April 01 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
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- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
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[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – April 01 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
Q1. {A&C – Puppetry} Consider the following passage:
- It is a shadow puppetry and these puppets are in one piece and have no joints. They throw opaque shadows on the screen. The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses. Use of non-human puppets such as trees and animals is common. This puppetry flourished in the state of Odisha.
Which of the following Puppetry is being talked about based on the above passage?
Correct
Explanation
- Ravanachhaya
- Ravanachhaya puppets are smaller in size-the largest not more than two feet have no jointed limbs, they create very sensitive and lyrical shadows.
- The puppets are in one piece and have no joints.
- They are not coloured, hence throw opaque shadows on the screen.
- The manipulation requires great dexterity, since there are no joints.
- The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses.
- Use of non-human puppets such as trees and animals is common.
- Apart from human and animal characters, many props such as trees, mountains, chariots, etc. are also used.
Answer: (c) Ravanachhaya; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Ravanachhaya
- Ravanachhaya puppets are smaller in size-the largest not more than two feet have no jointed limbs, they create very sensitive and lyrical shadows.
- The puppets are in one piece and have no joints.
- They are not coloured, hence throw opaque shadows on the screen.
- The manipulation requires great dexterity, since there are no joints.
- The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses.
- Use of non-human puppets such as trees and animals is common.
- Apart from human and animal characters, many props such as trees, mountains, chariots, etc. are also used.
Answer: (c) Ravanachhaya; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Ravanachhaya
- Ravanachhaya puppets are smaller in size-the largest not more than two feet have no jointed limbs, they create very sensitive and lyrical shadows.
- The puppets are in one piece and have no joints.
- They are not coloured, hence throw opaque shadows on the screen.
- The manipulation requires great dexterity, since there are no joints.
- The puppets are made of deer skin and are conceived in bold dramatic poses.
- Use of non-human puppets such as trees and animals is common.
- Apart from human and animal characters, many props such as trees, mountains, chariots, etc. are also used.
Answer: (c) Ravanachhaya; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Q2. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements with respect to Hydrogen Fuel Cells:
- It generates electricity by utilising the chemical energy contained in hydrogen and releases only pure water.
- The hydrogen fuel cell-powered vessels generate zero emission and zero noise.
- Proton exchange membrane (PEM) fuel cell is a type of Hydrogen Fuel Cells being developed mainly for stationary fuel-cell applications as well as portable fuel-cell applications.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by utilizing the chemical energy contained in hydrogen.
- It releases only pure water, not discharging pollutants.
- Hydrogen is loaded into cells.
- The energy within the hydrogen is converted into electricity and heat, which is then used to power the vessel’s propulsion mechanism.
- In the fuel cell, the hydrogen reacts with the oxygen in the air to produce electricity.
- Unlike batteries, hydrogen fuel cells do not require recharging and keep generating electricity as long as they have hydrogen and oxygen.
Statement 2 is correct
- The hydrogen fuel cell-powered vessel has zero emission, zero noise and is energy-efficient, which makes it more environment-friendly.
- Since there are no moving parts, the ferry requires less maintenance than combustion vessels.
- The vessel is a 24-meter-long catamaran, which can carry 50 people in its air-conditioned passenger area.
- Hydrogen fuel cell vessels do not use conventional batteries as the primary storage house of electrical energy.
- This vessel uses a 50-kW PEM (proton-exchange membrane) fuel cell, with Lithium-Ion Phosphate batteries.
Statement 3 is correct
- Proton-exchange membrane fuel cells (PEMFC), also known as polymer electrolyte membrane (PEM) fuel cells, are a type of fuel cell being developed mainly for transport applications, as well as for stationary fuel-cell applications and portable fuel-cell applications.
- Their distinguishing features include lower temperature/pressure ranges (50 to 100 °C) and a special proton-conducting polymer electrolyte membrane.
- PEMFCs generate electricity and operate on the opposite principle to PEM electrolysis, which consumes electricity.
- They are a leading candidate to replace the aging alkaline fuel-cell technology, which was used in the Space Shuttle.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by utilizing the chemical energy contained in hydrogen.
- It releases only pure water, not discharging pollutants.
- Hydrogen is loaded into cells.
