March 05 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The hangul is also known as the Kashmir stag, is a subspecies of the Central Asian red deer.
• The scientific name for the hangul is Cervus elaphus hanglu and they are, by nature, high-altitude forest dwellers.
• The hangul is the only surviving Asiatic member of the red deer family and the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• It is enlisted as a critically endangered species in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List.
• It is placed under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• In the 1970s, the Government of Jammu and Kashmir along with the support of IUCN and World Wildlife Fund (WWF) prepared a project for the protection of the habitat of Hangul.
• Their distribution had earlier spanned over Dachigam National Park and its nearby areas, Rajparian Wildlife Sanctuary, Overa Aru, Sind Valley, and the forests of Kishtwar and Bhaderwah.
• But now, they are mostly spotted in the protected areas of Dachigam National Park and Tral Wildlife Sanctuary in Jammu and Kashmir.

  

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Since 1947, the population of hangul witnessed a sharp decline.
• In 1947, around 2000 were spotted and the number fell to 384 by 1968.
• Due to hunting and encroachment of their natural habitat, the number fell to just around 150 in 1970.
• Multiple disturbances, including stress on forest areas and human intervention, did disturb the habitat of hangul.
• In 1988, the population was estimated to be around 1,000 and fell drastically to 140 to 160 in 1992, as militancy raged in Kashmir and the movement of large columns of security forces and also of militants increased in the area.
• The hangul population was estimated at a mere 197 in 2004, touched the lowest of 183 in 2015.
• Radio-collaring of hanguls in 2013 and 2020 is proving pathbreaking for the conservation plans.
• According to Wildlife department the hangul population, since 2015 the population of hangul is steadily increasing and in 2021 it was 261.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• SGLR rating was launched by the Department of Drinking Water & Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti, in collaboration with the Ministry of Tourism.
• The Swachhata Green Leaf Rating (SGLR) Initiative aims to improve sanitation practices in India’s tourism sector.
• It aids to develop an economically viable, responsible, and resilient tourism industry.
• The Rating is not just a recognition but a commitment to shaping the future of our tourism industry.
• The SGLR initiative seamlessly aligns with the Travel for LiFE (TFL) program under Mission LiFE, fostering awareness about sustainable tourism.
• The Bison Resort in Madhya Pradesh’s Narmadapuram has emerged as a pioneer by securing the inaugural Five Swachhata Green Leaf Rating Certificate of Recognition.

Answer: (b) To improve sanitation practices in India’s tourism sector; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The primary difference between abortion and miscarriage lies in the intent and causation.
• Abortion is a deliberate termination of pregnancy, resulting in the removal or expulsion of the fetus or embryo from the uterus, before it is able to survive outside the uterus or can develop to full term.
• Miscarriage is the natural or unintentional loss of a pregnancy before the fetus is able to survive due to various factors such as hormonal imbalances, fetal development problems, genetic abnormalities, or maternal health issues.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Indian Constitution does not explicitly mention the right to abortion but certain fundamental rights have been interpreted by the judiciary in connection with reproductive rights and women’s healthcare.
• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty includes the reproductive rights and women’s healthcare.
• Article 14 of the Constitution of India also highlights certain provisions regarding abortion.
• Article 14 guarantees the right to equality and prohibits discrimination.

Statement 3 is correct

• Under the Indian Penal Code, voluntarily causing a miscarriage is a punishable offence and is mentioned in Section 312 of the IPC.
• The rights of the fetus are governed under Section 20 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which illustrates that the fetus’s life should be protected from the moment of conception.
• Also, the unborn child should be addressed as born for all rights accorded within the limits established by law.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Udyam Assist Platform was launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
• The platform aims to facilitate registration of Informal Micro Enterprises (IMEs) through generation of Udyam Assist Certificate.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Informal Micro Enterprises (IMEs) not having GSTN are allowed to register on Udyam Assist Platform (UAP).
• The certificate issued on the UAP to IMEs shall be treated at par with Udyam Registration Certificate for the purpose of availing Priority Sector Lending (PSL) benefits.
• The IMEs with an Udyam Assist Certificate shall be treated as Micro Enterprises under MSME for the purposes of PSL classification.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the implementing agency for the project.
  

  Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was set up on 2nd April 1990 under an Act of Indian Parliament. It acts as the Principal Financial Institution for Promotion, Financing and Development of the MSME sector as well as for co-ordination of functions of institutions engaged in similar activities. The shares of SIDBI are held by the Government of India and 22 other institutions / public sector banks / insurance companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Parliamentary privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
• The members of Parliament are exempted from any civil or criminal liability for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
• It is important to note that parliamentary privileges are not absolute and are subject to certain limits.
• For example, MPs are expected to use their privileges responsibly and not abuse them for personal gain. Accepting bribes clearly violates this.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
• The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.
• This includes the attorney general of India and Union ministers.
• The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct

• Both the Court and Parliament can exercise jurisdiction to address bribery by lawmakers (Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislative Assembly).
• The court have clarified that both courts and Parliament have separate jurisdictions to address bribery by lawmakers.
• The House punishes for contempt, while courts handle criminal prosecution.

