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UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2017

Table of contents

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2017 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2017 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2017

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • In parliamentary parlance, a private member refers to any Member of Parliament who is not a minister. Bills introduced by ministers are called Government Bills, whereas those introduced by other MPs are known as Private Members’ Bills. Any MP, whether elected or nominated, can introduce a Private Member’s Bill. This mechanism enables MPs to actively participate in law-making, beyond debating government legislation.
  • Procedural Framework: Introduced only on Fridays, Private Member’s Bills follow the same stages as Government Bills and become law only after passage by both Houses and Presidential assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Only 14 Private Members’ Bills have passed since independence, with the last in 1970. E.g., the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, was enacted in 1970.

Table listing 14 private members' bills passed by Indian Parliament, including bill titles, MP names, house (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), and dates of assent from 1954 to 1970. Key details include multiple bills on criminal procedure, marriage amendments, and historical site protection, with dates and MPs highlighted in red and black text for clarity.

Image Source: TOI

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
  2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
  3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Indo-Aryans succeeded everywhere because they had chariots drawn by horses, and introduced them for the first time into West Asia and India. The Aryan soldiers were probably also equipped with coats of mail (varman) and better arms. On the other hand, the Indus Valley Civilization has not left any direct evidence of using such warfare equipment.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • In the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation, Bronze, copper and other copper alloys were the primary materials used for crafting metal objects. Other processed metals included lead, gold, silver, and electrum.
  • As per R.S Sharma, in the Indian subcontinent, iron is sometimes attributed to Lothal and to some sites in Afghanistan in Harappan times. Neither of these, however, represents pure iron metal nor working in iron. They were really copper objects containing iron ores. Iron gained prominence from around 1000 BC.
Statement 3 is correct
  • Rigvedic Aryans domesticated the horse, and horses are frequently mentioned in the Rigveda.
  • The horse, or asva, is regarded as an essential trait of the Aryan culture. The term asva in the Rig Veda and other texts appears in Sanskrit, Avestan, Greek, Latin, and other Indo-European languages.
  • There is no conclusive evidence of the Indus Valley Civilisation being aware of or using horses.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

  1. Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
  2. Enrolling the persons in universities for distance learning programmes.
  3. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
  4. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) is a component of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) Scheme, in which individuals with prior learning experience or skills are assessed and certified.
  • The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) launched Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) in the year 2015.
  • RPL aims:
    • To align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the standardised National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF).
    • To enhance the employability opportunities of an individual, as well as provide alternative routes to higher education.
    • To provide opportunities for reducing inequalities based on privileging certain forms of knowledge over others.
Answer: (a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels; Difficulty Level: Medium
  1. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
  2. Nallamala Forest
  3. Nagarhole National Park
  4. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is located at the strategic confluence of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
  • It forms part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and connects several major protected areas, including BR Hills Wildlife Sanctuary, Mudumalai National Park, and Bandipur National Park.
  • Vegetation: Dry deciduous forest and grasslands.
  • Major Fauna: Bengal tiger, elephant, gaur, leopard, spotted deer, blackbuck, sambar deer, barking deer.
  • Threats: Rampant poaching of tigers and elephants.

Map showing Tamil Nadu and Puducherry with various wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries, national parks, and tiger reserves marked using different colored labels and dots. Key locations include Gulf of Mannar Marine NP, Mudumalai NP-TR, and Point Calimere WLS, highlighting important biodiversity hotspots and conservation areas across the region.

Option (b) is incorrect
  • Nallamala Forest is one of the largest undisturbed stretches of forest in South India (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana). It is located in the Nallamala Hill which is a part of the Eastern Ghats.
  • The forest has a good tiger population, and a part of the forest belongs to the Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Nagarhole National Park, also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park, is located in Kodagu and Mysore districts in Karnataka. It is located in the foothills of Western Ghats.
  • It is recognised as an Important Bird Area.
  • Jenu Kurubas (honey-collecting tribe) live in this park.
  • Vegetation: Moist & dry deciduous forests, swamp forests, and bamboo.
  • Major Flora: Rosewood, teak, sandalwood and silver oak.
  • Major Fauna: Bengal tiger, leopard, Indian elephant, chital, chausingha, gaur, mugger (marsh crocodile).
  • Threats: Tourism, fragmentation of forests, poaching.

Map of Karnataka and Goa showing wildlife sanctuaries (WLS), national parks (NP), and tiger reserves (TR) with labeled locations and boundaries. Color-coded markers highlight key protected areas such as Nagarahole NP, Bandipur NP-TR, Bhadra TR, and MM Hills WLS-TR, illustrating distribution and connectivity of conservation zones.

Option (d) is incorrect
  • The Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats (south of Panna River) in southern Andhra Pradesh. Tirupati, a major Hindu pilgrimage town and Srivenkateshwara National Park are located in these ranges.
  • Major Flora: rare and endemic plant species like Red Sanders (NT) are of great economic importance.
  • Major Reptilian Fauna: Golden Gecko (LC – Endemic To Tirumala Hills).

Map of Biosphere Reserves in India showing locations marked with red and blue labels, where red indicates reserves part of UNESCO Man and Biosphere Programme and blue indicates reserves established solely by India. Key reserves include Cold Desert BR, Nanda Devi BR, Sundarbans BR, and Great Nicobar BR, with geographic distribution spanning from northern Himalayas to southern islands.

Answer: (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve; Difficulty Level: Hard

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

  1. Privileges
  2. Restraints
  3. Competition
  4. Ideology

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Equality in society means that all individuals enjoy equal rights, opportunities, and treatment regardless of their background. The first step toward achieving equality is ending formal systems of inequality and privilege. Historically, social, economic, and political inequalities were supported by customs and laws that denied opportunities to certain groups—such as restricting voting rights, limiting women’s professions, or reserving high positions for particular families. Therefore, attaining equality requires removing such legal and social restrictions. The Constitution of India promotes this by prohibiting discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Answer: (a) Privileges; Difficulty Level: Easy
  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • TRAFFIC is an NGO working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. It is a joint programme of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the IUCN.
  • The programme was founded in 1976, with headquarters now located in Cambridge, United Kingdom.
Statement 2 is correct
  • TRAFFIC’s mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. It investigates and analyses wildlife trade trends, patterns, impacts and drivers to provide the leading knowledge base on trade in wild animals and plants.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

  1. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  2. Participation of workers in the management of industries
  3. Right to work, education, and public assistance
  4. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
    1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
    2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
    3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
    4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).

Additional Information

  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
  • The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A. The amended directive requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
  • The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies. It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
  2. Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
  3. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
  4. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Rights are entitlements that individuals hold against the state to protect their freedoms and ensure their well-being. They obligate the state to act in ways that respect these claims, such as the right to life, liberty, and equality. Rights safeguard citizens from arbitrary actions by the state and ensure justice and fair treatment.
Answer: (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?

  1. World Economic Forum
  2. UN Human Rights Council
  3. UN Women
  4. World Health Organisation

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Global Gender Gap Index is an annual report produced by the World Economic Forum (WEF) that measures gender-based gaps in access to resources and opportunities in countries around the world.
  • It is the longest-standing index, tracking progress towards closing these gaps over time since its inception in 2006.
  • It tracks the gender gap across four key parameters:
    • Economic participation and opportunity,
    • Educational attainment,
    • Health and survival, and
    • Political empowerment.
  • It ranks countries on a scale from 0 to 1, with a score of 1 indicating that a country has achieved complete gender equality, while a score of 0 indicates a complete lack of equality.

Additional Information

  • World Economic Forum: The World Economic Forum (WEF) is an international organisation for public-private cooperation, founded in 1971 by Klaus Schwab. It was initially known as the European Management Forum.
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
  • It introduced the concept of “stakeholder capitalism”. WEF defines “Stakeholder capitalism” as a philosophy whereby a company should serve all its stakeholders, not just its shareholders: employees, suppliers, and the community it is part of.
  • Reports Published by WEF:
    • Global Competitiveness Report
    • Global Gender Gap Report
    • Energy Transition Index
    • Global IT Report
    • Global Travel and Tourism Report.
Answer: (a) World Economic Forum; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
  2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
  3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct
  • The Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Education, with support from the Innovation Cell and AICTE. This event offers students an opportunity to engage in innovative problem-solving, addressing some of the most pressing challenges faced by the nation and the world. It aims to foster a culture of product innovation, problem-solving, and out-of-the-box thinking in students.
  • Since its inception in 2017, SIH has grown to become the world’s largest open innovation model, bringing together students from across India to solve real-life problems through creativity, innovation, and technical expertise. SIH is being run in two formats: SIH Software and SIH Hardware Editions for higher education students.

