UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2020

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2020 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2020 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2020

Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data.
3. Aadhar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the consolidated fund of India.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Regulation 27 of Aadhaar (Authentication Regulations) 2016, which allowed retention of data for 5 years, was struck down by the Supreme Court. As per the SC Judgement in 2018, retention of data beyond six months is impermissible.

Statement 2 is correct

• In its 2018 judgment, the Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar could be used for welfare purposes while affirming the fundamental right to privacy. The Court struck down Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, which allowed private entities to use Aadhaar authentication for identity verification in service delivery. The state cannot enter into contracts with private companies for sharing Aadhaar data.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• As per IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India), Aadhaar is not mandatory to buy an insurance policy.

Statement 4 is correct

• As per section 7 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016, any individual who is desirous of availing any subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, shall be required to furnish proof of possession of an Aadhaar number or undergo Aadhaar-based authentication. In case the individual does not have Aadhaar, he/she shall make an application for enrolment, and the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service.

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Rajya Sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha in

1. The matter of creating new All-India services
2. Amending the constitution
3. The removal of the government
4. Making cut motions

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to those of the Lok Sabha:
  • Introduction and passage of Ordinary Bills
  • Introduction and passage of Constitutional Amendment Bills
  • Introduction and passage of Financial Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
  • Election and impeachment of the President
  • Election and removal of the Vice-President. However, removal of the Vice-President can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha. The resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha with a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha with a simple majority.
  • Recommendation for removal of the Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Chief Election Commissioner, and the Comptroller and Auditor General
  • Approval of Presidential ordinances
  • Approval of proclamations of all three types of emergencies
  • Selection of Ministers, including the Prime Minister
  • Ministers may belong to either House but are collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha
  • Consideration of reports of constitutional bodies such as the Finance Commission, UPSC, and CAG
  • Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Rajya Sabha has been given two exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:
  • It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249).
  • It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312).

Option (c) and (d) are incorrect

• In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha:
  • A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
  • Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
  • A financial bill, not containing solely the matters of Article 110, also can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. But, with regard to its passage, both the Houses have equal powers.
  • The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  • The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses.
  • The Lok Sabha with a greater number wins the battle in a joint sitting except when the combined strength of the ruling party in both the Houses is less than that of the opposition parties.
  • Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).
  • A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
  • The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because the Council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha. But the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticise the policies and activities of the government.
• A cut motion is a special power vested in members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand being discussed for specific allocation by the government in the Finance Bill as part of the Demand for Grants.
• If the motion is adopted, it amounts to a no-confidence vote, and if the government fails to jot up numbers in the lower House, it is obliged to resign according to the norms of the House.

Answer: (b) Amending the constitution; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the funds under Member of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLADS) Scheme, which of the following statements are correct?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• MPLADS enables the members of parliament (MPs) to recommend developmental work in their constituencies, emphasising creating durable community assets based on locally felt needs such as drinking water, education, public health, sanitation, roads, etc. Recommendations for non-durable assets can be made only under limited circumstances. For example, the government allowed the use of MPLAD funds to purchase personal protective equipment, coronavirus testing kits, and related items during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is incorrect

• MPLADS funds are non-lapsable, either at the end of the Union Government or the District Authority.
• MPs must recommend works yearly for SCs (15%) and STs (7.5%) areas out of the total amount.

Statement 4 is correct

• The District Authority is responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year.
• The District Authority should involve the MPs in the inspections of projects to the extent feasible.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights Incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

1. Right against Exploitation
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. Right to Equality

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Article 17 of the Indian Constitution forms a crucial component of the Right to Equality, as it promotes not only equality but also social justice by abolishing untouchability and prohibiting its practice in any form. It further declares that the enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be treated as an offence punishable by law.
• Although the term “untouchability” has not been explicitly defined either in the Constitution or in relevant legislation, the Mysore High Court clarified that Article 17 does not refer to untouchability in its literal or grammatical sense, but rather to the practice as it historically evolved in India. It specifically relates to social disabilities imposed on certain classes of persons due to their birth in particular castes, and therefore does not include instances such as social boycott of a few individuals or their exclusion from religious services. Further, the Supreme Court of India has held that the right guaranteed under Article 17 is enforceable even against private individuals, and it is the constitutional obligation of the State to take necessary measures to prevent any violation of this right.

Answer: (d) Right to Equality; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, the separation of the judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

1. The preamble of the constitution
2. a directive principle of state policy
3. The seventh schedule
4. The conventional practice

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Separation of Judiciary from Executive as contained in Article 50 of Constitution of India in Part IV dealing with Directive Principles of State Policy, which states that the State shall take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Executive in the Public Services of the State.

Answer: (b) a directive principle of state policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

Along with the budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the parliament which include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement” The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

1. Long-standing parliamentary convention
2. Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the constitution of India
3. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
4. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBM Act), aims to ensure a balance between Government revenue and government expenditure.
• The objectives of the act are:
  • Fiscal discipline.
  • Efficient management of expenditure, revenue and debt.
  • Macroeconomic stability.
  • Better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy.
  • Transparency in the fiscal operation of the Government.
• It set deficit targets for the Union and the States to control their deficits.
• The target and parameter changed along with amendments in 2012, 2012, 2015 and 2018.
• The documents that the government is required to present along with the budget as per FRBM Act are:
  • Macroeconomic Framework Statement: This statement provides an overview of the economy, including GDP growth, inflation, receipts and expenditure.
  • Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement: This statement sets out the government’s fiscal policy goals for the medium term.
  • Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement: This statement explains how the government plans for fiscal policy goals.
  • Medium-Term Expenditure Framework: This framework sets out the government’s spending plans for the medium term.

Answer: (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003; Difficulty Level: Medium

A constitutional government by definition is a

1. Government by the legislature
2. Popular government
3. Multi-party government
4. Limited government

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• A constitutional government refers to a system where the powers and functions of the government are defined and restricted by a constitution. This form of government operates within a legal framework that ensures all government actions are bound by established laws, thereby protecting individuals’ rights and liberties. Constitution ensures that the government cannot act arbitrarily or exceed its authority, as all actions must align with constitutional provisions. The principle of a constitutional government emphasises the rule of law, meaning that all citizens, including government officials, are subject to the law. This promotes accountability, transparency, and fairness in governance. Additionally, the separation of powers between the executive, legislative, and judicial branches prevents any one branch from becoming too powerful, fostering a system of checks and balances. Overall, a constitutional government seeks to limit the scope of government power to protect the freedoms and rights of its citizens, maintaining a just and orderly society.

Answer: (d) Limited government; Difficulty Level: Easy

Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

1. Preamble
2. Directive principles of state policy
3. Fundamental duties

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Preamble is correct

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution embodies key values such as justice, equality, and liberty, which are also fundamental principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). It pledges to secure for all citizens justice—social, economic, and political; equality of status and opportunity; and fraternity that upholds individual dignity and national unity. These principles resonate with Articles 1 and 2 of the UDHR, which affirm the inherent dignity and equal rights of all human beings.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are correct

• Although not legally enforceable, the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) guide the Indian state in establishing a welfare system that fosters social and economic justice. Articles 36 to 51 of the Constitution outline principles such as fair wages, the right to work, education, public health, and protections for children and women. These principles align with several UDHR articles, including rights to work, fair wages, social security, education, and an adequate standard of living.

Fundamental duties are correct

• Added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976, Fundamental Duties highlight citizens’ responsibilities to uphold constitutional values, including protecting the Constitution and respecting others’ rights. This aligns with Article 29 of the UDHR, which asserts that everyone has duties to the community and that the exercise of rights and freedoms should not infringe on others’ rights and freedoms.

Additional Information The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN on December 10, 1948, in response to the atrocities of World War II. It was discussed by the UN Commission on Human Rights and adopted by the General Assembly in the same year through Resolution 217. It created universal foundational principles regarding the perception of human rights and state-individual relationships. Although not legally binding, its principles are part of legally binding international agreements. The UDHR, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) and its two Optional Protocols, and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR), form the International Bill of Human Rights.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, legal service authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of other backward classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All senior citizens

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Those sections of the society as enlisted under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act are entitled to free legal services, they are:
  • Women and children
  • Members of SC/ST
  • Industrial workmen
  • Victims of mass disasters, violence, floods, drought, earthquakes, and industrial disasters.
  • Disabled persons
  • Persons in custody
  • Victims of Trafficking in Human beings or beggar.
  • Those persons who have an annual income of less than: The amount prescribed by the respective State Government, if the case is before any court other than the SC, and
  • Rs. 5 Lakhs if the case is before the Supreme Court.

 

• Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard.
  • In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income.
• Free legal services are provided to transgender individuals through State Legal Services Authorities.
  • In Delhi, for example, transgender individuals having an annual income of less than Rs. 4 Lac in Delhi are eligible.