Statement 4 is correct

• Parliamentary privileges may sometimes conflict with other constitutional principles, such as equality before the law.
• For example, the privilege of immunity from arrest and legal process may be seen as giving members of parliament special privileges that are not available to other citizens.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Sangeet Natak Akademi was set up in 1953 for the promotion of performing arts.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi is an Autonomous Body under the Ministry of Culture.
• It acts at the national level for the:
  • Promotion and growth of Indian music, dance and drama,
  • Maintenance of standards of training in the performing arts,
  • Revival, preservation, documentation and dissemination of materials as well as instruments relating to various forms of music, dance and drama,
  • Recognition of outstanding artists.
• The Akademi is also responsible for the establishment and maintenance of institutions and projects of national importance in the field of performing arts.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Akademi Awards have been conferred since 1952.
• The Awards in Hindustani and Carnatic music were instituted as early as in 1951, even before the Akademi was set up and these were known as Presidential Awards.
• With the formation of the Akademi the Awards came to be known as Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards and the investiture became the responsibility of the Akademi.
• The Presidential Awards for 1952 and 1953 were subsequently incorporated in the list of Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) is implementing Cultural Heritage Young Leadership Programme, aimed at promotion of social values and community engagement amongst the youth of the Country.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The HPCs have been devised by Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH).
• PARAKH is a standard-setting body under the NCERT.

Statement 2 is correct

• The National Council for Educational and Research Training (NCERT) is introducing a new ‘holistic progress card’ (HPC).
• Holistic Progress Card is a 360 degree, multidimensional report of progress.
• The HPC will measure apart from academic performance, a child’s progress in interpersonal relationships, self-reflection, creativity, and emotional application in classrooms.
• A key feature of the HPC is that students will have a say too, evaluating their own as well as their classmates’ performance.
• Objectives:
  • It helps to map the status of each child’s learning for foundation literacy and numeracy skills and focuses on the uniqueness of each learner.
  • To present a picture of the student’s progress and provide evidence as well as an opportunity to a child to present his or her growth in the progress review over years.
  • To document a child’s own expression of self as well as the teacher’s assessment of the child based on the competencies.
  • It will form an important link between home and school and makes parents an integral part of a child’s learning process.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• HPCs is set up for the foundational stage (Classes 1 and 2), preparatory stage (Classes 3 to 5) and middle stage (Classes 6 to 8), as per suggestions by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
• Report cards for the secondary stage (beyond Class 9) are still being prepared.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait is the major waterway that connects the Gulf of Aden to the Red Sea.
• Gulf of Aden is an extension of the Indian Ocean, situated between the Arabian Peninsula and the African continent.
• In the North, it borders Yemen, In the South, it borders Somalia and Socotra Island (Part of Yemen), In the East, it borders Arabian Sea, and, In the West, it borders Djibouti.
• It is a critical part of the Suez Canal shipping route, which connects the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.

Answer: (c) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait; Difficulty Level: Easy

Explanation

• The Prime Minister inaugurated the Vikramaditya Vedic Clock at Jantar Mantar, Ujjain.
• A world-first ‘Vedic Clock,’ it displays time using the traditional Indian Panchang.
• Positioned on an 85-foot tower, it also provides planetary positions, Muhurat, astrological calculations, IST, and GMT.
• Developed by Lucknow-based Sanstha Arohan, it connects to the internet via a mobile app.
• Ujjain, with its rich timekeeping heritage, is an ideal location due to its historical role in determining India’s time zones and its location at the interaction point of the zero meridian and Tropic of Cancer.

Answer: (c) Ujjain; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• The Indian government has implemented supportive measures for Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco growers in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
• FCV tobacco, cured through a heat-exposure process, is favored for its mild, sweet flavor and high sugar content, commonly used in cigarette blends.
• Predominantly produced in India’s Mysore and Hassan districts (over 95%), it’s a vital crop in the global market.
• The Government’s initiatives aim to bolster the livelihoods of FCV tobacco farmers in these regions.
• The Government has also permitted the sale of FCV Tobacco on the Tobacco Boards auction platform.
• It has waived off the penalty on the sale of excess production of registered growers and unauthorized production of unregistered growers for the 2023-24 Karnataka Crop Season only.

Answer: (d) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka; Difficulty Level: Medium