PMF Concept Hack

  • Watch for extreme words like “every city” and “all transactions. Statement 1 uses “every city”, which is an exaggeration and relates more to the Smart Cities Mission. Statement 3 uses “all financial transactions”, another extreme claim, which is unrealistic.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

  1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
  2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
  3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect
  • The Monetary Policy Committee is a six-member committee headed by the RBI Governor.
  • Three members from the RBI:
    • The Governor of RBI — (Chairperson), Member, ex officio;
    • Deputy Governor of RBI, in charge of Monetary Policy — Member, ex officio;
    • One officer of RBI to be nominated by the Central Board of RBI — Member, ex officio.
  • Three independent members to be selected by the Government.
Statement 1 is correct
  • MPC decides the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level set by RBI.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a song and dance performance.
  2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
  3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1, 2 and 3.
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • It is a ritual singing, drumming and dancing art form of Manipur. This art form is performed to mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of Manipuri Vaishnavites. It was included on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2013.

Additional Information

  • Intangible Cultural Heritage: UNESCO defines “intangible” as “expressions that have:
    • Passed from one generation to another.
    • Evolved in response to their environments.
    • Contributed to giving us a sense of identity and continuity.
  • According to an official document by UNESCO, ‘intangible cultural heritage’ includes “oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, knowledge and practices concerning nature and the universe or the knowledge and skills to produce traditional crafts.”
  • UNESCO’s List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity was established in 2008.

Map of India highlighting various intangible cultural heritage sites and traditions across different regions. Key elements include labeled locations such as Durga Puja in Kolkata, Kumbh Mela in Prayagraj, and Kutiyattam Sanskrit theatre in Kerala, with a legend listing additional cultural practices like Yoga and Deepawali.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • In a typical Sankirtana performance, two drummers and 10 singers-dancers perform in the hall of a domestic courtyard encircled by the devotees. The main musical instruments used are Cymbals and Drums.
Statement 3 is correct
  • Practised at temples, the performers here narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna through songs and dances.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of the Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?

  1. Lord Cornwallis
  2. Alexander Read
  3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
Features Permanent Settlement Ryotwari System Mahalwari System
Year of Introduction 1793 1820 1822
Introduced by Lord Cornwallis Alexander Read & Thomas Munro Holt Mackenzie
Regions Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi, northern districts of Madras (≈19% area) Parts of Madras & Bombay Presidencies, Assam, Burma (≈51% area) North-West Provinces, Punjab, Gangetic Valley, parts of Central India (≈30% area)
Land Revenue Permanently fixed Revised periodically Revised periodically
Revenue Collector Zamindar Ryot Village Headman
Owner of Land Zamindar Ryot Village Community
Land for Revenue Assessment Not surveyed Surveyed Surveyed
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation techniques?

  1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
  2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
  3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct
  • Bioremediation uses microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) to degrade environmental contaminants into less toxic forms. Microorganisms can be specifically designed for bioremediation using genetic engineering techniques.
  • Advantages of bioremediation:
    • Destroys a wide variety of contaminants.
    • The destruction of target pollutants is possible.
    • Less expensive and environmentally friendly.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Disadvantages of bioremediation:
    • Bioremediation is limited to biodegradable compounds.
    • Not all compounds are susceptible to biodegradation.
    • It often takes longer than other treatment processes
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

  1. the participation of workers in the management of industries.
  2. arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
  3. an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
  4. a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The Trade Disputes Act was passed on 11 April 1929. This Act introduced tribunals for settling workers’ problems and practically banned strikes that “coerced” the Government or caused hardship to the people.

Additional Information

  • Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929 to protest against the passage of the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill, which would reduce civil liberties in general and curb the right of workers to organise and struggle in particular, and against the “wholesale arrests of the leader of the labour movement”.
Answer: (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes; Difficulty Level: Hard

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

  1. Federalism
  2. Democratic decentralisation
  3. Administrative delegation
  4. Direct democracy

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Local self-government refers to the transfer of powers and responsibilities from the central and state governments to local bodies such as Panchayats and Municipalities. This process strengthens democracy at the grassroots level and enables people to participate directly in governance. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Acts established local self-governance in rural and urban India, respectively. Following the two amendments, panchayats and municipalities were termed as “institutions of self-government.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Federalism is a system of government where power is divided between a central (national) authority and various regional (state/provincial) governments. Each level of government operates independently within its own jurisdiction.
  • Unlike states in India, local bodies are not federal organisations.
    • While the distribution of power between the union and state governments has been done per the Constitution, the distribution of power between the state governments and the local self-governments follows an act of the state legislature.
    • The former may be called distributive, while the latter is devolutionary.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Administrative delegation refers to the transfer of responsibilities or authority from higher levels of government to lower levels or administrative bodies. Unlike democratic decentralization, it is not about empowering elected local bodies but rather delegating tasks to bureaucrats or agencies.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Direct democracy is a system where citizens themselves directly participate in decision-making, usually through referendums or initiatives. Local self-government is not considered direct democracy because elected representatives at the local level make decisions for their constituents.
Answer: (b) Democratic decentralisation; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
  1. legislative function.
  2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer
  • The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. They serve as guidelines for the government to follow to achieve social and economic justice.
  • They are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts.
  • Rather than acting as limitations, the DPSPs are moral obligations on the state, encouraging it to make laws and policies aligned with these principles.
    • The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
  • Hence, DPSPs do not limit either the legislative or executive functions. Instead, they serve as a guiding framework for both, encouraging the legislature to enact laws and the executive to formulate policies that promote social welfare and justice.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

  1. ASEAN
  2. BRICS
  3. EU
  4. G20

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Digital Single Market Strategy (DSM) is an initiative of the European Union (EU). It was adopted on 6 May 2015.
  • It is made up of three policy pillars:
    • Improving access to digital goods and services: Seeks to ensure better access for consumers and business to online goods and services across Europe, for example by removing barriers to cross-border e-commerce and access to online content while increasing consumer protection.
    • An environment where digital networks and services can prosper: Providing high-speed, secure and trustworthy infrastructures and services supported by the right regulatory conditions.
    • Digital as a driver for growth: Enhancing digital skills, which are essential for an inclusive digital society.
  • A number of measures taken under this include end of roaming charges, the modernisation of data protection, the cross-border portability of online content and the agreement to unlock e-commerce by stopping unjustified geo-blocking.

Diagram illustrating three interconnected pillars of the Digital Single Market: Access, Environment, and Economy and Society, each represented by a tablet icon with relevant topics listed inside. Access includes e-commerce and VAT; Environment covers telecoms, online platforms, and data security; Economy and Society focuses on data economy, standards, and e-government, with a European Union flag and digital-themed icons enhancing the visual structure.

Answer: (c) EU; Difficulty Level: Medium

At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the seafloor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

  1. Bhavnagar
  2. Bheemunipatnam
  3. Chandipur
  4. Nagapattinam

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Chandipur beach is located in the Baleswar district of Odisha. During low tides the beach recedes up to 5 KM offering visitors the opportunity to walk on the sea bed. This unique phenomenon helps the beach to support its equally unique biodiversity. Also known as the “hide-and-seek beach, it is where the confluence of the Buddhbalanga River meets the Bay of Bengal.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Bhavnagar is a port city in the Gujarat State’s Saurashtra Region.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Bheemunipatnam, also known as Bheemili, is a town in the Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Located at the confluence of the River Gosthani and the Bay of Bengal, Bheemunipatnam is renowned for its exotic Bheemunipatnam Beach and Dutch settlements.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Nagapattinam was an important port town during the reign of the Cholas. Throughout history, colonial powers such as the Dutch and the English held possession of the port town.
Answer: (c) Chandipur; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

  1. A property transaction is not treated as a Benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
  2. Properties held Benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
  3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act was renamed the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act (PBPT Act) when the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act came into force on November 1, 2016.
  • A benami transaction, as defined under the Act, is a transaction in which:
    • Property is held by a person (other than in fiduciary capacity) on behalf of another person who has paid for it; or
    • It is held in a fictitious name; or
    • The owner of such property is unaware of or denies having knowledge of such ownership; or
    • The person financing such a transaction is not traceable.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government without payment of compensation.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • An appellate mechanism has been provided under the PBPT Act in the form of Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

  1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
  2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
  3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Butterflies are important pollinators for many plants. A decline in their population can disrupt the pollination process, leading to reduced plant reproduction. While some insects play a role in controlling plant diseases, butterflies do not significantly impact fungal infections in crops. Butterflies are part of the food chain and serve as prey for various species. A decline in butterfly populations could affect these predators.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

  1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
  2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production requires a high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
  3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large-scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Algae cultivation does not need to be restricted to seas or marine environments; it can be grown in various water environments, including ponds, lakes, or artificial tanks on land.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Setting up algae-based biofuel production requires sophisticated engineering and advanced technology, especially during the initial stages of construction. Expertise is essential for designing and constructing facilities that can efficiently cultivate and harvest algae for biofuel.
Statement 3 is correct
  • Large algae farms can use significant amounts of water, energy, and land resources, potentially leading to environmental issues such as water scarcity, habitat disruption, or changes in land use.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