Answer: (d) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

International agreement/setup	Subject
1.Alma Ata declaration	Healthcare of the people
2.Hague convention	Biological and Chemical Weapons
3.Talanoa dialogue	Global Climate Change
4.Under2 Coalition	Child Rights

Which of the pairs above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978 emerged as a major milestone of the twentieth century in the field of public health, and it identified primary health care (PHC) as the key to the attainment of the goal of Health for All. It was signed by 134 governments (including India), and 67other agencies, and the concept launched was health for all by the year 2000. In 1946, the concept of PHC was given three decades before the Alma-Ata declarations by Sir Joseph Bhore, who made recommendations for the organisation of basic health services in India.

• In October 2018, the declaration was reiterated by 197 countries around the world as they signed the Declaration of Astana that vowed to strengthen primary healthcare as an essential step for achieving universal health coverage.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• There are several Hague Conventions; however, the ones related to Biological and Chemical Weapons are not typically associated with the Hague Conventions. The Hague Conventions generally cover issues such as international law of war, child protection, and civil procedure.
• The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), which effectively prohibits biological and toxin weapons, was opened for signature on 10 April 1972 and entered into force on 26 March 1975.

Pair 3 is correct

• The Talanoa Dialogue is the UN’s strategic initiative to address climate change challenges, organized around three central questions: Where are we in terms of climate action? Where do we want to go? And how do we get there? It is designed to motivate countries to enhance their climate ambitions and generate actionable ideas.

Image Source: Carbon brief

Pair 4 is incorrect

• The Under2 Coalition Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) is an ambitious climate agreement for subnational governments. It fortifies the commitment to become a ‘net zero coalition’ by 2050, with net zero emissions targets as a baseline for membership.
• Climate Group acts as secretariat of the Under2 Coalition, which is the largest network of subnational governments committed to reaching net zero emissions. It is an international nonprofit, officially launched in 2004, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam and Beijing.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

A parliamentary system of government is one in which

1. All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government
2. The government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
3. The government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
4. The government is chosen by the parliament but cannot be removed by it before the completion of a fixed term

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The parliamentary system of government requires that the executive is accountable to the legislature for its policies and actions. This system includes several mechanisms to ensure that the executive remains answerable and under the control of the legislature or the people’s representatives. Notably, the executive can be removed through a vote of no confidence, emphasising its responsibility to the parliamentary body.

Answer: (b) The government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which part of the constitution of India declares the ideals of the welfare state?

1. Directive Principles of State policy
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Preamble
4. Seventh Schedule

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution outline the Directive Principles of State Policy, which serve as guidelines for the state (non-justiciable) in its pursuit of establishing a welfare state focused on social and economic justice. These principles stress the importance of ensuring a living wage, securing rights to work, education, and public health, and providing for the welfare of children and women. Additionally, they advocate for the creation of a social order where justice is integral to all institutions and practices within the nation.

Answer: (a) Directive Principles of State policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
2. The constitution of India provides for the ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Constitution of India does not explicitly define its basic structure. The doctrine of basic structure is propounded by the Supreme Court in the famous Kesavananda Bharti case (1973). This judgment introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine, which holds that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered or destroyed by Parliament through amendments. These fundamental features include federalism, secularism, democracy, and the protection of fundamental rights, among others. However, the Constitution itself does not explicitly list or define these as its basic structure. The interpretation and identification of what constitutes the basic structure have evolved through various judicial pronouncements over time.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the term ‘judicial review.’ However, judicial review is an implied power derived from several constitutional provisions, such as Articles 13, 32, and 226. These articles allow the Supreme Court and High Courts to review the constitutionality of laws and acts of the executive.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is:

1. The final goal of a stateless society
2. Class struggle
3. Abolition of private property
4. Economic determinism

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Both Gandhism and Marxism share the ultimate goal of achieving a stateless society, but their approaches and philosophies differ markedly. Gandhism envisions a stateless society founded on the principles of non-violence, truth, and simplicity. Gandhi advocated for establishing a self-governing society based on local, community-driven institutions.
• Marxism, rooted in the ideas of Karl Marx, aims for a classless and stateless society as the final phase of human history. Marxists see the state as a tool of class oppression that should eventually dissolve after the working class (proletariat) takes control of the means of production. In Marxist thought, the stateless society is a communist one, characterised by common ownership of the means of production and the absence of social classes.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Central to Marxism is the concept of class struggle, which drives historical change and the overthrow of capitalist societies. Marxists believe that the conflict between the proletariat (working class) and bourgeoisie (capital-owning class) is inevitable and necessary to achieve a classless society.
• Gandhi advocated for harmonious relations between classes, promoting non-violence, cooperation, and the concept of trusteeship, where the wealthy act as custodians of wealth for the welfare of society.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Marxists seek the abolition of private property as it is viewed as the root cause of exploitation and inequality. The means of production should be collectively owned to ensure that resources benefit everyone equally. Gandhi disapproved of the violent dispossession of private ownership as advocated and practised by communists. He also did not approve of state ownership as the solution to the problem of private ownership. Instead, he proposed trusteeship, in which property owners voluntarily use their wealth for the welfare of society.

Option (d) is incorrect

• This concept is fundamental to Marxism, where economic factors are seen as the primary driving force behind societal change and historical development. Marxists argue that material conditions and economic relationships shape all aspects of society, including politics, culture, and ideology.
• Gandhi’s approach was rooted in ethical and spiritual values, emphasising moral choices and human will over economic forces as drivers of change. Gandhi prioritised ethical living, non-violence, and self-reliance, distancing his philosophy from purely economic considerations.

Answer: (a) The final goal of a stateless society; Difficulty Level: Medium

In the context of India which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for Bureaucracy?

1. An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
2. An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
3. An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
4. An agency for the implementation of public policy

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Bureaucracy, also known as the administrative machinery or civil service, plays a crucial role in governance. In India, it is responsible for assisting elected representatives and ministers in formulating policies and ensuring their implementation. The bureaucracy operates under the control and supervision of the political executive (ministers) and remains politically neutral. It does not take political stances and works to implement the policies of the ruling government, irrespective of which party is in power.
• The main function of the bureaucracy is to implement public policies effectively, making option (d) the most appropriate characteristic. Other options like widening parliamentary democracy, strengthening federalism, or facilitating political stability and economic growth are indirect consequences of effective public policy implementation but are not the primary roles of the bureaucracy.

Answer: (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

The preamble to the constitution of India is

1. A part of the constitution but has no legal effect
2. Not a part of the constitution and has no legal effect either
3. A part of the constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
4. A part of the constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Preamble to the Constitution of India is considered a part of the Constitution, as clarified by the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala judgment of the Supreme Court of India. However, it is not enforceable in a court of law and does not confer any substantive powers on its own. The Preamble serves as a guiding principle for interpreting the provisions of the Constitution. It can be used to clarify ambiguities in constitutional provisions, but cannot override or operate independently of other parts of the Constitution. Earlier, in the Berubari Union Case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not a part of the Constitution, but this view was later overturned in the Kesavananda Bharati judgment.

Answer: (d) A part of the constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.; Difficulty Level: Easy

“Gold tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

1. A loan system of the World Bank
2. One of the operations of a central bank
3. A credit system of WTO granted to its members
4. A credit system granted by IMF to its members

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilised for its own purposes, without a service fee or economic reform conditions. Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are 25% of their quotas, but this position can change depending on any lending the IMF makes using its holdings of the member’s currency. The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first resort, meaning they will tap into them before seeking a formal credit tranche that charges interest.
• For any member country, out of the total quota, 25% should be paid in the form of foreign currency or gold. Hence, this is called the reserve tranche or gold tranche. The remaining 75% can be in domestic currencies, and it is called the credit tranche.

Answer: (d) A credit system granted by IMF to its members; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the Constitution of India, Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They shall be enforceable by the courts
2. They shall not be enforceable by any courts
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state.

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in Part IV of the Indian Constitution are not directly enforceable by the courts, meaning individuals cannot seek legal recourse if the government fails to implement them. However, DPSPs can indirectly influence court decisions: when a law is challenged for violating fundamental rights, courts may consider relevant DPSPs in interpreting the Constitution. DPSPs act as guidelines for the state in lawmaking and policy formulation. While not legally binding, they carry moral and political significance, urging the government to work towards achieving the social and economic objectives outlined in them

Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, A person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the legislature of that state.
2. According to the Representation of people act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Constitution of India allows a person who is not a member of the state legislature to be appointed as a minister, but this person must become a member of the legislature within six months from the date of appointment; otherwise, they cease to hold office (Article 164(4)).
• However, being merely eligible to vote does not suffice; the person must be qualified to be elected as a member of the legislature.
  • Although the voting age is set at 18 years, eligibility for becoming a Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) requires a minimum age of 25.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of election of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State, the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other offences at or in connection with such elections and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with such elections.
• It was introduced in Parliament by law minister Dr BR Ambedkar.
• There are several provisions that deal with disqualification under the RPA:
  • Disqualification is triggered for conviction under certain offences listed in Section 8(1) of The Representation of The People Act. This includes specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery, and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall in this list.
  • Section 8(2) also lists offences that deal with hoarding or profiteering, adulteration of food or drugs and for conviction and sentence of at least six months for an offence under any provisions of the Dowry Prohibition Act.
  • Section 8(3) states: “A person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release.”