- The energy within the hydrogen is converted into electricity and heat, which is then used to power the vessel’s propulsion mechanism.
- In the fuel cell, the hydrogen reacts with the oxygen in the air to produce electricity.
- Unlike batteries, hydrogen fuel cells do not require recharging and keep generating electricity as long as they have hydrogen and oxygen.
Statement 2 is correct
- The hydrogen fuel cell-powered vessel has zero emission, zero noise and is energy-efficient, which makes it more environment-friendly.
- Since there are no moving parts, the ferry requires less maintenance than combustion vessels.
- The vessel is a 24-meter-long catamaran, which can carry 50 people in its air-conditioned passenger area.
- Hydrogen fuel cell vessels do not use conventional batteries as the primary storage house of electrical energy.
- This vessel uses a 50-kW PEM (proton-exchange membrane) fuel cell, with Lithium-Ion Phosphate batteries.
Statement 3 is correct
- Proton-exchange membrane fuel cells (PEMFC), also known as polymer electrolyte membrane (PEM) fuel cells, are a type of fuel cell being developed mainly for transport applications, as well as for stationary fuel-cell applications and portable fuel-cell applications.
- Their distinguishing features include lower temperature/pressure ranges (50 to 100 °C) and a special proton-conducting polymer electrolyte membrane.
- PEMFCs generate electricity and operate on the opposite principle to PEM electrolysis, which consumes electricity.
- They are a leading candidate to replace the aging alkaline fuel-cell technology, which was used in the Space Shuttle.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by utilizing the chemical energy contained in hydrogen.
- It releases only pure water, not discharging pollutants.
- Hydrogen is loaded into cells.
- The energy within the hydrogen is converted into electricity and heat, which is then used to power the vessel’s propulsion mechanism.
- In the fuel cell, the hydrogen reacts with the oxygen in the air to produce electricity.
- Unlike batteries, hydrogen fuel cells do not require recharging and keep generating electricity as long as they have hydrogen and oxygen.
Statement 2 is correct
- The hydrogen fuel cell-powered vessel has zero emission, zero noise and is energy-efficient, which makes it more environment-friendly.
- Since there are no moving parts, the ferry requires less maintenance than combustion vessels.
- The vessel is a 24-meter-long catamaran, which can carry 50 people in its air-conditioned passenger area.
- Hydrogen fuel cell vessels do not use conventional batteries as the primary storage house of electrical energy.
- This vessel uses a 50-kW PEM (proton-exchange membrane) fuel cell, with Lithium-Ion Phosphate batteries.
Statement 3 is correct
- Proton-exchange membrane fuel cells (PEMFC), also known as polymer electrolyte membrane (PEM) fuel cells, are a type of fuel cell being developed mainly for transport applications, as well as for stationary fuel-cell applications and portable fuel-cell applications.
- Their distinguishing features include lower temperature/pressure ranges (50 to 100 °C) and a special proton-conducting polymer electrolyte membrane.
- PEMFCs generate electricity and operate on the opposite principle to PEM electrolysis, which consumes electricity.
- They are a leading candidate to replace the aging alkaline fuel-cell technology, which was used in the Space Shuttle.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – Awards} Consider the following statements about Bharat Ratna Awards:
- Bharat Ratna Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
- Bharat Ratna recipients rank above the Comptroller & Auditor General of India in order of precedence.
- The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
- Bharat Ratna awards were briefly suspended once from 25 June 1975 to 21st March 1977.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- National awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes to the name of the recipient in any manner.
- Article 18(1) abolishes all titles.
- It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen.
- Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give title or honor on a man of merit.
Statement 2 is correct
- The recommendations for the award are made by the Prime Minister to the President.
- There is no formal provision that recipients of the Bharat Ratna should be Indian citizens.
- The recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with no monetary grant associated with the award.
- Bharat Ratna recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The rule of maximum three awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna.
- The rule was broken for the first time in 1999, when four recipients were conferred the award: Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar.
- The rule was broken again in 2024, when five recipients were conferred the award.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The Bharat Ratna, along with other personal civil honours, was briefly suspended from July 1977 to January 1980, during the change in the national government.
- For a second time from August 1992 to December 1995, when several public-interest litigations challenged the constitutional validity of the awards.