  1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
  2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
  3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
  4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  • POSHAN Abhiyaan (erstwhile National Nutrition Mission) was launched to achieve improvement in the nutritional status of Children from 0-6 years, Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers in a time bound manner and to achieve reduction in stunting and wasting in children (0-6 years) as well as reduction in anemia in women, children and adolescent girls.
  • It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
  • Objectives:
    • Prevent and reduce Stunting in children (0- 6 years)
    • Prevent and reduce under-nutrition (underweight prevalence) in children (0-6 years)
    • Reduce the prevalence of anemia among young Children (6-59 months)
    • Reduce the prevalence of anemia among Women and Adolescent Girls in the age group of 15-49 years
    • Reduce Low Birth Weight (LBW)
  • Poshan Abhiyan has now been re-aligned as part of Mission SakshamAnganwadi and Poshan 2.0, along with Anganwadi services and revised Scheme for adolescent Girls.
    • It rests on the key pillars of Maternal Nutrition, Infant and Young Child Feeding Norms, Treatment of SAM/MAM and wellness through AYUSH.
    • Under Poshan 2.0, focus is on diet diversity, food fortification, leveraging traditional systems of knowledge and popularizing use of millets.
    • Greater emphasis is being given on the use of millets for preparation of Hot Cooked Meal and Take Home rations (not raw ration) at Anganwadi centres for Pregnant Women, Lactating Mothers and Children below 6 years of age.
Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect
  • However, promoting the consumption of millets, coarse cereals, unpolished rice, and poultry eggs is not explicitly mentioned as an objective of the mission.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
  2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organising the labour movement in British India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • In India, the first Indian Factory Act was passed in 1881, which was later amended in 1891.
  • Indian Factories Act of 1881:
  • The Act dealt primarily with the problem of child labour. It also provided a few measures for the health and safety of the workers. It laid down that:
    • Children below seven would not work in factories.
    • Children between 7 and 12 would not work for more than nine hours a day.
    • Children would get four holidays in a month.
  • The Act also provided for the proper fencing off of dangerous machinery.
  • This law applied only to those factories that employed 100 or more workers.
  • Factories Act, 1881, was not to establish wage standards for industrial workers or to facilitate the formation of trade unions.

Additional Information

  • Indian Factories Act of 1891: Working hours for women were fixed at eleven per day.
    • The employment of children below nine years of age was prohibited.
    • Daily work hours for children between the ages of 9 to 14 years were reduced to seven.
    • A weekly holiday was given to all workers
    • These laws applied only to children and women and not to the adult male labourers who formed the bulk of the workforce, and, even in their cases, the protection was not comprehensive.
    • Neither of the two Acts applied to British-owned tea and coffee plantations.
    • The Factory Act of 1911 restricted the working hours of adult males to 12 hours on any one working day. The amended Factory Act of 1922 further reduced the working time to 11 hours.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Along with the British cotton textile industry, S. S. Bengalee and N.M. Lokhanday played an important role in pressurising the government to pass bills for the improvement of the condition of workers.
    • N.M. Lokhanday published an Anglo-Marathi weekly, Dinbandhu, in 1880.
    • He also formed the Bombay Millhands’ Association in 1890. It was the first labour organisation in India. Though not a trade union, this association demanded a reduction in working hours, a weekly holiday, and compensation for injuries suffered by the workers during work at the factories.
    • In 1878, S. S. Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

  1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
  2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
  3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All options are correct
  • Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and long-term storing atmospheric carbon dioxide. Carbon capture and sequestration (CCS) is a three-step process including capturing carbon dioxide from its point source, its transportation and then storage away from the atmosphere. Storage options in geological formations are deep saline aquifers, basalt formations, unmineable coal seams and depleted oil or gas reservoirs.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

  1. Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
  2. Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
  3. Impose censorship on the national press.
  4. Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • In 1927, the British government appointed a committee chaired by Harcourt Butler to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power of the British Raj in India and the rulers of the Princely States. The committee’s report of 1929 reaffirmed the “paramountcy” doctrine. It also recommended that the state should not be transferred without their consent to a relationship with a new government in British India that is responsible for an Indian legislature.
Answer: (d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States; Difficulty Level: Hard

The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

  1. Developing solar power production in our country
  2. Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country
  3. Exporting our food products to other countries
  4. Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) category was introduced in the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM) in 2010 to foster a strong indigenous manufacturing base and enhance India’s position as a prominent solar hub.
    • The World Trade Organisation’s (WTO) Appellate Body in November 2016 declared certain domestic content requirements (DCRs) in India’s Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM) illegal.
Answer: (a) Developing solar power production in our country; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements

  1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
  2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The nuclear security summit initiative was announced in April 2009 by Former U.S. President Barack Obama, in which he pledged to hold a global summit on nuclear security in 2010 as part of an effort to “secure all vulnerable nuclear material around the world within four years.” There were four summits in total: in Washington, D.C. in 2010, Seoul, South Korea in 2012, the Hague, Netherlands in 2014 and Washington, D.C. again in 2016.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) was founded in January 2006 and is an independent group of arms-control and nonproliferation experts from both nuclear-weapon and non-nuclear-weapon states. The mission of the IPFM is to analyse the technical basis for practical and achievable policy initiatives to secure, consolidate, and reduce stockpiles of highly enriched uranium and plutonium. Its members include nuclear experts from seventeen countries, including India.
  • Important reports published by IPFM
    • Global Fissile Material Report
    • Banning Plutonium Separation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

  1. Resident Indian citizens only
  2. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
  3. All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
  4. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after, 1st April 2004.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • NPS is applicable to all the employees of State Governments, State Autonomous Bodies joining services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments.

Infographic explaining Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) with key features, comparisons, and benefits. It includes sections on guaranteed pension, minimum pension of ₹10,000, family pension at 60%, inflation indexation based on All India Consumer Price Index, service years requirements, and a comparison table of UPS, OPS, and NPS highlighting pension assurance, family pensions, inflation indexation, and contribution rates.

Answer: (c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

  1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
  2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
  3. River Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 3 is incorrect
  • The Teesta River originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier in the Eastern Himalayas in the state of Sikkim, India. It flows southward through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal, eventually entering Bangladesh.
  • In Bangladesh, it merges with the Brahmaputra River (known locally as the Jamuna River).

Additional Information

  • The Brahmaputra basin spreads over Tibet (China), Bhutan, India, and Bangladesh.
  • The total length of the Brahmaputra River is 2,900 km, and in India, it is 916 km.
  • In India, the basin spreads over Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Sikkim, which is nearly 5.9 % of the total geographical area.
  • The Brahmaputra River originates in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet, where it is called the Tsangpo (‘the purifier’) or Yarlung Zangbo.
  • It carves a deep gorge in the Central Himalayas near Namcha Barwa and turns southwards. Then, it
  • enters India through Arunachal Pradesh as Siang or Dihang.
  • After receiving its main left bank tributaries, Dibang (or Sikang) and Lohit, the river is then known
  • as the Brahmaputra.
  • The Brahmaputra enters Bangladesh as the Jamuna River, where it joins the Ganga (Padma in Bangladesh) and continues to flow as the Padma.
  • Padma finally joins Meghna River, which falls into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna Rivers forms the Sundarbans delta.
  • Right bank tributaries: Rango Tsangpo (in Tibet), Subansiri, Kameng (Jiabharali), Dhansiri, Manas, Sankosh, Teesta.
  • Left bank tributaries: Lohit, Dibang, Burhidihing, Disang, Dikhow, Dhansiri, Kopili.

Map of Brahmaputra River Basin spanning China (Tibet), India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar, highlighting major rivers, dams, and cities. Key features include Ranganadi Dam, Subansiri Lower Dam, Deepor Beel, and cities like Gangtok, Itanagar, and Dispur, with a smaller inset map showing basin location in northeastern India.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Major tributaries of the Teesta River: Rangpo River, the Rangit River, and the Great Rangit River.
  • The Rangit river and its tributaries originate in the Talung glacier in West Sikkim and after flowing for about 60 km, joins Teesta below Malli near the border of Sikkim with West Bengal.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
  2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • Zika virus is transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitoes, which also transmits dengue.
  • It is a contagious disease that spreads through:
    • sexual contact
    • transfusion of blood
    • pregnancy (from mother to fetus)

Infographic explaining Zika virus disease, including transmission methods such as mosquito bites, mother-to-child, and sexual transmission, with icons representing each. It details symptoms like fever, headache, joint pain, and complications including microcephaly and Guillain-Barré syndrome, and emphasizes prevention through mosquito nets, repellent, and protective clothing, noting no vaccine or specific treatment available.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Standard Mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
  2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) certification is mandatory for all types of automotive tyres and tubes in India.
  • According to the BIS directive, tyres and tubes for two-wheelers, three-wheelers, passenger cars, and commercial vehicles must bear the BIS mark to ensure quality, safety, and performance standards.

Additional Information

  • Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) initially came into existence by enactment of the act in 1986. A new act (to replace the BIS Act of 1986) was introduced in the Lok Sabha in 2015; The new act came into force in 2017. The BIS Act, 2016, establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as India’s national standards body.
  • BIS is a statutory body. It is regulated under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
  • BIS has been providing traceability and tangibility benefits to the national economy in several ways:
    • Providing safe, reliable, quality goods.
    • Minimising health hazards to consumers.
    • Promoting exports and import substitutes.
    • Control the proliferation of varieties through standardisation, certification and testing.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • AGMARK is a certification mark for agricultural produce, assuring that they conform to a grade standard notified by Directorate of Marketing & Inspection (DMI), Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare under Agricultural Produce (Grading Marking) Act, 1937.

