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[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – December 15 2023

Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – December 15 2023

Leaderboard: [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – December 15 2023

maximum of 6 points
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Questions with their Answers and Explanation

Q1. {Organizations – Reports} Consider the following statements about International Debt Report 2023:

  1. It is published annually by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  2. The report gives debt data only on the low and middle-income countries.
  3. The report is based on the data available with the World Bank Debt Reporting System (DRS).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All
  4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The International Debt Report 2023 is the 50th edition of the World Bank’s annual publication on external debt along with the International Debt Statistics (IDS) database.
  • The Report highlights that Currently, about 60% of low-income countries are at high risk of debt distress or already in it.
Statement 2 is correct
  • It is the most comprehensive and transparent source of verifiable, cross-country comparable external debt data of low and middle-income countries (LMICs).
  • The report analyses 122 low and middle-income countries that report to the World Bank Debt Reporting System (DRS).
  • LMICsDebt servicing costs on public and publicly guaranteed debt are projected to grow by 10% for all developing countries over the 2023–24 period and by nearly 40 % for low-income countries.
  • Developing countries – Debt-service payments, which include principal and interest, increased by 5% in 2022 over the previous year for all developing countries.
  • For the first time since 2015, the private creditors have received more funds than they put into developing countries.
  • Poor countries – Over the past decade, interest payments by poor countries have quadrupled to an all-time high of USD 23.6 billion in 2022.
  • Overall, debt-servicing costs for the 24 poorest countries are expected to increase by 39% in 2023 and 2024.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The World Bank Debtor Reporting System (DRS) was established in 1951. The DRS system captures detailed information at loan level for external borrowing of reporting countries using standardized set of forms.
  • Data is shown for low and middle-income countries that report public and publicly guaranteed external debt to the World Bank’s Debtor Reporting System (DRS).
  • This Data is then fed to International Debt Statistics Database and then gets Published in International Debt Report.
    • India – The debt status of India can be inferred from the below images

    Public and Publicly Guaranteed Debt, including IMF Credit for India

    New debt Commitments of India from official and Private Creditors

Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy

Q2. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements:

  1. Indian Constitution empowers the government to notify elephant corridors .
  2. Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications that promise greater protection of elephant.
  3. Activities like mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc, are prohibited in an Elephant Reserves.
  4. The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), coordinating with the State Forest Departments, has ground-validated 150 elephant corridors across 15 elephant range states.

Elephant Reserves of India

Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications.
  • They don’t promise greater protection of elephant habitats because they are not recognised by law.
  • According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (WPA 1972), a ‘protected area’ can be one of a ‘national park’, a ‘wildlife sanctuary’, a ‘conservation reserve’ or a ‘community reserve’.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The prohibited activities in protected areas, including mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc., are permissible in an elephant reserve.
  • As a result, governments can divert elephant reserves and corridors for various projects.
Statement 4 is correct
  • Elephants are the largest terrestrial mammals. They are keystone species.
  • They are matriarchal, meaning they live in female-led groups.
  • The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months, and the calf is nursed for 2 to 4 years.
  • The lifespan of elephants is 60-70 years in the wild
    • India is home to 60% of the Asian elephant population.
    • Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Q3. {Envi – Species – Conservation} Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Tent Turtle:

  1. They are active swimmers which are endemic to India.
  2. It is listed under the Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Indian tent turtle (Pangshura tentoria) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae.
  • It is a small species of turtle, growing to a maximum straight carapace length of 27 cm.
  • Subspecies – The 3 subspecies includes:
    • P. t. tentoria
    • P. t. circumdata
    • P. t. flaviventer
  • Their Habitat includes still water pools on river side and slow running water near the river banks. These are active swimmers and are mainly herbivorous.
  • The Indian Tent Turtle is found in India, Nepal and Bangladesh.

Indian tent turtle Habitat

Statement 2 is correct
  • Indian tent turtle is listed in Schedule–I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and is thereby provided the highest degree of protection.
  • Due to the attractive appearance of the species, they are illegally traded in the pet market.

