitation.
  • He was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly in 1923.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Aurobindo (1872-1950) associated himself with journals and periodicals like the Jugantar, Bande Mataram, and the Karmayogi, through which he criticised British imperialism and preached a revolutionary concept of nationalism. Some of his important writings are The Life Divine, Savitri, Essay on the Gita, Defense of Indian Culture, etc.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Bipin Chandra Pal (1858 -1932) started newspapers such as Paridarshak (1880), New India (1901), Bande Mataram (1906) (Aurobindo Ghose was editor), Swaraj and Hindu Review (1913). He was Assistant Editor of the Bengal Public Opinion and the Tribune (Lahore). In his book, The New Economic Menace of India, Bipin Chandra demanded increased wages and shorter hours of work for the Indian labourers
Option (d) is incorrect
  • The Independent was an Allahabad-based newspaper begun by Motilal Nehru in 1919. It was started with the primary aim of countering the moderate political line adopted by the then leading Allahabad daily, The Leader. His contributions were more in the realm of political leadership and reform, including his role in drafting the Nehru Report.
Answer: (c) Lala Lajpat Rai; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements.

  1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Aadhaar is a unique 12-digit identification number assigned by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to every resident of India. It acts as a proof of identity linked to the individual’s biometric and demographic data. Aadhaar has never been proof of citizenship. Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act clarifies that possessing an Aadhaar number or undergoing authentication does not grant citizenship or domicile rights to the holder.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Aadhaar number can be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority under various circumstances.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

  1. Aral Sea
  2. Black Sea
  3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 2 only
  4. 1 and 3

Explanation

Aral Sea is correct
  • The Aral Sea is an endorheic saltwater lake between Kazakhstan in the north and Uzbekistan in the south. It has been steadily shrinking since the 1960s, after the rivers (Amu Darya and Syr Darya) that fed the lake were diverted to feed Soviet irrigation projects..

Two side-by-side maps comparing Aral Coastline in 1960 and 2014 show significant shrinkage of water area. The 1960 map depicts a large, dark green water body, while the 2014 map shows a much smaller, fragmented water area with surrounding land expansion, highlighting environmental degradation.

  • It has receded into three separate lakes: the Greater Sea had divided into a long, narrow, western lake and a larger, broader, eastern lake, with the remains of the Lesser Sea to the north.

Map showing Central Asian countries including Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Kazakhstan, highlighting key geographical features like Caspian Sea, Aral Sea, and major rivers Amu Darya and Syr Darya. Important cities Baku and Ashgabat are marked with red squares, and Baikonur in Kazakhstan is labeled as a notable location.

Black Sea is incorrect
  • Black Sea is a marginal Mediterranean Sea lying between Europe and Asia.
  • It lies:
    • East of the Balkan Peninsula (Southeast Europe)
    • South of the East European Plain in Eastern Europe
    • West of the Caucasus
    • North of Anatolia in Western Asia.
  • It is supplied by significant rivers, principally the Danube and Dnieper. There is a significant absence of oxygen in the Black Sea water. Mountain Ranges: Pontic Mountains (South), Caucasus Mountains (East) and Crimean Mts (North).
  • Countries surrounding Black Sea: Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, Bulgaria to the southwest, and Romania to the west.
  • Frequently in news: The Russia-Ukraine war has disrupted the trade stability in the region.

Map showing Black Sea surrounded by countries including Ukraine, Russia, Turkey, Bulgaria, Romania, and Georgia, with major rivers like Danube, Dnieper, and Don labeled. Key straits such as Bosporus, Dardanelles, and Kerch are highlighted, along with important cities like Istanbul, Odessa, and Sochi, illustrating geographic and strategic connections between Black Sea and adjacent seas.

Lake Baikal is incorrect
  • It is located in Siberia, Russia.

The deepest lake in the world “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

  1. Amnesty International
  2. International Court of Justice
  3. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
  4. World Justice Project

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The World Justice Project releases the Rule of Law Index report, which measures the extent to which countries have adhered to the rule of law in a specific period of time. Every country’s performance is assessed in eight areas:
    • Constraints on Government Powers, Absence of Corruption, Open Government, Fundamental Rights, Order and Security, Regulatory Enforcement, Civil Justice, and Criminal Justice.
  • The World Justice Project (WJP) is a US-based independent organisation focused on advancing the rule of law globally. Founded in 2006 by William H. Neukom as an initiative of the American Bar Association (ABA).
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Amnesty International (NGO), founded in London in 1961, works to ensure that every individual enjoys the human rights outlined in the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The organization conducts research, advocates against severe human rights abuses, and seeks justice for victims. It received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1977.
  • Important report: The state of the world’s human rights.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Also known as the World Court, the ICJ was established in June 1945 by the UN Charter and began its operations in April 1946.

Infographic explaining International Court of Justice (ICJ) structure, functions, and election process, featuring sections with red and black text, icons, and a cartoon judge figure. Highlights include 15 judges elected for 9-year terms by UN General Assembly and Security Council, ICJ jurisdiction over legal disputes between states, advisory opinions, and limitations on powers such as no authority over NGOs or individuals.

Option (c) is incorrect
  • The Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights (UN Human Rights) is the primary UN body dedicated to promoting and protecting human rights as defined by international law and the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights. It actively works to prevent human rights abuses by advocating against them.
Answer: (d) World Justice Project; Difficulty Level: Medium
  1. Indian Banks’ Association
  2. National Securities Depository Limit
  3. National Payments Corporation of India
  4. Reserve Bank of India

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • In 2009, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) assumed control of the National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network from the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT). The objective was to enhance the connectivity of ATMs across the country and streamline convenience banking.

Additional Information

  • NPCI is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
  • It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, to create a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India. It has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013).
  • The NPCI can operate payment systems such as the National Financial Switch (NFS), Immediate Payment System (IMPS), Aadhaar-enabled Payments System (AEPS), and National Automated Clearing House (NACH).
Answer: (c) National Payments Corporation of India; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account holders fail to repay dues.
  2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

  • Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk-weighted assets and current liabilities. It is a financial metric used to gauge a bank’s ability to withstand losses without affecting its lenders and depositors. While there are various capital adequacy ratios, one can be calculated simply by dividing a bank’s capital by its assets. In the event of heavy losses, the bank’s capital takes the first hit before lenders’ funds are affected.
  • As banks are institutions that are run mainly through borrowings, even minor losses can completely wash out their capital. So, the capital adequacy ratio, the most widely used measure of bank strength, is closely monitored by both lenders and regulators.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • CAR is not decided by each individual bank. Instead, it is regulated and standardised by financial authorities such as central banks (RBI in India) or regulatory bodies in order to ensure the stability of the banking system. CAR minimums are 8.0% under Basel II and 10.5% (with an added 2.5% conservation buffer) under Basel III. The higher the CAR, the better able a bank should be to meet its financial obligations when under stress.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

  1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
  2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • An API serves as a software intermediary facilitating communication between different applications, and it plays a crucial role in enabling interaction, data exchange, and seamless transactions between cloud and business applications. In the analogy of data as water stored in reservoirs, APIs function as the essential pipes that enable the fluid movement of data between these disparate sources.
  • Aadhaar’s open APIs can be embedded into different electronic systems, enabling services such as identity verification across digital platforms. This implies that Aadhaar authentication can be integrated into various devices, such as mobile phones, for seamless access to services. Aadhaar also supports biometric authentication, including iris scans, as one of the key identification methods. With Aadhaar’s APIs, online authentication using iris recognition is possible. This ensures secure and accurate verification of identity.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Very recently, in which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

  1. Angola and Zambia
  2. Morocco and Tunisia
  3. Venezuela and Colombia
  4. Yemen and South Sudan

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • In 2017, some of the worst food crises occurred in north-eastern Nigeria, Somalia, Yemen, and South Sudan. Nearly 32 million people across these regions faced severe food insecurity and were in urgent need of assistance. These crises were driven by a combination of conflict, drought, and economic challenges, exacerbating hunger and malnutrition.

Map highlighting five countries in Africa and the Middle East—Nigeria, South Sudan, Yemen, Somalia—shaded in blue against a light gray background. An inset globe in the top left corner shows the highlighted region's location within the eastern hemisphere.

Answer: (d) Yemen and South Sudan; Difficulty Level: Hard

Regarding Wood’s Despatch, which of the following statements are true?

  1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
  2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
  3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • In 1854, the Court of Directors of the EIC in London sent an educational despatch to the GovernorGeneral of India. Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control of the Company, issued it. The Despatch outlined the educational policy for the future.
  • It emphasised the practical benefits of a system of European learning, as opposed to oriental knowledge.
  • Major Recommendations of the Despatch:
    • The government should assume direct responsibility for educating the masses and women. Thus, it rejected the Downward Filtration Theory, at least on paper. In practice, the Government did little to spread education and spent little on it.
    • A system of grants-in-aid should be introduced to encourage and foster private enterprise in education.
    • It was believed that the government would not be able to fund all the educational needs of the

      country, so private organisations would have to establish most educational institutions.

Statement 2 is correct
  • Universities in the three presidency towns of Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay should be set up based on the model of London University.
    • In 1857, three universities were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. Bankim Chandra
  • The Departments of Education should be set up in each of the five provinces for systematic supervision of the education system.
  • Vocational education should be promoted, and technical schools and colleges should be set up.
  • The Despatch laid down the principles of a graded educational system all over the country – Indigenous Primary Schools, Middle Schools, High Schools, Colleges, and Universities.
Statement 3 is incorrrect
  • The government should promote vernacular schools for the expansion of elementary education.
  • Medium of instruction:
    • English should be used as the medium of instruction in the higher branches, i.e. at the collegiate stage.
    • Both English and modern Indian languages should be used to provide secondary education.
    • Vernacular languages should be used as the medium of instruction in the school (elementary education).
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

  1. Committee on Government Assurances
  2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
  3. Rules Committee
  4. Business Advisory Committee

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Committee scrutinises and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the IC or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such delegation.
  • This committee exists in both Houses and consists of 15 members. A Minister is not nominated to this committee
Option (a) is incorrect
  • No. of Members – 15
  • Tenure: 1 year.
  • The members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
  • Scrutinises assurances, promises, and undertakings given by Ministers.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • No. of Members – 15
  • Tenure: Not fixed. Can continue in office till reconstituted.
  • The members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
  • Considers matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • No. of Members – 15
  • Tenure: Not fixed. Can continue in office till reconstituted.
  • The members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
  • Recommends time allocation for the discussion of Bills & other business.

Infographic explaining the Parliamentary Committee System in India, detailing its origin, constitutional basis, and functions such as scrutiny, expert consultation, and accountability. It categorizes committees into Standing and Ad Hoc, outlines Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) with their scope and membership, and compares Estimates, Public Accounts, and Public Undertakings Committees, highlighting their roles, tenure, and election process.

Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Right To Education Act, 2009: It provides free, compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14.
  • Under the authority provided by RTE Act, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has set the minimum qualifications necessary for individuals to be eligible for teaching appointments.
    • The NCTE, a statutory body, was established following the enactment of the National Council for Teacher Education Act of 1993.
Statement 2 is correct
  • RTE Act requires candidates to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) for teaching primary classes, and this test is conducted in accordance with NCTE guidelines.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • NCTE oversees teacher education institutions nationwide, but most are privately managed.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Tradition State
1.Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Chapchar Kut is a major festival of Mizoram, celebrated in March after the completion of the most arduous phase of jhum cultivation. The festival marks a period of relaxation for farmers and is observed in anticipation of a golden harvest. One of the most prominent highlights of Chapchar Kut is the popular bamboo dance, Cheraw, where men rhythmically tap bamboo sticks while women gracefully coordinate their movements in sync with the shifting bamboo patterns, creating a vibrant and captivating cultural performance.
Pair 2 is correct
  • Khongjom Parva is a traditional musical art form of Manipur that involves ballad singing accompanied by the rhythmic sounds of a dholak or drum. It primarily narrates the heroic battle fought by the Manipuris against the British at Khongjom during the Battle of Khongjom on the India-Burma Road in 1891.
  • Besides recounting this historic event, Khongjom Parva also presents legendary and mythological episodes from the Ramayana and Mahabharata, along with tales of the exploits of Manipuri kings and the famous folk epic Khamba-Thoibi, making it an important medium for preserving the region’s history and cultural traditions.
Pair 3 is incorrect
  • Thang-Ta is a martial dance from Manipur. It integrates various external weapons – the sword, spear, dagger, etc. One component of this art form involves performing rituals; another involves elements of dance with swords and spears; and a combative form involves the actual act of fighting.
Answer: (b) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
  2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, consolidates the laws relating to food and establishes the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India. Various central Acts, such as the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; the Fruit Products Order, 1955; the Meat Food Products Order, 1973; and the Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947, were repealed upon the commencement of the FSS Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) have already been appointed by the Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
  • It is the country’s apex food regulator headquartered in New Delhi.
  • It has six regional offices in Delhi, Guwahati, Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin, and Chennai.
  • Aim: to act as the single reference point for all food safety and standards matters.
  • Functions:
    • Framing standards and guidelines of food safety.
    • Granting food safety licenses for food businesses.
    • Framing guidelines for laboratories in food businesses.
    • Providing suggestions to the government in policy framing.
    • Collect data regarding contaminants in food products, identify emerging risks, etc.
    • Creating an information network across the country about food safety.
    • Promote general awareness about food safety and food standards.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The term “Two-state Solution” is sometimes mentioned in the new in the context of the affairs of

  1. China
  2. Israel
  3. Iraq
  4. Yemen

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The term “Two-state Solution” refers to a proposed resolution to the long-standing Israel-Palestine conflict. It envisions the establishment of two separate, sovereign states: one for the Jewish people of Israel and one for the Arab population of Palestine.

Map showing geographic and political features of the Dead Sea region, including surrounding countries Israel, Jordan, Syria, Lebanon, Egypt, and Palestine. Key elements include labeled cities, bodies of water like Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea, territorial areas such as West Bank and Gaza Strip, and notable landmarks like Golan Heights and Suez Canal.

Answer: (b) Israel; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

  1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
  2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
  3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Identification of beneficiaries/households under NFSA is done by the respective State/UT Government, which is required to frame its own criteria. The act provides coverage to up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidised food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Overall, about two-thirds of the country’s population (around 81 crore people) is covered. Therefore, families below the poverty line (BPL) are not the only beneficiaries of subsidised food grains.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Under the National Food Security Act, 2013, the eldest woman aged 18 years or above in the household is designated as the head of the household for the purpose of issuing the ration card.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Under the National Food Security Act, 2013, pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious take-home ration of at least 600 calories, along with a maternity benefit of not less than ₹6,000.

Infographic detailing National Food Security Act, 2013, outlining objectives, coverage, beneficiary identification, and two beneficiary categories: Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Priority Households. It highlights coverage under NFSA, Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, challenges in Public Distribution System implementation, and reforms needed, using icons, color-coded sections, and key statistics.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

  1. ILO
  2. IMF
  3. UNCTAD
  4. WTO

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Geographical Indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products corresponding to a specific geographical location or origin. It is a type of Intellectual Property Right (IPR). It is protected by the WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) and the Geneva Act of the Lisbon Agreement on Appellations of Origin and Geographical Indications. Countries have their own frameworks for registering and protecting GI tags.
  • GI Tag in India: India, as a World Trade Organization (WTO) member, enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act,1999.
    • It is a part of the IPR under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
    • Darjeeling tea became the first GI-tagged product in India in 2004–2005

Diagram explaining three types of intellectual property rights (IPR): Patent, Trademark, and Geographical Indication. Each section includes a brief definition, relevant law, responsible ministry (DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry), and protection period, with color-coded icons and labels highlighting key details.

Answer: (d) WTO; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements

  1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
  2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
  3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • In India, the largest resources of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%), followed by Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3%), and Jharkhand (2 %). The remaining 2% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3 is correct
  • In Rajasthan, iron-ore deposits are found in the districts of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa, and Banswara. Compared to all districts, Bhilwara is a leading producer of iron ore.
Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

  1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
  2. While a chip pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) (an app built on Unified Payment Interface (UPI)) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions. UPI, or Unified Payment Interface, is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts. UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and offline, without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords.
  • Developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), BHIM is an aggregator for all UPI-based services offered by banks.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

  1. Bengaluru
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Nagpur
  4. Pune

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Longitude measures the angular distance east or west from the Prime (Greenwich) Meridian. Bengaluru, with a longitude of 77.5946° E, is closest to Delhi’s longitude of 77.1025° E compared to the other cities listed.
Delhi (28.7041° N, 77.1025° E)
Bengaluru (12.9716° N, 77.5946° E)
Hyderabad (17.3850° N, 78.4867° E)
Nagpur (21.1458° N, 79.0882° E)
Pune (18.5204° N, 73.8567° E)
Answer: (a) Bengaluru; Difficulty Level: Hard
  1. Child labour
  2. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
  3. Regulation of food prices and food security
  4. Gender parity at the workplace

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The eight fundamental conventions form an integral part of the United Nations Human Rights Framework, and their ratification is an important sign of member States’ commitment to human rights.
  • The conventions are:
    1. Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
    2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105)
    3. Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)
    4. Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111)
    5. Minimum Age Convention (No.138)
    6. Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)
    7. Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87)
    8. Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98)

Infographic from International Labour Organisation outlining its overview, objectives, fundamental conventions, labour standards, and key reports. Features color-coded sections with icons and illustrations highlighting milestones like ILO's founding in 1919, eight core conventions ratified by India, and focus areas such as forced labour elimination and social protection.

Answer: (a) Child Labour; Difficulty Level: Hard

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. A bill shall be deemed to be money bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
  2. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
  3. A Money Bill is concerned with appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
  4. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the government of India.

Explanation

Statement (c) is the correct answer
  • A Bill is considered a Money Bill if it deals only with the following matters:
    1. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
    2. The regulation of:
      • Borrowing by the Government of India
      • Providing guarantees by the Government of India
      • Amendment of laws relating to financial obligations undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the Government of India
    3. Custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India, including the payment of money into and withdrawal of money from these funds.
    4. Appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
    5. Declaring any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing amount of any such expenditure.
    6. Receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State
    7. Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f).
Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
  2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Presidential election in India follows a special system of voting in which different vote values are assigned to Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs). The value of each MLA’s vote is determined based on the population of the respective state and the number of MLAs in that state. For example, the value of a vote of an MLA from Uttar Pradesh is 208, whereas that of an MLA from Sikkim is 7. Further, as per a Constitutional Amendment enacted in 2002, the population figures of the 1971 Census are used for calculating the value of votes.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The value of an MP’s vote is the sum of all votes of MLAs across the country divided by the number of elected MPs. Each MP’s vote carries a fixed vote value of 700 (as per 2022 ECI data).

Infographic explaining the President of India, detailing qualifications, election process, oath, term, privileges, and impeachment procedures. Key elements include eligibility criteria, electoral college composition, five-year term, no legal liability for official acts, and impeachment requiring a two-thirds majority in Parliament.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

  1. The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
  2. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA.
  3. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
  4. The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • India signed a comprehensive safeguards agreement (CSA) with the IAEA in 2009 and also subscribed to more scrutiny by the body, entering into an “Additional Protocol” for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities in 2014. It notably strengthens the IAEA’s capacity to ensure the peaceful utilisation of all nuclear materials within nations having comprehensive safeguards agreements. Consequently, civilian nuclear facilities fall under the purview of IAEA safeguards.
Answer: (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following counties:

  1. Australia
  2. Canada
  3. China
  4. India
  5. Japan
  6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
  1. 1, 2, 4 and 6
  2. 3, 4, 5 and 6
  3. 1, 3, 4 and 5
  4. 2, 3, 4 and 6

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has free trade agreements with six partners namely People’s Republic of China (ACFTA), Republic of Korea (AKFTA), Japan (AJCEP), India (AIFTA) as well as Australia and New Zealand (AANZFTA).

Infographic detailing ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) with member countries, core aims, key agreements, and challenges. Features a map highlighting member states in blue, a timeline of institutional mechanisms, and sections on geopolitical pressures, strategic goals, and recent developments.

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
  2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
  3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) was launched during the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014, which was held in New York, not during the Paris Climate Summit in 2015.
  • GACSA works towards three aspirational outcomes to:
    • Improve farmers’ agricultural productivity and incomes in a sustainable way;
    • Build farmers’ resilience to extreme weather and changing climate;
    • Reduce greenhouse gas emissions associated with agriculture, when possible.
Statement 2 is correct
  • GACSA is a voluntary platform (not creating any legally binding obligations for its members) open to governments, international and regional organisations, institutions, civil society, and businesses that agree with its vision and its Framework Document.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • GACSA was launched by a group of countries, and India was neither a founding member nor played a key role in its establishment.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is/are the aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

  1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
  2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
  3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 3 is correct
  • Digital India, a flagship programme of the government of India, aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. The programme was launched on July 1, 2015.
  • It is an umbrella programme that covers multiple ministries and departments. It seeks to enhance nine key areas of development, such as Broadband Highways, Universal Mobile Connectivity, and the Public Internet Access Programme. Additional pillars include e-Governance, e-Kranti, Information for All, Electronics Manufacturing, IT for Jobs, and Early Harvest Programmes.
  • The initiative emphasizes three core objectives:
    • providing digital infrastructure to every citizen,
    • delivering digital services and governance on demand, and
    • digitally empowering individuals.
  • Its overarching aim is to connect all villages and gram panchayats in India with broadband internet, foster e-governance, and transform the country into a digitally connected knowledge economy.

Infographic with two sections: left side lists 9 Pillars of Digital India using numbered icons and brief labels like Broadband Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, and e-Governance, each with distinct colors and icons. Right side presents a timeline of key Digital India milestones from 2015 to 2024, highlighting events such as launch of Bharat Interface for Money App (2015), National Policy on Electronics approval (2016), PM Gati Shakti launch (2018), and India hosting Global India AI Summit (2024), with arrows and color-coded year markers.

Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
  • The Digital India programme does not aim to create domestic internet companies on the lines of China. It also does not provide a specific policy framework to attract foreign multinational corporations to establish data centres in India.
Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs

Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1.Aleppo – Syria
2. Kirkuk Syria
3. Mosul – Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 4
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 3 and 4

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Aleppo is one of the largest cities in Syria and has been a major focal point during the Syrian civil war. The city has a long history and is often in the news due to the ongoing conflict in Syria.

Map showing Syria highlighted in yellow with Aleppo marked by a red dot and label, positioned near the northwestern part of the country. Mediterranean Sea is colored in blue to the west, with surrounding countries and borders faintly outlined for geographic context.

Pair 2 is incorrect
  • Kirkuk is a city in Iraq, not Yemen. It is known for its rich oil resources and has been at the center of disputes between Kurdish and Iraqi forces.

Map of Iraq highlighting Kurdish Region in orange, Baghdad in pink, and Kirkuk in purple to show key political and geographic areas. The map uses distinct colors and labels to emphasize territorial divisions and important cities within Iraq.

Pair 3 is incorrect
  • Mosul is another important city in Iraq, not Palestine. It gained international attention during the fight against ISIS, as the city was held by the terrorist group for several years before being liberated.

Map showing Iraq highlighted in yellow with surrounding countries in teal, focusing on city of Mosul marked by a red dot and labeled in black. Map includes clear country borders and a note indicating it is not to scale, providing geographic context for Mosul within Iraq.

Pair 4 is correct
  • Mazar-i-Sharif is one of the largest cities in Afghanistan. It is located in the northern part of the country and was in news due significant military and political activity.

Map of Afghanistan highlighting locations of Kabul and Mazar-i-Sharif with labeled markers and distinct yellow shading for the country. Surrounding countries outlined in blue-green, providing geographic context for key Afghan cities.