Additional Information

  • FAO, headquartered in Rome, is a specialised agency of the UN founded in 1945.
  • It has 195 members (194 countries + the EU). It is governed by a biennial conference, which elects a 49-member executive council.
  • FAO leads international efforts to improve nutrition and food security. It helps governments and agencies coordinate their activities to develop agriculture, forestry, fisheries, and land and water resources.
  • It also conducts research, provides technical assistance to projects, operates educational and training programs, and collects data on agricultural output, production, and development.

Flagship publications of FAO:

  • The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets
  • The State of Food and Agriculture (published annually)
  • The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World
  • The State of the World’s Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
  • The State of the World’s Biodiversity for Food and Agriculture
  • The State of the World’s Forest Genetic Resources
  • The State of the World’s Forests
  • The State of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture
  • The State of the World’s Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
  • The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture
  • Status of the World’s Soil Resources
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

  1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
  2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • National Agriculture Market (eNAM), a pan-India electronic trading portal, networks the existing Agriculture Produce Market Committee (APMC) mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. The initiative was launched in April, 2016.
  • e-NAM platform promotes better marketing opportunities for the farmers to sell their produce through online competitive and transparent price discovery system and online payment facility.
  • The e-NAM portal provides single window services for all APMC-related information and services. This includes commodity arrivals, quality & prices, buy & sell offers and e-payment settlement directly into farmers’ account, among other services.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

  1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
  2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 2016 was adopted on 12.5.2016 as a vision document to guide future development of IPRs in the country.
  • The Policy recognizes that India has a well-established TRIPS-compliant legislative, administrative and judicial framework to safeguard IPRs, which meets its international obligations while utilizing the flexibilities provided in the international regime to address its developmental concerns. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency for India’s IPR policy.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

  1. Gharial
  2. Indian wild ass
  3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • All of the given animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law.
  • The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 provides the legal framework for the protection of various species of wild animals, management of their habitat and also for the regulation and control of trade in the products derived from various parts of wild animals.

Additional Information

  • Gharials, sometimes called gavials, are a type of Asian crocodilian distinguished by their long, thin snouts.
  • Distribution: The only viable population in the National Chambal Sanctuary is spread across the states of Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh in India. Small non-breeding populations exist in Son, Gandak, Hoogly and Ghagra rivers.
  • Habitat: Clean rivers with sand banks (Fresh Water).
  • Conservation Status: IUCN: Critically Endangered | WPA, 1972: Schedule-I
  • Threats: The combined effects of dams, barrages, artificial embankments, changes in river course, pollution, sand-mining, riparian agriculture and ingress of domestic and feral livestock.

Photograph showing a crocodile partially submerged in water with its head and open mouth visible. Adjacent map highlights northeastern India and surrounding regions, including Bangladesh and Myanmar, with labeled cities and borders.

  • Indian wild ass (Equus hemionus khur) is a sub-species of Asian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus).
  • It is locally called as khur in Gujarat region.
  • It is solitary and shy animal, present in low densities across its distribution range.
  • Conservation Status: IUCN: Near Threatened (NT) | WPA, 1972: Schedule-I
  • Distribution: The khur was formerly widespread in the arid zone of northwestern India and Pakistan, westwards through much of central Asia. It is now primarily found in the Little Rann of Kutch (LRK) in Gujarat, in a protected area called the Wild Ass Sanctuary.

Photograph of a light brown and white donkey standing on dry, sandy ground with a blurred background. Adjacent map shows Gujarat, India, highlighting districts in various colors with labeled cities, Arabian Sea coastline, and neighboring states for geographic context.

  • The wild water buffalo, also called Asian buffalo, Asiatic buffalo and wild buffalo, is a large bovine native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. It is the state animal of Chhatisgarh.
  • Conservation Status: IUCN: Endangered | WPA, 1972: Schedule-I
  • Once occupying the parts of present Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Jharkhand and Telangana states in Central India, it is now restricted to only three small pockets in Indravati Tiger Reserve and Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve (USTR) in Chhattisgarh and a few animals in the Kopela-Kolamarka Conservation Reserve in Maharashtra.

Photograph of a water buffalo standing in shallow water surrounded by green vegetation, highlighting its large curved horns and sturdy build. Adjacent map shows South Asia and Southeast Asia, including countries like India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam, indicating the geographical habitat of the water buffalo.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A (added by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) included ten Fundamental Duties, in 2002, one more Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002) of the Indian Constitution. There is no legislative process provided specifically for enforcing these duties. While they serve as moral obligations for citizens, they are not directly enforceable by law.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties. They are more of moral or civic obligations and do not necessarily correspond to enforceable legal duties.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

  1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association
  2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
  3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • The British India Association (1851) was formed by merging the Zamindari Association and the Bengal British Indian Society.
  • Raja Radhakant Deb and Debendranath Tagore were the first President and Secretary of the British Indian Association.
  • In 1859, despite its pro-zamindari and landed aristocracy interests, the British India Association refused to join the Indigo planters in their efforts to repeal Act X of 1859 and supported the cause of the ryots.

Additional Information

  • Dharma Sabha was an association of orthodox Hindus led by Raja Radhakanta Deb. It was formed in Calcutta in January 1830, opposing the government regulation to abolish the practice of sati. It was established mainly to counter social reform movements led by Raja Rammohun Roy and Henry Derozio.
  • Raja Radhakant Deb was also a prominent member of Zamindari Association, established in 1837, which is considered the first political association of modern India. Later, it was renamed the Landholders’ Society.
Pair 2 is incorrect
  • Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native Association (1852).
  • G Subramania Iyer founded Madras Mahajan Sabha along with M. Veeraraghavachariar and P. Anandacharlu.
Pair 3 is correct
  • Indian Association was founded by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876. It aimed to create strong public opinion on political questions and unite the Indian people on a common political programme.

Flowchart illustrating political associations during British rule, showing formation timeline from 1836 to 1885 with key groups like Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha, Bengal British Indian Society, and Indian National Congress. Arrows indicate chronological progression and connections, with Indian National Congress highlighted in red as a significant milestone.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

  1. Liberty of thought
  2. Economic liberty
  3. Liberty of expression
  4. Liberty of belief

Explanation

Option (b) is the correct answer
  • The Preamble of the Constitution secures all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief faith, and worship. It does not mention economic liberty.
Answer: (b) Economic Liberty; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

  1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
  2. The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • QCI was set up in 1997, as an autonomous body.
  • Established jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. ASSOCHAM + CII + FICCI.
  • Objective: To establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.
  • Nodal ministry: DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.

Statement 2 is correct

  • QCI is governed by a Council comprising of 38 members including the Chairman and Secretary General.
  • The Council has an equal representation of Government, Industry and other Stakeholders.
  • The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister of India on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

What is the purpose of setting up Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

  1. To supply credit to small business units
  2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
  3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only Purposes 1 and 2 are correct
  • The objectives of setting up of small finance banks are to improve financial inclusion by:
    • provision of savings vehicles primarily to unserved and underserved sections of the population, and
    • supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations.
  • While Small Finance Banks (SFBs) may support rural development by lending to small businesses, encouraging young entrepreneurs in rural areas is not their primary objective.

Additional Information

  • Small Finance Banks are a category of scheduled commercial banks that primarily cater to the financial needs of small business units, micro and small industries, and unorganised sector entities.
  • SFBs are regulated by the RBI under the RBI Act of 1934 and the Banking Regulation Act of 1949.
  • An SFB is established as a private limited company under the Companies Act of 2013.
  • Small Finance Banks offer basic banking services such as Savings Accounts, Current Accounts, Fixed Deposits, Recurring Deposits, Loans, etc. (Payment banks & NBFCs cannot Lend).
  • SFBs are subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI applicable to existing commercial banks, including maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
  • The minimum paid-up equity capital requirement is INR 200 crores, except for SFBs converted from Urban Cooperative Banks, which require only INR 100 crore.
  • SFBs can be promoted by individuals, corporates, trusts, or societies.
  • SFBs are required to extend 75% of the credit to sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending by the RBI (Commercial bank 40%).
  • At least 25% of the branches of any small finance bank should be located in rural areas where banking services are absent or not prevalent.
  • 50 % of loans extended by them are to be less than INR 25 lakhs.
  • SFBs can undertake non-risk-sharing financial services such as the distribution of mutual fund units, insurance products, pension products, etc.
  • SFBs can set up dealerships in the foreign exchange business.
  • Existing NBFCs, microfinance institutions, and local area banks can opt for conversion into Small Finance Banks.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

  1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
  2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • India did not host all the conferences. These conferences are hosted by different countries in the region. For instance, the second conference of APMCHUD was held in Tehran, Iran.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

  1. The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
  2. The methods for strengthening executive leadership.
  3. A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
  4. A band of dedicated party workers.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Democracy’s key virtue lies in its ability to engage the intelligence and character of ordinary people.
  • Unlike systems where power is concentrated in a few hands, In a democratic setup, ordinary citizens have the right to vote, express their opinions, and actively engage in the decision-making process. This not only values the intelligence of individuals but also recognizes the diverse perspectives and experiences that contribute to the overall well-being of society.
  • Democracy encourages the development of a politically aware and informed citizenry, fostering a sense of responsibility and participation among people.
Answer: (a) The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?