- In 1992, the government’s decision to confer the award posthumously on Subhas Chandra Bose was opposed by those who had refused to accept the fact of his death, including some members of his extended family.
- Following a 1997 Supreme Court decision, the press communique announcing Bose’s award was cancelled; it is the only time when the award was announced but not conferred.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- National awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes to the name of the recipient in any manner.
- Article 18(1) abolishes all titles.
- It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen.
- Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give title or honor on a man of merit.
Statement 2 is correct
- The recommendations for the award are made by the Prime Minister to the President.
- There is no formal provision that recipients of the Bharat Ratna should be Indian citizens.
- The recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with no monetary grant associated with the award.
- Bharat Ratna recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The rule of maximum three awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna.
- The rule was broken for the first time in 1999, when four recipients were conferred the award: Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar.
- The rule was broken again in 2024, when five recipients were conferred the award.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The Bharat Ratna, along with other personal civil honours, was briefly suspended from July 1977 to January 1980, during the change in the national government.
- For a second time from August 1992 to December 1995, when several public-interest litigations challenged the constitutional validity of the awards.
- In 1992, the government’s decision to confer the award posthumously on Subhas Chandra Bose was opposed by those who had refused to accept the fact of his death, including some members of his extended family.
- Following a 1997 Supreme Court decision, the press communique announcing Bose’s award was cancelled; it is the only time when the award was announced but not conferred.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- National awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes to the name of the recipient in any manner.
- Article 18(1) abolishes all titles.
- It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen.
- Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give title or honor on a man of merit.
Statement 2 is correct
- The recommendations for the award are made by the Prime Minister to the President.
- There is no formal provision that recipients of the Bharat Ratna should be Indian citizens.
- The recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with no monetary grant associated with the award.
- Bharat Ratna recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The rule of maximum three awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna.
- The rule was broken for the first time in 1999, when four recipients were conferred the award: Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar.
- The rule was broken again in 2024, when five recipients were conferred the award.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The Bharat Ratna, along with other personal civil honours, was briefly suspended from July 1977 to January 1980, during the change in the national government.
- For a second time from August 1992 to December 1995, when several public-interest litigations challenged the constitutional validity of the awards.
- In 1992, the government’s decision to confer the award posthumously on Subhas Chandra Bose was opposed by those who had refused to accept the fact of his death, including some members of his extended family.
- Following a 1997 Supreme Court decision, the press communique announcing Bose’s award was cancelled; it is the only time when the award was announced but not conferred.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – IR – UNSC} Consider the following statements about Group of Friends (GOF) initiative:
- It is an initiative launched in 2022 by India during its presidency of the UN Security Council (UNSC).
- It serves as an informal platform at the UN to share best practices, and mobilise resources directed at promoting accountability for crimes committed against peacekeepers.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is a significant initiative launched in 2022 by India during its presidency of the UN Security Council (UNSC).
- It represents the ‘political will’ of member states, particularly of the troop and police contributing countries, to champion the implementation of the provisions of UNSC Resolution 2589.
- It comprises 40 member states, and India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco, and Nepal serve as co-chairs of the GOF.
Statement 2 is correct
- It aims to promote accountability for all acts of violence against United Nations (UN) peacekeepers and provide capacity building and technical assistance to the host state authorities.
- It serves as an informal platform at the UN to exchange information, share best practices, and mobilise resources directed at facilitating accountability for crimes committed against peacekeepers.
- It monitors progress on bringing accountability for crimes against peacekeepers.
- It convenes two meetings of its members per year and organises one event per year involving Permanent Missions and other stakeholders to take the plan forward, thereby ensuring greater safety and security for peacekeepers.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is a significant initiative launched in 2022 by India during its presidency of the UN Security Council (UNSC).
- It represents the ‘political will’ of member states, particularly of the troop and police contributing countries, to champion the implementation of the provisions of UNSC Resolution 2589.
- It comprises 40 member states, and India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco, and Nepal serve as co-chairs of the GOF.
Statement 2 is correct
- It aims to promote accountability for all acts of violence against United Nations (UN) peacekeepers and provide capacity building and technical assistance to the host state authorities.
- It serves as an informal platform at the UN to exchange information, share best practices, and mobilise resources directed at facilitating accountability for crimes committed against peacekeepers.
