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UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key: GS Paper – 1 [Detailed Explanation]

Table of contents

UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 – Answer Key (Set D) with Explanation and PMF IAS Source Tracing

UPSC CSE Prelims – Answer Key (Set D) with Explanation and PMF IAS Source Tracing

PMF IAS Source Completely Covered Partially Covered
ALL PMF IAS Sources 53 27
Test Series 2025 32 16
Current Affairs 25 13
Prelims Magnum 12 17
Infographics 09 05
History Books 12 00
Art & Culture Book 05 00
Geography Books 04 05

“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of:

  1. the Champaran Satyagraha
  2. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
  3. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
  4. the launch of the Quit India Movement
Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

Explanation

  • On 6th April, 1930 at Dandi Gandhi declare, “The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system of Government….. Sedition has become my religion”

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? No

The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:

  1. carnelian
  2. clay
  3. bronze
  4. gold
Answer: (c) bronze

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes, Completely Covered (Sectional TEST 01 Ancient India)

  1. C. R. Das
  2. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
  3. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
  4. M. A. Jinnah
Answer: (b): Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? No

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

  1. The Poona Pact
  2. The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
  3. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
  4. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (a): The Poona Pact

Explanation

  • After the Poona Pact, Gandhiji appealed for the eradication of untouchability from all spheres and decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme.
    • Harijan Sevak Sangh (All-India Anti-Untouchability League) was established on 30 September 1932.
    • Harijan, the weekly paper, was started on 11 February 1933.

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes (Sectional Test Full Length)

Consider the following fruits:

  1. Papaya
  2. Pineapple
  3. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
Answer: (c): All three

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? No

Consider the following countries:

  1. United Kingdom
  2. Denmark
  3. New Zealand
  4. Australia
  5. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
  1. All the five
  2. Only four
  3. Only three
  4. Only two
Answer: b): Only four

Explanation

  • The United Kingdom (9 time zones), Denmark (5 time zones), New Zealand (5 time zones), and Australia (9 time zones) have more than four time zones, while Brazil has exactly four.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? NO

Consider the following statements:

  1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometres from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
  2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: a): I only

Explanation

  • Anadyr, Russia, is in the Chukotka Autonomous Okrug, near the eastern tip of Siberia.
  • Nome, Alaska, is on the western coast of Alaska.
  • The Diomede Islands, located in the Bering Strait, are relevant here: Little Diomede (USA) and Big Diomede (Russia) are ~3.8 km apart, with the International Date Line (IDL) running between them.
  • The International Date Line curves from the normal 180° meridian at the Bering Strait, and at the island groups of Polynesia, Melanesia and Micronesia.
  • Statement I is correct because Anadyr (UTC+12:00) is one day ahead of Nome (UTC-09:00) due to the International Date Line, so breakfast time occurs on different days.
  • Statement II is incorrect, as Monday in Anadyr corresponds to Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.

Covered in the PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered (Physical Geography Book Page No. 250)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Comprehensive Test 02)

Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

  1. ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
  2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  3. Bhaskarrao Jadhav
  4. Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: (a): ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Explanation

  • Periyar, belonged to a merchant family in Tamil Nadu, founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 to uplift the Dravidians and expose the control of Brahmins over all aspects of Hindu life through tyrannical and deceptive methods.

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered (https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-september-28-2024/#gs1-mih-movements-100-years-of-self-respect-movement-srm)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (September CA 2024 Test)

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Consider the following pairs:

Country Resource-rich in
  1. Botswana
 Diamond
  1. Chile
 Lithium
  1. Indonesia
 Nickel
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
Answer: c): All three

Explanation

  • Botswana is a leading global producer of diamonds, Chile is the second-largest lithium producer with significant reserves, and Indonesia is the world’s top nickel producer.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes. Completely Covered (EG-Mineral Resources Book – PDF Page no. 88, 95 and 126)

Consider the following pairs:

Region Country
  1. Mallorca
 Italy
  1. Normandy
 Spain
  1. Sardinia
 France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: d): None

Explanation

  • Mallorca (Spain): Also known as Majorca, Mallorca is the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain, and the seventh largest island in the Mediterranean Sea.
  • Sardinia (Italy): Sardinia is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean Sea, after Sicily, and one of the twenty regions of Italy.
  • Normandy (France): Normandy is a region of northern France. It was in news due to Normandy format in 2023.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes. Partially (World Geography Book – Europe Chapter, Page no 148)

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Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
  2. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
  3. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (d): I, II and III

Explanation

  • Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts;
  • (80000-60000 = 20000)
  • Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts except Borrowing and Other liabilities;
  • (80000-60000-10000 (exclude borrowings)) assuming capital expenditure “0” = 10000
  • Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment;
  • (20000-10000-6000) = 4000

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? YES, Completely Covered in Economic Survey Summary (https://t.me/pmfias_channel/3414)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Test – Budget and Economic Survey)

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect:

  1. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
  2. India to Central Asia via China
  3. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
  4. India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer: (a): India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

Explanation

  • The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation network that connects India to Russia and Europe through Iran, the Caspian Sea, and Central Asia.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-may-15-2024/#gs2-ir-india-iran-10-year-contract-for-chabahar-port

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
  2. Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d): Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is not correct: United States produced approximately 16.2 billion gallons of ethanol in 2024, accounting for 52% of global production followed by Brazil (28%).
  • Statement 2 is correct: United States primarily utilizes corn for ethanol production while Brazil mainly uses sugarcane, with a growing share from corn ethanol

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? NO

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

  1. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
  2. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only

Explanation

  • The World Bank’s warning about India potentially experiencing wet-bulb temperatures exceeding 35 °C is detailed in the report titled “Climate Investment Opportunities in India’s Cooling Sector”, published in November 2022.
  • Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. At 35 °C wet-bulb, the human body cannot cool itself by sweating, leading to heat stress and eventual death, even in ideal conditions.
  • It signifies climate extremes becoming lethal, especially for outdoor workers, the elderly, and low-income populations in vulnerable regions.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Concept Covered (https://www.pmfias.com/wet-bulb-temperature/

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Concept Covered (MAY -2024 CA TEST)

A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

  1. ₹48,500 crores
  2. ₹51,500 crores
  3. ₹58,500 crores
  4. None of the above
Answer: (a): ₹48,500 crores

Explanation

  • Use the formula:
    • Gross primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest liabilities.
    • Substitute the given values:
    • Gross primary deficit = 50,000-1,500
    • Gross primary deficit = ₹ 48,500 crores

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? YES, Completely Covered in Economic Survey Summary

(https://t.me/pmfias_channel/3414)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Test – Budget and Economic Survey)

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

  1. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
  2. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
  3. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
  4. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV
Answer: (c): I, III and IV

Explanation

  • 15th Finance Commission recommendations related to the question.
  • Statement I is correct: It has recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crore (Rs. 1,200 crore each year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 to incentivise the States to enhance educational outcomes.
  • Statement II is incorrect: The Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended that 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes should be shared with the states.
  • Statement II is correct: The Fifteenth Finance Commission has recommended that Rs. 45,000 crore be kept as performance-based incentive for all the States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
  • Statement IV is correct: “Tax and fiscal efforts” is one of the criteria (2.5%) for devolution.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Covered Completely (eliminate the second statement)

https://www.pmfias.com/finance-commission/

https://www.pmfias.com/issues-in-financial-devolution/

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (CA JUNE 2024 Test)

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

  1. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
  2. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
  3. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct: IBRD is an international financial institution that offers loans to middle-income developing countries.
  • Statement II is incorrect: They work closely with all institutions of the World Bank Group and the public and private sectors in developing countries to reduce poverty and build shared prosperity.
  • Statement III is correct: It was established in 1944 under the World Bank, as part of Bretton Woods Twins along with IMF, with the mission of financing the reconstruction of European nations devastated by World War II.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/world-bank/#international-bank-for-reconstruction-and-development-ibrd

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes, Completely Covered (Advanced Test Economy 03)

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

  1. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
  2. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
  3. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. I and II
  3. I and III
  4. III only
Answer: (a): I only