Indian tent Turtles Conservation Status

Answer: (b) 2 only ; Difficulty level: Easy

Q4. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements with regards to E-Waste Management Rules, 2022

  1. Only registered producers, recyclers and refurbishers, are now allowed to collect and process e-waste.
  2. No entity shall carry out any business with any unregistered entity.
  3. There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
  4. According to new rules, bulk consumer consists of government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons only.
How many of the statement(s) is/are incorrect?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • MoEFCC has revised the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 and notified the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, and the same has been in force since 1st April 2023.
  • Under these rules, the collection and processing of e-waste can be carried out only by registered producers, recyclers and refurbishers.
  • The Indian Cellular and Electronics Association (ICEA) report (2022) says harnessing e-waste is a $7 billion market opportunity.
Statement 2 is correct
  • All manufacturers, producers, refurbishers and recyclers must register on the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) portal.
  • No entity shall carry out any business without registration and not deal with any unregistered entity.
Statement 3 is correct
  • There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
  • Provision for reducing hazardous substances in the manufacturing of EEE mandates that every producer of EEE and their components shall ensure that their products do not contain lead, mercury and other hazardous substances beyond the maximum prescribed concentration.
  • It also provides recognition and registration, skill development, monitoring and ensuring the safety and health of workers involved in dismantling and recycling e-waste.
Statement 4 is incorrect
  • The 2016 Rules had two categories for e-waste management – consumer and bulk consumer, with the latter including government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons. Both categories were required to segregate e-waste and send it to authorized dismantlers or recyclers. Bulk consumers had to maintain records of e-waste and file annual returns with the relevant SPCB or UTPCC.
  • However, the E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 define ‘bulk consumer‘ as any entity that has used a minimum of one thousand units of electrical and electronic equipment listed in Schedule I at any time in the particular financial year, including e-retailers. They are now required to hand over their e-waste only to registered producers, refurbishes, or recyclers. The 2022 Rules have removed the requirement for separate compliance documents and the consumer category.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy (Conceptual)

Q5. {S&T – AI} Consider the following statements:

  1. Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is built around a shared commitment to the United Nations recent Recommendations on AI.
  2. India is a Founding Member of Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence.
  3. Youth for Unnati and Vikas with AI (YUVAi), is a collaborative initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and Intel India.
  4. YUVAi aims to equip Undergraduate Students nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centric designers and users of AI.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is a multi-stakeholder initiative bridging the gap between AI theory and practice through research and applied activities on AI priorities.
  • It will bring experts from industry, civil society, governments, and academia to promote the responsible evolution of AI.
  • It is built around a shared commitment to the OECD Recommendation on AI.
  • Initially, it will work on Four Themes:
    • Responsible AI
    • Data Governance
    • Future of Work
    • Innovation and Commercialisation
Statement 2 is correct
  • GPAIs founding members are Australia, Canada, the European Union, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, New Zealand, Singapore, Slovenia, the UK and the US.
  • Launched in 2020 with 15 members, GPAI’s membership now includes 28 countries and the EU.
  • India became the Council Chair of the GPAI in November 2022 after France.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • YUVAi is a collaborative initiative of the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) and Intel India.
Statement 4 is incorrect
  • YUVAi is designed to equip the youth with essential AI skills to enable a future-ready workforce.
  • It aims to equip students (class 8-12) nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centric designers and users of AI.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Q6. {Infra – Transportation} Consider the following statements with respect to Special Economic Zones (SEZ):

  1. The SEZ is a territory within a country that is typically duty-free and has same business and commercial laws to encourage investment and create employment.
  2. The SEZ is exempted from various taxes like Income Tax, minimum alternate tax and GST.
  3. The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Minister of Commerce and Industry.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All
  4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • A special economic zone (SEZ) is an area in a country that is subject to different economic regulations than other regions within the same country.
  • Duty free import and domestic procurement of goods for the development, operation, and maintenance of concerned company/SEZ unit.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Exemptions given to SEZs,
    • 100% income tax exemption on export income for first five years, 50% for five years thereafter, and 50% of the export profit reinvested in the business for the next five years.
    • Exemption from GST and levies imposed by state government (supplies to SEZs are zero rated under the IGST Act, 2017, meaning they are not taxed).
    • Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
    • Exemption in electricity duty and tax on sale of electricity by certain states in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce. The Approval Committee at the Zone level deals with approval of units in the SEZs and other related issues.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
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