Answer: (b) 1 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the Federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

  1. Federal Legislature
  2. Governor General
  3. Provincial Legislature
  4. Provincial Governors

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Act proposed an All India Federation of British provinces and princely states.
  • It provided a bicameral legislature at the Centre:
    • The lower house (the Federal Assembly): It consists of 375 members: 250 (67%) were elected by the legislative assemblies of the British Indian provinces; 125 (33%) were nominated by the rulers of the princely states.
    • The upper house (the Council of State): It consists of 260 members: 156 (60%) were elected from British India, and 104 (40%) were nominated by the rulers of the princely states
  • The act divided the power between the centre and units in three lists:
    1. Federal list (59 subjects): For Centres
    2. Provincial list (54 subjects): For provinces
    3. Concurrent list (36 subjects): Residuary powers were given to the Governor-General.
Answer: (b) Governor-General; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. Speaker of the legislative assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly
  2. Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Article 179, Constitution of India: A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of an Assembly—
    • Shall vacate office if he ceases to be a member of the Legislative Assembly.
    • (b) May resign at any time by submitting a written resignation — if the Speaker, to the Deputy Speaker; and if the Deputy Speaker, to the Speaker.
    • (c) May be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Assembly.
  • Provided that no resolution for the purpose of clause (c) shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • ⁠⁠Provided further that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law of the land and liberty?

  1. If there are more laws, there is less liberty
  2. If there is no law, there is no liberty
  3. If there is liberty laws have to be made by the people
  4. If laws are changed too often liberty is in danger

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The most appropriate relationship between law and liberty is that without law, liberty cannot exist. According to Locke, where there is no law, there is no true freedom because liberty involves being free from restraint and violence imposed by others. He clarified that freedom does not mean everyone can do as they please, as that would lead to chaos. Instead, liberty, for Locke, is the ability to govern and arrange one’s own person, actions, possessions, and property within the framework of laws that safeguard individuals from arbitrary rule by others, allowing them to freely pursue their own interests.Therefore, laws are essential to maintain a balance where liberty can thrive, as they define and protect the boundaries of individual and collective rights.
Answer: (b) If there is no law, there is no liberty; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during his term of office
  2. Emoluments and allowances of the governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Immunity to the office of the Governor: He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for acts performed in the exercise of his official duties.
    • During his term of office, no criminal proceedings can be initiated against him, even for personal acts.
    • He cannot be arrested or imprisoned during his tenure.
    • However, civil proceedings may be instituted against him during his term of office for personal acts, after giving two months’ prior notice
Statement 2 is correct
  • Under Article 158, the salary and allowances of the Governor are determined by law and cannot be reduced during the term of office. This ensures the Governor’s financial independence and safeguards the office from undue influence.

Infographic explaining the role, appointment, tenure, and qualifications of a Governor in India. It highlights that the Governor is a nominated constitutional authority appointed by the President under Article 154, serves a five-year term at the President’s pleasure, must be an Indian citizen at least 35 years old, and includes recommendations from Sarkaria, Venkatachaliah, and Punchhi Commissions.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

The well-known painting “BaniThani” belongs to the

  1. Bundi school
  2. Jaipur school
  3. Kangra school
  4. Kishangarh school

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The famous Bani Thani painting by Nihal Chand was inspired by Sawant Singh’s poem, Bihari Jas Chandrika, and represents the Kishangarh School style. The distinctive, sharp facial features of Bani Thani influenced the exaggerated facial types that became a hallmark of the Kishangarh School.

Bani Thani painting by Nihal Chand was inspired by Sawant Singh’s poem, Bihari Jas Chandrika, and represents the Kishangarh School style. The distinctive, sharp facial features of Bani Thani influenced the exaggerated facial types that became a hallmark of the Kishangarh School.

Image Source: Ncert

Option (a) is incorrect
  • A distinctive school of painting flourished in Bundi during the 17th century, noted for its refined colour sense and elegant designs. The Bundi Ragamala (1591), associated with the reign of Bhoj Singh (1585–1607) and created at Chunar, represents the early phase of this style. The Bundi school reached its peak under the patronage of Rao Chattar Sal (1631–1659) and his son Rao Bhao Singh (1659–1682), during whose reign numerous portraits were commissioned. In the 18th century, Bundi paintings absorbed Deccani influences, reflected in the growing use of vibrant colours.
  • The Bundi and Kota schools became particularly known for their depiction of lush landscapes, varied flora, wildlife, and equestrian portraits, while their elephant drawings were highly admired for their artistic excellence. The Bundi style also developed distinct standards of feminine beauty, portraying petite women with round faces, sharp noses, full cheeks, and slender waists. Early Bundi artists such as Shaykh Hasan, Shaykh Ali, and Shaykh Hatim were pupils of Mir Sayyid Ali and Khwaja Abdus Samad from the Mughal court.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • The Jaipur School of painting originated in Amer, the former capital of the Kachhwaha rulers. When Sawai Jai Singh (1699–1743) shifted the capital from Amer to Jaipur in 1727, it led to the emergence of the Jaipur School as a distinct and independent artistic tradition. Jai Singh invited Mughal painters and skilled artisans from Delhi to join his atelier and reorganized the Suratkhana (royal painting workshop). Influenced by his deep inclination toward Vaishnavism, he commissioned numerous paintings depicting themes of Radha and Krishna.
  • During this period, illustrated sets of Rasikapriya, Gita Govinda, Baramasa, and Ragamala were produced, often portraying the hero with features resembling the ruling king. Portrait painting also gained prominence, with artists such as Sahibram and Muhammad Shah emerging as notable painters. By the early 19th century, Jaipur paintings displayed an increased use of gold, and life-size portraits became a distinctive feature of the Jaipur School.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • The Pahari Schools of painting developed between the seventeenth and nineteenth centuries across various hill towns of the western Himalayas, including Basohli, Guler, Kangra, Kullu, Chamba, Mankot, Nurpur, Mandi, Bilaspur, and Jammu, which emerged as important artistic centres. Following the decline of the Mughal Empire, many artists trained in the Mughal style migrated to the Kangra region, where they received patronage from Raja Govardhan Singh in 1774. This migration contributed to the emergence of the Guler–Kangra School of painting, which initially evolved in Guler and later flourished in Kangra.
  • The school reached its peak under the patronage of Raja Sansar Chand, whose paintings were noted for their refinement, sensuality, and emotional depth. Popular themes included the Gita Govinda, Bhagavata Purana, Satsai of Bihari Lal, and Nal-Damayanti, with scenes depicting the love of Krishna being particularly prominent. These paintings often conveyed an otherworldly and lyrical quality. Another notable theme was the depiction of the “Twelve Months” (Baramasa), illustrating the changing emotions of human beings across seasons. The Kangra school later became the parent tradition for other ateliers that developed in regions such as Kullu, Chamba, and Mandi.
Answer: (d) Kishangarh school; Difficulty Level: Hard

What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

  1. An Israeli radar system
  2. India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
  3. An American anti-missile system
  4. A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • In 2017, the United States began delivering the THAAD system for deployment in South Korea. The Terminal High Altitude Area Defence, or simply abbreviated as THAAD, is a missile defence system that is designed to intercept and destroy short and medium-range ballistic missiles in their final flight phase. It cannot be used as a form of attack against an enemy. Its role is simply to track and destroy missiles before they are launched.
Answer: (c) An American anti-missile system; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
  2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
  3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
  4. Annamacharya Kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • 2017 marked Tyagaraja 250th birth anniversary year. Tyagaraja is widely regarded as one of three major composers – known as the Trinity – of Carnatic Music who flourished at Tanjore or Thanjavur in the early 19th century, the others being Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri. Tyagaraja is said to have composed the music and penned the lyrics of thousands of kritis, mostly in praise of lord Rama.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Thyagaraja had created new ragas through his compositions. These new ragas are called apoorva (Rare) ragas. He also wrote and composed two operas, Nauka Charitram and Prahlada Bhakti Vijayam.
Statement 3 is incorrect, and statement 4 is correct
  • Tyagaraja time period is 1767–1847. Tallapaka Annamacharya (also called Annamayya) was a 15th-century saint (Telugu composer and poet) and is the earliest known musician to compose songs called Sankirtanas in praise of Lord Venkateswara of Tirupati. He is regarded as Andhra Pada Kavita Pitamaha (the Grandfather of Telugu songwriting).

Infographic about Carnatic Music highlighting its distinct features, composition styles, prominent exponents, and key instruments. It includes colorful illustrations of traditional instruments, portraits of notable musicians, and text boxes detailing devotional themes, fast tempo, intricate gamakas, and structured compositions.

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

  1. Limitation of powers
  2. Equality before law
  3. People’s responsibility to the Government
  4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2, and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Rule of Law is a foundational principle of governance, emphasising that laws, not individuals or arbitrary decisions, should govern a nation. The key features of the Rule of Law, as established by A.V. Dicey and widely recognised, include:
    • Limitation of powers (Supremacy of Law): The Rule of Law asserts that no one, including the government, is above the law. It limits the powers of the state and prevents the exercise of arbitrary power.
    • Equality before law: This principle implies that all individuals, irrespective of their status or position, are subject to the same laws, administered by regular courts. This is essential to maintain fairness and prevent any special treatment for certain classes or government officials.
    • Predominance of Legal Spirit: Dicey asserts that rights (e.g. right to personal liberty, freedom from arrest, etc.) are the result of judicial decision in particular cases which have actually arisen between the parties. The constitution is not the source but the consequence of individuals’ rights. Thus, Dicey emphasised the role of the Courts as guarantors of liberty and suggested that it would be secured more adequately if they were enforceable through the Courts of law than by mere declaration of those rights in a document, as in the latter case, they can be ignored, curtailed or trampled upon.
  • However, People’s responsibility to the Government is not a recognised feature of the Rule of Law. The Rule of Law emphasises government’s responsibility to the people and adherence to legal norms, rather than citizens being directly responsible to the government in a legal sense.
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
  1. The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
  2. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
  3. The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
  4. The metallic money in circulation in a country

Explanation

Statement (b) is correct
  • Legal tender money refers to the currency that must be accepted in payment of a debt when offered (or “tendered”). It is recognised by law as valid for the purpose of meeting financial obligations. In other words, a creditor is legally bound to accept legal tender as payment for a debt.
  • In India, for example, Coins and banknotes issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Government of India are considered legal tender. Other forms of money, such as cheques, drafts, or bills of exchange, are not legal tender. A creditor may refuse to accept these forms of payment.
Answer: (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims; Difficulty Level: Easy

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

  1. The opportunity cost is zero.
  2. The opportunity cost is ignored.
  3. The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
  4. The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Opportunity cost refers to the cost of the next best alternative foregone when a choice is made.
  • Even when the government provides a commodity “free” to the public, there is still a cost involved, but it is not directly borne by the consumers of the product. Instead, it is covered through public funds, which are collected from taxpayers. In such a scenario, the opportunity cost is transferred from the direct consumers of the product to the tax-paying public, as the government uses tax revenue to cover the costs of providing the commodity.
  • Example: Consider a government providing free healthcare to its citizens. For individuals receiving healthcare services, it may seem there is no direct cost. However, the cost of providing healthcare (e.g., hospitals, staff salaries, medical supplies) is funded by public taxes. Thus, the opportunity cost of the resources used in healthcare is borne by taxpayers rather than the direct beneficiaries of the service. Taxpayers could have spent their money elsewhere, but the government instead uses it to provide these services. Hence, the cost of the resources (the opportunity cost) is transferred from the consumers of the free healthcare to the tax-paying public.

Infographic explaining opportunity cost with two food icons: a burger and a hot dog. It illustrates that choosing to buy a $6 burger means losing the option to buy a hot dog due to spent money.