Explanation

  • Statement I is Correct: RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) processes transactions instantly and individually, in real-time. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) processes transactions in batches (although now done half-hourly or even more frequently), so there is a slight delay.
  • Statement II is Incorrect: As per RBI guidelines, no charges are to be levied on inward transactions for both RTGS and NEFT. So, this statement is factually wrong.
  • Statement III is Incorrect: Both RTGS and NEFT are available 24x7x365.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (Comprehensive Test 08)

Consider the following countries:

  1. United Arab Emirates
  2. France
  3. Germany
  4. Singapore
  5. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
  1. Only two
  2. Only three
  3. Only four
  4. All the five
Answer: (b): Only three

Explanation

  • UPI has been operational in Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and UAE.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered PMFIAS CA and Magnum- https://www.pmfias.com/unified-payments-interface/

Completely Covered in the India Year Book

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Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes, Completely Covered (CA November Test)

Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

  1. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
  2. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroots levels.
  3. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (d): I, II and III

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Launched by The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in 2024, PM Surya Ghar Yojana aims to install 1 crore rooftops in the residential sector.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels under the component of capacity building.
  • Statement 3 is correct: To create more than 3 lakh skilled manpower, through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building is one of the objectives of PM Surya Ghar Yojana.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Partially Covered in CA and Magnum

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-july-23-2024/

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes, Partially Covered (Eco Survey and Budget Test)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
  2. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: a): Both Statement I and Statement II are correct & Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation

  • Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and comsputer monitors. – Correct
    • Rare earth elements like europium, terbium, and yttrium are used in display technologies for their optical properties.
  • Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. – Correct
    • Elements like europium and terbium are known for their phosphorescent (and fluorescent) properties, making them useful in screens and displays.
  • Does Statement II explain Statement I? Yes. Rare earth elements are used in screens because of their phosphorescent properties – they emit light when excited, which is crucial in display technology.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes. Completely Covered (EG-Mineral Resources Book PDF – Page No. 137)

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Consider the following statements:

  1. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
  2. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
  3. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (a): I and II only

Explanation

  • Statement I is Incorrect: The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2030, not 2028.
  • Statement II is Incorrect: ‘Kavach’ is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industry, not with Germany.
  • Statement III is Correct: The ‘Kavach’ system includes RFID tags installed on track sleepers at regular intervals, including in station sections, to provide precise location data to the onboard system.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/kavach-train-collision-avoidance-system-tcas/

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (CA August 2024 Test)

Consider the following space missions:

  1. Axiom-4
  2. SpaDEx
  3. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (c): All the three

Explanation

  • Axiom-4
    • Axiom Space missions are private missions to the International Space Station (ISS).
    • The Axiom-4 mission involves astronauts conducting scientific experiments in microgravity, especially in biomedical and space technologies.
    • Hence, it definitely supports microgravity research.
  • SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment)
    • SpaDeX is an ISRO experiment designed to test docking technologies.
    • Though its main focus is docking, it is tested in space environments, and the docking procedure and associated technologies are validated in microgravity.
    • Therefore, it contributes to microgravity experiments, albeit indirectly.
  • Gaganyaan
    • Gaganyaan is India’s first human spaceflight mission.
    • One of its explicit goals is to conduct microgravity experiments with Indian astronauts (Vyomnauts) aboard.
    • ISRO has planned several scientific payloads for biological, physical, and chemical experiments in microgravity.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-may-03-2025/#gs3-st-space-axiom-4-space-mission

https://www.pmfias.com/spadex-mission/

With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft Type Description
  1. Dornier-228
 Maritime patrol aircraft
  1. IL-76 Supersonic
 combat aircraft
  1. C-17 Globemaster III
 Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (b): Only two

Explanation

  • Dornier-228 → Maritime patrol aircraft – Correct
    • The Dornier Do-228, used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard, is commonly deployed for maritime surveillance, patrolling, and search and rescue operations.
  • IL-76 → Supersonic combat aircraft – Incorrect
    • The Ilyushin IL-76 is a strategic airlifter, not a supersonic combat aircraft.
    • It is used primarily for transporting heavy cargo, paratroopers, and disaster relief.
  • C-17 Globemaster III → Military transport aircraft – Correct
    • The C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for strategic airlift of troops and cargo.

Covered in PMF IAS? No

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:

  1. Silver iodide and potassium iodide
  2. Silver nitrate and potassium iodide
  3. Silver iodide and potassium nitrate
  4. Silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Answer: (a): Silver iodide and potassium iodide

Explanation

  • Cloud Seeding is a technique to induce or enhance rainfall by dispersing certain substances into the atmosphere that act as cloud condensation or ice nuclei.
  • The most commonly used chemical for cloud seeding is silver iodide (AgI). Sometimes, potassium iodide (KI) is also used due to its similar structure and role. These chemicals encourage the formation of ice crystals in clouds.

Covered in PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/cloud-seeding/

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (October CA Test 2024)

Consider the following statements with regard to the pardoning power of the President of India:

  1. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
  2. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (a): I only

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct: Pardoning Power of President can be subject to limited judicial review (Kehar Singh v. Union of India, 1988).
  • Statement II is incorrect: The President cannot exercise this power independently. Decisions must align with the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 09 Polity)

Consider the following statements:

  1. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
  2. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
  3. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (c): I and III only

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct: After the dissolution of LS the Speaker remains in office until just before the first meeting of the new House.
  • Statement II is incorrect: It is optional. Doing so would not attract disqualification under tenth schedule, yet it is not mandatory.
  • Statement III is correct: Article 94(c) mentions Speaker may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, with at least fourteen days’ notice for such resolution.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered (https://www.pmfias.com/speaker/, https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-june-27-2024/#gs2-polity-ic-parliament-election-of-speaker)

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A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Comprehensive Test 10 and Sectional Test 10 Polity)

Consider the following statements:

  1. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
  2. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation

  • Statement I is incorrect: Speaker is the final authority in this regard, not the President.
  • Statement II is incorrect: The word “political party” is used multiple times in the constitution, for example, in the “Tenth Schedule.”

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered (https://www.pmfias.com/anti-defection-law/)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 09 Polity and Comprehensive 1)

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Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
  2. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d): Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

  • Statement I is incorrect: Section 15 of MMDR Act, 1957: Gives State Governments the power to make rules for minor minerals.
  • Statement II is correct: Minor minerals are classified by the Central Government in India, under the powers granted by Section 1(a) of the Mines & Minerals (Regulation & Development) Act, 1957.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (CA Test July 2024)

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes (https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-july-28-29-2024/#gs1-geo-eg-mineral-resources-sc-ruling-on-taxing-mineral-rights)

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

  1. The European Union
  2. The World Bank
  3. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
  4. The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: (a): The European Union

Explanation

  • The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a legislative initiative by the European Union (EU).
  • It is aimed at restoring degraded ecosystems, reversing biodiversity loss, and addressing climate change impacts.
  • The law sets binding targets for EU member states to restore nature across at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered in Daily PPQs (https://www.pmfias.com/ppqs-april-01-2024/)

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With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

  1. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
  2. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
  3. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (c): I and III only

Explanation

  • Statement I is True: Ordinance will have the same effect as any act. So a ordinance by President (Article 123) can amend a central act.
  • Statement II is False: Limitation of “Basic Structure Doctrine” will apply to Ordinance also, as in the case of the Act. Article 13 of the Constitution of India declares that all laws, whether existing or made in the future, that are inconsistent with or abridge the fundamental rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution are void to the ex-tent of such inconsistency or abridgement.
  • Statement III is True: Ordinance can come into effect from a back date (retrospective) as in the case of an act.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test Polity 09 and Comprehensive Test 08)

Consider the following pairs:

State Description
  1. Arunachal Pradesh
 The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
  1. Nagaland
 The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
  1. Tripura
 Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (b): Only two

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct:
    • Arunachal Pradesh: The capital Itanagar is named after the historical Ita Fort (Ita = brick in Assamese), which dates back to the 14th–15th century. Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks:
    1. Namdapha National Park
    2. Mouling National Park
  • Statement II is incorrect:
    • Nagaland: Nagaland became the 16th state of India through the State Of Nagaland Act, 1962, and was formally inaugurated on 1 December 1963.
  • Statement III is correct
    • Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State is Correct. Tripura was indeed a Part ‘C’ state after accession to India. Post the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, it became a Union Territory. It became a full-fledged state on 21 January 1972 through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? No