- It monitors progress on bringing accountability for crimes against peacekeepers.
- It convenes two meetings of its members per year and organises one event per year involving Permanent Missions and other stakeholders to take the plan forward, thereby ensuring greater safety and security for peacekeepers.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is a significant initiative launched in 2022 by India during its presidency of the UN Security Council (UNSC).
- It represents the ‘political will’ of member states, particularly of the troop and police contributing countries, to champion the implementation of the provisions of UNSC Resolution 2589.
- It comprises 40 member states, and India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco, and Nepal serve as co-chairs of the GOF.
Statement 2 is correct
- It aims to promote accountability for all acts of violence against United Nations (UN) peacekeepers and provide capacity building and technical assistance to the host state authorities.
- It serves as an informal platform at the UN to exchange information, share best practices, and mobilise resources directed at facilitating accountability for crimes committed against peacekeepers.
- It monitors progress on bringing accountability for crimes against peacekeepers.
- It convenes two meetings of its members per year and organises one event per year involving Permanent Missions and other stakeholders to take the plan forward, thereby ensuring greater safety and security for peacekeepers.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
Q5. {Internal Security – Money Laundering} Consider the following statements about Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
- It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit to develop policies against money laundering.
- Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the grey list.
- Three countries Nigeria, Haiti, and Myanmar are currently in FATF’s grey list.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- FATF is an inter-governmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Objective:
- To establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
- It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris to develop policies against money laundering.
- In 2001 its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist.
- These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities.
- The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
- Grey List: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list.
- This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are currently in FATF’s blacklist.
- No financial aid is given to them by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the European Union (EU).
- They also face a number of international economic and financial restrictions and sanctions.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- FATF is an inter-governmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Objective:
- To establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
- It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris to develop policies against money laundering.
- In 2001 its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist.
- These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities.
- The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
- Grey List: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list.
- This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are currently in FATF’s blacklist.
- No financial aid is given to them by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the European Union (EU).
- They also face a number of international economic and financial restrictions and sanctions.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- FATF is an inter-governmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Objective:
- To establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
- It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris to develop policies against money laundering.
- In 2001 its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist.
- These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities.
- The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
- Grey List: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list.
- This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are currently in FATF’s blacklist.
- No financial aid is given to them by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the European Union (EU).
- They also face a number of international economic and financial restrictions and sanctions.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – IR – Organisations} Which of the following recently adopted a law to restore degraded ecosystems known as Nature Restoration Law (NRL)?
Correct
Explanation
- The European Parliament on February 27, 2024, adopted the first European Union (EU) law to restore degraded ecosystems across the 27-nation political and economic bloc.
- The new law sets a target for the EU to restore at least 20 per cent of its land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.
- The law calls on EU members to restore at least 30 per cent of drained peatland by 2030, 40 per cent by 2040 and 50 per cent by 2050.
- To improve biodiversity in agricultural ecosystems, EU countries will have to make progress in two of the following three indicators:
- the grassland butterfly index,
- the share of agricultural land with high-diversity landscape features, and
- the stock of organic carbon in cropland mineral soil.
- Measures to increase the common farmland bird index must also be taken as birds are good indicators of the overall state of biodiversity.
- Targets for agricultural ecosystems can be suspended under exceptional circumstances if they severely reduce the land needed for sufficient food production for EU consumption.
- The legislation also demands a positive trend in several indicators in forest ecosystems and an additional three billion trees to be planted.
Answer: (c) European Union; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The European Parliament on February 27, 2024, adopted the first European Union (EU) law to restore degraded ecosystems across the 27-nation political and economic bloc.
- The new law sets a target for the EU to restore at least 20 per cent of its land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.
- The law calls on EU members to restore at least 30 per cent of drained peatland by 2030, 40 per cent by 2040 and 50 per cent by 2050.
- To improve biodiversity in agricultural ecosystems, EU countries will have to make progress in two of the following three indicators:
- the grassland butterfly index,
- the share of agricultural land with high-diversity landscape features, and
- the stock of organic carbon in cropland mineral soil.
- Measures to increase the common farmland bird index must also be taken as birds are good indicators of the overall state of biodiversity.
- Targets for agricultural ecosystems can be suspended under exceptional circumstances if they severely reduce the land needed for sufficient food production for EU consumption.