PMF IAS Concept Hack Statement 1 can be eliminated because it confuses voting eligibility with eligibility to become a legislator. While the voting age is 18, a person must be at least 25 years old to become an MLA, making the statement incorrect. Statement 2 can be eliminated using the extreme claim rule, as permanent disqualification is unlikely; under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, disqualification lasts only for a limited period. Hence, both statements are incorrect.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. The president of India can summon a session of parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The constitution of India provides for three sessions of the parliament in a year but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
3. There is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session. The President exercises the power to summon the Houses on the recommendation of the Prime Minister or the Cabinet

Statement 2 is incorrect

• India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
  • The longest, the Budget Session, starts towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of May. The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss the budgetary proposals.
  • The second session is the three-week Monsoon Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.
  • The parliamentary year ends with a three week-long Winter Session, which is held from November to December.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Constitution does not provide specific details regarding the timing or duration of Parliament sessions. According to Article 85, it is only mandated that there should not be an interval exceeding six months between two consecutive sessions of Parliament.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

1.Aurang	In-charge of the treasury of the state
2.Banian	Indian agent of the East India Company
3. Mirasidar	Designated revenue payer to the state

Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Aurang: A Persian term for a warehouse a place where goods are collected before being sold; also refers to a workshop.

Pair 2 is correct

• Banians served as intermediaries for European merchants in Bengal and held significant influence in the eighteenth century.

Pair 3 is correct

• Mirasidars were landholders designated as revenue payers to the state, responsible for collecting and remitting revenue from the lands under their control.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
2. The Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered the Mahayana Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• In the second Buddhist Council held at Vaishali, the Buddhist order was split into two schools, namely:
  • sthaviravadins/Theravada and
  • Mahasangikas
• The Sthaviravadins followed strict monastic life and rigid disciplinary laws as originally prescribed.
• The group which followed a modified disciplinary rules was called the Mahasangikas.

Hinayana or Theravada? Supporters of Mahayana regarded other Buddhists as followers of Hinayana. However, followers of the older tradition described themselves as theravadins, that is, those who followed the path of old, respected teachers, the theras.

Statement 2 is correct

• Lokottaravadins, Ekavyavaharikas, Kaukkutikas and Caitika are prominent offshoots of the Mahasanghika school.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Mahasanghikas played a significant role in the development of Mahayana Buddhism by emphasizing the divine and transcendental aspects of the Buddha, which laid the foundation for the Mahayana school’s belief in multiple Buddhas and Bodhisattvas.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of the Industrial revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century?

1. Indian handicrafts were ruined
2. Machines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers
3. Railway lines were laid in many parts of the country
4. Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of British manufacturers

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In India, traditional livelihoods, especially those of weavers and artisans, suffered severely due to British policies, but this did not coincide with the emergence of indigenous industries. Instead, the British East India Company’s monopolistic control and exploitative practices systematically dismantled India’s traditional economic structure, leading to deindustrialisation.
• The Company flooded the Indian market with cheap, machine-made textiles from England, undermining local crafts and forcing Indian artisans out of work. Furthermore, high tariffs and restrictive policies prevented Indian industries from flourishing, thereby stifling any potential industrial growth. The combination of suppressed local industries and the lack of protective policies for Indian artisans created a vacuum that the local economy could not fill. This stark economic divergence between industrializing Europe and a deindustrializing India deepened the economic disparities between the two regions, illustrating the profoundly destructive impact of British colonial policies on India’s economy.

Answer: (a) Indian handicrafts were ruined; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following events in the history of India:

1. Rise of Pratiharas under king Bhoja.
2. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman-I.
3. Establishment of Chola power under Parantaka-I.
4. Pala dynasty was founded by Gopala.

What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?

1. 2-1-4-3
2. 3-1-4-2
3. 2-4-1-3
4. 3-4-1-2

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mahendravarman I (590-630 CE): Mahendravarman I ruled during a period when the Pallava dynasty emerged as a major political power. He assumed several titles such as Mattavilasa (addicted to pleasures), Chitrakarapuli (tiger among painters), Lalitankura (charming offspring), Gunabhara (virtuous), Chattakari (temple builder), and Vichitrachitta (curious-minded), reflecting his diverse talents and personality. His reign marked the beginning of the long-standing conflicts between the Pallavas and the Chalukyas. Pulakesin II of Vatapi, who had earlier defeated Harshavardhana of the Pushyabhuti dynasty, later defeated Mahendravarman I near Kanchi and advanced towards the Pallava capital. To protect his capital, Mahendravarman I agreed to a peace treaty and ceded the northern territories of his kingdom to Pulakesin II. Mahendravarman I was also a patron of art and architecture. He authored the Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana and initiated the construction of the famous cave temples at Mahabalipuram. Initially a follower of Jainism, he later embraced Shaivism under the influence of Appar.
• Gopala (around c.750 CE): According to the Khalimpur Copper Plate Inscription of Dharmapala, Gopala founded the Pala dynasty after being elected king by prominent people of the realm to end matsya-nyaya, a period marked by political disorder and anarchy. After ascending the throne, Gopala displaced the Later Guptas of Magadha and the Khadga dynasty of eastern Bengal. A devout Buddhist, Gopala is also credited by the Buddhist scholar Taranatha with building the famous monastery at Odantapuri.
• Bhoja I / Mihir Bhoja (c.836−885 CE): Mihira Bhoja was the most successful and popular ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty. Though he initially faced defeats at the hands of the Pala dynasty, Rashtrakuta dynasty, and the Kalachuri dynasty, he later recovered and, with the help of feudatories such as the Chedis and Guhilas, achieved significant victories. His capital was Kannauj, also known as Mahodaya, and the Barah Copper Plate Inscription mentions a military camp (skandhavara) there. He is identified with Juzr in the accounts of the 9th-century Arab merchant Sulaiman, who praised his military strength and wealth, while Al-Masudi referred to him as King Baura. Arab travellers also noted that the Pratihara rulers possessed the best cavalry in India. His expansion, however, was checked by Sankarvarman, Krishna II, and Devapala. A devotee of Vishnu, he adopted the title Adivaraha, and his supremacy was acknowledged by the Kalachuris, Chandelas, and the Arabs of Sindh.
• Parantaka I (c. 907−953 CE): Parantaka I was one of the most important rulers of the Chola dynasty. With the support of allies such as the Western Ganga dynasty, the Kodumbalur chiefs, and the ruler of Kerala, he achieved several military successes. He captured Madurai and assumed the titles Madurantaka (destroyer of Madurai) and Madurai-konda (capturer of Madurai). At the battle of Vellur, he defeated the combined forces of the Pandyas and the king of Sri Lanka, bringing the Pandya territories under Chola control. However, around 949 CE, he was defeated by Krishna III of the Rashtrakuta dynasty at the battle of Takkolam. Following this victory, Krishna III assumed the title Conqueror of Kanchi and Tanjai, and the Rashtrakuta forces occupied Tondaimandalam.

Answer: (c) 2-4-1-3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in sources of the post-Harsha period?

1. An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates
2. A diary to be maintained for daily routine
3. A bill of exchange
4. An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The term hundi is derived from Sanskrit hundika, the earliest usage of which dates back to 914 AD.
• The Lekhapaddhati and Kalhan’s Rajatrangini (12^th century) refer to the use of hundika by kings and nobles to make payments but it may have been used by merchants as well.
• The banker accepted short-term time deposits against bills of exchange (hundi). The hundi was a piece of paper, usually written in Hindi or any other Indian language, promising the payment of a sum of money to the bearer at a particular place either immediately or afterwards. Medieval Indian bankers like sarrafs, mahajans, and sahukars accepted deposits and provided interest-bearing loans.
• They issued hundis—promissory notes used as bills of exchange—facilitating money transfers and credit. Darshani hundis were payable on sight, while miyadi hundis were redeemable after a set period.

Answer: (c) A bill of exchange; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the book ‘Desher Katha’ written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:

1. It warned against the colonial state’s hypnotic conquest of the mind.
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Pandit Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar was born on December 17, 1869, in Deoghar. He regarded Bal Gangadhar Tilak as his political guru and played an important role in spreading Tilak’s ideas in Bengal. After Tilak initiated the Shivaji festival in Maharashtra, Deuskar introduced the festival in Bengal as well. Though of Marathi origin, he grew up in a Bengali cultural environment and served as a bridge between the intellectual and nationalist movements of Maharashtra and Bengal. He also contributed articles to several Bengali revolutionary magazines.
• Desher Katha:
  • Deuskar influenced the Swadeshi movement and other national movements through his writings.
  • In his well-known work, Desher Katha, published in 1904, Deuskar comprehensively showed the impact of colonialism on the Indian economy.
  • It was later translated into Hindi as ‘Desh Ki Baat’.
  • Desher Katha gained wide publicity during the anti-partition agitation in Bengal because it was written for the vernacular readers who could not comprehend either R C Dutta’s work “The Economic History of India” or Dadabhai Naoroji’s work “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.”
  • Desher Katha drew the attention of officials. The Bengal government banned the book in 1910.
• Deuskar was the first to bring in the name of Swaraj, and Sri Aurobindo was the first to endow it with its English equivalent, ‘Independence. He warned against the colonial state’s “hypnotic capture of the mind” in his work Desher Katha.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Desher Katha extensively delved into the grim narrative of foreign exploration, illustrating how it ultimately resulted in India’s economic subjugation.
• The account was not limited to the particular circumstances in Bengal but provided a comprehensive examination of the broader implications of foreign incursions on India’s economic independence.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?

