December 14 2023 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)

Questions with their Answers and Explanation

Q1. {MoPPP – Schemes} Consider the following statements:

1. New Pension Scheme is available for NRIs.
2. Old Pension Scheme is available only for the government employees and the pension is counted from the date of their joining.
3. New Pension Scheme provides a Return Certainty as the subscribers can choose their asset allocation.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All
4. None

Explanations

Statement 1 is correct

• New Pension Scheme was introduced in 2004.
• It was initially started for government employees only, but in 2009, Government of India extended it to all Citizens aging between 18-60 years (Including NRIs).
• Employees contribute 10% of their basic pay, while their employers can contribute up to 14%.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Old Pension Scheme was introduced in the 1950s.
• Only government employees who have completed their 10 years of service are eligible for claiming Pension under OPS.
• The scheme doesn’t require any employee contributions.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Unlike OPS, NPS doesn’t provide any Return Certainty. It offers market linked returns.
• On the bright side, the subscriber can choose their asset allocation, allowing them to generate higher returns and build a larger Retirement corpus.

Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Medium

Q2. {MoSPI – Schemes} With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s ‘fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Choose the correct code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 1,2 and 4
4. 1,2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• All works to meet locally felt infrastructure and development needs, with an emphasis on creation of durable assets in the constituency are permissible under MPLADS except those prohibited in Annexure-II of the guidelines of MPLAD.
• As per annexure-II, serial no. 2, office and residential buildings and other works belonging to private and commercial organizations are prohibited under MPLADS Guidelines.

Statement 2 is correct

• Development of Areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe: M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
• In other words, out of the amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P. shall recommend for areas inhabited by S.C. population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas inhabited by the S.T. population.
• In case there is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their State of election. In case a State does not have S.T. inhabited areas, this amount may be utilized for SC Population.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• MPLADS Funds are Non-lapsable: Funds released to the District Authority by the Government of India are non-lapsable. Funds left in the district can be carried forward for utilization in the subsequent years.

Statement 4 is correct

• Role of the District Authority: The District Authority’s role has been outlined in different paragraphs of the MPLAD Guidelines. The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year.

Answer: (c) 1,2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

Q3. {IC – Constitutional Bodies} Consider the following statements,

1. No specific legislative process is defined in the Constitution to appoint the CEC and ECs.
2. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
3. The Selection Committee, which will ultimately give the recommendation of a name for CEC, may also consider any person even though they are not on the list presented by the Search Committee.
4. If an EC is appointed as a CEC, the overall period of the term will exceed six years.

How many of the above is/are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for conducting elections in India under Article 324.
• No specific legislative process is defined in the Constitution to appoint the CEC and ECs.
• The President shall appoint the CEC and other ECs (on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet).

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Currently, The Election Commission comprises:
  • A Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and
  • Two Election Commissioners (ECs).
• But the recently passed Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, prescribes that the EC will consist of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs).
• The President will periodically fix the number of ECs.

Statement 3 is correct

• The President will appoint the Commission upon the recommendation of the Selection Committee.
• The Selection Committee will comprise:
  • The Prime Minister as Chairperson,
  • The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha as member
  • If the Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha has not been recognised, the leader of the single largest opposition party in Lok Sabha will assume the role.
  • A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister as a member.
• Search Committee
• A Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary will suggest five names to the Selection Committee.
  • The Selection Committee may also consider any person even though they are not on the list presented by the Search Committee.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• Members of the EC will hold office for six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• Members of the Commission cannot be re-appointed.
• If an EC is appointed as a CEC, the overall period of the term may not be more than six years.

Answer: (b) Only two ; Difficulty level: Medium

Q4. {IC – Federalism} Consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘federation’ has been explicitly mentioned in the constitution.
2. Indian federalism is based on the principle of holding together rather than coming together.
3. The concept of having a strong center in the Indian federal system is based on the Canadian model.

How many of the statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
• Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ to indicate two things:
  • (i) the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation; and (ii) the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is union because it is indestructible.

Statement 2 is correct

• Indian federalism is based on the principle of holding together rather than coming together.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American model’. The ‘Canadian model’ differs fundamentally from the ‘American model’ in so far as it establishes a very strong center.

Answer: (b) Only two ; Difficulty Level: Easy (Conceptual)

Q5. {Polity – IC} Consider the following statements:

1. Special Category Status imparts enhanced legislative and political rights, economic and financial aspects to a state.
2. Special Category status is a provision in Indian Constitution, which is a classification, given by the Centre to assist development of states that face geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
3. If a state is accorded Special Category Status, then The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally sponsored scheme to special category status states.
4. One of the benefits of a Special Category Status is that unspent money in a financial year does not lapse and is carried forward.

How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• SCS is different from Special status which imparts enhanced legislative and political rights, while SCS deals with only economic and financial aspects.
• For instance, J&K used to have Special status before Article 370 was repealed.
  • Special Status is guaranteed by the Constitution through an Act that has to be passed by 2/3rds majority in both the houses of Parliament.
  • Many laws that are functional in the rest of India do not extend to the state with Special Status. Apart from this, the Government of India can only interfere in issues such as, Defence, Foreign Affairs, Finance and Communication matters.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• SCS is a classification given by the Centre to assist development of states that face geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
• Constitution does not make a provision for SCS, and this classification was later done on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission in 1969.
• Special Category Status was first accorded to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland in 1969.
• SCS for plan assistance was granted in the past by the National Development Council of the erstwhile Planning Commission.
• Eleven States including Assam, Nagaland, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Uttarakhand and Telangana have been accorded the special category state status.
  • Telangana, the newest State of India, was accorded the status as it was carved out of another state Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally-sponsored scheme to special category status states as against 60% or 75% in case of other states, while the remaining funds are provided by the state governments.

Statement 4 is correct

• One of the benefits of a Special Category Status is that unspent money in a financial year does not lapse and is carried forward.
• Significant concessions are provided to these states in excise and customs duties, income tax and corporate tax.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Q6. {S&T – Space} Bharatiya Antariksh Station, sometimes seen in the news is related to which of the following?

1. India’s new research station located in Svalbard in the North Pole
2. India’s future space station that is aimed to be built by 2035.
3. India’s military base built in the Diamond Harbor Port bordering India and Bangladesh
4. India’s first fully solar powered Railway Station located in the state of Haryana.

Explanation

• Bharatiya Antariksh Station is India’s planned space station that is aimed to be built by 2035 and to be operational by 2040.
• The first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station that will be capable of conducting experiments with the help of robots will be launched by 2028.
• The SPADEX experiment will demonstrate autonomous docking capability.
• Docking is a process where two spacecrafts are aligned in a precise orbit and joined together.
• Two satellites that are connected to each other will be launched, they will separate out, travel for a few kilometres and then come back and connect.
• ISRO is working on designing the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGVL), since there is a need of a heavier launch vehicle to build the entire space station.
• NGVL will have a capacity to carry 16 to 25 T to low Earth orbit.
• ISRO is in discussion with NASA and the European Space Agency to build a common interface between the Indian space station and that of these countries.
• The current International Space Station (ISS) has been built in collaboration with several countries and is likely to be de-orbited in 2030.
• The common interface will also allow the Indian module to go and dock with the ISS.

Answer: (b) India’s future space station that is aimed to be built by 2035 ; Difficulty Level: Medium