- The legislation also demands a positive trend in several indicators in forest ecosystems and an additional three billion trees to be planted.
Answer: (c) European Union; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The European Parliament on February 27, 2024, adopted the first European Union (EU) law to restore degraded ecosystems across the 27-nation political and economic bloc.
- The new law sets a target for the EU to restore at least 20 per cent of its land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.
- The law calls on EU members to restore at least 30 per cent of drained peatland by 2030, 40 per cent by 2040 and 50 per cent by 2050.
- To improve biodiversity in agricultural ecosystems, EU countries will have to make progress in two of the following three indicators:
- the grassland butterfly index,
- the share of agricultural land with high-diversity landscape features, and
- the stock of organic carbon in cropland mineral soil.
- Measures to increase the common farmland bird index must also be taken as birds are good indicators of the overall state of biodiversity.
- Targets for agricultural ecosystems can be suspended under exceptional circumstances if they severely reduce the land needed for sufficient food production for EU consumption.
- The legislation also demands a positive trend in several indicators in forest ecosystems and an additional three billion trees to be planted.
Answer: (c) European Union; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
Q7. {IE – Industry} Consider the following statements about Semiconductor Fabs:
- Semiconductor fabs primarily produce microchips using a process known as photolithography.
- Semiconductor fabs are typically classified based on the size of the silicon wafers they process, with larger fabs producing larger wafers.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Semiconductor fabs produce microchips using a process called photolithography, which involves patterning a silicon wafer with intricate circuit designs.
- Photolithography, also known as optical lithography, is a patterning process in which parts are patterned on a thin film or a substrate, also called a wafer, which is photosensitive.
- A circuit pattern is photographed on this substrate, and its background is then chemically etched away.
Statement 2 is correct
- Semiconductor fabs, also known as fabs or foundries, are specialized facilities where semiconductor devices are manufactured on silicon wafers.
- The semiconductor manufacturing process involves several steps, including wafer preparation, patterning, deposition, etching, and packaging, each carried out within specialized areas of the fab.
- Semiconductor fabs are often categorized based on the size of silicon wafers they process, with common sizes including 200mm, 300mm, and 450mm wafers.
- Larger fabs tend to produce larger wafers, which can yield more chips per wafer and reduce manufacturing costs.
- Many types of ICs are manufactured in a semiconductor fab facility, including NAND flash devices, dynamic RAM memory chips, microprocessors, graphics controllers, hard drive controllers, RAID (redundant array of independent disks) controllers and application-specific ICs.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Semiconductor fabs produce microchips using a process called photolithography, which involves patterning a silicon wafer with intricate circuit designs.
- Photolithography, also known as optical lithography, is a patterning process in which parts are patterned on a thin film or a substrate, also called a wafer, which is photosensitive.
- A circuit pattern is photographed on this substrate, and its background is then chemically etched away.
Statement 2 is correct
- Semiconductor fabs, also known as fabs or foundries, are specialized facilities where semiconductor devices are manufactured on silicon wafers.
- The semiconductor manufacturing process involves several steps, including wafer preparation, patterning, deposition, etching, and packaging, each carried out within specialized areas of the fab.
- Semiconductor fabs are often categorized based on the size of silicon wafers they process, with common sizes including 200mm, 300mm, and 450mm wafers.
- Larger fabs tend to produce larger wafers, which can yield more chips per wafer and reduce manufacturing costs.
- Many types of ICs are manufactured in a semiconductor fab facility, including NAND flash devices, dynamic RAM memory chips, microprocessors, graphics controllers, hard drive controllers, RAID (redundant array of independent disks) controllers and application-specific ICs.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Semiconductor fabs produce microchips using a process called photolithography, which involves patterning a silicon wafer with intricate circuit designs.
- Photolithography, also known as optical lithography, is a patterning process in which parts are patterned on a thin film or a substrate, also called a wafer, which is photosensitive.
- A circuit pattern is photographed on this substrate, and its background is then chemically etched away.
Statement 2 is correct
- Semiconductor fabs, also known as fabs or foundries, are specialized facilities where semiconductor devices are manufactured on silicon wafers.
- The semiconductor manufacturing process involves several steps, including wafer preparation, patterning, deposition, etching, and packaging, each carried out within specialized areas of the fab.