1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

• By pact Delhi Pact, popularly known as the Gandhi-Irwin Pact:
• The government agreed:
  • To release those political prisoners who had remained non-violent.
  • To remit penalties not yet collected.
  • To return confiscated lands not yet sold to third parties.
  • To withdraw ordinances promulgated in relation to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• The government conceded:
  • The right to make salt for consumption in villages along the coast.
  • The right to peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops.
• The Congress:
  • Suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement
  • Agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
• The following demands of the Congress were not accepted by the British:
  • A public inquiry into police excesses
  • The commutation of the death sentences of Bhagat Singh and his comrades.
• Many Congress leaders, particularly the younger, left-wing section, opposed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
• They objected because the government did not concede any significant nationalist demands, including the commutation of the death sentence of Bhagat Singh and his comrades.
• However, Gandhiji suspended the civil disobedience movement.

Answer: (X) Dropped Question.

The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by

1. Gopal Baba Walangkar
2. Jyotiba Phule
3. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
4. Bhimarao Ramji Ambedkar

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Gopal Baba Walangkar was born in 1840 into a Mahar family near Mahad. An ex-army man, he was deeply influenced by Jyotirao Phule and adopted his ideas on social equality. Walangkar supported Phule’s Aryan invasion theory and argued that the untouchables were the indigenous inhabitants of India, while the Brahmins were descendants of Aryans who had invaded the country.
• In 1886, Walangkar established the anti-caste organisation “Anarya Dosh-Parihar Samaj” to address the Dalit issues. In 1888, Walangkar started a monthly journal, Vital-Vidhvansak, which was the first to target the untouchables. He is credited as the pioneer of the emergence of Dalit periodicals.

Additional Information In the 19th century, educated Indians started a number of journals. However, most of these were started by Brahmins and did not discuss the challenges faced by Dalits. This led to the emergence of Dalit periodicals, in which Dalits discussed their issues. Gopal Baba Walangkar, Shivram Janba Kamble, Kisan Fagu Bansode and Dr. Ambedkar played an important role in discussing Dalit issues in journals or periodicals. Founder/Editor Journal/Magazine Shivram Janba Kamble Somvanshiy Mitra (The friend of the depressed classes) Kisan Fagu Bansode Nirashrit Hind Nagarik, Vital Vidhwansak, Majur Patrika and Chokhamela Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Mooknayak, Bahishkrut Bharat, Samatha, Janata and Prabudhha Bharat

Answer: (a) Gopal Baba Walangkar; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the history of India, the terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa “denote

1. Measurement of land
2. Coins of different monetary value
3. Classification of urban land
4. Religious rituals

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• During the Gupta period, inscriptions refer to various categories of land. Cultivated land was known as Kshetra, while Khila referred to uncultivable land. Aprahata denoted jungle or forest land, Gopata Sarah indicated pasture land, and Vasti referred to habitable land.
• Different regions also used different units to measure land, though their exact size is not always certain. In some areas, Nivartana was used as a unit of land measurement, whereas inscriptions from Bengal mention terms such as Kulyavapa and Dronavapa.

Answer: (a) Measurement of land; Difficulty Level: Hard

Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription? “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely”

1. Ashoka
2. Samudragupta
3. Harshavardhana
4. Krishnadevaraya

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The quoted inscription reflects the policy of religious tolerance promoted by Ashoka. It comes from Rock Edict XII, where he advised people to respect all religious sects and avoid praising their own religion while criticizing others.
• (Major Rock Edict 12): “The king honours all religious sects with gifts and with honours of various kinds. But he does not value gifts or honour as much as the promotion of the essentials of all religious sects. The root of this is guarding one’s speech so that neither praising one’s own sect nor blaming others’ sects should occur on improper occasions; and it should be moderate on every occasion. And others’ sects should be honoured on every occasion. Acting thus, one both promotes one’s own sect and benefits others’ sects. Acting otherwise, one both harms one’s own sect and wrongs others’ sects. For whoever praises their own sect or blames another’s sect out of devotion to their own sect with a view to showing it in a good light, instead severely damages their own sect. Coming together is good, so that people should both hear and appreciate each other’s teaching.”

Answer: (a) Ashoka; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term ‘paramitas’?

1. The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (Sutra) style
2. Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas.
3. Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path
4. Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval south India.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The six paramitas, or transcendent perfections, are the foundation of the Mahayana Buddhist path. The six paramitas are generosity, ethical conduct, patience, diligence, meditation, and wisdom.
• These virtues are called transcendent because the subject, object, and practice of the perfections are all seen as empty and free of self. The paramitas are practiced by bodhisattvas, those who are totally dedicated to the benefit of others. These six paramitas are considered essential qualities to cultivate on one’s path to enlightenment, acting as a roadmap for a meaningful and purposeful life.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Dharmasutras are part of the Smriti literature in ancient India, offering guidelines on ethical conduct, social norms, legal procedures, and religious rituals within Hindu society.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The philosophical schools that reject the authority of the Vedas are referred to as “Nastika” schools in Indian philosophy

Option (d) is incorrect

• The most important merchant guilds of South India were the Ayyavole, Manigraman, Nagarattar, Anjavannam and Valanjiyar.
• Geographically, the area of their operation corresponded to the present-day state of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and South Andhra Pradesh.

Answer: (c) Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around

1. Women’s rights to gain education
2. Age of consent
3. Restitution of conjugal rights

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Rukhmabai Raut, one of the first female doctors to practice medicine in British India, staunchly opposed child marriage. Rukhmabai was married off at the age of 11 to Dadaji Bhikaji, who was 19.
• She refused to stay with Bhikaji and his family at his house. This led to the Dadaji Bhikaji vs Rukhmabai case, 1885. When Bhikaji filed for “restitution of conjugal rights,” Rukhmabai argued that the marriage was not binding since she had not consented to it at the age of 11. After many hearings, the court affirmed the marriage, and in March 1887, Rukhmabai was ordered to live with her husband or face a six-month jail term. Rukhmabai wrote to Queen Victoria about her situation. The Queen overruled the court’s verdict and dissolved the marriage. In July 1888, Dadaji accepted monetary compensation of two thousand rupees to dissolve the marriage. The Rukhmabai case led to the enactment of the Age of Consent Act in 1891.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of

1. Peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
2. Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
3. National leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of Indigo
4. Government control over the planters

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The decline of indigo cultivation in India in the early 20th century was primarily driven by the advent of synthetic dyes, particularly synthetic indigo. By the end of the 19th century, synthetic dyes became widely available, which drastically reduced the demand for natural indigo.
• Traditionally, indigo was a natural dye extracted from certain plants, and India had been a major producer of indigo for the global market. Synthetic dyes offered cost-effective alternatives and could be produced in larger quantities, making them more attractive to manufacturers. As a result, the market for natural indigo became unprofitable, leading to a decline in its cultivation in India.

Answer: (b) Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions; Difficulty Level: Easy

Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because:

1. He was asked by the board of directors at London to do so
2. He wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India
3. He wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment
4. He wanted to train British civilians for administrative purposes in India

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• In 1800, Wellesley, the Governor-General, observed that despite ruling over vast areas, civil servants were sent to India at a young age without proper training, leading to a lack of necessary skills and knowledge of Indian languages.
• Therefore, on 24 November 1800, Wellesley established the College of Fort William at Calcutta to educate young recruits to the Civil Service. The college provided two years of training in literature, science, and languages in India. The Directors of the Company disapproved of the action of Wellesley and, in 1806, replaced the College of Fort William with their own East Indian College at Haileybury in England. The East Indian College provided training in oriental language, literature, and history

Answer: (d) He wanted to train British civilians for administrative purposes in India; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events?

1. The Revolt of 1857
2. The Mappila rebellion of 1921
3. The Indigo revolt of 1859-1860
4. Birsa Munda’s revolt of 1899-1900

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Birsa Munda, referred to often by Jharkhand’s tribal residents as “Birsa Bhagwan,” led what came to be known as “Ulgulan” (revolt) or the Munda rebellion against the British colonial government-imposed feudal state.