With reference to India, consider the following:

  1. The Inter-State Council
  2. The National Security Council
  3. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (a): Only one

Explanation

  • The Inter-State Council is a Constitutional body. It was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. It is meant to facilitate coordination between the Centre and the States and among the States themselves.
  • The National Security Council and Zonal Councils are not a constitutional body. It was established in 1998 by the Government of India (executive order). It is an executive (non-constitutional, non-statutory) body that advises the Prime Minister on national security and strategic interests.
  • Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (a statutory provision, not part of the Constitution). These councils promote cooperation among states and between states and the Centre in each zone

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (CA August 2024 Test, Advanced Test 01 Polity and Comprehensive 10 Test)

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Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes (https://www.pmfias.com/national-security-council/, https://www.pmfias.com/zonal-councils/)

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
  2. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (a): I only

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct. Article 163: There shall be Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is by or under the Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. So, we can safely say that the Constitution recognises Governor’s discretion.
  • Statement II is incorrect: Such bills must first be reserved by the Governor for Presidential assent, and then only the President can consider them.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered (https://www.pmfias.com/governors-assent-to-state-laws/, https://www.pmfias.com/tag/governor/)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 10 Polity)

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Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under
  1. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State
 The Directive Principles of the State Policy
  1. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture
 The Fundamental Duties
  1. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories
 The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
Answer: (c): All three

Explanation

  • I is correctly matched. Article 50: The State shall take steps to separate judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
  • II is correctly matched. It is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen of India (under Article 51A) to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
  • III is correctly matched. Article 24: No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed in work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test Polity 08 and Advanced test 01 Polity)

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Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
  1. The State Government loses its executive power in such an area and the local body assumes total administration
  2. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (d): Neither I nor II

Explanation

  • I is incorrect. Fifth Schedule, Article 244(1) mentions that ” Subject to the provisions of this Schedule, the executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas therein.” It is not “completely” taken over by Tribal Advisory Councils.
  • II is incorrect. There is no such provision.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes, Completely Covered (https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-november-18-2023/#gs2-polity-ic-5th-schedule-scheduled-areas)

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organisation Union Ministry
  1. The National Automotive Board
 Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  1. The Coir Board
 Ministry of Heavy industries
  1. The National Centre for Trade Information
 Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
Answer: (d) None

Explanation

  • I is incorrect: National Automotive Board (NAB) is an autonomous society under Department of Heavy Industry, Ministry of Heavy Industry & Public Enterprises.
  • II is incorrect: Coir board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
  • III is incorrect: Ministry of Commerce and Industry has set up the National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI).

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? No

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

  1. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
  2. Extent of the executive power of a State
  3. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (a): I and II only

Explanation

  • Article 368(2) provides for the conditions where such ratification is required:

(a) article 54, article 55, article 73, article 162, article 241 or article 279A; or

(b) Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI; or

(c) any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule; or

(d) the representation of States in Parliament; or

(e) the provisions of this article

Where:

  1. Article 54 and 55 are related to the Election of President.
  2. Article 73 is related to the Extent of executive power of the Union.
  3. Article 162 addresses the executive power of a state.
  4. Article 241 is related to High Courts for Union territories
  5. Article 279A of the Constitution of India establishes the Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council).
  6. Chapter IV of Part V of the Constitution of India, titled “The Union Judiciary,” primarily deals with the Supreme Court.
  7. Chapter V of Part VI of the Indian Constitution deals with “The High Courts in the States.”
  8. Chapter I of Part XI in the Constitution of India, titled “Legislative Relations,” focuses on the distribution of legislative powers between the Union (Central Government) and the States. It outlines the territorial extent of laws made by both the Parliament and the State Legislatures, and the subject matter of laws that each can enact.
  • I is correct: Amendment to “Any of the list in the seventh schedule” requires such ratification by half of the states.
  • II is correct: Amendment to extent of executive power of State will impact the federal nature, hence the ratification will be needed.
  • III is incorrect. No such mention.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Polity Test 07)

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With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

  1. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
  2. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
  3. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any court proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (d): I, II and III

Explanation

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered(https://www.pmfias.com/reforms-in-the-office-of-governor/#immunity-to-the-office-of-the-governor, https://www.pmfias.com/no-immunity-for-legislators-taking-bribe-for-vote-speech/)

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Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test Polity 09, Sectional Test Polity 10)

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Consider the following activities:

  1. Production of crude oil
  2. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
  3. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
  4. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four
Answer: (b): Only two

Explanation

  • The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
    1. Production of crude oil not regulated by PNGRB. This is an upstream activity, which comes under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) and not under the PNGRB’s regulatory scope.
    2. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum is regulated by PNGRB. Storage and distribution (especially via pipelines and terminals) are regulated by PNGRB, particularly when it involves access and fair pricing.
    3. Marketing and sale of petroleum products regulated by PNGRB. PNGRB regulates the marketing and retail network (especially for natural gas and petroleum products) to ensure competition and fair practices.
    4. Production of natural gas not regulated by PNGRB. Production of natural gas is an upstream activity and regulated by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) under MoPNG, not by PNGRB.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? No

Consider the following statements:

  1. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
  2. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
  3. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of the taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (d): I, II and III

Explanation

  • Statement I is Incorrect. According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, Panchayats at the intermediate level (also called the block level) are to be constituted only in those States where the population exceeds 20 lakhs. Hence, not all States have Panchayats at the intermediate level.
  • Statement II is Incorrect. As per this article, any person who is qualified to become an MLA is qualified to become a member of the Panchayat, but for Panchayat the minimum age prescribed is 21 years.
  • Statement III is Incorrect. The Constitution empowers the Governor of the State to constitute a Finance Commission to review finances of Panchayats and Municipalities, not the Chief Minister. The State Finance Commission is appointed every five years by the Governor, as per Article 243-I and 243-Y.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (Comprehensive 01 and Sectional Test Polity 10)

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

  1. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
  2. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
  3. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
  4. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I and IV
  4. I only
Answer: (d): I only

Explanation

  • Statement I is Correct and Statement III is Incorrect.
    • Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation), the organisation is now known as BIMSTEC and comprises seven Member States with the admission of Myanmar on 22 December 1997, and Bhutan and Nepal in February 2004.
    • On 06 June 1997, representatives of the Governments of Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand came together in Bangkok, and signed the ‘Declaration on the Establishment of the Bangladesh–India–Sri Lanka–Thailand Economic Cooperation (BIST-EC)’.
  • Statement II is incorrect
    • The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization that was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration.
  • Statement IV is incorrect
    • India has Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime, Disaster Management, Energy sub-sectors. Tourism is sub sector of Nepal.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA and Daily PPQs? Yes. Completely Covered https://www.pmfias.com/bimstec/#about-bimstec

https://www.pmfias.com/ppqs-july-13-2024-prelims/#q2-ir-grouping-consider-the-following-statements-about-the-bay-of-bengal-initiative-for-multi-sectoral-technical-and-economic-cooperation-bimstec

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of the ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

  1. The President of India
  2. The Prime Minister of India
  3. The Chief Justice of India
  4. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. II and IV only
  2. I, II and III
  3. II, III and IV
  4. I and III only
Answer: (c): II, III and IV

Explanation

  • Composition of the Jury for Gandhi Peace Prize:
  • The jury consists of five members:
    1. Prime Minister of India
    2. Chief Justice of India
    3. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
    4. Two eminent person nominated by the Prime Minister
  • Therefore, members from the given options are: II, III, and IV

Covered in PMF IAS? No

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

  1. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
  2. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
  3. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I, II and III
  2. II and III only
  3. I only
  4. I and II only
Answer: (d): I and II only

Explanation

  • It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. – Correct
  • GAGAN enhances GPS signals’ accuracy, integrity, and availability, crucial for safe aircraft navigation.
  • It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management. – Correct
  • GAGAN improves air traffic navigation across India and adjacent regions, helping in seamless and safe aircraft operations with reduced separation between flights and better fuel efficiency.
  • It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. – Incorrect.
  • While GAGAN is primarily designed for aviation, its applications extend to other sectors like railways, maritime, road transport, and surveying, due to improved positional accuracy.