  1. Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
  2. Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
  3. FDI inflows will drastically increase.
  4. Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • UPI allows instant fund transfers directly from bank accounts, reducing the need for mobile wallets as intermediaries for online payments.
  • Difference between UPI and digital wallets:
    • Unified payment interface (UPI) transaction is a direct bank to bank transfer whereas digital wallets act like intermediaries between bank accounts.
    • UPI uses virtual payment address and identity whereas digital wallets use mobile number.
    • UPI transactions can take place between any two banks whereas digital wallets transactions occur between two accounts in the same digital wallet app.
Answer: (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments; Difficulty Level: Easy

The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. Observation and understanding of the Universe
  2. Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
  3. Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
  4. Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • All these concepts aim to explain the fundamental nature and structure of the Universe.
  • Event horizon: It is the spherical outer boundary of a black hole loosely considered to be its “surface.” It is the point, according to NASA, that the gravitational influence of the black hole becomes so great that not even light is fast enough to escape it.
  • Singularity: It refers to a region in space where the gravitational field becomes infinitely strong, and the laws of physics break down. It is believed to exist at the center of black holes, where matter is compressed into an infinitely small space, creating infinite density.
  • String theory: It is a theoretical framework in physics that suggests the fundamental building blocks of the universe are not point-like particles but rather tiny, one-dimensional “strings.” The study of string theory is part of the broader effort to understand the fundamental nature of the universe.
  • Standard Model: It is a well-established theory that describes the fundamental particles (like quarks and leptons) and the forces (electromagnetic, weak, and strong) that govern their interactions.

Diagram explaining fundamental particles in physics, categorizing matter into bosons and fermions with detailed descriptions and examples. It features color-coded sections with labeled particle types, properties, and roles, highlighting key particles like photons, gluons, quarks, leptons, and Higgs boson, along with their interactions and classifications.

Answer: (a) Observation and understanding of the universe; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

  1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
  2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
  3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • A genome is the DNA, or sequence of genes, in a cell.
  • Most of the DNA is in the nucleus and intricately coiled into a structure called the chromosome.
  • The rest is in the mitochondria, the cell’s powerhouse, and some is chloroplast DNA.
  • Every human cell contains a pair of chromosomes, each of which has three billion base pairs or one of four molecules – adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) – that pair in precise ways.
  • The order of base pairs & varying lengths of these sequences constitutes the “genes”.
  • Genes are responsible for making amino acids, proteins and, thereby, everything that is necessary for the body to function.

Diagram comparing RNA and DNA structures, highlighting nucleobases and double helix formation. RNA strand shows nucleobases cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil, while DNA strand shows cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine, with labeled base pairs and sugar-phosphate helix.

  • Sequencing a genome means deciphering the exact order of base pairs in an individual. This “deciphering” or reading of the genome is what sequencing is all about.
  • In this particular piece of DNA, an adenine (A) is followed by a guanine (G), which is followed by a thymine (T), which in turn is followed by a cytosine (C), another cytosine (C), and so on.

  • Genome sequencing allows scientists to map out the entire genetic structure of crops. By analysing the genetic information, researchers can identify specific genetic markers linked to desirable traits such as disease resistance and drought tolerance. This helps in breeding programs where crops with these traits can be selectively bred, ultimately leading to the development of more resilient crop varieties suitable for changing environmental conditions.
Statement 2 is correct
  • By identifying specific genes responsible for desired traits, scientists can create targeted breeding strategies, significantly reducing the time required to develop and introduce new crop varieties with improved traits like yield, pest resistance, or climate resilience.
Statement 3 is correct
  • It helps decode the genetic response of both the host (crop) and the pathogen. This understanding can lead to the identification of genetic traits that make crops vulnerable to diseases, enabling researchers to develop strategies to strengthen disease resistance or even modify the crops genetically to withstand infections,
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

  1. the executive and legislature work independently.
  2. it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
  3. the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
  4. the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • In a parliamentary system, the executive branch (Prime Minister as head of Government) is drawn from the legislative branch. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., the council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
Answer: (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

  1. Rights are correlative with Duties.
  2. Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
  3. Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
  4. Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Rights and duties are interdependent. For every right guaranteed to citizens, there is a corresponding duty. For example, the right to freedom of speech comes with the duty to not misuse this freedom to harm others or disrupt public order. This relationship ensures responsible citizenship and societal balance, as duties help protect and realize the rights of individuals while promoting the common good.
Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties; Difficulty Level: Easy

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

  1. The Preamble
  2. The Fundamental Rights
  3. The Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. The Fundamental Duties

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
  • In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Answer: (a) The Preamble; Difficulty Level: Easy

If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • If you travel by road from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala), you will pass through the following minimum states:
    • Nagaland (origin)
    • Assam
    • West Bengal
    • Odisha
    • Andhra Pradesh
    • Tamil Nadu (or Karnataka)
    • Kerala (destination)
  • Thus, you pass through 7 states including both the origin and destination. You can either pass through Tamil Nadu to reach Kerala or go via Karnataka.
Answer: (b) 7; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

  1. Adjournment motion
  2. Question hour
  3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The adjournment motion is correct
  • It is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance, and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
  • As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.
  • The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following restrictions:
    • It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance;
    • It should not cover more than one matter;
    • It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed in general terms;
    • It should not raise a question of privilege;
    • It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session;
    • It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court; and
    • It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.
Question hour and supplementary questions are correct
  • The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this.
  • It is during this one hour that Members of Parliament ask questions of ministers and hold them accountable for the functioning of their ministries.
  • The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice. A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
  • An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
  • A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members.

Diagram illustrating a typical day in Lok Sabha with a timeline from 11 AM to 6 AM, highlighting key sessions such as Ques Hour, Zero Hour, Legislative Business, and Lunch break. Color-coded blocks and icons mark specific periods, emphasizing papers tabled, bills introduced, special mentions, and reserved hours for private members' business on Fridays.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

  1. Kakinada
  2. Motupalli
  3. Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
  4. Nelluru

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Motupalli had served as an international port during the early and medieval periods. Italian traveller Marco Polo, who had visited the port in 1287 AD, had given a vivid account of the flourishing trade activities at the port during the reign of Kakatiya queen Rudrama Devi. Inscriptions of Kakatiya Ganapathi Deva, Anapotha Reddy of the Kondaveedu dynasty and Deva Raya II of the Vijayanagara dynasty, mention about the port and the incentives provided to the sea-borne traders.

Additional Information

  • The Kakatiyas were the feudatories of the Chalukyas of Kalyani.
  • Kakati Rudradeva (Prataprudra I), the founder of the Kakatiya state, succeeded in overpowering the Chalukya ruler, Tailapa III, during the second half of the 12th century (c. 1162).
  • Ganapati, Rudramadevi and Prataprudra II were other important rulers of the dynasty. Their rule extended over most of the Andhra region up to Godavari, Kanchi, Kurnool and Cudappah districts.
  • Ulugh Khan (later Muhammad Tughlaq) overran the whole of Telingana in 1322 and thus sealed the fate of the Kakatiya rule.
  • The Ramappa Temple, also known as the Rudreshwara Temple, is a Kakatiya-style Hindu temple dedicated to the god Shiva, located in Telangana was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Kakinada is an important port city in Andhra Pradesh but was not a major seaport during the Kakatiya dynasty (The modern Kakinada Port started from 1805).
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Machilipatnam, also known as Masulipatnam, is a historic port town in Andhra Pradesh. However, during the Kakatiya dynasty it was not a major seaport, It served as the settlement of European traders from the 16th century, and it was a major trading port for the Portuguese, British, Dutch and French in the 17th century.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Krishnapatnam Port is a privately built and owned all weather, deep water port on the east coast of India, located in the Nellore District of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer: (b) Motupalli; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
  2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
  3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  • Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is an initiative of the European Union launched in 2007; it evolved into Global Climate Change Alliance Plus (GCCA+) in 2015. It primarily supports Small Island Developing States (SIDS) and Least Developed Countries (LDCs) in building climate resilience; later expanded to middle-income countries and supports Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
  • It also serves as a platform for dialogue and experience-sharing between the EU and developing countries on climate policy integration into development planning and budgets at global, regional, and national levels
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The European Commission’s Directorate General for International Cooperation and Development (EuropeAid) manages the overall implementation of the GCCA+ initiative. The European Union acts as the permanent trustee.

Additional Information

  • World Resources Institute (WRI): Established in 1982. It is a global research organisation focused on addressing critical environmental and development challenges.
  • World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD): Established in 1995. It is a global, CEO-led organisation of over 200 leading businesses that work together to promote sustainable development through business solutions.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
  2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Sautrantika and Sammitiya were sects of early Buddhism.