Addition Information Birsa was born on November 15, 1875, into a poor Munda tribal family.’ Birsa passed the lower primary examination from the German Mission school, where he was forced to convert to Christianity and renamed Birsa David. After studying for a few years, Birsa left the Mission School. In 1891, Birsa went to Bandgaon, where he met Anand Paure, a prominent Vaishnav preacher. Influenced by him, Birsa wore a sacred thread, advocated the prohibition of cow slaughter, and began to value the importance of purity and piety. In 1895, Birsa declared that God had appointed him to save his people from trouble and free them from the slavery of dikus (outsiders). Later, Birsa declared himself a god or Bhagwan and started his religion, Birsait, among Mundas, Santhals and Oraons. He urged his followers to give up drinking liquor, clean their village, and stop believing in witchcraft and sorcery. He also turned against missionaries and Hindu landlords. Munda Rebellion Birsa Munda wanted to drive out outsiders (dikus) such as missionaries, moneylenders, landlords, and the government and set up a Munda Raj with Birsa at its head. He identified all these forces as the cause of the misery of the Mundas. On Christmas Eve, 1899, Birsa proclaimed a rebellion (Ulgulan) to establish Munda rule in the land. He urged his followers to destroy “Ravana” (dikus and the Europeans) and establish a kingdom under his leadership. Birsa’s followers attacked police stations and churches and raided the property of moneylenders and zamindars. They raised the white flag as a symbol of Birsa Raj. Birsa Munda was captured at the beginning of February 1900. He died of cholera while in jail in June, causing the movement to fade out. Impact of the Movement: Between 1902 and 1910, the government conducted surveys and settlement operations for the tribes to prepare land records and safeguard tribal interests. The rebellion forced the colonial government to introduce laws to prevent the dikus from easily taking over the land of the tribals. The government passed the Tenancy Act of 1903, which recognised the Mundari Khuntkatti system and the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act in 1908. The government abolished the compulsory begar system.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Revolt of 1857 was a widespread uprising against the British East India Company’s rule. It involved various military and civilian sectors across northern and central India.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Moplah (Muslim) peasants in Malabar (Kerala) faced severe oppression from Hindu zamindars and the British government, including high fees and illegal levies.
• Despite multiple uprisings between 1850 and 1900 being suppressed, conditions for the peasants remained harsh.
• The Mappila movement, gaining support from Khilafat-Non-cooperation leaders like Gandhi, Shaukat Ali, and Maulana Azad, eventually merged with the broader Khilafat and non-cooperation movement.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Also known as the Neel Bidroha, it was a rebellion by farmers in Bengal against the oppressive practices of indigo planters.
• Farmers were forced into unfavourable contracts to grow indigo, leading to widespread discontent and revolt.

Answer: (d) Birsa Munda’s revolt of 1899-1900; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra
2. Amarsimha is associated with Harshavardhana
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandragupta-II

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Panini was a Sanskrit grammarian. His work is dated around the 3rd-4th century BC. Panini’s monumental work, Ashtaadhyaayi, is both a theory and a grammar of Sanskrit. While it is primarily scientific in temper, it is the shortest, rule-bound complete grammar of any language in the world.
• Pushyamitra Shunga was the founder of the Shunga dynasty (185 BCE−148 BCE), which came later. Formerly the commander-in-chief of the Mauryan Army and later killed the last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha. Patanjali, the notable grammarian who wrote the Mahabhasya, was a contemporary of Pushyamitra Sunga. The Divyavadana gives an account of Pushyamitra’s cruelty towards Buddhists and his hatred towards Buddhism.

Statement 2 is incorrect, and Statement 3 is correct

• Chandragupta II (c. 376–413/15 CE), also known as Vikramaditya, succeeded his father Samudragupta and expanded the Gupta Empire to its zenith. His reign was marked by the successful conquest of the Sakas, including the annexation of territories ruled by the Saka chieftain Rudrasena III. He also strengthened political alliances through marriage diplomacy, as his daughter, Prabhavati Gupta, married Rudrasena II of the Vakataka dynasty. The famous Chinese traveller Faxian visited India during his reign, describing the period’s prosperity. Chandragupta II was also known as a patron of learning and culture, and his court is traditionally associated with the celebrated “Nine Jewels” or Navaratnas.
  • Kalidasa: Renowned classical Sanskrit poet and playwright of India and a peerless genius whose works, such as Abhijananashakuntalam, Malavikagnimitram, and Vikramorvasiyam, became famous worldwide.
  • Amarasimha: Sanskrit lexicographer and poet, and his ‘Amarakosha’ is a vocabulary of Sanskrit roots, homonyms, and synonyms. It is also called Trikanda, as it has three parts containing around ten thousand words.
  • Varahamihira: He was a renowned mathematician and astrologer who authored three major works. His Panchasiddhantika compiled five earlier astronomical traditions—Surya Siddhanta, Romaka Siddhanta, Paulisa Siddhanta, Vasishtha Siddhanta, and Paitamaha Siddhanta—combining Indian and Hellenistic astronomy. His Brihat Samhita covered diverse topics such as astrology, planetary movements, rainfall, architecture, agriculture, perfumes, gems, and social customs. His Brihat Jataka became a standard reference work on Vedic astrology.
  • Dhanvantri: Physician who is considered the father of Ayurveda (literally meaning ‘knowledge for longevity’).
  • Ghatakarapara: An expert in sculpture and architecture.
  • Shanku: An architect who wrote the Shilpashastra.
  • Kahapanaka: An astrologer who wrote the Jyothisyashastra.
  • Vararuchi: Grammarian and Sanskrit scholar and the author of the Prakrit Prakasha, which is first grammar of the Prakrit language.
  • Vetala Bhatta: A magician who wrote the Mantrashastra.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of the recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for

1. Fertilization of egg in Vitro by the donor sperm
2. Genetic modification of sperm-producing cells
3. Development of stem cells into functional embryos
4. Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Pro-nuclear transfer is a technique used to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. This process involves transferring the nuclear DNA from a fertilized egg with defective mitochondria into a donor egg with healthy mitochondria. The resulting embryo, therefore, has healthy mitochondria while retaining the genetic material from the parents, thus reducing the risk of mitochondrial disorders.

  

Answer: (d) Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspirng; Difficulty Level: Hard

With the present state of development Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?

1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease diagnosis
4. Text-to-speech conversation
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• As per the UPSC Official answer key 2020, the correct answer is option (B).
• However, with recent advancements in Artificial Intelligence (AI), its capabilities have expanded significantly.
• Today, AI can enhance industrial efficiency by optimizing processes to reduce electricity consumption, generate engaging short stories and songs through natural language processing and generative models, assist in diagnosing diseases by analyzing medical data, facilitate text-to-speech conversations, and advance wireless transmission technologies.
• These developments highlight AI’s broad and impactful roles across various sectors, including industry, creativity, healthcare, and communication.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the “Visible Light Communication” technology, which of the following statements are correct?

1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth.
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Visible Light Communication (VLC) operates in the visible light portion of the electromagnetic spectrum, which ranges from approximately 375 nanometers (nm) to 780 nm.
• This range covers the wavelengths of light that are visible to the human eye. VLC technologies utilize this spectrum for transmitting data through light signals.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• VLC is typically categorized as a short-range optical wireless communication technology. The reason for this is that visible light, unlike radio waves, cannot penetrate walls which limits its effective range.
• In practical applications, this means VLC is best suited for environments where the communication range is within a few meters. For example, VLC is often used in indoor settings such as offices or homes, where devices are relatively close to each other.

Statement 3 is correct

• The VLC system depends on high-speed light waves to transmit data. The visible light spectrum offers a higher bandwidth when compared to other electromagnetic spectrums. As a result, it transmits larger volumes of data in a shorter time.
• The data rates achievable with VLC can reach gigabits per second (Gbps) due to the high frequency of visible light waves and advanced modulation techniques. In contrast, Bluetooth typically offers lower speed.

Statement 4 is correct

• One of the key advantages of VLC is its immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI), which is a common issue in traditional radio frequency-based communication systems. Since VLC uses visible light instead of radio waves, it is not affected by the same types of interference.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Blockchain Technology, consider the following statements:

1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, which no single user controls.
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only
3. Applications that depend on the basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Blockchain is a type of distributed ledger technology where data is recorded in a decentralized manner.
  • Ledger in accounting means a record of transactions, accounts, statements, etc. A ledger in blockchain means a database. A distributed ledger is a decentralised and shared database synchronised across multiple devices, locations and geographies and accessible to every participant (node) within the network.
• Each transaction is added to a block, which is then linked to the previous block, forming a chain. This structure makes the ledger publicly accessible and transparent, allowing anyone to inspect it. However, no single user or entity controls the entire blockchain, which ensures that the data remains secure and resistant to tampering. The decentralized nature of blockchain prevents the manipulation of data by any single party.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Although blockchain technology was initially popularized by cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, its applications extend far beyond digital currencies. The blockchain structure can store various types of data, including smart contracts, supply chain information, medical records, voting systems, and much more.

Statement 3 is correct

• Blockchain allows for the development of decentralized applications (DApps) without needing permission from a central authority. Platforms like Ethereum enable developers to build smart contracts and DApps using blockchain technology’s foundational principles—decentralization, security, and transparency.
• This permissionless nature fosters innovation by allowing developers to create applications that operate autonomously on the blockchain, adhering to pre-set rules coded into the smart contracts. Unlike traditional systems that require centralized oversight, blockchain applications are open and accessible to anyone.