Image Source: Checkpointnews

Answer: (c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public; Difficulty Level: Medium

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

  1. Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
  2. Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
  3. Poverty and unemployment increase.
  4. Imports grow faster than exports.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • An increase in absolute and per capita real GNP (Gross National Product) means that the total output of goods and services produced by a country, as well as the output per person, is rising. However, this alone does not necessarily indicate genuine economic development if it is accompanied by increasing levels of poverty and unemployment. Economic development is not just about the growth of output but also about improving the quality of life, reducing poverty, creating jobs, and ensuring that the benefits of growth are distributed equitably.
  • Example: Imagine a country where GNP and per capita GNP are increasing due to significant growth in sectors like manufacturing or services. However, if this growth is unevenly distributed, with certain groups or regions benefiting disproportionately, and large parts of the population are left behind, it won’t lead to real economic development. For instance, if most of the wealth is concentrated among the top 10% of the population while the rest face increasing poverty and unemployment, it implies a failure of inclusive development. In such a case, while the country may show impressive GNP figures, the underlying social issues, such as rising poverty and joblessness, would negate the progress toward genuine economic development.
Answer: (c) Poverty and unemployment increase; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

  1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
  2. Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
  3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.
  4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Human capital formation refers to the process of enhancing the productive capacity of individuals by improving their knowledge, skills, health, and abilities. It focuses on the accumulation of intangible wealth rather than tangible assets. Increasing people’s knowledge, skills, and capacities reflects human capital formation and is also associated with the accumulation of intangible wealth. In contrast, the accumulation of capital by individuals and the accumulation of tangible wealth relate to physical or financial capital formation rather than to human capital formation.
Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Despite being a high-saving economy, capital formation may not result in a significant increase in output due to

  1. Weak administrative machinery
  2. Illiteracy
  3. High population density
  4. High capital-output ratio

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Even in a high-saving economy, capital formation (the process of building up the stock of physical capital, such as machinery, tools, factories, and infrastructure) may not lead to a significant increase in output if the capital-output ratio is high. The capital-output ratio (COR) refers to the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output. A high capital-output ratio means that a significant amount of capital is needed to produce each unit of output. This can be due to economic inefficiencies, outdated technology, poor management, or underutilised resources. As a result, even with high levels of investment, the actual increase in production may be limited.
  • Example: Suppose a country invests in building several new factories (capital formation). However, if the factories are run inefficiently, use outdated machinery, or are poorly maintained, they will require a large amount of capital to produce only a small increase in output. This reflects a high capital-output ratio.
  • Other Options: Weak administrative machinery, illiteracy, and high population density affect economic factors but do not directly explain why capital formation doesn’t increase output efficiently as a high capital-output ratio does.
Answer: (d) High capital-output ratio; Difficulty Level: Medium

After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

  1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
  2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Santhal Hool (1855-56) was a rebellion against British colonial rule, sparked by the encroachment of zamindars and moneylenders on Santhal land in the Rajmahal hills. Led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, the Santhals declared their intention to reclaim their territory, claiming divine inspiration for their fight.
  • The uprising was ruthlessly suppressed by British forces using superior arms. This conflict symbolised the struggle of the Santhals against oppression and exploitation.
  • Aftermath of the Revolt: The Santhal rebellion forced the government to change its policy towards them.
    1. Around 5500 sq. miles of the area was carved out from the Bhagalpur and Birbhum districts, which came to be known as “Santhal Parganas“. The British hoped that by creating a new territory for the Santhals and imposing some special laws within it, the Santhals could be conciliated.
Statement 2 is correct
  1. The government enacted the Santhal Pargana Tenancy Act in 1876 to protect the tribals against exploitation. The Act prohibits the sale of Adivasi land to non-Adivasis in the Santhal Pargana region.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

  1. increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
  2. growth in the number of Indian owned factories
  3. commercialization of Indian agriculture
  4. rapid increase in the urban population

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The East India Company (EIC), originally focused on exporting Indian textiles, shifted to exporting agricultural products due to competition with British cotton mills (which could not compete with British products and might serve as raw materials for British industry). They capitalised on trade by promoting commercial crops like indigo, cotton, raw silk, opium, pepper, tobacco, and, in the 19th century, tea and sugar. This commercialisation impoverished Indian farmers, as profits flowed to moneylenders and merchants instead. It also destabilised agriculture by exposing cultivators to international market fluctuations, leading to suffering during price drops, as seen in the late 1860s when falling cotton prices contributed to the Deccan riots.

A circular infographic illustrates the economic impact of British rule with seven labeled segments, each featuring an icon and description. Key points include limited growth of modern industries, commercialization of agriculture, poverty and famine, ruin of old zamindars and rise of new landlordism, stagnation of agriculture, impoverishment of peasantry, and ruin of artisans and craftsmen.

Answer: (c) commercialisation of Indian agriculture; Difficulty Level: Easy

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then

  1. The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
  2. The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament
  3. Article 19 is suspended in that state
  4. The President can make laws relating to that State

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Article 356: If the President, on receiving a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise (suo motu), is satisfied that the governance of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution, the President may issue a Proclamation:
    • Assuming to himself all or any functions of the State Government and the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or any authority in the State, except those of the State Legislature;
    • Declaring that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by or under the authority of Parliament;
    • Making incidental and consequential provisions necessary to give effect to the Proclamation, including suspending, in whole or in part, the operation of any constitutional provisions relating to any authority in the State.
  • However, the President cannot assume the powers of a High Court or suspend any constitutional provision relating to High Courts.

Infographic explaining President's Rule in India, detailing constitutional basis, parliamentary approval, consequences, and key statistics. Features sections with labeled articles, approval requirements, legislative effects, and a timeline highlighting Punjab as the first state affected and total impositions since 1951, using icons, color-coded boxes, and a visual of the Parliament building.

Answer: (b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Craft Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Puthukkuli shawls are crafted by the Toda tribe of the Nilgiri Hills in Tamil Nadu.
    • Toda tribe is Listed as a Particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG).
    • In 2013, the art of Toda embroidery, known as ‘pukhoor received a Geographical Indication certificate.
  • Locally known as Pugur, which means ‘flower’.
  • The embroidery is done on fine shawls, showcasing the tribe’s traditional artistry.

Photograph showcasing Puthukkuli shawl fabric with intricate red, black, and white embroidered patterns, alongside traditional wooden embroidery tools. Text explains Puthukkuli shawls are crafted by Todas of Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu, featuring flower-like embroidery on white cotton, with both fabric sides usable and culturally significant to Toda people.

Image Source: ICCR

Pair 2 is incorrect
  • Sujni embroidery is popularly known as Nakshi Lantha, and this form of traditional embroidery is widely popular for its intricate thread work, vibrant designs and motifs that depict stories.
  • The GI tag of ‘Sujani embroidery of Bihar’ was approved in 2006.
  • This particular art form finds its genesis in the village of Bhasura in Bihar and it has been practised in this region for centuries.

Sujni embroidery is popularly known as Nakshi Lantha, and this form of traditional embroidery is wide-ly popular for its intricate thread work, vibrant designs and motifs that depict stories.

Image Source: Pinterest

Pair 3 is incorrect
  • These silk saris originate from Uppada in Andhra Pradesh.
  • The jamdani weaving technique creates motifs that appear identical on both sides of the sari.
  • Uppada sarees received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the jamdani technique in 2009.

Text-based educational graphic explaining Jamdani, a traditional handloom saree weaving technique from Bengal. It highlights Jamdani's use of geometrical patterns with tiny dots or motifs woven by hand, emphasizing the labor-intensive process and high skill involved, alongside a close-up photo of a red and green patterned saree.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

  1. Mobile phone operations
  2. Banking operations
  3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • GPS (Global Positioning System) is a satellite-based navigation system that provides accurate location, time, and velocity data anywhere on Earth. Here’s how it works and where it’s used:
  • Functionality: GPS relies on a network of satellites orbiting the Earth. At any given time, a GPS receiver (like the one in your phone) connects with multiple satellites to calculate its exact position. The system measures the time it takes for signals to travel from satellites to the receiver, determining distance and location.
  • Key Uses:
    • Mobile phone operations: GPS helps with navigation, location-based services, and emergency assistance.
    • Banking operations: It provides precise time stamps for financial transactions to prevent fraud and ensure accurate data logging.
    • Controlling power grids: Applying GPS positioning and navigation technology to power systems， realise precise navigation of power equipment, improve power system automation of routine works, and enhance working efficiency.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
  2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
  3. Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities as well as State Government Securities. In terms of Sec. 21A (1) (b) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the RBI may, by agreement with any State Government undertake the management of the public debt of that State.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Central Government issues both treasury bills and bonds or dated securities, while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called State Development Loans (SDLs).
Statement 3 is correct
  • Treasury bills (T-bills) are short- term debt instruments with tenures of 91 days, 182 days and 364 days. These are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India. These bills come with a sovereign guarantee from the government.
  • “Treasury bills are also called zero-coupon bonds because there is no explicit rate of interest mentioned for these bonds. Instead, the investors can buy T-bills at a discount to the face value. At maturity, the investor receives the T-bill’s par (face) value, thereby earning the difference.
  • For instance, someone buys a 91-day T-bill with a face value of Rs 100 at the discounted price of Rs 98. At the time of maturity, the person earns Rs 2 as profit on a treasury bill with a par(face) value of Rs 100. Rs 2 would be the yield/return earned by the individual on the treasury bill.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
  2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
  3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • A geomagnetic reversal or a reversal in earth’s magnetic field is a change in a planet’s magnetic field such that the positions of magnetic north and magnetic south are interchanged. Based on palaeomagnetism (magnetism in rocks that was induced by the earth’s magnetic field at the time of their formation), it is observed that over the last 20 million years, magnetic north and south have flipped roughly every 200,000 to 300,000 years. The reversal is not literally ‘periodic’ as it is on the sun, whose magnetic field reverses every 11 years.
  • The time between magnetic reversals on the Earth is sometimes as short as 10,000 years and sometimes as long as 25 million years. And the time it takes to reverse could be about a few hundred or a few thousand years.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Geologists believe that most of the carbon on the young, hot Earth, >4000 Mya, was in the form of gaseous carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and methane. With time, the CO and CH4 reacted with oxide minerals and were transformed into CO2. These reactions did not change the total amount of carbon in the atmosphere. Oxygen did not begin to accumulate in the atmosphere until 2400-2100 Myr ago – a time interval called the “Great Oxidation Event“.
Statement 3 is correct
  • The origin of life, especially photosynthetic organisms, played a crucial role in altering the Earth’s early atmosphere, notably increasing oxygen levels.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
  1. Exoplanets
  2. Crypto currency
  3. Cyber attacks
  4. Mini satellites

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • WannaCry and Petya are ransomware attacks that targeted computer systems worldwide, encrypting data and demanding payment for decryption. Eternal Blue is a vulnerability in Microsoft’s software that was exploited in these cyber attacks. It played a key role in the spread of WannaCry and Petya ransomware.

Infographic categorizes eight types of malware with brief descriptions, examples, and key characteristics, using color-coded boxes and icons for each type. Notable details include virus replication, ransomware encryption and ransom demand, spyware monitoring user activity, and botnets controlling infected computers remotely.

Answer: (c) Cyber-attacks; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance” Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

  1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
  2. Adopting minimum tillage
  3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
  4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
  5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 2, 3, 4 and 5
  3. 2, 4 and 5
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 5

Explanation

Statements 2, 4 and 5 are correct
  • Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that can prevent losses of arable land while regenerating degraded lands. It promotes maintenance of a permanent soil cover, minimum soil disturbance, and diversification of plant species.
  • Three principles of Conservation Agriculture:
    • Minimum mechanical soil disturbance
    • Permanent soil organic cover
    • Species diversification
  • Adopting Minimum Tillage: Minimum tillage involves reducing the amount of soil disturbance during planting and growing seasons.
  • Benefits: Preserves soil structure, which is crucial for water retention and root development.
    • Reduces erosion by keeping the soil surface intact.
    • Enhances microbial activity and maintains organic matter levels in the soil.
  • Using Crop Residues to Cover Soil Surface: This practice involves leaving leftover plant material (crop residues) on the field after harvest.
  • Benefits: Protects the soil from erosion by wind and water.
    • Helps retain soil moisture and temperature, creating a favourable environment for soil organisms.
    • Adds organic matter to the soil as the residues decompose, improving soil fertility.
  • Adopting Spatial and Temporal Crop Sequencing/Crop Rotations: Crop rotation involves alternating different types of crops in the same field across seasons or years, while spatial sequencing refers to the arrangement of different crops in a specific pattern.
  • Benefits: Reduces pest and disease cycles, as different crops may not support the same pests.
    • Enhances soil fertility through the inclusion of legumes, which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect
  • Avoiding monoculture practices: This does not directly fall under Conservation Agriculture. Monoculture refers to the cultivation of a single crop over a wide area.
  • Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops: This is not a component of Conservation Agriculture. Plantation crops such as tea, coffee, and rubber can also be cultivated using conservation agriculture practices.
Answer: (c) 2, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Easy

The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

  1. Widespread monoculture Practices agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
  2. Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
  3. Large-scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other Parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
  4. Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss, natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • A mass extinction is a short period of geological time in which a high percentage of biodiversity, or distinct species—bacteria, fungi, plants, mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish, invertebrates—dies out. In this definition, it’s important to note that, in geological time, a ‘short’ period can span thousands or even millions of years.
  • The planet has experienced five previous mass extinction events. Experts now believe we’re in the midst of a sixth mass extinction. Unlike previous extinction events caused by natural phenomena, the sixth mass extinction is driven by human activity, primarily (though not limited to) the unsustainable use of land, water and energy use, and climate change.