Covered in PMF IAS? No

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

  1. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
  2. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (a): I only

Explanation

  • Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. – Correct
  • India did co-chair the Paris 2025 summit, and it explicitly built upon outcomes of the Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024) summits.
  • Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. – Incorrect
  • India and 57 others, excluding the UK and US, signed the Paris joint declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/indias-leadership-in-global-ai-governance/

Consider the following pairs:

Statement Year
  1. International Year of the Woman Farmer
 2026
  1. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism
 2027
  1. International Year of Peace and Trust
 2025
  1. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence
 2029
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All the four
Answer: (d): All the four

Explanation

  • All four pairs are correctly matched with their respective United Nations declarations.
    • The UN General Assembly has declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer, following a resolution proposed by the United States and supported by the FAO.
    • The UN General Assembly proclaimed 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism following a resolution proposed by Uzbekistan.
    • The UN General Assembly adopted Resolution A/RES/78/266, declaring 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust.
    • In 2024, the General Assembly declared 2029 the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence to raise global awareness about asteroids.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (Comprehensive 09)

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

  1. The 16th BRICS Summit was held under the chairmanship of Russia in Kazan.
  2. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
  3. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I and III only
  4. I only
Answer: (a): I and II

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The 16th BRICS Summit was held from October 22 to 24, 2024, in Kazan, Russia, under the chairmanship of President Vladimir Putin.
  • Statement 2 is correct: 16th BRICS Summit marked the first gathering of the expanded BRICS bloc, following the admission of Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates as full members on January 1, 2024. In January 2025, Indonesia joined the BRICS as a full member.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: Theme of the summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security”.

Covered in the PMF IAS: Yes. Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-january-09-2025/#gs2-ir-groupings-indonesias-full-membership-in-brics

Also partially covered in PMF IAS India Year Book

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (CA TEST JAN 2025 and Comprehensive Test 09)

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Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

  1. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
  2. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
  3. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
  4. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. III only
  2. II and III
  3. I and IV
  4. None of the above statements is Correct
Answer: (a): III only

Explanation

  • Statement I is Incorrect. The Lokpal has jurisdiction over all public servants, including those posted outside India. There is no exemption for Indian public servants serving abroad.
  • Statement II is Incorrect. It is true that the Chairperson or a Member cannot be an MP or MLA. However, the Chairperson of the Lokpal need not be only the Chief Justice of India (CJI). As per the Act, the Chairperson can be: A former Chief Justice of India/ or A former Supreme Court judge, or/An eminent person with impeccable integrity and at least 25 years of experience in public affairs, law, management, etc.
  • Statement III is Correct. This is true. The minimum age for appointment as Chairperson or Member of Lokpal is 45 years, as per Section 3(2) of the Act.
  • Statement IV is Incorrect. The Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against the sitting Prime Minister, subject to certain safeguards: The complaint must not relate to: International relations, External and internal security, Public order, and Atomic energy and space. Also, approval of the full bench of Lokpal is required before initiating an inquiry.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (Sectional Test 10 Polity and CA Jan test 2025)

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-january-19-20-2025/#gs2-polity-bodies-statutory-1st-foundation-day-of-lokpal

Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

  1. The event was held in Delhi, India.
  2. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
  3. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (a): I only

Explanation

  • Statement I is Correct. The inaugural Kho-Kho World Cup took place from January 13 to 19, 2025, at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi, India.
  • Statement II is Incorrect. In the men’s final, India defeated Nepal with a score of 54–36.
  • Statement III is Incorrect. In the women’s final, India triumphed over Nepal with a score of 78–40.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-january-22-2025/#prelims-sports-india-wins-inaugural-kho-kho-world-cup-2025)

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
  2. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (b): II only

Explanation

  • Statement I is Incorrect. The 45th Chess Olympiad in 2024 was a team competition, not an individual event. India, led by Gukesh Dommaraju, won the team gold for the first time in its history. Gukesh also earned the individual gold medal on Board 1 with outstanding play. However, the claim that he defeated Ian Nepomniachtchi is incorrect—Gukesh became the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion by beating Ding Liren in the 2024 World Chess Championship, a separate event from the Olympiad.
  • Statement II is Correct. Abhimanyu Mishra, a young chess prodigy from the United States, made history by becoming the youngest Grandmaster ever. He earned the title on June 30, 2021, at just 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days old—breaking the long-standing record previously held by Sergey Karjakin.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes, Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-december-13-2024/#prelims-in-news-youngest-world-chess-champion-dommaraju-gukesh

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-september-26-2024/#prelims-in-news-chess-olympiad-2024

With reference to investments, consider the following:

  1. Bonds
  2. Hedge Funds
  3. Stocks
  4. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All the four
Answer: (b): Only two

Explanation

  • Alternative investments, also known as Alternate Investment Funds (AIFs) are financial assets that do not fall into conventional categories like stocks, bonds, or cash. They include assets like real estate, private equity, hedge funds, venture capital funds.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered in Daily PPQs (Link: https://www.pmfias.com/ppqs-december-07-2023/)

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Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. Buying and selling Government bonds
  2. Buying and selling foreign currency
  3. Pension fund management
  4. Lending to private companies
  5. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I and II only
  2. II, III and IV
  3. I, III, IV and V
  4. I, II and V
Answer: (d): I, II and V

Explanation

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) primarily earns income from the following sources:
    • Interest on government securities (bonds) it holds.
    • Gains and interest from foreign exchange reserves and foreign currency transactions.
    • Seigniorage income from currency issuance , which includes printing and distributing currency notes.
    • Interest on loans extended to the government and commercial banks.
  • The RBI does not earn income from pension fund management or lending to private companies, as it does not engage in these activities. Therefore, options I, II, and V are the correct sources of RBI’s income.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (May CA TEST 2024 and Sectional Test)

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With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization Some of its functions It works under
  1. Directorate of Enforcement
 Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
  1. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
 Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
  1. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management
 Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (b): Only two

Explanation

  1. Directorate of Enforcement
  • It functions under the Department of Revenue of the Ministry of Finance.
  • It oversees the implementation of:
    1. Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA)
    2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
    3. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
    4. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA)
  1. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
  • It functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 and over fifty other allied Acts including the Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act etc. DRI undertakes collection, collation, analysis and dissemination of intelligence relating to smuggling, carries out investigations, adjudication of cases and prosecution of the arrested persons.
  1. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management
  • It functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • “Implements information resource and data management” is one of the functions of DGSDM.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Partially covered:

https://www.pmfias.com/ed-arrests-delhi-cm/#enforcement-directorate

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
  2. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (b): II only

Explanation

  • Statement I is incorrect: BRSR is a framework introduced by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in 2021, replacing the earlier Business Responsibility Report (BRR) to ensure that the top 1000 companies report their environmental, social, and governance (ESG) performance in a standardised and transparent manner.
  • Statement II is correct: Unlike traditional financial reporting, BRSR focuses on non-financial disclosures, such as energy use, emissions, employee welfare, board diversity, ethical practices, and community development.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered in Daily PPQs and Test Series (CA April 2025 Test)

https://www.pmfias.com/ppqs-may-23-2024/

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Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes (link: https://www.pmfias.com/overhauling-the-environment-social-and-governance-esg-metric/ , https://cleartax.in/s/brsr-reporting)

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Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
  2. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d): Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

  • Statement I is incorrect: Incomes derived from allied agricultural activities are not considered as agricultural income according to the Income Tax Act. Hence it is not exempted from tax.
  • Statement II is correct: Agricultural land in rural areas in India is not considered a capital asset under section 45 of the Income-tax Act,1961.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? No

Consider the following statements:

  1. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
  2. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
  3. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (c): I and III only

Explanation

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes. Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/critical-minerals/

https://www.pmfias.com/new-royalty-rates-for-three-critical-minerals/

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
  2. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
  3. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a): Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation

  • Bonds are typically considered safer investments than stocks because bondholders have a higher claim on the issuing company’s assets in the event of bankruptcy.
  • Unlike stocks, bonds do not offer ownership participation in a company through a return of profits or voting rights. Instead, they represent the issuer’s loan obligations and the likelihood of repayment, and other factors influence their pricing.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Advanced Test Economy 03)

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Consider the following statements:

  1. India accounts for a very large proportion of equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
  2. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
  3. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (a): I and II only

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct: India accounts for over 80% of the global equity index options volume, showing a massive retail-driven boom in derivatives trading.
  • Statement II is correct: India overtook the Hong Kong stock market by market capitalisation, driven by strong domestic flows and economic optimism.
  • Statement III is incorrect: SEBI is the regulatory body. It issues warnings, investor education, and takes action against illegal financial advisors.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered Yes. Completely Covered (Advanced Test Economy -03 Question can be solved by using the third statement)

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered (Question can be solved by using the third statement)

https://www.pmfias.com/securities-and-exchange-board-of-india-sebi/#:~:text=competitive%20market%20environment-,Powers%20and%20Functions%20of%20SEBI,compensation%2C%20and%20combats%20fraudulent%20practices.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
  2. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the usage of raw materials as inputs.
  3. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  3. Only one of the Statements II and II is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a): Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/jaipur-declaration-on-circular-economy/#about-circular-economy )

Consider the following statements:

  1. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
  2. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
  3. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (a): I and II only

Explanation

  • Capital Receipts: The government receives money by way of loans (borrowing) or from the sale of its assets (disinvestments). Loans will have to be returned to the agencies from which they have been borrowed. Thus they create liability.
  • Interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government are part of Revenue Receipts.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? YES, in Economic Survey.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test Economy 19 and Economic survey Test)

Consider the following countries:

  1. Austria
  2. Bulgaria
  3. Croatia
  4. Serbia
  5. Sweden
  6. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
  1. Only three
  2. Only four
  3. Only five
  4. All the six
Answer: (b): Only four

Explanation

  • Among the given options members of NATO include Bulgaria, Crotia, Sweden, North Macedonia.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered

(https://pmfias.b-cdn.net/wp-content/uploads/2024/04/NATO-Members-since-1949-Vertical-A4-816×[email protected], https://www.pmfias.com/north-atlantic-treaty-organisation-nato/)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Comprehensive Test 06)

Consider the following countries:

  1. Bolivia
  2. Brazil
  3. Colombia
  4. Ecuador
  5. Paraguay
  6. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
  1. Only two
  2. Only three
  3. Only four
  4. Only five
Answer: (c): Only four

Explanation

  • The Andes consist of a vast series of high plateaus topped by even higher peaks, forming an unbroken mountain chain extending approximately 8,900 km from the southern tip of South America to the continent’s northernmost Caribbean coast.
  • The convergence of the South American Plate and the oceanic Nazca Plate led to the mountain-building activity that created the Andes.
  • The Andes are not a single continuous line of peaks but rather a series of parallel and transverse ranges, or cordilleras, interspersed with plateaus and depressions.
  • Generally, they are divided into three broad regions:
    • Southern Andes: Includes the Chilean, Fuegian, and Patagonian cordilleras.
    • Central Andes: Encompasses the Peruvian cordilleras.
    • Northern Andes: Covers the Ecuadorian, Colombian, and Venezuelan (or Caribbean) cordilleras.
  • The Andes Mountains extend through seven South American countries, stretching from Venezuela in the north to Argentina in the south. Columbia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, and Chile are the other countries.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes, Partially Covered (World Geography Book PDF Page-126 – South America Chapter)

Consider the following water bodies:

  1. Lake Tanganyika
  2. Lake Tonlé Sap
  3. Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: d): None

Explanation

  • Lake Tanganyika
    • Lake Tanganyika is the second largest freshwater lake by volume (Lake Baikal in Russia is the largest). It is the largest among the Albertine Rift Lakes.
    • It is also the world’s longest freshwater lake and the second deepest lake (Lake Baikal – deepest).
    • The lake is shared between Tanzania, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Burundi, and Zambia. The Equator does not pass through it.
  • Lake Tonlé Sap
    • Tonlé Sap is a natural floodplain lake in central Cambodia. During the dry season, it drains southeast via the Tonlé Sap River into the Mekong River.
    • It lies entirely north of the equator
  • Patos Lagoon
    • Patos Lagoon is in southern Brazil, near the Atlantic coast in Rio Grande do Sul.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes. Partially Covered (World Geography Book PDF-Page-58)

  

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:

  1. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
  2. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
  3. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: d): I, II and III

Explanation

Covered in PMFIAS CA: Yes, https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-january-23-2025/#gs2-moci-initiatives-national-turmeric-board

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (January Test CA 2025 and comprehensive Test 10)

  

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

  1. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
  2. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
  3. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I and III only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III
  4. II and III only
Answer: c): I, II and III

Explanation

  • Evidence in Support of Continental Drift
  • Apparent Affinity of Physical Features
    • The bulge of Brazil (South America) seems to fit into the Gulf of Guinea (Africa).
    • Greenland seems to fit in well with the Ellesmere and Baffin islands of Canada.
    • The west coast of India, Madagascar and Africa seem to have been joined.
    • North and South America on one side and Africa and Europe on the other fit along the mid-Atlantic ridge.
    • The very old fold mountain chains, the Caledonian and the Hercynian mountains of Europe and the Appala-chians of the USA seem to be one continuous series.

Caledonian and the Hercynian mountains

The Caledonians of Europe & The Appalachians of the USA

  • Botanical Evidence

Fossils across the Gondwanaland

Fossils across the Gondwanaland (Source: USGS)

  • The presence of glossopteris vegetation in Carboniferous rocks of India, Australia, South Africa, Falkland Islands (Overseas territory of the UK), Antarctica, etc. (all split from the same landmass called Gond-wana) can be explained by the fact that parts were linked in the past.
  • Criticism: Similar vegetation is found in unrelated parts of the world like Afghanistan, Iran and Siberia.
  • Distribution of Fossils
    • The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass “Lemuria” linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in South Africa and Brazil. The two localities pres-ently are 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them.
    • Criticism: Similar fossils were identified in unrelated parts of the world.
  • Polar wandering (Shifting of Poles)
    • The position of the poles constantly drifted (due to plate tectonics).
    • Criticism: Poles may have shifted, not necessarily the continents.
  • Rocks of the Same Age Across the Oceans
    • The belt of ancient rocks of 2 billion years from Brazil’s coast matches with those from western Africa.
    • Criticism: Rocks of the same age and similar characteristics are found in other parts of the world too.
  • Tillite deposits
    • Tillite deposits are sedimentary rocks formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondwana system of tillite sediments is found in India, Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia (all were previously part of Gondwana).
    • Overall resemblance demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories.
  • Placer Deposits
    • Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast (West Africa) but the source (gold-bearing veins) are in Brazil, and it is obvious that the gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes. Completely Covered (Physical Geography book PDF – Page No. 93-97)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
  2. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c): Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Explanation

  • Atmospheric dust particles are influenced by factors like aridity, wind patterns, and land cover.
  • Subtropical regions, particularly arid and semi-arid areas like the Sahara, Middle East, and parts of Central Asia, are major sources of dust due to dry soils and strong winds. For example, the Sahara contributes significantly to global dust emissions via trade winds.
  • Subtropical regions are actually known for dry winds, particularly due to descending air in high-pressure zones (like trade wind deserts).
  • Temperate regions, such as parts of North America or Central Asia, can also produce dust in dry seasons or from agricultural activity. E.g. Chinook or Mistral.
  • Equatorial regions (e.g., Amazon, Congo) have high vegetation cover and moisture, reducing dust generation.
  • Polar regions (e.g., Arctic, Antarctica) have ice or snow cover, limiting dust sources except in rare dry areas like Antarctica’s Dry Valleys.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Partially Covered (Physical Geography Book – Page No. 322)

Consider the following statements

  1. Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
  2. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a): Both Statement I & Statement II are correct & Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation

  • Isotherms are lines on a map connecting points of equal temperature.
  • In January, the Northern Hemisphere experiences winter, with significant temperature contrasts between land and oceans.
  • During winter, landmasses cool more rapidly than oceans due to differences in heat capacity. Isotherms reflect these temperature gradients, bending to reflect colder temperatures over land and warmer temperatures over oceans.
  • Specifically, isotherms shift equatorward (southward) over landmasses, indicating colder temperatures, and poleward (northward) over oceans, indicating warmer temperatures, due to the moderating effect of oceans.
  • Oceans have higher heat capacity than land, retaining heat longer and moderating temperatures.
  • In January, Northern Hemisphere oceans (e.g., North Atlantic, Pacific) remain warmer than landmasses, which lose heat rapidly due to lower heat capacity and radiative cooling.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Advance Geography Test 06))

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes, Completely Covered (Physical Geography Book – Page No. 287)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
  2. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
  3. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c): Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation

  • Chalk is very permeable due to its high porosity and interconnected pores, often forming aquifers. Clay is very low in permeability due to tightly packed fine grains, though it may still be porous.
  • Thus, the statement is geologically sound. Statement II: Correct & Explains Statement I
  • Chalk is porous, enabling it to absorb and transmit water, contributing to its permeability. Hence, this explains the chalk part of Statement I. Statement III: Incorrect
  • Clay is porous but not permeable due to poor pore connectivity. The claim that clay is “not at all porous” is factually wrong.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes. Partially Covered (Physical Geography Book – Page No. 171 [clay] and 216 [chalk])

Consider the following statements:

  1. Without the atmosphere, the temperature would be well below the freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
  2. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
  3. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and III only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III
  4. II and III only
Answer: (D): II and III

Explanation

  • Without an atmosphere, Earth’s daytime temperatures could be extremely hot and nighttime temperatures could be extremely cold.
  • Earth would experience extreme temperature swings, similar to the Moon, where daytime temperatures soar due to direct solar radiation and nighttime temperatures plummet due to rapid heat loss to space.
  • While the average temperature would be below freezing (-18oC), and nighttime or polar temperatures would consistently be so, daytime temperatures in many regions would not be “well below freezing point.”
  • The greenhouse effect—heat trapped by atmospheric gases—maintains Earth’s average temperature (~15°C), preventing extreme cooling.
  • Gases such as carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), and water vapour are excellent at absorbing and re-emitting longwave radiation, making them central to the greenhouse effect.

Covered in the PMF IAS Book? Yes, Completely Covered (Physical Geography Book – Page No. 56 & 293)

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

  1. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are reared and managed by farmers with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
  2. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (c): Both I and II

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct: The RGM will result in enhanced productivity and benefit of the programme, percolating to all cattle and buffaloes of India especially with small and marginal farmers. This programme will also benefit women in particular since over 70% of the work involved in livestock farming is undertaken by women.
  • Statement II is correct: It was started to enhance productivity of bovines and increasing milk production in a sustainable manner using advance technologies.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (Economic Survey Test)

Covered in PMFIAS CA: Yes; Partially covered in Economic Survey and

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-july-11 2024/#:~:text=26th%20November.,Rashtriya%20Gokul%20Mission,of%20the%20nondescript%20bovine%20population

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

  1. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
  2. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (c): Both I and II

Explanation

  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy focused on Reasoning. He opposed the blind reliance on the past. He ultimately relied on the power of human reason. He wanted his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach.
  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy represented a synthesis of the thoughts of the East and West. He greatly respected the traditional philosophic systems of the East.

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

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Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

  1. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
  2. Observance of strict non-violence
  3. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
  4. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All the four
Answer: (c): Only three

Explanation

  • Non-Cooperation Programme included:
    1. Establishment of national schools and colleges
    2. Promotion of indigenous goods
    3. Practising hand-spinning and hand-weaving
    4. Popularisation of Charkha and Khadi
    5. Boycott of government educational institutions, law courts, and legislatures
    6. Boycott of foreign clothes
    7. Surrender of officially conferred honours and titles
    8. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Comprehensive Test 03)

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

A screenshot of a computer screen Description automatically generated

The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was

  1. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
  2. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
  3. a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
  4. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer: (b): a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Explanation

  • During the Chola period, an Araghatta (Persian water wheel or water lifting device) was used for irrigation.

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

A screenshot of a computer screen Description automatically generated

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta and Gunabhara?

  1. Mahendravarman I
  2. Simhavishnu
  3. Narasimhavarman I
  4. Simhavarman
Answer: (a): Mahendravarman I

Explanation

Pallava Rulers: Titles

  • Mahendravarman I: Sankirnajati, Mattavilasa, Gunabhara, Chitrakarapuli, Vichitra Chitta
  • Narasimhavarman: Vatapikonda (conqueror of Vatapi), Mamalla (great wrestler).

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 03)

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

  1. Samudragupta
  2. Chandragupta II
  3. Kumaragupta I
  4. Skandagupta
Answer: (b): Chandragupta II

Explanation

  • Fa-hien (Faxian) visited India during Chandragupta II’s reign in the fifth century CE
  • Xuan Zang Visited during Harsha’s reign in the seventh century
  • I-Qing came in the seventh century

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 02 and Comprehensive Test 08)

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

  1. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
  2. Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
  3. Rajendra I (Chola)
  4. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Answer: (c): Rajendra I (Chola)

Explanation

  • Rajaraja Chola led naval expeditions and defeated the Sri Lankan king Mahinda V, and conquered the northern part of Sri Lanka. He also conquered the Maldives.
  • Rajendra Chola led the naval expedition against the Sri Vijaya empire of Southeast Asia. The empire was led by the Sailendra dynasty and extended over the Malay peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 03)

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

  1. Asmaka: Godavari
  2. Kamboja: Vipas
  3. Avanti: Mahanadi
  4. Kosala: Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. Only on
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four
Answer: (b): Only two

Explanation

  1. The kingdom of Assaka was located along the Godavari River in Maharashtra.
  2. Kamboja was not located along the Vipas (Beas river). The Kingdom of Kamboja includes the areas of Jammu, parts of the NWFP of Pakistan and parts of Afghanistan. Vipas (Beas river) passes through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.
  3. The kingdom of Avanti was located in the Malwa region of central India (Madhya Pradesh). It was not located in the region of Mahanadi which mainly flows through Chhatisgarh and Odisha.
  4. The Kingdom of Kosala covered the eastern part of Uttar Pradesh. It was located near the Sarayu river.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (Sectional Test 01)

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

  1. Delhi
  2. Gwalior
  3. Ujjain
  4. Lahore
Answer: (d)

Covered in the PMF IAS Art & Culture Book? No

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the Pradeshika, Rajuka and Yukta were important officers at the

  1. village-level administration
  2. district-level administration
  3. provincial administration
  4. level of the central administration
Answer: (b): district-level administration

Explanation

  • District administration: Pradesika, Rajuka and Yukta were officials at the district level. Their functions included – survey and assessment of land, tours and inspections, revenue collection, and maintaining law and order, etc.
    1. Pradesika’s position and functions were similar to those of modern collector (overall incharge of the district).
    2. Rajukas were responsible for the survey and assessment of land.
    3. Yuktas, or subordinate officials, assisted Rajukas.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 01)

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

  1. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
  2. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
Answer: (c): Both I and II

Explanation

  • Gandhi’s strategy for the Non-Cooperation Movement involved a phased approach. Initially, it emphasized non-violent non-cooperation, including the boycott of titles, law courts, government schools, and foreign goods. The next phase was mass civil disobedience, including non-payment of taxes. After the Chauri-Chaura Incident, Gandhi postponed the proposed civil disobedience.
  • At the Nagpur Congress Session in 1920, Congress approved the non-cooperation resolution moved by C.R. Das. Congress creed changed from the goal of attainment of self-government through constitutional means to the attainment of Swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (Sectional Test 05)

Covered in the PMF IAS History Book? Yes. Completely Covered

Consider the following types of vehicles:

  1. Full battery electric vehicles
  2. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
  3. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (c): All the three

Explanation

  • An alternative powertrain is a system that powers a vehicle without relying solely on an internal combustion engine. These systems aim to reduce emissions and dependence on fossil fuels. Examples include hybrid, electric, and hydrogen fuel cell powertrains.
Vehicle Type Alternative Powertrain? Reason
Full Battery Electric Vehicle Yes Uses batteries, no fossil fuels
Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicle Yes Uses hydrogen, emits water
Fuel Cell–Electric Hybrid Vehicle Yes Combine fuel cell (usually hydrogen-based) with battery storage or another electric system

Covered in PMF IAS CA? Yes. partially Covered

Current Affairs November 28, 2023: IUCN Red List 2.0, Social Stock Exchange, eSIMs, Rat Hole Mining, Occupational Hazards, Electric Vehicles (EVs) – PMF IAS

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

  1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
  2. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
  3. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (d): None

Explanation

  1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. – Incorrect
    • Only certain types of UAVs (like multirotors or VTOL drones) can do vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL).
    • Fixed-wing UAVs generally require a runway or catapult to take off and land, not vertical landing.
  2. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. – Incorrect
    • Multirotor UAVs can hover.
    • But fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover – they need forward motion to generate lift.
    • So, not all UAVs can do automated hovering.
  3. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. – Incorrect
    • Some UAVs use internal combustion engines, hybrid systems, or solar power.
    • Battery is common, but not the only source of power for all UAVs.