PMF IAS Concept Hack Statement 2 can be eliminated first because blockchain technology is not limited to cryptocurrency alone; it has wide applications across multiple sectors. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect. The other statements describe core and general features of blockchain technology, making them easier to identify as correct.

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are one of the most significant nano-allotropes of carbon. These are one-dimensional tubes or cylindrical nanostructures composed of carbon atoms. Carbon nanotubes are essentially rolled graphene nanosheets with bonded carbon atoms. The unique carbon-carbon bonding and cylindrical structure give carbon nanotubes their exceptional strength.
• CNTs can be used in drug delivery systems due to their ability to be functionalized with therapeutic agents, proteins, and antigens. They can penetrate biological membranes and deliver drugs or other therapeutic agents directly to targeted cells, enhancing treatment efficiency and minimizing side effects.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While CNTs exhibit excellent mechanical properties and biocompatibility, their application in creating artificial blood capillaries is not well-established. Challenges such as biocompatibility concerns, potential toxicity, and the complexity of mimicking the intricate structure and function of natural blood vessels make this application impractical at present.

Statement 3 is correct

• CNTs are highly effective in the development of biochemical sensors due to their sensitivity, high electrical conductivity, and ability to detect various biochemical substances. These sensors can detect minute changes in chemical or biological environments, making them useful in diagnostics, environmental monitoring, and healthcare.

Statement 4 is correct

• Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes.

PMF IAS Concept Hack Statement 2 can be eliminated first — making artificial blood capillaries is a very specific biomedical claim and is unlikely for a material mainly known for strength, conductivity, and nano-applications. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect. Only option (c) is left.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following activities:

1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
2. Inspecting the craters of an active volcano
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out using drones?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Spraying pesticides on a crop field: Drones equipped with spraying mechanisms are commonly used in agriculture for spraying pesticides, herbicides, and fertilizers efficiently and precisely.
• Inspecting the craters of an active volcano: Drones are employed to inspect hazardous areas such as active volcanoes, allowing scientists to collect data and observe without exposing themselves to dangerous conditions.
• Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis: Drones are increasingly used for collection of biological samples, including whale breath, which helps in studying whale health, genetics, and diet.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million km long, with lasers shining between the craft.” the experiment in the question refers to?

1. Voyager-2
2. New horizons
3. LISA pathfinder
4. Evolved LISA

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• eLISA is a plan to place three spacecraft into space, a mother and two daughter spacecraft, which will fly in a triangular formation, trailing the Earth in its orbit around the sun at a distance of over 50 million km. Each arm of the imaginary triangle, from the mother to each daughter spacecraft, will measure about a million km. Inside these spacecraft, “freely falling” test masses will float – cubes with sides measuring about 46 mm. Laser interferometers will accurately measure changes in the distance between these cubes. If they should be affected by a gravitational wave, the minute changes in this distance are measure by the interferometer.
• The mission was proposed to the European Space Agency and selected as a science theme for the third large-class mission to be launched in 2034 within the agency’s Cosmic Vision science program.
• eLISA aims to measure gravitational waves in the frequency range from 0.1mHz to about 100 mHz.
• To do this, it is necessary for the interferometers to have an arm length of a million kilometres, and that is impossible to achieve with an Earth-based setup. Hence, it is necessary to have this elaborate experiment in space.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Voyager 2 is an unmanned space probe launched by NASA on August 20, 1977, just a few weeks before its sister craft, Voyager 1. Its mission was to study the outer planets of our solar system, including Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. It was the first and only spacecraft to visit all four planets, and its observations revolutionised our understanding of these distant worlds.
• After completing its primary mission, Voyager 2 continued on its journey into interstellar space, where it is still sending back data on the interstellar medium and the heliosphere. Voyager 2 is currently the second most distant human-made object from Earth, after its sister craft, Voyager 1, and continues to communicate with NASA’s Deep Space Network.

Option (b) is incorrect

• NASA’s New Horizons was the first and, so far, the only mission to Pluto. It was also the first mission to explore the solar system’s recently discovered “third zone,” the region beyond the giant planets called the Kuiper Belt.

Option (c) is incorrect

• LISA Pathfinder was the European Space Agency (ESA) precursor mission to the LISA space-based gravitational wave observatory that the agency is developing within the Cosmic Vision Programme.
• The eLISA mission technology was being tested in space with LISA Pathfinder (LPF). LPF was launched successfully in December 2015 from Europe’s Spaceport, French Guiana.

Answer: (d) Evolved LISA; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Genetic changes can be introduced in germline cells (cells that produce eggs or sperms). This is known as germline gene editing, and technologies like CRISPR‑Cas9 make it technically possible. These changes can also be passed to future generations.

Statement 2 is correct

• CRISPR/Cas9 technology has been validated to be feasible in human cells, including early embryos.
• This technique can be used to explore critical regulatory factors in embryonic development and to facilitate the treatment of human diseases by editing genomic sequences and epigenetic modifications.

Statement 3 is correct

• Scientists can reprogram adult human cells into induced pluripotent stem cells (hiPSCs), which have the ability to develop into any cell type. These hiPSCs can then be introduced into animal embryos, such as pigs, creating chimeric embryos that contain both human and animal cells. This approach is primarily used in research to better understand human development and disease.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is the importance of using pneumococcal conjugate vaccines in India?

1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Pneumococcal conjugate vaccines are designed to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can lead to pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis.
  • A conjugate vaccine is one that combines a weak antigen with a strong antigen as a carrier so that the immune system has a stronger response to the weak antigen.
• Streptococcus pneumoniae is the leading cause of bacterial pneumonia in children under five years.
• Young children, the elderly, and those whose immune system is suppressed or are malnourished are at an increased risk of getting pneumococcal disease.
• The vaccine is given in two primary doses at 6 and 14 weeks, followed by a booster dose at 9 months. This vaccine is provided under Universal Immunisation Program.

Statement 2 is correct

• By preventing infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, PCVs reduce the need for antibiotics, which in turn helps lower the risk of antibiotic resistance. Overuse and misuse of antibiotics contribute to the rise of drug-resistant bacteria, and vaccination is an effective strategy to reduce this dependence, thus combating antimicrobial resistance (AMR).

Statement 3 is incorrect

• No vaccine is entirely without side effects. While pneumococcal vaccines are generally safe and effective, they can have some side effects, like any other vaccine. Common side effects may include mild pain or swelling at the injection site, fever, or fatigue. Allergic reactions are rare but possible.

PMF IAS Concept Hack Statement 3 can be eliminated first because any vaccine claiming “no side effects” is an absolute statement and is highly unlikely in medical science. Once Statement 3 is eliminated, only options containing Statements 1 and 2 remain. Further, Statement 2 is correct as vaccination reduces infections and thereby lowers dependence on antibiotics, including those used against drug-resistant bacteria. Therefore, 1 and 2 only are correct

Answer: (d) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure is used in the context of

1. Digital security infrastructure
2. Food security infrastructure
3. Health care and education infrastructure
4. Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a comprehensive system designed to manage digital keys and certificates, providing secure communication over digital networks. In India, PKI plays a crucial role in the context of digital security infrastructure, enabling secure electronic transactions, data protection, and authentication.
• Example of PKI in Use by UIDAI: Encryption of Biometric and Authentication Data: UIDAI mandates that biometric and authentication data collected during Aadhaar authentication processes be encrypted using PKI. This ensures that sensitive data, such as fingerprints and iris scans, are protected from unauthorized access and interception. Only authorised entities can access the data in its encrypted form, maintaining privacy and security.

Answer: (a) Digital security infrastructure; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant cells and animal cells?

1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animals cells which do
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Plant Cell vs. Animal Cell:
  • Plant cells are surrounded by a rigid cell wall composed mainly of cellulose, which provides structural support. Animal cells, on the other hand, lack a cell wall and have a flexible cell membrane for structural support.
  • Both plant cells and animal cells have a plasma membrane

	Animal Cell	Plant Cell
Nucleus	Present	Present
Cilia	Present	It is very rare
Shape	Round (irregular shape)	Rectangular (fixed shape)
Chloroplast	Animal cells don’t have chloroplasts	Plant cells have chloroplasts because they make their own food
Cytoplasm	Present	Present
Endoplasmic Reticulum (Smooth and Rough)	Present	Present
Ribosomes	Present	Present
Mitochondria	Present	Present
Vacuole	One or more small vacuoles (much smaller than plant cells).	One large central vacuole takes up 90% of the cell volume.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

 

Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?

1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Automobile exhaust is correct

• Benzene is a common component in gasoline and is released through automobile exhaust.

Tobacco smoke is correct

• Tobacco smoke contains benzene, contributing to indoor and passive exposure.