A colorful infographic chart from National Geographic illustrating six major mass extinctions over geologic time, highlighting extinction events from the Ordovician-Silurian (440 million years ago) to the Holocene (11,700 years ago to present). The chart uses distinct colors and labeled boxes to detail each extinction's timeline, causes, and impacts on species diversity, with a timeline axis at the bottom and a graph showing the number of genera over time.

Image Source: Natgeo

Answer: (d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss, natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

  1. IRNSS has three Satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
  2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
  3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • NavIC, also known as the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is an independent, stand-alone navigation satellite system developed by ISRO. It has been in operation since 2018.
  • It was designed as a constellation of 7 satellites located at 36,000 km (approx.) above the Earth.
    • 4 satellites are in inclined (29° to the equatorial plane) Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO).
    • 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO).
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • It covers India and a region up to 1500 km beyond Indian boundaries.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • IRNSS is a regional navigation system, not a global one.

Infographic detailing NAVIC, India's regional navigation satellite system operational since 2018, covering India and a 1500 km region beyond its borders with seven satellites positioned about 36,000 km above Earth. It compares NAVIC with global systems like GPS and Galileo, highlights two service types (Standard and Restricted), and outlines benefits such as reduced dependence on foreign systems and enhanced navigation for various applications.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following phenomena:

  1. Light is affected by gravity.
  2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
  3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in the media?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • General relativity predicted many phenomena years before they were observed, including black holes, gravitational waves, gravitational lensing, the expansion of the universe, and the different rates clocks run in a gravitational field. The theory explains that light bends around massive objects due to the curvature of spacetime, a phenomenon known as gravitational lensing. This effect has been observed and confirmed in various astronomical studies.

Diagram illustrating gravitational lensing, showing how light from a distant galaxy is bent by a galaxy cluster's gravity before reaching Earth. Key elements include white lines representing original light paths, orange lines for distorted light rays creating lensed galaxy images, and labeled points for galaxy, galaxy cluster, and Earth.

Image Source: NASA (A diagram showing how the curvature of spacetime leads to gravitational lensing)

Statement 2 is correct
  • The idea that the universe had a beginning was first suggested by the general theory of relativity. Einstein’s equations, which describe the structure of space and time, suggested that the universe should not be static, but that it ought to be expanding.
Statement 3 is correct
  • This is a fundamental aspect of general relativity. The theory posits that mass and energy can curve spacetime, influencing the motion of objects within that curved space.

A digital illustration depicting a gravitational field as a green grid warped by a large yellow sun, with a smaller Earth positioned near the distortion. The visualization demonstrates how massive objects curve spacetime, influencing the motion of nearby bodies.

Image Source: Caltech (In Einstein’s view of the world, gravity is the curvature of spacetime caused by massive objects.)

Answer: (d) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

  1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
  2. GM mustard has the genes that allow plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
  3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

Diagram explaining creation of Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 using barnase/barstar male sterility technique from 1990s Belgium breeding innovation. It shows pollen-free female parent with sterile anther and ablated tapetum, pollen-producing male parent with fertile anther and intact RNA, and resulting F1 hybrid with barstar/barnase complex restoring fertility.

Statement 2 is correct
  • The GM mustard has been developed specifically to allow cross-pollination and hybridization, overcoming the self-pollinating nature of mustard flowers (flowers contain both male and female organs). This is achieved through the use of the barnase-barstar gene system, which enables hybridization and the development of high-yielding mustard varieties.

Additional Information

  • Barnase-barstar system is a genetic engineering approach used in plants, particularly in crops like mustard, to achieve controlled male sterility and facilitate hybrid seed production.
  • The technology utilises three genes derived from the soil bacterium Bacillus amyloliquefaciens (bar, barnase and barstar).
    • In nature, bacteria excrete a defence protein called Barnase (ribonuclease), degrading competing bacteria’s RNA in an ecological niche.
    • To protect itself from Barnase, the bacterium produces another protein called Barstar, which tightly binds with Barnase and renders it ineffective.
  • The insertion of the Barnase gene in the mustard plant induces genetic male sterility by preventing the production of the male gametophytes (pollen grains). Meanwhile, the Barstar gene restores the plant’s ability to produce fertile hybrid seeds.
  • The Bar gene is responsible for the Glufosinate (herbicide) resistance.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The transgenic mustard hybrid DMH-11 has been developed by the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP) at Delhi University.

Flowchart illustrating genetically modified crop approval process in India, detailing roles of key committees like IBSC, RCGM, GEAC, and MEC under various ministries. Color-coded boxes and arrows show sequential steps from data review and safety analysis to state government permission and commercial release, highlighting legal frameworks such as PPV & FR Act 2001 and Seeds Act 1966.

Additional Information

  • In 2004, India allowed commercial cultivation of GM cotton (non-edible), which now accounts for more than 90% of the nation’s harvest.
  • In 2010, GM eggplant (brinjal) also cleared GEAC’s review, but an indefinite moratorium was placed on its introduction, citing safety concerns.
  • Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 (DMH-11) will be the second GM plant, and the first Indigenously developed GM food crop to reach India’s farmers (if approved).
    • In a split verdict, the Supreme Court July 23, 2024 ruled against approval of the commercial sale and release of genetically modified mustard in India at present (Gene Campaign vs Union of India and Others case).
    • The matter has since been placed before the Chief Justice of India to send it to a larger bench.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes seen in news Context / Topic
1.Belle II experiment Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology Digital Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR Cas9 Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect
  • The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment conducted at the SuperKEKB accelerator in Tsukuba, Japan. This experiment was designed to study violations of the Standard Model and dark matter. Indian scientists have played a key role in the construction of the highly sensitive silicon vertex detector used in the experiment.
Pair 2 is correct
  • Blockchain technology, while originally developed for digital cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, has evolved into a versatile technology with applications far beyond just financial transactions. It is a decentralised digital ledger that records data securely, transparently, and tamper-proof. Each transaction or piece of information is stored in a block, and blocks are linked together to form a chain, ensuring that any change in one block affects the entire chain, making it nearly impossible to alter data without detection.

    Diagram comparing Centralised, Decentralised, and Distributed Network structures illustrates differences in node connectivity and control. Centralised Network shows all nodes linked to a single authority with pros like easy deployment and cons like single point of failure; Decentralised Network features multiple authorities controlling nodes with better performance and privacy risks; Distributed Network depicts fully interconnected independent nodes, highlighting fault tolerance and scalability but increased deployment difficulty.

Pair 3 is incorrect
  • This is a gene-editing technology, not related to particle physics. It allows the modification, addition, or removal of specific DNA sequences, changing genome portions.
  • The CRISPR-Cas9 system consists of two key molecules that introduce a change in the DNA. These are
    • Cas9 enzyme: acts as a pair of ‘molecular scissors’ that can cut the two strands of DNA at a specific location in the genome so that bits of DNA can be added or removed.
    • Guide RNA (gRNA): A piece of pre-designed RNA sequence located within a longer RNA scaffold.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilisation”?

  1. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
  2. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
  3. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
  4. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct
  • Plants use sunlight, carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and water for photosynthesis to produce oxygen and carbohydrates that plants use for energy and growth. Rising levels of CO2 in the atmosphere drive an increase in plant photosynthesis—an effect known as the carbon fertilisation effect.
  • New research has found that between 1982 and 2020, global plant photosynthesis grew 12 percent, tracking CO2 levels in the atmosphere as they rose 17 percent.
Answer: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere; Difficulty Level: Medium

When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When You step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to the office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

  1. Border Gateway Protocol
  2. Internet of Things
  3. Internet Protocol
  4. Virtual Private Network

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Internet of Things (IoT) is a network of interconnected devices that communicate and exchange data with each other and the cloud, facilitating automated processes without human intervention. It includes a wide range of devices, from everyday household items to complex industrial machinery, all equipped with sensors and software to collect and share data. IoT has diverse applications across various industries, such as healthcare, where wearable devices monitor health metrics; agriculture, where smart sensors optimise resource use; automotive, where vehicles with sensors provide maintenance alerts; and smart homes, where connected devices manage energy consumption and enhance security.

Infographic explaining Internet of Things (IoT) concepts, including definitions, examples, growth trends, and the need for faster internet speeds. It features colorful icons representing devices, a timeline graph showing IoT growth from 2020 to 2025, and a speedometer graphic illustrating internet speed requirements.

Image Source: Phoneixinternet

Answer: (b) Internet of Things; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

  1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
  2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Silicon wafer is a material used for producing semiconductors, which can be found in all types of electronic devices. India largely depends on imports from other countries for raw silicon and silicon wafers.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Solar power tariffs in India are governed by the Electricity Act, 2003. At the central level, the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) regulates tariffs for inter-state and centrally owned projects, while SERCs handle intra-state projects at the state level. For most utility-scale projects, tariffs are not fixed administratively but are discovered through tariff-based competitive bidding under Section 63 of the Act, where agencies like SECI and NTPC conduct e-reverse auctions and award projects to the lowest bidders. CERC then validates the process and formally adopts the tariff. The Ministry of Power and MNRE provide the policy guidelines that govern how these bids are structured
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

  1. Raw cotton, oil seeds and opium
  2. Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
  3. Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
  4. Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • In the mid-18th century, the goods exported by the East India Company from Bengal—such as spices, cotton textiles, silk, saltpetre, tea, and opium—were traded in vast quantities.
Answer: (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

  1. Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
  2. Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
  3. Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
  4. Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • India’s first civil disobedience movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar. It is widely regarded as the place where Gandhi first experimented with satyagraha and later replicated it elsewhere.
  • It aimed at addressing the grievances of indigo farmers in Bihar. This movement successfully highlighted the plight of peasants and connected their unrest to the broader National Movement for independence, making it a pivotal moment in mobilising agricultural communities and fostering widespread political activism against colonial policies.
Answer: (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948

  1. Krislum Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
  2. Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
  3. P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and VeeresalingamPantulu
  4. Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was founded in Calcutta during the trade union conference in December 1948 by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. The HMS Founding Conference elected R.S. Ruikar as the first President, Ashok Mehta as the General Secretary, and G.G. Mehta and V.S. Mathur as Secretaries. Ms Maniben Kara and T.S. Ramanujam were elected as Vice-Presidents. The members of the Working Committee included veteran leaders such as Jayaprakash Narayan, V.G. Dalvi, and Ms Aruna Asaf Ali.

Additional Information

Trade Union Year
All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) 1920
Indian Trade Union Federation (ITUF) 1929
Red Trade Union Congress 1931
Red Trade Union Congress merged with AITUC 1935
ITUF merged with the AITUC 1939
Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) 1947
Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) 1948
United Trade Union Congress (UTUC) 1949
Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) 1955
Centre for Indian Trade Unions (CITU) 1970
Answer: (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

  1. Buddhism
  2. Jainism
  3. Vaishnavism
  4. Shaivism

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Sthanakavasi is a sect of Svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji around 1653. The sect is a reformation of the teachings of Lonka, a Jain reformer from the fifteenth century
  • Beliefs: Sthanakavasis believe that the soul is nirakar (formless) and do not pray to any statues or images.
  • Acceptance of Agamas: Sthanakavasis accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, which are part of the Śvētāmbara canon.
  • Comparison with Other Sects: The Śvētāmbarins who are not Sthanakavasis primarily belong to the Murtipujaka sect, which practices idol worship.
  • The Sthanakwasis are also called by terms as: Dhundhiya (searchers); or Sadhumargi (followers of Sadhus, i.e., ascetics).