Additional Information

  • Buddhism was bifurcated as Hinayana and Mahayana.
    • Vaibhasika and Sautrantika are the philosophical sects of Hinayana.
  • Yogacara and Madhyamika are the philosophical sects of Mahayana.
  • These four sects of Buddhist philosophy, along with Cārvaka and Jainism, constitute six schools of heterodox philosophies (nāstika darśana).
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Sarvastivadins, a school of realistic and pluralistic Buddhist philosophers, believed in the doctrine of “Sarvam asti” (everything exists), meaning that the elements or phenomena (dharmas) exist across past, present, and future, but not as a permanent self or soul. They maintained that these phenomena persist in a latent form, rather than being entirely momentary.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries

  1. Jordan
  2. Iraq
  3. Lebanon
  4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • It is an intercontinental sea that is bordered by the continent of Europe in the north, by Asia in the east, and by Africa in the south. In the extreme northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Dardanelles Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Bosporus Strait. In the west, the Mediterranean Sea is connected to the Atlantic Ocean via the narrow Strait of Gibraltar. It is connected to the Red Sea via the Suez Canal in the southeast.
  • Mediterranean Sea bordering countries:
    • 22 countries and one territory (Gibraltar – a British Overseas Territory) have coasts on the Mediterranean Sea.
    • The European Countries are Italy, Malta, Monaco, Spain, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Slovenia, Albania, France and Greece.
    • The West Asian countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea are Turkey, Lebanon, Syria, Israel, the Palestinian Gaza Strip and the divided island of Cyprus.
    • North African nations bordering the Mediterranean Sea are Morocco, Algeria, Tunisia, Libya and Egypt.

Map showing Mediterranean Sea and surrounding countries in Europe, Africa, and the Middle East, highlighting key water bodies such as Strait of Gibraltar, Suez Canal, and Nile River. The map includes labeled seas like Balearic, Tyrrhenian, Ionian, and Alboran, with country borders and major geographical features for regional context.

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct

  1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
  2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4,00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect
  • The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), established in 2015, is India’s sovereign wealth fund aimed at attracting capital for infrastructure projects. It was set up as a sovereign wealth fund and is registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under SEBI Regulations, 2012, as a Category II Alternate Investment Fund (AIF). It is not an organ of NITI Aayog
  • The Governing Council of NIIF is chaired by the Finance Minister. The proposed corpus of NIIF was Rs 40,000 Crores. The Centre had committed to investing Rs 20,000 crore in the fund, while the remaining was expected to come from private and global investors.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an.

  1. ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
  2. World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
  3. Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
  4. UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a World Bank collaboration aimed at supporting the development of complex infrastructure projects, particularly those involving Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs).
  • It focuses on helping governments prepare and structure projects to attract private sector and institutional investors’ capital, facilitating infrastructure investments globally.
  • The GIF acts as a platform for collaboration among governments, multilateral development banks, and the private sector to mobilize resources for infrastructure projects.
Answer: (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital; Difficulty Level: Hard

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by.

  1. anyone residing in India.
  2. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
  3. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
  4. any citizen of India.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • To be eligible for membership in the Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of India’s Parliament, a person must meet certain qualifications:
    • The candidate must be a citizen of India.
    • The candidate must be at least 25 years old.
    • To be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha, the candidate must be a registered voter in an Indian parliamentary constituency (Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency).
Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
  2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
  3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Indian Himalayan Region is spread across 13 Indian States/Union Territories (namely Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Assam and West Bengal), stretching across 2500 km.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. The Western Ghats are a UNESCO World Heritage site.
Statement 3 is correct
  • Pulicat is a vast, shallow, brackish-water lagoon covering an area of 759 sq km along the coast of the Bay of Bengal. It straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states on the Coromandel Coast in South India. It is the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India after Odisha’s Chilika lake
  • The lake receives its water from the Arani River at its southern tip, the Kalangi River from the Northwest, and the Swarnamukhi River at the northern end. The lake runs parallel to the Bay of Bengal and has a sand bar, making it a lagoon of its own kind.
  • The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lake from the Bay of Bengal.
    • Sriharikota is renowned as India’s rocket launch pad and is home to Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
  • It supports the largest congregation of Flamingoes in Andhra Pradesh.
Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for.

  1. Measuring oxygen levels in blood
  2. Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
  3. Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
  4. Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
  • BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria to decompose the organic wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
  • The higher value of BOD indicates high pollution due to biodegradable organic wastes and low DO content of water. Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials, it is not a reliable method of measuring water pollution.

Table categorizing water quality based on BOD levels in mg/liter, using color-coded ranges: green (1-2) for very good, yellow (3-5) for fair, orange (6-9) for poor, and red (100 or more) for very poor. Each category includes a brief description of pollution level and presence of organic matter or microorganisms.

Image source: MRC LAB

Answer: (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
  2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
  3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities. UN-Habitat is the focal point for all urbanization and human settlement matters within the UN system. It was established in 1978 as an outcome of the First UN Conference on Human Settlements and Sustainable Urban Development (Habitat I) which was held in Vancouver, Canada in 1976.
  • UN-Habitat reports to the United Nations General Assembly. It has its headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • UN-Habitat collaborates with governments, intergovernmental, UN agencies, civil society organizations, foundations, academic institutions and the private sector to achieve enduring results in addressing the challenges of urbanization.
Statement 3 is correct
  • UN-Habitat promotes urbanization as a positive transformative force for people and communities, reducing inequality, discrimination and poverty.
  • IT contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
  2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • NSQF in India was notified in December 2013. It is a nationally integrated education and competency-based framework that enables persons to acquire desired competency levels. It organizes qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude.
  • These levels, graded from one to ten, are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess regardless of whether they were acquired through formal, non-formal or informal learning.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Specific outcomes expected from implementation of NSQF are:
    • Mobility between vocational and general education by alignment of degrees with NSQF
    • Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL), allowing transition from non-formal to organized job market
    • Standardized, consistent, nationally acceptable outcomes of training across the country through a national quality assurance framework
    • Global mobility of skilled workforce from India, through international equivalence of NSQF
    • Mapping of progression pathways within sectors and cross-sectors
    • Mapping of progression pathways within sectors and cross-sectors
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

In the context of Indian history, the principle of `Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to

  1. Division of the central legislature into two houses.
  2. Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
  3. Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
  4. Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Government of India Act of 1919 introduced the dyarchy at the provincial level, i.e. dual government in the provinces. Under this, the provincial administration was divided between reserved and transferred subjects.
    • Reserved List: The councillors nominated by the Governor controlled reserved subjects and were not responsible to the provincial legislature. It included key subjects such as defence (the military), foreign affairs, and communications.
    • Transferred List: Transferred subjects were controlled by the ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. It included agriculture, supervision of local government, health, and education.
  • Government of India Act of 1935 abolished the dyarchy at provinces and introduced provincial autonomy. The distinction between transferred and reserved subjects was removed, and the administration was entrusted with the ministers responsible to the legislature.
Answer: (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

  1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
  2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect
  • National Career Service (NCS) is an online solution from Ministry of Labour and Employment for employers to post job openings and for those seeking jobs to apply for these positions, in both private as well as Government sectors. The overarching goal is to offer a diverse range of employment-related services, encompassing job matching, career counseling, vocational guidance, details on skill development courses, and opportunities for internships.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?

  1. It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
  2. It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
  3. It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
  4. It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code recently implemented by the Government.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The RBI had introduced the S4A scheme in 2016 and ended in February 2018.
  • It aims to provide a framework for banks to segregate the sustainable and unsustainable portions of the debt, facilitating a more effective resolution process.
Answer: (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
  2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • In 2012, a few nations, along with the UNEP, formed the Climate and Clean Air Coalition.
Statement 2 is correct
  • It is a partnership of governments, public and private sectors, scientific institutions, civil society organisations, etc., committed to protecting the climate through actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants. SLCPs have relatively short lifetime in the atmosphere – a few days to a few decades.
  • Though shortlived, their potential to warm the atmosphere can be many times greater than CO2.
  • SLCPs are responsible for up to 45% of current global warming, only next to CO2.
  • SLCPs include black carbon, methane, tropospheric ozone, and hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
  2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two areas (or poles, hence a dipole) ― a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia. Similar to ENSO, the atmospheric component of the IOD was later discovered and named as Equatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation (EQUINOO: oscillation of warm water and atmospheric pressure between the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea).
Statement 2 is correct
  • During positive IOD, winds over the Indian Ocean blow from east to west (from the Bay of Bengal towards the Arabian Sea). This results in the Arabian Sea (the western Indian Ocean near African Coast) being much warmer and the eastern Indian Ocean around Indonesia becoming colder and dry. In the negative dipole year (negative IOD), the reverse happens to make Indonesia much warmer and rainier.
  • It was demonstrated that a positive IOD index often negated the effect of ENSO, resulting in increased Monsoon rains in several ENSO years like 1983, 1994 and 1997.