Wood burning is correct

• Burning wood can release benzene, among other pollutants

Using varnished wooden furniture and Using products made of polyurethane are not correct

• Burning varnished wooden furniture and using products made of polyurethane can release benzene and other harmful substances, whereas simply using them does not directly cause major exposure to benzene pollution.

Additional Information Benzene is a chemical that is a colorless or light yellow liquid at room temperature. It has a sweet odor and is highly flammable. It evaporates into the air very quickly. Its vapor is heavier than air and may sink into low-lying areas. It is formed from both natural processes and human activities. Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke. Because benzene has a high octane number, it is an important component of gasoline (petrol). Some industries use benzene to make other chemicals that are used to make plastics, resins, and nylon and synthetic fibers. Benzene is also used to make some types of lubricants, rubbers, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides. Benzene exposure affects the central nervous system and can affect the immune system. Chromosomal abnormalities of bone marrow cells and circulating lymphocytes have been observed in people exposed to benzene.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?

1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowing.
2. Opening up to more foreign banks
3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility

Select the correct answer using the given code below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Short-term foreign borrowing is highly vulnerable to changes in global financial conditions. If there is a financial crisis, short-term creditors are likely to withdraw funds quickly, leading to a liquidity crunch, increased interest rates, and a depreciation of the domestic currency. By avoiding reliance on such borrowings, India would reduce its exposure to sudden capital flight and volatility in foreign exchange markets.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While increasing the presence of foreign banks could enhance competition, technology transfer, and financial sector efficiency, it also makes the domestic financial system more interconnected with the global market. In times of global financial crises, these banks can act as transmission channels for financial stress from their home countries to India. Foreign banks may reduce lending, withdraw capital, or transmit negative external shocks, potentially destabilizing the local economy.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Full capital account convertibility allows for the free flow of capital in and out of the country without restrictions. While this policy might be advantageous during stable times, it exposes the economy to sudden and massive capital movements during crises. Large and abrupt capital outflows can lead to currency depreciation, depletion of forex reserves, and economic instability. Countries like Thailand and South Korea faced severe repercussions during the 1997 Asian Financial Crisis partly due to unrestricted capital flows.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be

1. to reduce it by ₹ 1,00,000
2. to increase it by ₹ 1,00,000
3. to increase it by more than ₹ 1,00,000
4. to leave it unchanged

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• M1 is the money supply that is composed of currency, demand deposits, and other liquid deposits, which include savings deposits. M1 includes the most liquid portion of the money supply because it contains currency and assets that are either cash or can be quickly converted to cash. However, “near money” and “near, near money,” which fall under M2 and M3, cannot be converted to currency as quickly.
• When you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account, it alters the composition of the money supply but does not impact the overall money supply.
• Demand Deposit Accounts are part of M1, a broader measure of the money supply that includes currency (cash) and demand deposits (such as checking accounts). Withdrawing Rs. 1,00,000 in cash simply converts demand deposits into cash. As a result, the immediate effect on the money supply composition is a reduction in demand deposits by Rs. 1,00,000 and a corresponding increase in cash by the same amount.
• However, the aggregate money supply (M1) remains unchanged, as the total value of money (demand deposits + cash) remains constant.

Answer: (d) to leave it unchanged; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?

1. It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
2. It is largely non-debt creating capital flow.
3. It is an investment which involves debt-servicing.
4. It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.

 

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect

• An “FDI” or “Foreign Direct Investment” refers to an investment through equity instruments by a resident outside India, in an unlisted Indian company, or in ten per cent or more of the post-issue paid-up equity capital, on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company.

Option (b) is correct

• FDI is considered a non-debt creating capital flow because it involves the inflow of foreign capital into domestic companies without the requirement of repayment, unlike loans or bonds. This investment is used for business expansion, infrastructure development, or technology transfer, making it a stable and sustainable form of financing.

Option (c) is incorrect

• FDI does not involve debt-servicing. Debt servicing is a feature of loans or debt instruments where regular payments of interest and principal are required. FDI involves equity participation, which does not create any repayment obligations for the host country

Option (d) is incorrect

• Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPIs) refer to investments by non-residents in various Indian financial assets, including shares, government bonds, corporate bonds, convertible securities, and infrastructure securities.

Answer: (b) It is largely non-debt-creating capital flow; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Answer: (X) Dropped Question.

The term ‘West Texas Intermediate’ sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of

1. Crude oil
2. Bullion
3. Rare earth elements
4. Uranium

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• West Texas Intermediate (WTI) is a grade of crude oil and one of the three main benchmarks in oil pricing, along with Brent and Dubai Crude. WTI is considered a high-quality oil that is relatively easy to refine.

Answer: (a) Crude oil; Difficulty Level: Medium

In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?

1. Housing loans owed by households
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
3. Treasury bills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Non-Financial Debt refers to the total debt held by households, businesses, and governments, excluding the financial sector. It includes liabilities such as loans and borrowings that are not associated with financial institutions, such as banks and other financial service providers.
• Housing Loans Owed by Households: These are loans taken by individuals for purchasing or constructing houses. They form part of non-financial debt as they are personal liabilities not linked to financial institutions’ own debt.

Statement 2 is correct

• Amounts Outstanding on Credit Cards: Credit card debt is personal debt owed by households. It is considered non-financial debt because it represents borrowing by individuals from financial institutions, rather than borrowing by the financial institutions themselves.

Statement 3 is correct

• Treasury Bills: These are short-term government securities issued to finance public spending. Treasury bills represent government borrowing and are part of non-financial debt as they reflect the liabilities of the government sector.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not?

1. Some use Uranium and others use thorium.
2. Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies.
3. Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises.
4. Some are State- owned and others are privately-owned.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Nuclear reactors using imported uranium are often placed under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards to ensure the nuclear material is used exclusively for peaceful purposes and not for military applications. In contrast, reactors that utilise domestic uranium may not be subject to the same level of international oversight. This step was taken by India in 2014 to demonstrate that its nuclear energy programme was for peaceful purposes. This is a necessary step under the Indo-US nuclear deal. India procures nuclear fuel through spot deals with several countries, including Kazakhstan, Russia, France, Uzbekistan, and Canada. These agreements enable India to quickly acquire the necessary uranium to meet the fuel requirements of its nuclear reactors under IAEA safeguards.

Additional Information IAEA was established in 1957 as an autonomous organisation within the United Nations system. This intergovernmental organisation was established under the “Atoms for Peace” initiative proposed by U.S. President Dwight D. Eisenhower. Though established independently by the UN through its own international treaty, the agency reports to the UN General Assembly and the Security Council. Objective: Inhibit nuclear use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons. Headquarters: Vienna, Austria. Member: over 170 countries; India is a member.

Answer: (b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Under the Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures of the World Trade Organization (WTO), commonly known as the TRIMs Agreement, WTO members have agreed not to apply certain investment measures related to trade in goods that restrict or distort trade. Article 2.1 of the Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) Agreement stipulates that members must not implement any TRIM that contradicts the provisions outlined in Article III, which pertains to the national treatment of imported products, or Article XI, which addresses the prohibition of quantitative restrictions on imports or exports, as specified in the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) of 1994. This underscores the need for consistency between TRIMS and the principles established in GATT 1994 on the fair treatment of imported products and the avoidance of quantitative restrictions on trade.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The coverage of the Agreement is defined in Article 1, which states that the Agreement applies to investment measures related to trade in goods only. Thus, the TRIMs Agreement does not apply to services.

Statement 3 is correct

• The agreement is not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

If the RBI decides to adopt an ‘expansionist’ monetary policy, which of the following it would not do?

1. Cut and optimise the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Increase Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Monetary policy is the process by which a country’s monetary authority (RBI) controls the money supply to achieve GDP growth and price stability. An “expansionist” monetary policy aims to stimulate economic growth by increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio or SLR is a minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities. It is basically the reserve requirement that banks are expected to keep before offering credit to customers. These are not reserved with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), but with banks themselves. Lowering the SLR increases the liquidity available with banks, allowing them to lend more. This is consistent with expansionary policy.

Statement 2 is correct

• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate is the penal rate at which banks can borrow on an overnight basis from the central bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio. An expansionary policy typically involves lowering interest rates, so increasing the MSF rate would be contrary to an expansionist policy.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Bank Rate: RBI lends money to its clients for long-term loans at this interest rate
• Repo Rate: RBI lends money to banks for short term loans at this interest rate
• An expansionary policy often involves cutting these rates to make borrowing cheaper and encourage spending.

Additional Information Accommodative stance indicates that the RBI is willing to cut the interest rates. Neutral stance suggests that the central bank can either cut rate or increase rate. Hawkish stance (Tight monetary policy) indicates that the central bank’s top priority is to keep the inflation low. During such a phase, the central bank is willing to hike interest rates. Calibrated tightening indicates that the rate hike will happen in a calibrated manner. This means the central bank may not go for a rate increase in every policy meeting but the overall policy stance is tilted towards a rate hike. A cut in the repo rate is off the table.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Indian Economy after the 1991 economic liberalisation, consider the following statements:

1. Worker productivity (rupees per worker at 2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
3. In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy increased.
4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Worker productivity (rupees per worker at 2004-05 prices) increased in both urban areas and rural areas.
  • For rural areas, it was Rs 37,273 in 2004-05 and Rs 62,589 in 2011-12.
  • For Urban areas, it was Rs 1,20,419 in 2004-05 and Rs 1,74,525 in 2011-12.