- Semiconductor fabs are often categorized based on the size of silicon wafers they process, with common sizes including 200mm, 300mm, and 450mm wafers.
- Larger fabs tend to produce larger wafers, which can yield more chips per wafer and reduce manufacturing costs.
- Many types of ICs are manufactured in a semiconductor fab facility, including NAND flash devices, dynamic RAM memory chips, microprocessors, graphics controllers, hard drive controllers, RAID (redundant array of independent disks) controllers and application-specific ICs.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 8 of 9
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – In News} Clean Energy Transitions Programme, recently seen in news is an initiative of which of the following organization?
Correct
Explanation
- Clean Energy Transitions Programme
- It is the International Energy Agency (IEA’s) flagship initiative launched in 2017 for accelerating progress toward a global net zero energy system.
- It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies.
- Its goals are in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
- International Energy Agency
- It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
- It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework.
- It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
- A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Answer: (a) International Energy Agency; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Clean Energy Transitions Programme
- It is the International Energy Agency (IEA’s) flagship initiative launched in 2017 for accelerating progress toward a global net zero energy system.
- It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies.
- Its goals are in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
- International Energy Agency
- It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
- It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework.
- It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
- A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Answer: (a) International Energy Agency; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Clean Energy Transitions Programme
- It is the International Energy Agency (IEA’s) flagship initiative launched in 2017 for accelerating progress toward a global net zero energy system.
- It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies.
- Its goals are in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
- International Energy Agency
- It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
- It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework.
- It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
- A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Answer: (a) International Energy Agency; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 9 of 9
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements with respect to the Katchatheevu Island:
- Katchatheevu is a speck in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka.
- Katchatheevu was first ceded to Sri Lanka by the British Indian Government.
- Kantharodai Buddhist Monastery and St Anthony’s church, attracts devotees from both India and Sri Lanka making the pilgrimage to Katchatheevu island.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Being the product of a 14-century volcanic eruption, Katchatheevu is relatively new in the geological timescale.
- Katchatheevu is a 285-acre uninhabited speck (a very small spot) in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka.
- It is no more than 1.6 km in length and slightly over 300 m wide at its broadest point.
- It lies northeast of Rameswaram, about 33 km from the Indian coast.
- It is about 62 km southwest of Jaffna, at the northern tip of Sri Lanka, and 24 km away from the inhabited Delft Island, belonging to Sri Lanka.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Katchatheevu was controlled by the Jaffna Kingdom of Sri Lanka.
- In the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad Estate based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.
- It became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj.
- However, in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time British colonies, claimed Katchatheevu in order to determine fishing boundaries.
- A survey marked Katchatheevu in Sri Lanka, but a British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom.
- This dispute was not settled until 1974.
- In 1974, Indira Gandhi made attempts to settle the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka, once and for all.
- As a part of this settlement, known as the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Indira Gandhi ‘ceded’ Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka.
- As per the agreement, Indian fishermen were still allowed to access Katchatheevu hitherto.
- Unfortunately, the issue of fishing rights was not ironed out by the agreement.
- Sri Lanka interpreted Indian fishermens’ right to access Katchatheevu to be limited to rest, drying nets and discontinued visit to the Catholic shrine without visa.
- Another agreement in 1976, during the period of Emergency in India, barred either country from fishing in the other’s Exclusive Economic Zone.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The only structure on the island is an early 20th-century Catholic shrine, St Anthony’s church.
- During an annual festival, Christian priests from both India and Sri Lanka conduct the service, with devotees from both India and Sri Lanka making the pilgrimage.
- Katchatheevu is not suited for permanent settlement as there is no source of drinking water on the island.
- According to Mahavamsa the history of Kantharodai Buddhist Monastery goes back to the Anuradhapura era.
- During the time period of King Devanpiya Thissa, theri Sangamitta arrived to Dambakolapatuna in Sri Lanka with a sapling of Sri Maha Bodhi.
- It is said that the road to Anuradhapura from Dambakolapatuna was through this Kadurugoda Vihara area and before going to Anuradhapura she has visited this temple.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Tough
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Being the product of a 14-century volcanic eruption, Katchatheevu is relatively new in the geological timescale.