Diagram illustrating Indian Ocean Dipole's positive and negative phases, showing ocean temperature variations and associated weather patterns. Positive phase features warmer water and heavy rains near Africa with drought near Indonesia, while negative phase shows warmer water and heavy rains near Indonesia with drought near Africa, with thermocline and water temperature changes labeled.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

  1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
  2. Chambal River
  3. Pulicat Lake
  4. Deepor Beel

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Gharials, sometimes called gavials, are a type of Asian crocodilian distinguished by their long, thin snouts.
  • Distribution: The only viable population in the National Chambal Sanctuary is spread across the states of Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh in India. Small non-breeding populations exist in Son, Gandak, Hoogly and Ghagra rivers.
  • Habitat: Clean rivers with sand banks (Fresh Water).
  • Conservation Status: IUCN: Critically Endangered | WPA, 1972: Schedule-I
  • Threats: The combined effects of dams, barrages, artificial embankments, changes in river course, pollution, sand-mining, riparian agriculture and ingress of domestic and feral livestock.
  • and Sammitiya were sects of early Buddhism.

Additional Information

  • About Chambal River:
    • Source: Vindhya range, Janapav near Mhow (M.P.)
    • States: Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
    • Left bank tributaries: Banas, Mej
    • Right bank tributaries: Parbati, Kali Sindh, Shipra rivers
    • Dams: Gandhi Sagar dam (M.P.), Rana Pratap Sagar dam (Rajasthan), Jawahar Sagar Dam (Rajasthan)
    • The National Chambal Sanctuary for Gharial is also situated in the Chambal basin.
    • Ends as the confluence of five rivers, including the Chambal, Kwari, Yamuna, Sind, and Pahuj, at Pachnada near Bhareh (Uttar Pradesh).
Option (a) is incorrect
  • The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa), the second largest in India, harbour a high concentration of typical mangrove species and high genetic diversity. They cover the area of Brahmani and Baitarani River deltas.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • The Pulicat Lake, the second largest brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika, sprawling across Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • It is a permanent freshwater lake in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River. It is a few kilometres to the left of Guwahati, whereas Pobitora WLS is around 35 km to the right.
  • Threats: over-fishing, hunting, pollution from pesticides, and infestation by water hyacinth.
  • Endangered Avifauna: Grey Pelican or Spot-billed pelican (VU), Lesser Adjutant Stork (VU), Greater Adjutant Stork (EN), Baer’s Pochard (CR).
Answer: (b) Chambal River; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

  1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
  2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct
  • The IONS is a regional forum of Indian Ocean littoral states, launched by India in 2008.
  • It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
  • Objective: To generate a flow of information between navies that would lead to common understanding and possibly cooperative solutions to future maritime problems and challenges.
  • Under the IONS Charter of Business adopted in 2014, the forum has working groups on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR), Information Security and Interoperability (IS&I), and Maritime security (anti-piracy).
  • 25 Member States, geographically divided into 4 subregions:
    • South Asian Littorals: Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, and the U.K.
    • West Asian Littorals: Iran, Oman, Saudi Arabia, Qatar and UAE.
    • East African Littorals: France, Kenya, Mauritius, Mozambique, South Africa, and Tanzania.
    • South-East Asian and Australian Littorals: Australia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Singapore, Thailand, and Timor Leste.
  • 9 Observer countries: China, Germany, Italy, Japan, Madagascar, the Netherlands, Russia, Spain, Korea (latest addition).
  • The Chair rotates every 2 years.
  • In 2018, IONS conducted its first-ever operational exercise called ‘IMMSAREX’, under the IONS Charter.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

  1. Ajanta
  2. Badami
  3. Bagh
  4. Ellora

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Padmapani painting can be found at Ajanta Caves and is the most acknowledged among all the Bodhisattvas (The bodhisattva of compassion). Ajanta Cave Paintings are one of the oldest surviving murals of Indian sub-continent, Ajanta caves were carved between 2nd century BC to 5th century AD out of volcanic rocks. It consists of a set of 29 caves, carved in a horse-shoe shape. These Buddhist caves are quite popular for their exquisite mural paintings. Murals in Cave no. 9 and 10 belong to the Shunga period, while the rest belong to the Gupta period.
  • The walls of the caves have both murals and fresco paintings (painted on wet plaster). They use tempera style, i.e. use of pigments.

    • Padmapani painting can be found at Ajanta Caves and is the most acknowledged among all the Bodhi-sattvas (The bodhisattva of compassion). Ajanta Cave Paintings are one of the oldest surviving murals of Indian sub-continent, Ajanta caves were carved between 2nd century BC to 5th century AD out of vol-canic rocks.

    Image Source: Metmuseum

Additional Information:

  • Some important paintings at Ajanta are: Scenes from the Jataka stories of the Buddha’s former lives as a Bodhisattva, the life of Gautam Buddha, etc.
    • Paintings of various Bodhisattvas in tribhanga pose in Cave No. 1: Vajrapani (protector and guide, a symbol of Buddha’s power), Manjusri (manifestation of Buddha’s wisdom) and Padmapani (Avalokitesvara) (symbol of Buddha’s compassion).
    • The Dying Princess in Cave No. 16.
    • Scene of Shibi Jataka, where King Shibi offered his own flesh to save the pigeon.
    • Scene of Matri-Poshaka Jataka where the ungrateful person saved by an elephant, gives out his whereabouts to the king.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Located in Karnataka, Badami was the capital of early Chalukyas. It has 4 cave temples based on Hinduism (03 caves) and Jainism (01 cave). This rock cut architecture dates back to 6th century AD and were developed by Chalukyas. They are the earliest known example of temples in the Deccan region.
  • Murals at Badami caves are one of the earliest surviving Hindu paintings.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Located on the bank of Baghni River in Madhya Pradesh, it is a group of nine Buddhist caves developed around 5th-6th century AD. It is architecturally very similar to the Ajanta caves. Most significant cave here is Rang Mahal. Paintings in Bagh caves are more materialistic rather than spiritualistic.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Ellora is a group of 34 caves – 17 Brahmanical, 12 Buddhist and 5 Jain. These set of caves were developed during the period between 5th and 11th centuries AD (newer as compared to Ajanta Caves)
  • The mural paintings at Ellora caves are found in five caves, mostly limited to Cave No. 16, i.e., Kailasha Temple.
  • Some prominent Ellora cave paintings are:
    • Images of Goddess Lakshmi and Lord Vishnu
    • Images of Lord Shiva with his followers.
    • Beautiful and gracious Apsaras.
Answer: (a) Ajanta; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Traditions Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari Santhals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. None of the above

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Chailo Sahib or Chaliha is a forty-day festival which falls in the months of July – August when Sindhis observe fast for forty days to please their God Jhulelal.
Pair 2 is incorrect
  • Nanda Devi Raj Jat Yatra is a famous pilgrimage and cultural festival that takes place in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, India. The yatra is held every twelve years and is considered one of the most important religious events in the region. The pilgrimage involves a 280-kilometer trek that circumambulates the Nanda Devi peak, which is believed to be the abode of the goddess Nanda Devi, a deity revered by the locals.
Pair 3 is incorrect
  • The Warkari sect has been a part of Hindu culture in Maharashtra since it emerged as a ‘Panth’ during the Bhakti Movement in the 13th century CE. The term ‘warkari’ is a combination of two words: “war” (short for “wari”) meaning “pilgrimage,” and “kari” meaning person who performs the pilgrimage.
  • It is a non-Brahmanical tradition that worships Lord Vitthal or Vithoba (deity of Pandharpur), which is seen as a form of Vishnu or Krishna.
  • They chant the name of the Lord (nam japa), sing abhangs (holy song), and read haripath (sacred text), along the journey. They conduct their annual pilgrimage known as ‘wari’ on the auspicious occasion of Ashadi Ekadashi.
  • Tukaram, Namdev, Chokhamela, Eknath, and Dnyaneshwar are among the saints and gurus of the bhakti movement associated with the Warkaris, and they are all given the dignified title of ‘Sant.’
    1. forests and wild life (Article 48 A).

Additional Information

  • Gonds are found in MP, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Telangana, UP, WB, and Odisha
  • Important festival of Gonds:
    • Keslapur Jathra: In this festival they worship the snake deity called Nagoba.
    • Madai: It is the festival when Gonds meet their relatives settled in various parts of the country.
    • Gusadi dance is the most famous dance perfomed by the Gonds. It is performed by wearing head gears decorated with the peacock feathers.
  • Santhals inhabit Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, and WB.
  • Important festival of Santhals:
    • Baha festival: Baha (flower) festival marks the onset of spring.
    • Karam festival: They celebrate this festival to please the God to increase their wealth and free them from all the enemies.
    • Other festivals of the Santhal community include Maghe, BabaBonga, Sahrai, Ero, Asaria and Namah. They also celebrate haunting festival called Disum sendra on the eve of Baishakhi Purnima.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?