Covered in PMF IAS CA? Partially Covered (Not directly, but addressed in multiple UAV articles)

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Not directly, but addressed in multiple UAV related Questions (Comprehensive Test 01 and CA March Test 2024)

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

  1. Cobalt
  2. Graphite
  3. Lithium
  4. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All the four
Answer: (c): Only three

Explanation

  1. Cobalt: Cobalt is commonly used in EV battery cathodes, especially in Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO) and Nickel Manganese Cobalt (NMC) chemistries.
  2. Graphite: Graphite is used in anodes, not cathodes. It’s the most common anode material in lithium-ion batteries.
  3. Lithium: Lithium is a core component of the cathode materials. Though it is also present in the electrolyte and anode, it is central to the cathode structure.
  4. Nickel: Nickel is commonly used in cathodes, especially in high-energy batteries like NMC and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminium).

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes, Partially Covered (Graphite, Cobalt and Lithium covered in Comprehensive Test 08)

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely covered

Lithium-ion battery, Internal Combustion Engine vs. Electric Vehicles – PMF IAS

Consider the following:

  1. Cigarette butts
  2. Eyeglass lenses
  3. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (c): All three

Explanation

  1. Cigarette butts: Cigarette butts do contain plastic. The filter of a cigarette is primarily made of cellulose acetate, a type of plastic.
  2. Eyeglass lenses: Most modern eyeglass lenses are made from plastic, not glass. Common materials include polycarbonate, CR-39 plastic, etc. These are lightweight, impact-resistant, and cheaper than glass.
  3. Car tyres: Car tyres are not pure rubber; they contain synthetic polymers (plastics).
    • They are made from a blend of natural and synthetic rubber (like styrene-butadiene rubber, a plastic polymer).
    • They also contain nylon and polyester fibres, which are also plastic-based materials.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Partially covered PMF IAS General Science book PDF page 47

Consider the following substances:

  1. Ethanol
  2. Nitroglycerine
  3. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All the three
  4. None
Answer: (b): Only two

Explanation

  • Coal gasification converts coal into syngas (a mixture of hydrogen (H₂), carbon monoxide (CO), and CO₂), which can be further processed to produce various chemicals and fuels.
Ethanol
  • Ethanol can be synthesised indirectly from syngas via Fischer-Tropsch synthesis or catalytic conversion.
  • Although ethanol is typically produced from biomass, coal-derived syngas can also be used as a feedstock.
Nitroglycerine
  • Nitroglycerine is made from glycerol (glycerine) and nitric acid.
  • Glycerol is typically derived from fats and oils, not from coal or syngas.
  • It is not related to coal gasification.
Urea
  • Urea is made from ammonia (NH₃) and CO₂.
  • Ammonia can be synthesised using hydrogen from syngas (coal gasification provides hydrogen) via the Haber-Bosch process.
  • The CO₂ byproduct is also available from coal gasification.

Covered in PMF IAS? No.

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

  1. These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
  2. These are explosives in military weapons
  3. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
  4. These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Answer: (b): These are explosives in military weapons

Explanation

  • These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants – Incorrect
    • Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in refrigeration and air conditioning. CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are not related to refrigeration.
  • These are explosives in military weapons – Correct
    • CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive), and LLM-105 are high-energy explosives. These compounds are used in military applications due to their high detonation velocity and pressure, making them powerful and efficient in weapons like bombs and warheads.
  • These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles – Incorrect
  • Although high-energy, these substances are not fuels but rather explosives. Fuels burn to release energy over time, while explosives detonate rapidly.
  • These are fuels for rocket propulsion – Incorrect
  • These are not fuels but explosives. Rocket propellants are usually in the form of liquid or solid fuels, not these substances.

Covered in PMF IAS? No

Consider the following statements:

  1. It is expected that the Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
  2. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
  3. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (c): I and III only

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect: Majorana 1 is a quantum chip developed by Microsoft that aims to make quantum computing more stable and reliable by leveraging a new state of matter called Majorana particles. Their purpose is to create less error-prone qubits for practical quantum computing.
  • Statement III is correct: Deep learning is a subset of machine learning that uses multi-layered artificial neural networks to model and understand complex data patterns. Unlike broader machine learning algorithms, deep learning excels in tasks like image recognition, natural language processing, and speech recognition

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series. Yes. Completely Covered (CA Feb 2025 Test)

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes, Completely Covered (By elimination method we can solve this easily)

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-february-25-2025/#:~:text=to%20environmental%20disturbances.-,About%20Majorana%201,forming%20the%20world’s%20first%20topoconductor)

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

  1. They are man-made proteins.
  2. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
  3. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (d): I, II and III

Explanation

  1. They are man-made proteins. – Correct
    • Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are artificially created proteins designed to mimic the immune system’s ability to fight off harmful pathogens.
  2. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. – Correct
    • mAbs target specific antigens, such as those on the surface of viruses or cancer cells. This specific binding helps stimulate the immune system or neutralise the target, assisting in treatment.
  3. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. – Correct
    • mAbs have been used or developed to treat viral infections like Ebola, SARS-CoV-2, and the Nipah virus. E.g., m102.4 is an mAb that has shown promise against Nipah virus in experimental settings.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes, Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-may-04-05-2025/#what-is-immunotherapy, https://www.pmfias.com/ppqs-may-03-04-05-2025/)

Consider the following statements:

  1. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
  2. No virus can infect bacteria.
  3. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
Answer key: (d): None

Explanation

  1. No virus can survive in ocean waters. – Incorrect
    • The ocean is full of viruses, particularly bacteriophages, which infect marine bacteria. In fact, viruses are the most abundant biological entities in the ocean, playing a key role in regulating microbial populations and nutrient cycling.
  2. No virus can infect bacteria. – Incorrect
    • Bacteriophages (or simply phages) are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are extensively studied in molecular biology and even used in phage therapy as an alternative to antibiotics.
  3. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. – Incorrect
    • Viruses commonly alter host cells’ transcriptional machinery to replicate their genetic material. E.g., HIV and many other viruses hijack the host cell’s transcription system for viral gene expression.

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes, Partially Covered (General Science Book Page-28)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
  2. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
  3. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesised from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a): Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation

  • Activated carbon is widely used to remove pollutants because of its large surface area and strong adsorption ability—where pollutants accumulate on its surface—making it especially effective for heavy metals. Activated Carbon Filters (ACF) are also employed to remove PM2.5, Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), allergens, and harmful gases. It can be easily produced from carbon-rich environmental wastes such as coconut shells or wood, making it cost-effective and sustainable.
  • Hence, both II and III are correct, and both contribute to explaining why activated carbon is considered a good and attractive tool for pollution control.