- Katchatheevu is a 285-acre uninhabited speck (a very small spot) in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka.
- It is no more than 1.6 km in length and slightly over 300 m wide at its broadest point.
- It lies northeast of Rameswaram, about 33 km from the Indian coast.
- It is about 62 km southwest of Jaffna, at the northern tip of Sri Lanka, and 24 km away from the inhabited Delft Island, belonging to Sri Lanka.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Katchatheevu was controlled by the Jaffna Kingdom of Sri Lanka.
- In the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad Estate based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.
- It became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj.
- However, in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time British colonies, claimed Katchatheevu in order to determine fishing boundaries.
- A survey marked Katchatheevu in Sri Lanka, but a British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom.
- This dispute was not settled until 1974.
- In 1974, Indira Gandhi made attempts to settle the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka, once and for all.
- As a part of this settlement, known as the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Indira Gandhi ‘ceded’ Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka.
- As per the agreement, Indian fishermen were still allowed to access Katchatheevu hitherto.
- Unfortunately, the issue of fishing rights was not ironed out by the agreement.
- Sri Lanka interpreted Indian fishermens’ right to access Katchatheevu to be limited to rest, drying nets and discontinued visit to the Catholic shrine without visa.
- Another agreement in 1976, during the period of Emergency in India, barred either country from fishing in the other’s Exclusive Economic Zone.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The only structure on the island is an early 20th-century Catholic shrine, St Anthony’s church.
- During an annual festival, Christian priests from both India and Sri Lanka conduct the service, with devotees from both India and Sri Lanka making the pilgrimage.
- Katchatheevu is not suited for permanent settlement as there is no source of drinking water on the island.
- According to Mahavamsa the history of Kantharodai Buddhist Monastery goes back to the Anuradhapura era.
- During the time period of King Devanpiya Thissa, theri Sangamitta arrived to Dambakolapatuna in Sri Lanka with a sapling of Sri Maha Bodhi.
- It is said that the road to Anuradhapura from Dambakolapatuna was through this Kadurugoda Vihara area and before going to Anuradhapura she has visited this temple.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Tough
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Being the product of a 14-century volcanic eruption, Katchatheevu is relatively new in the geological timescale.
- Katchatheevu is a 285-acre uninhabited speck (a very small spot) in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka.
- It is no more than 1.6 km in length and slightly over 300 m wide at its broadest point.
- It lies northeast of Rameswaram, about 33 km from the Indian coast.
- It is about 62 km southwest of Jaffna, at the northern tip of Sri Lanka, and 24 km away from the inhabited Delft Island, belonging to Sri Lanka.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Katchatheevu was controlled by the Jaffna Kingdom of Sri Lanka.
- In the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad Estate based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.
- It became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj.
- However, in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time British colonies, claimed Katchatheevu in order to determine fishing boundaries.
- A survey marked Katchatheevu in Sri Lanka, but a British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom.
- This dispute was not settled until 1974.
- In 1974, Indira Gandhi made attempts to settle the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka, once and for all.
- As a part of this settlement, known as the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Indira Gandhi ‘ceded’ Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka.
- As per the agreement, Indian fishermen were still allowed to access Katchatheevu hitherto.
- Unfortunately, the issue of fishing rights was not ironed out by the agreement.
- Sri Lanka interpreted Indian fishermens’ right to access Katchatheevu to be limited to rest, drying nets and discontinued visit to the Catholic shrine without visa.
- Another agreement in 1976, during the period of Emergency in India, barred either country from fishing in the other’s Exclusive Economic Zone.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The only structure on the island is an early 20th-century Catholic shrine, St Anthony’s church.
- During an annual festival, Christian priests from both India and Sri Lanka conduct the service, with devotees from both India and Sri Lanka making the pilgrimage.
- Katchatheevu is not suited for permanent settlement as there is no source of drinking water on the island.
- According to Mahavamsa the history of Kantharodai Buddhist Monastery goes back to the Anuradhapura era.
- During the time period of King Devanpiya Thissa, theri Sangamitta arrived to Dambakolapatuna in Sri Lanka with a sapling of Sri Maha Bodhi.
- It is said that the road to Anuradhapura from Dambakolapatuna was through this Kadurugoda Vihara area and before going to Anuradhapura she has visited this temple.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Tough
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