  1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land ‎
  2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field ‎
  3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field ‎
Select the correct answer using the code given below: ‎
  1. 1 and 2 only‎
  2. 3 only ‎
  3. 1 and 3 only ‎
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Practice 1 is correct
  • Zero tillage is a minimum tillage practice in which the crop is sown directly into soil not tilled since the harvest of the previous crop. It helps in water conservation by minimizing soil disturbance, which improves water retention, reduces evaporation, and enhances soil structure.
Practice 2 is incorrect
  • Applying gypsum before irrigation can improve soil structure and drainage, but it does not directly conserve water. Excessive use may also increase the leaching of nutrients and salts.
Practice 3 is correct
  • Crop residues can improve soil structure, increase organic matter content in the soil, reduce evaporation, and help fix CO2 in the soil.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

  1. Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
  2. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
  3. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 3 is correct
  • Soil Health Card Scheme is under implementation since 2015 to provide Soil Health Card to all farmers. Soil Health Card provides information to farmers on the soil nutrient status of their soil and recommendations on the appropriate dosage of nutrients to be applied for improving soil health and its fertility.
  • Soil Health Card scheme has been merged in Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) cafeteria scheme as its one component under the name ‘Soil Health & Fertility’ from the year 2022-23. The Soil Health Card portal has been revamped and integrated with a Geographic Information System (GIS) system so that all the test results are captured and seen on a map.
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
  • Expanding irrigated cultivable area is not a primary objective of the scheme. Also, banks do not directly use Soil Health Cards to determine loan amounts; credit decisions depend on factors such as land ownership, crop type, and credit history.
Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Commonly used/consumed materials Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
1. Lipstick Lead
2. Soft drinks Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food Monosodium glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Lipsticks have been found to contain trace amounts of lead.
  • WHO has identified lead as 1 of the 10 chemicals of major public health concern.

Infographic explaining lead exposure and its adverse health effects, highlighting how lead enters the body through inhalation, ingestion, and absorption, and accumulates in bones. It details lead-induced issues across neurological, gastrointestinal, reproductive, blood, and renal systems, using color-coded sections, icons, and bullet points to emphasize symptoms like peripheral neuropathy, nausea, miscarriages, anemia, and kidney damage.

Pair 2 is correct
  • BVO is a chemical ingredient containing bromine, which is found in fire retardants. Small quantities of BVO are used legally (in some countries) in some citrus-flavored drinks in the to keep the flavor evenly distributed. According to the Center for Science in the Public Interest, BVO was banned in the UK in 1970, followed by India in 1990, the EU in 2008 and Japan in 2010.
  • As per research BVO was is not safe for use and have potential for adverse effects in humans (which has been linked to health issues such as neurological symptoms and thyroid disorders).
Pair 3 is correct
  • MSG is an amino acid found in your body and most foods. As a flavour enhancer commonly added to Chinese food, canned vegetables, soups, and processed meats. When consumed in excess, it can cause several health issues.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital displays in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

  1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
  2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
  3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None of the above statements is correct

Explanation

All are correct
  • Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are a type of display technology that uses organic compounds that emit light when an electric current passes through them. Unlike traditional Liquid Crystal Displays (LCDs), which require a backlight to illuminate the screen, each pixel in an OLED display produces its own light.
  • OLEDs can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates, allowing for lightweight, bendable displays. Due to their flexibility and thin form factor, OLEDs enable rollable displays and can be embedded in wearable items. OLED technology allows for transparent displays, as they do not require backlighting like LCDs, enabling the creation of see-through screens.
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

  1. Arasavalli
  2. Amarakantak
  3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Arsavalli is correct
  • Along with Konark, Modhera, and Arasavalli (in Andhra Pradesh), are some of the famous Sun Temples in India. As per inscriptions, the Arasavalli Temple was believed to have been built by Devendra Verma of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
Amarakantak is incorrect
  • The town of Amarkantak is located in Madhya Pradesh. It is situated on the Maikal mountain range which links the Vindhyachal and Satpura mountain ranges.
  • Amarkantak is known primarily as a religious place. The holy rivers Narmada and Sone originate from here. Another important river Johilla, too originates from Amarkantak.
Omkareshwar is incorrect
  • This is a revered Hindu shrine (located in MP) dedicated to Lord Shiva and is one of the 12 sacred Jyotirlingas.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Though the Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of the Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of the Lok Sabha or the State assembly. Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation (First-past-the-post system) for the election of members. Under territorial representation, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected.
    • In this system, a candidate who secures the majority of votes (not 50% of votes polled) is declared elected.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Constitution of India does not explicitly lay down a provision reserving the Speaker’s post for the majority party or the Deputy Speaker’s post for the opposition. While it is a convention that the Speaker generally belongs to the ruling party/coalition and the Deputy Speaker’s post has, at times, been offered to the opposition, this is based on parliamentary conventions and mutual understanding, not a constitutional mandate.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

  1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
  3. FDI inflows increased.
  4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  1. Since the 1990s, India’s economy has been transitioning from agriculture to a more service-oriented focus, with agriculture contributing a decreasing share to the country’s GDP. Economic Survey 2023-24 says that the Indian agriculture sector provides livelihood support to about 42.3 per cent of the population and has a share of 18.2 per cent in the country’s GDP at current prices.
Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  • After the liberalisation of its economic policies in 1991, India experienced a notable increase in its share of exports in world trade, as the economy opened up and integrated more with global markets. Additionally, liberalization policies played a crucial role in encouraging foreign direct investment (FDI), leading to a significant rise in FDI inflows into the country. Furthermore, post-liberalization, India saw a substantial increase in its foreign exchange reserves, driven by heightened trade and FDI activities.
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

  1. Production of bio-larvicides
  2. Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
  3. Reproductive cloning of animals
  4. Production of organisms free of diseases

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) is a technology used primarily for reproductive cloning. In this process, the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell is transferred into an egg cell that has had its nucleus removed. This technique can be used to create a genetically identical copy (clone) of the donor animal.
  • SCNT was famously used to clone Dolly the sheep, the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell. Another notable example of SCNT is the cloning of a Rhesus monkey (name- ReTro) by Chinese scientists, who successfully cloned the monkey and observed it reaching adulthood
Answer: (c) Reproductive cloning of animals; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country.
  2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payment settlement systems in India. It was established jointly by the RBI and the Indian Bank’s Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 to create a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Services Offered by NPCI:
    • Bharat Bill Payment Interface (BBPI): It was developed to help the retail payments sector. With its introduction, a single platform has been created for aggregators and billpayers.
    • Immediate Payment Service (IMPS): This facility allows you to transfer funds immediately and is available at any time.
    • RuPay: NPCI introduced RuPay so that average citizens can make financial decisions. RuPay is an affordable card and can be issued as credit cards, debit cards, and prepaid cards. More than 300 million RuPay cards are in India.
    • USSD Services: Unstructured Supplementary Service Date (USSD) was introduced by the NPCI to allow individuals to make banking solutions without the need for the internet or smartphones.
    • BHIM: BHIM uses UPI to complete payment transfers. You can make payments via BHIM by entering the Virtual Payment Address (VPA) or the registered mobile number. No smartphone is required to transfer funds via BHIM.
    • UPI: United Payments Interface (UPI) allows you to transfer funds from your smartphone.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
  2. Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
  3. Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
  4. Security of National Highways

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • MSTrIPES: Monitoring system for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status.
  • It was launched across Indian tiger reserves by National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and WII in 2010. It is a software-based monitoring system, designed to assist wildlife protection.
  • The system consists of two components:
    • field based protocols for patrolling, law enforcement, recording wildlife crimes and ecological monitoring,
    • a customized GIS software for storage, retrieval, analysis and reporting.
  • Under MSTrIPES, forest guards are expected to record their tracks using a GPS, in addition to recording observations in site-specific data sheets. The app records the staff’s path and helps upload geo-tagged pictures into the central GIS database.
Answer: (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

  1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
  2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
  3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • GST unified India’s tax system, creating a single market that removed interstate barriers and boosted operational efficiency. It ended tax cascading by allowing businesses to claim input tax credit across the supply chain, reducing overall tax burden and simplifying compliance.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • It significantly affects the domestic tax system and structure by simplifying and unifying various indirect taxes under one framework. However, it has no direct impact that will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ and increase India’s foreign exchange reserves.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • It would be inaccurate to claim that GST alone will be the reason for India’s economy surpassing China’s in the near future. Economic growth depends on multiple factors, including investment, infrastructure, labor markets, and global economic conditions, beyond just tax reforms like GST.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

  1. European Union
  2. Gulf Cooperation Council
  3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
  4. Shanghai Cooperation Organization

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • India and the European Union began negotiations in 2007 for a Free Trade Agreement known as the Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA). The agreement aims to enhance trade, investment, and economic cooperation between India and the EU. Recently, both sides concluded a landmark Free Trade Agreement, marking a significant upgrade in their bilateral economic relations.
Answer: (a) European Union; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
  2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
  3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • India ratified the WTO’s Agreement on Trade Facilitation (TFA) in April 2016 and constituted the National Committee on Trade Facilitation (NCTF) Committee, which is part of the mandatory, institutional arrangement of the TFA. The TFA contains provisions for expediting the movement, release and clearance of goods, including goods in transit.
  • It also sets out measures for effective cooperation between customs and other appropriate authorities on trade facilitation and customs compliance issues.
Statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is incorrect
  • WTO members concluded negotiations at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference on the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which entered into force on 22 February 2017 following its ratification by two-thirds of the WTO membership.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

  1. India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
  2. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
  3. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
  4. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Chabahar Port will provide India with an alternative trade route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan, which denies India land access to these regions
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