  

  Image Source: NITI Aayog

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The gradual shift towards urbanization over the years has resulted in a decrease in the proportion of the workforce engaged in rural areas, declining from 77.8% in 1993-94 to 70.9% in 2011-12.

Image Source: NITI Aayog (Share of rural areas in total NDP and workforce)

Statement 3 is correct

• In the post-reform period spanning from 1993-94 to 2004-05, the growth rate in the agricultural sector slowed down to 1.87%, while the non-farm economy experienced an accelerated growth rate of 7.93%.

Statement 4 is correct

• Despite the change in the rural economy, the non-farm sectors are not able to absorb job seekers because they are not able to generate jobs at the required rate. For example, during the pre-reform phase, rural employment grew at 2.16 per cent annually. This reduced in post-reform phase, despite a high economic growth.

Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• As per the RBI, Scheduled Commercial banks provided the majority of credit for agriculture and related industries. A significant share of agricultural credit also comes from cooperative institutions, with State Cooperative Banks (StCBs), District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACSs) collectively accounting for 12% of the total credit provided by cooperative banks and institutions.

Image Source: RBI

Statement 2 is correct

• The Primary Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS) form the vital third tier in the three-tier structure of the Short-Term Cooperative Credit Structure (STCCS). The other two tiers are comprised of District Central Cooperative Bank (DCCBs) (2nd tier) and State Cooperative Bank (StCBs) (1st tier). PACS are owned by farmers, rural artisans etc. and aim at promoting thrift and mutual help among the members; cater to their credit requirements and provide credit-linked services like input supply, storage and marketing of agricultural produce etc.
• DCCBs provide direct linkages to the PACS through direct financing. The StCBs are primarily responsible for the control and coordination of the finances of DCCBs. NABARD refinances PACS through District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) and State Cooperative Banks (SCBs).

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits?

1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer.
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so.
3. Cost of hiring a specialised consultant to minimise the loss in case of cyber extortion.
4. Cost of defence in the court of law if any third party files a suit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• As per these guidelines issued by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority a cyber insurance policy will provide coverage against the following:
  • Theft of funds: Provides protection in respect of theft of funds due to cyber incidents or Hacking of insured’s Bank account, Credit/Debit card and/ or Mobile wallets by a Third Party.
  • Identity Theft Cover: Provides protection in terms of Defence cost for claims made against insured by third/affected party due to identity theft fraud, provides expense to prosecute perpetrators and other transportation costs.
  • Social Media Cover/Personal Social Media: Provides protection in terms of Defence cost for claims made against insured by third/affected party due to hacked social media account of insured, provides expense to prosecute perpetrators and other transportation costs
  • Cyber Stalking / Bullying: Provides expenses to prosecute the stalker.
  • Malware Cover / Data Restoration Cost: Provides coverage for data restoration cost due to malware.
  • Phishing Cover: Provides protection in respect of financial losses as a result of a phishing attack and provides expense to prosecute perpetrators.
  • Unauthorised Online Transaction: Provides protection against fraudulent use of bank account, credit/debit card, ewallet by the third party to make online purchasing over the internet.
  • Email Spoofing: Provides protection in respect of financial losses as a result of spoofed email attack and provides expense to prosecute perpetrators.
  • Media Liability Claims Cover: Provides coverage for defence costs in third party claims due to defamation or invasion of privacy due to Insured’s publication or broadcasting of any digital media content.
  • Cyber Extortion Cover: Provides protection for extortion loss as a result of Cyber extortion threat and provides expense to prosecute perpetrators.
  • Data Breach and Privacy Breach Cover: Provides indemnity for defence costs and damages in respect of claims lodged by a third party against the Insured for Data Breach and or Privacy Breach.
• Types of losses under cyber insurance: Losses covered under a cyber insurance policy can be split into 4 categories:
  • First Party Losses: Direct Financial Loss, Data recovery, Business Interruption Cover and Mitigation Costs Cover.
  • Regulatory Actions: Costs of Regulatory actions and investigations, Civil fines and penalties and Defence Costs.
  • Crisis Management Costs: Forensic Expert Cover including security consultation, Reputation Damage Cover, Legal Costs Cover for matters including notification, coordination with service providers, strategy, etc., Credit and Identity Theft Monitoring Cover, Cyber extortion/ Ransomware Cover, Operation of a 24×7 Hotline, Cyber Stalking, Counselling, Information removal and pursuing action.
  • Liability Claims: Legal liability/damages directly arising from privacy or data/ security breach, Defamation, Intellectual Property Right (IPR) infringement and Defence Costs.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?

1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops.
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
3. Social Capital Development.
4. Free Electricity supply to farmers.
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system.
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 2, 3 and 6 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• MSP is a policy tool used by the government to ensure that farmers receive a minimum price for their crops. While it provides financial security to farmers, it is not considered a direct public investment. Instead, it is a price support mechanism.

Statement 2 is correct

• This involves investing in technology to enhance the efficiency and accessibility of credit services for farmers. By modernizing these institutions, the government aims to improve the management and distribution of agricultural credit, making it a direct form of public investment.

Statement 3 is correct

• Investments in social capital include building community networks, infrastructure, and services that indirectly support agricultural development. For example, developing rural infrastructure, improving education and training, and fostering community participation can enhance agricultural productivity and sustainability.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• Providing free electricity is a form of subsidy designed to reduce the cost burden on farmers. While it supports agricultural operations by making energy more affordable, it is not a direct public investment in infrastructure or services.

Statement 5 is incorrect

• Loan waivers are financial relief measures intended to alleviate the debt burden on farmers. Although it provides short-term financial relief, it does not involve direct investment in agricultural infrastructure or services.

Statement 6 is correct

• Establishing cold storage facilities is a direct investment in agricultural infrastructure. These facilities help preserve perishable produce, reduce wastage, and improve market access, thereby supporting farmers’ productivity and income.

Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 6 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India?

1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to.
3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) helps in understanding the present risk of a firm by indicating how easily a company can pay interest on its outstanding debt with its earnings. It shows the firm’s ability to service its debt.

Statement 2 is correct

• The ICR can also provide insight into emerging risks, as a declining ICR could signal future financial trouble and increased risk of default.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• A higher Interest Coverage Ratio indicates a better ability to service debt, as it shows that the firm earns significantly more than its interest obligations.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?

1. Minimum Support Price
2. Government’s trading
3. Government’s stockpiling
4. Consumer subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Factor/policy 1 is correct

• Impact: The MSP is the price at which the government purchases crops from farmers, regardless of the market price. For rice, a major staple crop, the MSP ensures that farmers receive a minimum income, incentivising rice production.
• Effect on Price: Higher MSP leads to higher procurement prices, which can push up market prices as it sets a price floor. It prevents rice prices from falling below a certain level, stabilizing farmer incomes but also influencing market supply and prices.

Factor/policy 2 is correct

• Impact: The government, through agencies like the Food Corporation of India (FCI), engages in large-scale trading of rice, including imports and exports. When there is a shortage, the government may import rice to stabilise the domestic supply. Conversely, if there is a surplus, it may allow exports.
• Effect on Price: Government trading decisions affect supply levels in the domestic market. For instance, allowing rice exports in a year of strong production can reduce domestic supply, leading to price increases. Conversely, import decisions in a shortage year can help stabilize or reduce prices by boosting supply.

Factor/policy 3 is correct

• Impact: The government maintains buffer stocks of rice to ensure food security, especially in times of shortage or price spikes. Stockpiling involves purchasing rice from the market or from farmers at the MSP, which is then stored for future distribution or sale.
• Effect on Price: When the government stockpiles large quantities of rice, it can reduce the amount available in the open market, leading to higher prices due to decreased supply. Conversely, releasing stockpiled rice during periods of scarcity can lower prices by increasing supply.

Factor/policy 4 is correct

• Impact: The government provides rice at subsidized rates through programs like the Public Distribution System (PDS). This ensures that low-income households have access to affordable rice.
• Effect on Price: While subsidies help consumers access rice at lower prices, they can also distort market demand. If the demand for subsidized rice rises, it can drive up market prices, especially if the supply is limited. Moreover, subsidies require government procurement at higher MSPs, which indirectly increases market prices.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. “Textile and Textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• While India and Sri Lanka share strong trade relations, the value of trade has not consistently increased over the last decade.The bilateral trade between India and Sri Lanka has experienced a significant surge, increasing by approximately ninefold from 2000-01 to 2018-19. In the fiscal year 2018-19, the total trade volume between the two nations amounted to US$ 6.2 billion. Within this, India’s exports to Sri Lanka accounted for US$ 4.7 billion, while imports from Sri Lanka were valued at US$ 1.5 billion.