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes, Partially covered

https://www.pmfias.com/indoor-air-pollution/#air-purification-and-indoor-air-quality-monitoring)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
  2. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
  3. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (b): Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement

Explanation

  • Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. – Correct
  • Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from the cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions, with some estimates reaching as high as 8%.
  • The cement industry contributes significantly to global CO₂ emissions – both from fuel combustion and chemical processes like calcination (heating limestone).
  • Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. – Correct
  • In cement manufacturing, limestone (CaCO₃) is mixed with clay (which contains silica, alumina, etc.) before heating to form clinker.
  • Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. – Correct
  • This refers to the calcination process: CaCO₃ (limestone)→CaO (lime)+CO₂
  • This process releases a significant amount of CO₂, which directly explains Statement I.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes, Partially Covered (Advanced Test 08 and Comprehensive Test 07)

Covered in PMF IAS CA? Yes. Partially covered

(https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-for-upsc-civil-services-exam-may-25-2024/#cement-carbon-emissions)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
  2. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
  3. Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its healthcare system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c): Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation

  • At COP28 (Dubai), the UAE Declaration on Climate and Health was launched to integrate health into climate action. It aimed to promote sustainable practices within the health sector to contribute to broader climate goals.
  • Statement I is correct: India refrained from signing the declaration.
  • Statement II is incorrect: The declaration is non-binding and serves as a voluntary commitment for countries to consider health in their climate policies but does not impose legal obligations.
  • Statement III is correct: India cited that such decarbonisation could hinder the delivery of essential health ser-vices—especially in remote and underserved areas.It emphasized its own G20 health priorities: building a resil-ient healthcare system; ensuring access to medical countermeasures; and promoting digital health goods shar-ing.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes, Completely Covered (CA December Test 2024 Test series)

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Completely Covered

( https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-december-05-2023/#gs3-envi-unfccc-cop28-declaration-on-climate-and-health

https://www.preventionweb.net/publication/cop28-declaration-climate-and-health )

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
  2. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
  3. Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (b): Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation

  • A study by NASA indicates that Earth’s rotation and axis are shifting due to climate-related mass redistribution.
  • Melting ice sheets, dwindling groundwater, and rising sea levels cause polar motion (axis wobble) and lengthen days.
  • Solar flares are intense bursts of radiation (X-rays, gamma rays, etc.) and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) are massive clouds of plasma and magnetic fields, often travelling at millions of miles per hour.
  • When directed at Earth, flares affect the ionosphere, causing radio blackouts, while CMEs can disturb the magnetosphere, triggering geomagnetic storms, auroras, and potential damage to satellites or power grids (e.g., the 1859 Carrington Event).
  • Melting polar ice (Greenland, Antarctica) and glaciers redistribute water toward the equatorial oceans due to Earth’s shape and gravity. This mass shift, caused by climate change, slows Earth’s rotation (and causes polar motion.

Covered in the PMF IAS? No

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
  2. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
  3. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a): Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct: Article 6 is central to global climate negotiations as it provides mechanisms for international cooperation through market and non-market approaches — essential for sustainable development and climate finance.
  • Statement II is correct: It allows countries to trade carbon credits via Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs). It also establishes the UNFCCC carbon market mechanism, often called the Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism.
  • Statement III is correct: It focuses on non-market approaches such as technology sharing, capacity building, and climate finance to help countries meet their climate targets without carbon trading.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series. Yes. Partially Covered (Comprehensive Test 01 and Feb CA Test 2025)

Covered in the PMF IAS CA? Yes. Partially Covered

https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-november-13-2024/#gs3-envi-cc-carbon-market-rules-for-article-64, https://www.pmfias.com/unfccc-cop29/

Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

  1. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
  2. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
  3. The New Development Bank (NDB)
  4. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer: (a): The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Explanation

  • In 2023, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub.
  • This initiative aims to mobilise finance for nature-based solutions (NbS) such as:
    1. Ecosystem restoration
    2. Natural climate buffers (mangroves, forests)
    3. Sustainable land management
    4. Climate-resilient infrastructure
  • It supports Asia-Pacific countries in integrating NbS into their development planning and accessing blended finance

Covered in PMF IAS? No

With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
  2. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
  3. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I and II only
  2. III only
  3. I, II and III
  4. None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (c): I, II and III

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct: DAC captures carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from the atmosphere. The captured CO₂ can be stored underground (geological storage), making it a method of carbon sequestration. It supports climate goals by reducing atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.
  • Statement II is correct: Captured CO₂ can be used as a feedstock for producing plastics (e.g., polycarbonates). In food processing, CO₂ is used in carbonated beverages, cold storage, and controlled atmosphere packaging. Thus, provides a sustainable CO₂ source for industry.
  • Statement III is correct: CO₂ captured via DAC can be combined with green hydrogen to create synthetic aviation fuels (electrofuels or e-fuels). These fuels are low-carbon alternatives and can help decarbonize the aviation sector.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (April CA 2024 Test)

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

  1. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
  2. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
  3. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I only
  2. I and III
  3. II only
  4. II and III
Answer: (d): II and III

Explanation

  1. It is an omnivorous crustacean. – Incorrect
    • The Peacock tarantula is a spider, not a crustacean.
    • It is an arachnid and carnivorous, feeding mainly on insects and small animals, not omnivorous.
  2. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. – Correct
    • This species is endemic to a small region in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh, India.
    • Its habitat is highly restricted and fragmented, making it vulnerable.
  3. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. – Correct
    • The Gooty tarantula is an arboreal (tree-dwelling) spider.
    • It builds silken retreats in tree holes and bark crevices.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series and Daily PPQs Yes. Completely Covered (Sectional Test 16,

https://www.pmfias.com/ppqs-april-22 2025/#:~:text=Gooty%20Sapphire%20Tarantula%20also%20known,in%20Gooty%20in%20Andhra%20Pradesh.)

Covered in PMF IAS? Yes. Completely Covered (https://www.pmfias.com/current-affairs-april-22-2025/#gooty-sapphire-tarantula-poecilotheria-metallica)

Consider the following statements:

  1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂ / capita.
  2. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
  3. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I and III only
  2. II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer: (c): II and III only

Explanation

  • Statement I is incorrect: India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 2.07 tonnes, significantly higher than 0.5 tonnes.
  • Statement II is correct: India is the second-largest emitter of CO₂ from fuel including combustion in the Asia-Pacific region, following China.
  • Statement III is correct: The electricity and heat production sector is the largest source of CO₂ emissions in India, accounting for 53% of total energy-related CO₂ emissions.

Covered in the PMF IAS Test Series? Yes. Partially Covered (CA November Test)

Consider the following pairs:

Plant Description
  1. Cassava
 Woody shrub
  1. Ginger
 Herb with pseudostem
  1. Malabar spinach
 Herbaceous climber
  1. Mint
 Annual shrub
  1. Papaya
 Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  1. Only two
  2. Only three
  3. Only four
  4. All the five
Answer: (b): Only three

Explanation

  1. Cassava : Woody shrub – Correct
    • Cassava is a woody shrub grown mainly for its edible starchy tuberous root.
  2. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem – Correct
    • Ginger is a herbaceous plant. What looks like a stem is actually a pseudostem, formed by rolled leaf bases.
  3. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber – Correct
    • Malabar spinach is a fast-growing, soft-stemmed vine – a herbaceous climber.
  4. Mint : Annual shrub – Incorrect
    • Mint is a perennial herb, not a shrub. It spreads through runners and has soft, non-woody stems.
  5. Papaya : Woody shrub – Incorrect
    • Papaya is a herbaceous plant, despite its tree-like appearance.
    • It has a soft, hollow stem and is not woody.

Covered in PMF IAS? No

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

  1. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
  2. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
  3. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. I and II
  2. II only
  3. I and III
  4. None of the above statements is correct
Answer key: (b): II only

Explanation

  1. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. – Incorrect
    • Although rainforests (especially the Amazon) are significant oxygen producers, they contribute less oxygen than the oceans.
  2. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen. – Correct
    • Marine organisms like phytoplankton, cyanobacteria, and algae contribute to ~50% or more of the planet’s oxygen via photosynthesis, making the oceans the largest source.
  3. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. – Incorrect
    • This is scientifically inaccurate. Even well-oxygenated water holds far less oxygen than air.
    • Dissolved oxygen in water is typically 8–14 mg/L, whereas atmospheric air contains ~210,000 mg/L of oxygen (21% of 1,000,000 mg/L).

Covered in PMF IAS? No

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