Diagram comparing Digambara and Svetambara schools of Jainism, outlining key beliefs and notable exponents. It includes sub-sects for each school, with Digambara divided into major and minor sub-sects, and Svetambara listing three sub-sects, accompanied by a silhouette of a meditating figure and decorative elements.

Answer: (b) Jainism; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
  2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza in Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Akbar built Fatehpur Sikri (city of victory) near Agra, and a palace-cum-fort complex in it. Many buildings in Gujarati and Bengali styles are found in this complex. The most magnificent building in it is the Jama Masjid and the gateway to it called Buland Darwaza (the Lofty Gate). Other important buildings at Fatehpur Sikri are Jodha Bai’s palace, the Panch Mahal with five storeys built in the plan of a Buddhist Vihara, the Diwani-Khas, the Diwan-i-Aam, and Sheikh Salim Chisti’s tomb.
  • The Buland Darwaza (With 42 steps leading up to it, this 53.63-m-high and 35-m-wide gateway is the highest in the world) was built (completed in 1575) to commemorate Akbar’s victory over Gujarat.
    • It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: mainly red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble, etc
    • It is constructed in red and yellow sandstone with white marble inlay outlining the span of the arches.
    • The design of the Buland Darwaza was influenced by Timurid architecture, and like Humayun’s Tomb, its grand scale reflects its Central Asian roots
    • Although some structures feature decorative white marble inlay, red sandstone remains the primary construction material.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Asaf-ud-Daula (1775 to 1797), relocated the capital from Faizabad to Lucknow. His era was marked by a severe famine that led to a significant economic crisis. The Imam-Bara & the Rumi-Gate were constructed as a famine relief measure in 1784. Consciously designed by its architect Kifayatullah, the 164 feet long and 52 feet wide building is constructed in brick with high quality limestone (not red sandstone and marble). The arched roof of the Imam-Bara, which is built without a single beam, is the largest of its kind in the world. Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat wall
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

  1. Francois Bernier
  2. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
  3. Jean de Thevenot
  4. Abbe Barthel Carre

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (jeweller by profession) was the French traveller of the seventeenth century. He attended court in Agra during the reigns of Shah Jahan (r. 1628–58) as well as Aurangzeb (r. 1658-1707), and is believed to have been granted an audience with both emperors. He had made seven trips to the east, out of which he came to India six times. He elaborately discussed diamonds and the diamond mines of India in his works. He travelled extensively across India to places like Surat, Burhanpur, Agra, Dhaka, Goa, and Golconda, where he explored diamond mines.
  • His travel account, Nouvelle Relation du Searcilda Grand Signior (1675), and The Six Voyages (1676) became popular and were translated into multiple languages. His descriptions include insights into Mughal administration, courts, octroi houses, and interactions with foreign powers such as the Dutch.

A timeline infographic titled "Foreign Accounts of India: Insights from Travelers" categorizes notable travelers into Ancient, Medieval, and Colonial periods, detailing their origins, visit dates, and contributions to Indian history and culture. Color-coded sections highlight key figures like Megasthenes, Marco Polo, and Thomas Roe, with brief descriptions of their observations on trade, governance, and society, emphasizing significant historical interactions with India.

Option (a) is incorrect
  • François Bernier was a French physician, traveller, political philosopher and historian. He was in India for twelve years, from 1656 to 1668. He was closely associated with the Mughal court as a physician to Prince Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan. After Dara Shikoh’s demise, he was attached to the court of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. He wrote Travels in the Mughal Empire, which is mainly about the reigns of Dara Shikoh and Aurangzeb. He criticized the lack of scientific academies and Indian interest in Western science.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Jean de Thévenot (1633–1677) was a French traveller, linguist, and naturalist. His travelogue documented his journeys across the Ottoman Empire, the Aegean Sea islands, Egypt, Palestine, and India. He arrived in India in 1666 and spent thirteen months.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Abbé Barthélemy Carré was a French traveller and priest who embarked on a journey to the East during the 17th century. The Travels of Abbe Carré documents Carré’s journey through India and surrounding regions between 1672 and 1674.
Answer: (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

  1. Avalokiteshvara
  2. Lokesvara
  3. Maitreya
  4. Padmapani

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • A Bodhisattva is one who has generated Bodhicitta—the spontaneous wish and compassionate resolve to attain Buddhahood for the benefit of all sentient beings. The concept is associated with Mahayana Buddhism and emphasizes the ideal of universal liberation.
  • Prominent Bodhisattvas in Buddhism include:
    • Maitreya: Regarded as the future Buddha who will appear on Earth, attain complete enlightenment, and propagate the pure Dharma. The Laughing Buddha is often believed to be an incarnation of Maitreya.
Option (a), (b) and (d) is incorrect
  • Avalokitesvara: He is one of the three protective deities surrounding the Buddha and is associated with compassion, often referred to as the “listener of the world’s cries.” He is usually depicted holding a lotus flower and is also known as Padmapani. His representations are found in the Ajanta Caves, and he is considered the most revered among Bodhisattvas. Avalokitesvara also appears in Theravada traditions of Cambodia under the name Lokesvara. In some depictions, he appears in female form and is believed to incarnate in His Holiness the Dalai Lama.
  • Manjusri: One of the three protective deities around the Buddha and depicted in the Ajanta Caves. Associated with wisdom and typically portrayed as a male Bodhisattva, wielding a sword symbolising knowledge.
  • Vajrapani: One of the three protective deities around the Buddha and represented in Ajanta Caves. Embodies the power of the Buddha and is believed to manifest the strength of the five Tathagatas—Vairocana, Akshobhya, Amitabha, Ratnasambhava, and Amoghasiddhi.
  • Tara: Primarily associated with Vajrayana Buddhism. Represents virtues such as success in work, protection, and achievements.
  • Samantabhadra: Associated with practice, meditation, and virtuous conduct. Along with the Buddha and Manjusri, he forms the Shakyamuni trinity in Buddhism.
Answer: (c) Maitreya; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

  1. To maintain a large standing army at others expense
  2. To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
  3. To secure a fixed income for the Company
  4. To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

Explanation

Statement (c) does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance
  • The primary objective was to establish military and political dominance rather than ensuring a stable revenue for the Company.
  • Though the Subsidiary Alliance system was quite old, Wellesley gave it a definite shape. Under the system, the ruler of the allied Indian state was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. The ruler, unable to pay the expenses, had to cede a part of his kingdom to the British. The British agreed to defend the ruler from his enemies. They also controlled the defence and foreign relations of the protected ally.
  • In return, the Indian ruler of the protected state should keep a British Resident at his court and disband his own army.
    • Indian rulers should not employ Europeans in their service without the approval of the British.
    • Indian rulers should not negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the Governor General.
  • The System of Subsidiary Alliance was also aimed to prevent French influence (Napoleonic threat) from entering India.
  • This system enabled the British to uphold a substantial army, with the financial burden falling on the local rulers (it helped British to have paramountcy over the Indian States), and was not implemented for securing a fixed income for the East India Company.
  • Hyderabad was the first state to sign the Treaty of Subsidiary Alliance. Later, the treaty was signed by Mysore, Awadh, Surat, Tanjore, Carnatic, Maratha, and other states
Answer: (c) To secure a fixed income for the Company; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

  1. Charter Act of 1813
  2. General Committee of Public Instruction 1823
  3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option 1 is correct
  • The Charter Act of 1813 marked the real beginning of Western education in India.
    • It required the Governor-General in Council to allocate at least one lakh rupees annually for education. This was the first time the Company acknowledged state responsibility for promoting education in India. Despite the parliamentary sanction, the money remained unspent.
    • It permitted missionaries to conduct religious and educational activities.
    • The Charter Act of 1813 enacted a provision of Rupees one lakh annually “for the revival and improvement of literature and the introduction and promotion of knowledge of the sciences.”
Option 3 is correct
  • The Charter Act of 1813 defined the educational policy but did not make any reference to the medium of instruction or the type of educational institutions to be established. Hence, for years, opinions were sharply divided over whether the company should promote Western or Oriental learning. Orientalists advocated the promotion of Sanskrit and Arabic literature. They argued that while Western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students for jobs, emphasis should also be placed on expanding traditional Indian learning. In the initial stage, the company officials patronised oriental learning. Anglicists advocated the spread of Western knowledge through English.
Option 2 is correct
  • In 1823, a General Committee of Public Instruction was established to oversee the development of education in India. Most of the committee’s members belonged to the Orientalist group and advocated promoting oriental learning. However, different sections in England and India pressured the Company to encourage Western education. Macaulay, the President of the General Committee of Public Instruction, and Lord Bentinck, the Governor-General, took the side of the Anglicists and decided to promote European literature and science.

A triangular infographic illustrates key milestones in education development under British rule, highlighting Charter Act of 1813, Lord Macaulay’s Minute (1835), and Wood’s Educational Despatch (1854). Each section includes icons and text emphasizing funding, promotion of English literature and science, and government responsibility for mass and women’s education.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

  1. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
  2. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
  3. Nainital (Uttarakhand)
  4. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Kodaikanal Hills, known as the “Princess of Hill Stations” and a “Sky Island,” are facing degradation due to rampant tourism. Situated at an elevation of 2,225 meters, this plateau is home to the man-made Kodaikanal Lake, a central attraction for visitors.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Kolleru is a naturally eutrophic (nutrient-rich) lake between the Godavari and the Krishna river basins. It was previously a lagoon, but now it is several kilometres inland due to the coastline of emergence and delta formation. Two seasonal rivers directly feed it. It sustains both culture and capture fisheries, agriculture and related occupations.
  • Threats: paddy cultivation, overexploitation, flooding in monsoon season, etc.
  • Endangered Fauna: Grey Pelican/Spot-Billed Pelican (NT).
  • It is an important wetland under the Ramsar Convention.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Nainital natural lake was formed due to tectonic movements. A natural depression was formed because of those movements and fresh streams from the nearby mountains and hills formed the present-day Naini Lake.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Renuka is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations.
Answer: (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu); Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
  3. It aims to align the competencies of the un-regulated workforce of the country, to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) implemented by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
Statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is correct
  • It seeks to offer skill training, re-skilling, and up-skilling opportunities for Indian youth, preparing them for jobs and ensuring their skills align with the changing needs of the industry.
  • Key components of the scheme:
    • Short Term Training (STT): This component offers NSQF-aligned training at PMKVY Training Centres for school/college dropouts and unemployed individuals, equipping them with industry-relevant skills, soft skills, and entrepreneurship, financial, and digital literacy training. Successful candidates receive placement assistance.
    • Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL): RPL is for individuals with existing skills or experience in unregulated sectors, allowing them to obtain certification for their skills and access better livelihood opportunities.
    • Special Projects: This component provides training in specialized areas or locations of government bodies, corporations, or industries. It addresses unique job roles not covered by existing Qualification Packs or National Occupational Standards, allowing flexibility in training design and implementation.

Infographic detailing Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), a skill development scheme launched in 2015 by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship to enhance employability of unemployed youth and school dropouts. It highlights key components including short-term training, recognition of prior learning, and special projects, with visuals of workers and icons representing various skills and training sectors.

Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

  1. All India Home Rule League
  2. Hindu Mahasabha
  3. South Indian Liberal Federation
  4. The Servants of Indian Society

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • In 1920, Gandhi joined the All India Home Rule League and became its President. He changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha“. The league later merged with the Congress Party.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Madan Mohan Malaviya founded the All India Hindu Mahasabha in 1915 as an umbrella organisation of regional Hindu Sabhas. It functioned mainly as a pressure group advocating the interests of orthodox Hindus before the British Raj and within the INC. Despite not favouring British rule, the Mahasabha did not actively support the nationalist movement. It didn’t join the Civil Disobedience movement in 1930 or the Quit India movement in 1942.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • South Indian Liberal Federation (SILF), commonly known as the Justice Party, was formed in 1916. This was the first organised political effort to challenge the Brahmins’ monopoly over power in the Madras Presidency. The SILF was led by Dr C Natesa Mudaliar, T. M. Nair, P Theagaraya Chetty, and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal.
  • After the Justice Party captured power in 1920, it started implementing its significant reforms, including the historic Communal Government Order (GO) of 1921, which was finally passed in 1928, that ensured proportional representation for all communities in government employment and education.
  • Another landmark legislation of the Justice Party was accepting the equality of women in deciding their political futures. In June 1921, the women of Madras were the first in India to win the right to vote.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • G. K. Gokhale formed the Servants of India Society on June 12, 1905, after leaving the Deccan Education Society in Pune. The Society was founded on the belief that if the masses were to be liberated, there should be a band of selfless and intelligent workers who would dedicate their lives to serving the nation. Its volunteers were trained to be nationalist missionaries who took vows of renunciation, gave up all ideas of selfishness, pride, and fame, and dedicated themselves to their work and duty.
  • In 1911, Hitavada, the organ of the Society, was started in English from Nagpur. The Society’s base shrank after Gokhale died in 1915. However, it continues to operate with a small membership and has its headquarters in Pune, Maharashtra. Despite his deep respect for Gokhale, Gandhi rejected Gokhale’s idea that Western institutions could be used to achieve political reform. As a result, Gandhi did not join Gokhale’s Servants of India Society.
Answer: (a) All India Home Rule League; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which among the following events happened earliest?

  1. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj
  2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
  3. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
  4. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination

Explanation

Event (b) is correct
  • Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan (Mirror of Indigo), a Bengali play in 1860 that depicted the oppression of indigo farmers.
  • The play was translated into English by Michael Madhusudan Dutta.
Event (a) is incorrect
  • Swamy Dayanand Saraswati spearheaded social and religious reform in North India.
  • In 1875, he founded the Arya Samaj in Bombay to reform Hinduism. Later, its branches were established in different places, including Lahore, in 1877
Event (c) is incorrect
  • Anandmath (1882), a novel by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, is based on the Sanyasi Rebellion.
    • The Sanyasi Rebellion was a series of conflicts in the late 18th century between the English East India Company and a group of sannyasis and fakirs. Although the then Governor General Warren Hastings (1773-85) was able to control the Sanyasi raids, the uprisings continued until 1800
  • The song Vande Mataram was composed in Sanskrit by Bankimchandra Chatterji in his novel Anand Math. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee was referred to as “the sage of nationalism” by Aurobindo Ghosh for his brilliant compositions, such as Vande Mataram. Another important work of his is Devi Chaudhurani (1884). It was later translated into English by Subodh Chunder Mitter.
Event (d) is incorrect
  • The Indian Civil Service (ICS) was started in 1855 and the first batch joined in 1856. Initially, the ICS was an all-white affair, but the elder brother of Rabindranath Tagore, Satyendranath Tagore, became the first Indian to qualify for the ICS in 1863. Satyendranath was allotted Bombay Presidency Cadre and retired after more than 30 years of service.
Answer: (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

  1. Decreased salinity in the river
  2. Pollution of groundwater
  3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Consequence 1 is incorrect but Consequences 2 and 3 are correct
  • Heavy sand mining in riverbeds disturbs the natural river ecosystem and hydrogeological balance. It often leads to lowering of the water table due to excessive removal of sand, which reduces groundwater recharge capacity. It can also result in pollution of groundwater as deeper layers get exposed and contaminants seep in more easily. However, heavy sand mining does not decrease salinity; instead, it may increase salinity, especially in coastal areas due to seawater intrusion.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

  1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water-holding capacity.
  2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
  3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • A high content of organic matter (humus) in the soil increases its water-holding capacity. Organic matter causes soil particles to bind and form stable soil aggregates, which improves soil structure.
  • With better soil structure, water infiltration through the soil increases and improves the soil’s ability to absorb and hold water as well as reduces the potential for surface crusting of the soil.

Infographic from USDA-NRCS Soil Health Series explaining that every 1% increase in organic matter in healthy soil can hold up to 25,000 gallons of available water. The design features soil layers in brown and green with white and yellow text, including a rain cloud icon and a source citation from Kansas State Extension Agronomy.

Image Source: NRDC

Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The sulphur cycle is mostly sedimentary except for its two compounds, hydrogen sulphide (H2S) and sulphur dioxide (SO2). Sulphur is locked in organic (coal, oil, peat) and inorganic (pyrite rock, sulphur rock) soil deposits in the form of sulphates, sulphides, and organic sulphur. It is released by weathering of rocks, erosional runoff and decomposition of organic matter and is carried to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems in the salt solution
  • Steps in the Sulphur Cycle:
    • Sulphur enters the atmosphere as sulphur dioxide from sources like volcanic eruptions, combustion of fossil fuels (coal, diesel, etc.), from the surface of the ocean (Dimethyl Sulfide (DMS)) and gases released by decomposition.
    • Atmospheric hydrogen sulphide also gets oxidised into sulphur dioxide
    • Atmospheric sulphur dioxide is carried back to the earth as weak sulphuric acid (acid rain).
    • Whatever the source, sulphur in the form of sulphates is taken up by plants and incorporated through a series of metabolic processes into sulphur-bearing amino acids, which are incorporated in the proteins of autotroph tissues.
    • It then passes through the grazing food chain.
    • Sulphur bound in living organisms is carried back to the soil, to the bottom of ponds and lakes and seas through excretion and decomposition of dead organic material.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Excessive or improper irrigation can cause salinization of agricultural land. When irrigation water contains high levels of dissolved salts and drainage is inadequate, these salts gradually accumulate in the soil, resulting in soil salinization.
Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

  1. The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
  2. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
  3. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
  4. The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) is a UN initiative that emerged in 2012 at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro. The partnership brings together five United Nations agencies; UNEP, UNDP, ILO, UNIDO, and UNITAR, whose expertise and support assist and lead partner countries towards their transition to an Inclusive Green Economy (IGE) by providing policy advice, assessments, capacity building and analytical tools outputs.
  • It aims to create an enabling macroeconomic environment for achieving the global targets of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, Paris Climate Agreement and Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework with an integrated package of activities at country, regional and global levels.
  • PAGE promotes South-South and Triangular cooperation.
    • South-South cooperation involves development collaboration between developing countries in the Global South. When this cooperation includes support from a Northern partner, it is termed Triangular Cooperation.
    • South-South and Triangular Cooperation (SSTC) serves as a platform for governments, international organizations, academia, civil society, and the private sector to share knowledge, skills, and best practices in areas like decent work, lifelong learning, agricultural development, human rights, urbanization, health, climate change, social protection, and employment generation.
Answer: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro; Difficulty Level: Easy

“3D printing” has applications in which the following?

  1. Preparation of confectionery items
  2. Manufacture of bionic ears
  3. Automotive industry
  4. Reconstructive surgeries
  5. Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 5 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • 3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is the process of creating three-dimensional solid objects from a digital file. It is used across a wide range of industries and applications. In the food industry, it enables the creation of intricate and customized confectionery items such as chocolates, candies, and desserts. In the medical field, it has been used to develop customized bionic ears for individuals with hearing impairments and is also applied in reconstructive surgeries to produce patient-specific implants, prosthetics, and surgical guides. Additionally, the automotive industry uses 3D printing for rapid prototyping, manufacturing customized parts, and producing certain vehicle components. It is also employed in the production of specialized components used in data processing technologies, including computer hardware.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory.
  2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar
  3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 3

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct
  • Barren Island (the only active volcano in India) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands became active in the 1990s. It is a stratovolcano composed of lava, rock fragments, and volcanic ash, located around 140 km north-east of Port Blair is located on the east coast of the South Andaman Island, and is the capital of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, now renamed as Sri Vijaya Puram. It spewed lava and ash in 2017.
  • The other volcanic island in Indian territory is Narcondam, about 150 km northeast of Barren Island; it is probably extinct. Its crater wall has been destroyed.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

  1. Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
  2. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows
  3. Its extract is used in pesticides.
  4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Prosopis juliflora (or Ganda babool/Vilayati Kikar/karuvelam) is a small tree native to Mexico, South America and the Caribbean. It has become established as an invasive weed in Africa, Asia, Australia and elsewhere. The species is characterized by long roots that rapidly deplete water resources and its fast growth suppresses the development of native vegetation. Its dense growth also obstructs the movement of wild animals in forest areas. Additionally, it enhances the malaria parasite transmission capacity of Anopheles mosquitoes by providing them with sugar essential for their survival.
  • The species produces abundant seeds, possesses high regeneration capacity, and can withstand drought conditions even at the seedling stage. It is mainly found in states such as Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Delhi, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and Uttar Pradesh. Typically occurring in arid and semi-arid tropical regions, it grows predominantly in plains and valleys, although in some areas it can also be found at elevations of up to 1200 meters above mean sea level.
Answer: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
  2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
  3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The majority of reef-building corals are found within tropical and subtropical waters. Corals thrive in tropical waters (30°N to 30°S latitudes; temperature around 20°C) where diurnal and annual temperature ranges are very narrow. (Coral reefs are absent on the west coast of tropical continents because of Cold Ocean Currents.)
  • The red dots on the map show the location of major tropical and subtropical stony coral reefs of the world.

World map highlighting coral reef locations in red along coastlines of continents including Asia, Australia, Africa, North America, and South America. Map uses gray for landmasses and white for oceans, showing coral reefs concentrated in tropical and subtropical regions near the equator.

Image Source: Noaa.gov

Statement 2 is correct
  • More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in territories of Australia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. Over half of the world’s coral reefs are found within six countries: Australia, Indonesia, the Philippines, Papua New Guinea, Fiji, and the Maldives (Coral Reef Alliance, 2024).
Statement 3 is correct
  • Coral reefs are the most diverse communities on the planet. These tropical marine communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor, but are inhabited by at least 25% of all marine species.
  • Scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats four times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rain forests.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

“Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

  1. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
  2. The UNEP Secretariat
  3. The UNFCCC Secretariat
  4. The World Meteorological Organization.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now. Climate Neutral Now is aiming at encouraging and supporting all levels of society to take climate action to achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement.
  • Climate neutrality is a three step process, which requires individuals, companies and governments to:
    • Measure their climate footprint;
    • Reduce their emissions as much as possible;
    • Offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission reductions.
Answer: (c) UNFCCC Secretariat; Difficulty Level: Hard

With the reference to educational institutions during rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Institution Founder
1.Sanskrit College at Banaras William Jones
2. Calcutta Madras Warren Hastings
3. Fort William college Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given below is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect
  • Jonathan Duncan established a Sanskrit College at Varanasi in 1791 for the study of Hindu philosophy and laws. He was a Resident at Benares in 1788 and then the Governor of Bombay from 1795 to 1811. He was one of the charter members of the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
  • He was the first official who tried to curb female infanticide. He met the local Rajkumars and convinced them that the killing of female infants went against the tenets of Hindu scriptures.
  • The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established in 1784 by William Jones to promote and encourage oriental studies.

Additional Information

  • People who possess extensive knowledge of the language and culture of Asia are known as Orientalists. Warren Hastings, Jonathan Duncan, William Jones, Henry Thomas Colebrooke, and Nathaniel Halhed were representatives of Orientalists. Orientalists deeply respected ancient cultures, both of India and the West. They believed that Indian civilisation had attained its glory in the ancient past but had subsequently declined.
Pair 2 is correct
  • Warren Hastings established the Calcutta Madrassa in 1781 for the teaching of Muslim law.
    • Warren Hastings was the last Governor of Bengal (1772-73) and the first Governor-General of Bengal from 1773 to 1785.
  • Important events during his tenure:
    • Rohilla War (1774)
    • First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-82)
    • Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-84)
    • Abolished the system of Dual Government
Pair 3 is incorrect
  • In November 1800, Wellesley established the College of Fort William at Calcutta to educate young recruits to the Civil Service.
    • Richard Wellesley was the Governor-General of Bengal from 1798-1805.
    • Important events during his tenure:
    • Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1798-99)
    • Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803-05)
    • Policy of Subsidiary Alliance System
    • Took over the administration of Tanjore (1799), Surat (1800) and Carnatic (1801)
  • Arthur Wellesley, brother of Richard Wellesley, was the Major General in the British EIC’s Army in India.
  • He played an important role in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1798-99) and Second Anglo- Maratha War (1803-05).
  • In the Battle of Waterloo (1815), he led the British Army and defeated Napoleon.
  • He served as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom from 1828-30 and again from 1834.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Catalonia Spain
2. Crimea Hungary
3. Mindanao Philippines
4. Oromia Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Catalonia is an autonomous community of Spain in the north-eastern end of the Iberian Peninsula. It has four provinces: Barcelona, Girona, Lleida, and Tarragona. Catalonia is one of the wealthiest regions of Spain and has been in the news due to movements for independence from Spain.

Map showing Spain and surrounding countries with Catalonia region highlighted in brown on northeastern Spain. Labels include Atlantic Ocean, Balearic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and neighboring countries Portugal, France, Morocco, and Algeria.

Pair 2 is incorrect
  • Crimea is a peninsula located in the Black Sea, internationally recognized as part of Ukraine but annexed by Russia in 2014.

Map showing Ukraine and surrounding regions, highlighting Crimea in brown with a label and pointer. Ukraine is colored yellow, Russia in teal, and Black Sea in light blue, emphasizing Crimea's geographic location between Ukraine and Russia.

Pair 3 is correct
  • Mindanao is the second-largest island in the Philippines and was in news due to the presence of terrorist groups like Abu Sayyaf and the Maute group, which are linked to ISIS and siege to the city of Marawi, the biggest urban centre in the Muslim-majority provinces of the Philippines.

Map of the Philippines highlighting Mindanao island in brown and Marawi City with a red marker. Surrounding bodies of water, including South China Sea, Philippine Sea, and Celebes Sea, are labeled to provide geographic context.

Pair 4 is incorrect
  • Oromia is a region in Ethiopia, home to the Oromo people. It has been in the news due to political unrest and ethnic tensions.

Map of Ethiopia highlighting Oromia region in brown and two cities, Addis Ababa and Harar, marked with red labels. Surrounding bodies of water, Red Sea and Gulf of Aden, are labeled in blue, providing geographic context.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following events

  1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
  2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
  3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
  4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
  1. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
  2. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
  3. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
  4. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Explanation

The correct chronological sequence of the above events is 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
  • Under the Air Corporations Act of 1953 that came into force on 28 May 1953, Parliament voted to nationalise nine airlines — Air India Ltd., Air Services of India Ltd., Airways (India) Ltd., Bharat Airways Ltd., Deccan Airways Ltd., Himalayan Aviation Ltd., Indian National Airways Ltd., Kalinga Airlines, and the Air India International Ltd — and replaced them with Indian Airlines and Air India International.
  • The Government of India nationalized the Imperial Bank of India in year 1955, with Reserve Bank of India taking a 60% stake, and name was changed to State Bank of India.
  • The year 1957 witnessed a significant political milestone as the Communist Party of India achieved a historic electoral victory. This victory led to the formation of the world’s first democratically elected communist government in the state of Kerala.
  • Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian government on December 18, 1961. A 36-hour battle brought Goa back into India’s fold.
Answer: (b) 3-2-1-4; Difficulty Level: Hard

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

  1. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
  2. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
  3. Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in part III
  4. Article 24 and provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Right to Privacy was recognised as a fundamental right by the 9-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India in the landmark judgment K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017). The Court held that the right to privacy is intrinsic to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, which is part of Part III of the Constitution of India, dealing with Fundamental Rights.
Answer: (c) Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in part III; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

  1. Areca nut
  2. Barley
  3. Coffee
  4. Finger millet
  5. Groundnut
  6. Sesamum
  7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
  1. 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
  2. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
  3. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Centre currently fixes MSPs for 23 farm commodities
    • 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi (Finger millet) and barley),
    • 5 pulses (chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and masur),
    • 7 oilseeds (rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and nigerseed) and
    • 4 commercial crops (cotton, sugarcane, copra and raw jute).

Infographic diagram explains Minimum Support Price (MSP) system for farmers' produce, detailing government-set MSPs for 23 commodities across cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops with specific crop names and categories. It outlines MSP calculation components (A2, FL, C2), roles of government, CACP, and CCEA, and compares MSP with ERP, highlighting farmer benefits, enforcement, and penalties for non-payment.

PMF Concept Hack

  • The Minimum Support Price announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs generally covers food grains, pulses, oilseeds, and millets. Even if you confidently eliminate Coffee alone, options that contain it are ruled out immediately, significantly reducing confusion and making it easier to arrive at the correct answer.
Answer: (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Manipur
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Nagaland

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. The area of Pakke Tiger Reserve was initially constituted as Pakhui Reserve Forest on 1 July 1966. In 2001, it was renamed Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary and became Pakhui Tiger Reserve on 23 April 2002.
  • The sanctuary covers an area of 862 sq km and has the Kemeng River in the west and the Pakke River in the east. To the south, the sanctuary adjoins Assam’s Nameri National Park, and to the west, it is bounded by Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary and Sessa Orchid Sanctuary.
  • It is known for its Hornbill Nest Adoption Programme: In 2016, the Pakke TR won the India Biodiversity Award in the category Conservation of Threatened Species for its Hornbill Nest Adoption Programme.
  • Vegetation: Semi-evergreen and evergreen forests, and Himalayan broadleaf forests.
  • Major Fauna: Bengal tiger, Indian leopard, clouded leopard, elephant, barking deer, gaur, sambar.
  • Non-human Primates: Capped langur, Rhesus macaque, Assamese macaque, and stamp tailed macaques.
  • Major Reptilian Fauna: Assam roofed turtle.

Map of protected areas in Northeast India highlighting Seven Sisters states with national parks (NP), wildlife sanctuaries (WLS), and tiger reserves (TR) marked by colored labels and boundaries. Key locations include Manas NP-TR, Kaziranga NP-TR, and Namdapha NP-TR, with detailed names of various sanctuaries and reserves illustrating biodiversity hotspots and conservation zones.

Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicle, consider the following statements:

  1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
  2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
  3. GSLV MK III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 3 only

Explanation

  • Currently operational launch vehicles:
    • PSLV: Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
    • GSLV: Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
    • LVM3: Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (also known as GSLV Mk III)
    • SSLV: Small Satellite Launch Vehicle
Statement 1 is correct
  • The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) primarily launches satellites for Earth observation and resource monitoring, while the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) was mainly designed to launch communication satellites into geostationary orbits.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Satellites launched by PSLV are usually placed in polar or sun-synchronous orbits, which are not geosynchronous. Therefore, as seen from a particular location on Earth, these satellites appear to move across the sky rather than remain fixed in one position.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits. LVM3 is configured as a three stage vehicle with two solid strap-on motors (S200), one liquid core stage (L110) and a high thrust cryogenic upper stage (C25).

Infographic detailing ISRO's launch vehicles categorized into foundational, operational, human spaceflight, small launchers, technology demonstrators, and research systems, with color-coded sections and icons for each type. It highlights payload capacities, roles, statuses, and notable missions like PSLV, GSLV, Gaganyaan, and upcoming reusable launch vehicles, emphasizing advancements in indigenous technology and space exploration capabilities.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the governance of ‘public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • If we consider 2007-2017 data, capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has not steadily increased. The government infuses capital into PSU banks to support credit expansion and help them tide over losses arising from provisions for non-performing assets (NPAs).

Line graph comparing total net profit/loss (PAT) and capital infusion into PSBs by GOI from fiscal years 2007-08 to 2016-17, with values in Rs. Crore. Net profit peaks around 2012-13 and sharply drops to a loss in 2015-16, while capital infusion shows a general upward trend, peaking in 2014-15 before declining.

Statement 2 is correct
  • Five associates and the Bharatiya Mahila Bank became part of the State Bank of India (SBI) in April 2017. Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur (SBBJ), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH), State Bank of Mysore (SBM), State Bank of Patiala (SBP) and State Bank of Travancore (SBT), besides Bharatiya Mahila Bank (BMB), merged with SBI.

PMF Concept Hack

  • Statements mentioning steady trends over a decade are risky unless you are sure of the data. Capital infusion by the Government of India into public sector banks has not increased steadily; it has varied year-to-year, so Statement 1 can be easily eliminated. Statement 2 refers to a specific banking reform—the merger of associate banks with the State Bank of India—which is a known step taken to strengthen the public sector banks.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following items:

  1. Cereal grains hulled
  2. Chicken eggs cooked
  3. Fish processed and canned
  4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempt under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • GST was introduced in 2017 by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016. It is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based tax that is levied on every value addition. It is a single indirect tax for the whole nation, making India a unified common market. As per 2017 data, Fish, crustaceans, molluscs & other aquatic invertebrates in processed, cured, or frozen states were taxable at the 5% rate under GST. As per the GST provisions, all the other options were exempt from GST.
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, of 2006.
  2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
  3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. CWH are defined under the act as the “areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation”. Inviolate is a general term used to indicate no human settlement or usage.
Statement 2 is correct

Additional Information

  • Habitat rights are given to PVTGs under Section 3(1) (e) of The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 or Forest Rights Act (FRA).
  • Ten PVTGs have been granted habitat rights in three states (Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh). Recognition of habitat rights grants communities the right to their traditional territory, socio-cultural practices, livelihoods, ecological and traditional knowledge, and the protection of their natural and cultural heritage. (Habitat rights don’t grant ownership to property).
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The process involves District Level Committee (DLC), Gram Sabha, State Government, and Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not MoEFCC.

PMF Concept Hack

  • India has a dedicated Ministry of Tribal Affairs for tribal welfare, so it is highly unlikely that the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change would independently decide and declare Habitat Rights for tribal groups. Hence, Statement 3 can be eliminated. Once Statement 3 is removed, options containing 3 are also eliminated, leaving Statements 1 and 2 as correct.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following:

  1. Birds
  2. Dust blowing
  3. Rain
  4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spreads plant diseases?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Birds: Birds can carry disease-causing pathogens on their feathers, feet, or beaks as they move from one plant to another. This can result in the transmission of pathogens to healthy plants.
  • Dust blowing: Wind-blown dust can carry spores of fungi or bacteria, spreading diseases across fields or even long distances.
  • Rain: Raindrops can splash pathogens from infected plant surfaces to healthy ones, facilitating the spread of disease, especially for diseases like blights and rusts.
  • Wind blowing: Wind can carry fungal spores and other pathogens over great distances, aiding in the transmission of airborne plant diseases.

PMF Concept Hack

  • Plant diseases are commonly spread through natural carriers such as birds, wind, rain, and dust. Since UPSC is asking from a broader perspective, eliminating any option becomes difficult because each factor can potentially carry pathogens. When all given agents are plausible spreaders, it is safer to go with all options rather than trying to negate one.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

With references to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union ministry of Rural Development.
  2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA), functions the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
  3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Ministry of Industries & Commerce has been implementing the NPOP since 2001 with the following objectives:
    • To provide the means of evaluation of the certification programme for organic agriculture & products.
    • To accredit certification programmes of Certification Bodies seeking accreditation.
    • To facilitate the certification of organic products in conformity with the prescribed standards.
    • To facilitate organic certification in conformity with the importing countries’ organic standards.
    • To encourage the development of organic farming & organic processing.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is the implementation agency for the NPOP. APEDA is providing assistance to the exporters of organic products under various components of its export promotion scheme.
Statement 3 is correct
  • In January 2016, Sikkim became India’s first “100 per cent organic” State. Lakshadweep is the first Union Territory to become 100 per cent organic.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
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