[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – December 15 2023
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Question 1 of 6
1. Question
Q1. {Organizations – Reports} Consider the following statements about International Debt Report 2023:
It is published annually by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
The report gives debt data only on the low and middle-income countries.
The report is based on the data available with the World Bank Debt Reporting System (DRS).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The International Debt Report 2023 is the 50th edition of the World Bank’sannual publication on external debt along with the International Debt Statistics (IDS) database.
The Report highlights that Currently, about 60% of low-income countries are at high risk of debt distress or already in it.
Statement 2 is correct
It is the most comprehensive and transparent source of verifiable, cross-country comparable external debt data of low and middle-income countries (LMICs).
The report analyses 122 low and middle-income countries that report to the World Bank DebtReporting System (DRS).
LMICs – Debt servicing costs on public and publicly guaranteed debt are projected to grow by 10% for all developing countries over the 2023–24 period and by nearly 40 % for low-incomecountries.
Developing countries – Debt-service payments, which include principal and interest, increased by 5% in 2022 over the previous year for all developing countries.
For the first time since 2015, the private creditors have received more fundsthan they put intodeveloping countries.
Poor countries – Over the past decade, interest payments by poor countries have quadrupled to an all-time high of USD 23.6 billion in 2022.
Overall, debt-servicing costs for the 24 poorest countries are expected to increase by 39% in 2023 and 2024.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The World Bank Debtor Reporting System (DRS) was established in 1951. The DRS system captures detailed information at loan level for external borrowing of reporting countries using standardized set of forms.
Data is shown for lowand middle-income countries that report public and publicly guaranteed external debt to the World Bank’s Debtor Reporting System (DRS).
This Data is then fed toInternational Debt Statistics Databaseand then gets Published in International Debt Report.
India – The debt status of India can be inferred from the below images
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The International Debt Report 2023 is the 50th edition of the World Bank’sannual publication on external debt along with the International Debt Statistics (IDS) database.
The Report highlights that Currently, about 60% of low-income countries are at high risk of debt distress or already in it.
Statement 2 is correct
It is the most comprehensive and transparent source of verifiable, cross-country comparable external debt data of low and middle-income countries (LMICs).
The report analyses 122 low and middle-income countries that report to the World Bank DebtReporting System (DRS).
LMICs – Debt servicing costs on public and publicly guaranteed debt are projected to grow by 10% for all developing countries over the 2023–24 period and by nearly 40 % for low-incomecountries.
Developing countries – Debt-service payments, which include principal and interest, increased by 5% in 2022 over the previous year for all developing countries.
For the first time since 2015, the private creditors have received more fundsthan they put intodeveloping countries.
Poor countries – Over the past decade, interest payments by poor countries have quadrupled to an all-time high of USD 23.6 billion in 2022.
Overall, debt-servicing costs for the 24 poorest countries are expected to increase by 39% in 2023 and 2024.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The World Bank Debtor Reporting System (DRS) was established in 1951. The DRS system captures detailed information at loan level for external borrowing of reporting countries using standardized set of forms.
Data is shown for lowand middle-income countries that report public and publicly guaranteed external debt to the World Bank’s Debtor Reporting System (DRS).
This Data is then fed toInternational Debt Statistics Databaseand then gets Published in International Debt Report.
India – The debt status of India can be inferred from the below images
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The International Debt Report 2023 is the 50th edition of the World Bank’sannual publication on external debt along with the International Debt Statistics (IDS) database.
The Report highlights that Currently, about 60% of low-income countries are at high risk of debt distress or already in it.
Statement 2 is correct
It is the most comprehensive and transparent source of verifiable, cross-country comparable external debt data of low and middle-income countries (LMICs).
The report analyses 122 low and middle-income countries that report to the World Bank DebtReporting System (DRS).
LMICs – Debt servicing costs on public and publicly guaranteed debt are projected to grow by 10% for all developing countries over the 2023–24 period and by nearly 40 % for low-incomecountries.
Developing countries – Debt-service payments, which include principal and interest, increased by 5% in 2022 over the previous year for all developing countries.
For the first time since 2015, the private creditors have received more fundsthan they put intodeveloping countries.
Poor countries – Over the past decade, interest payments by poor countries have quadrupled to an all-time high of USD 23.6 billion in 2022.
Overall, debt-servicing costs for the 24 poorest countries are expected to increase by 39% in 2023 and 2024.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The World Bank Debtor Reporting System (DRS) was established in 1951. The DRS system captures detailed information at loan level for external borrowing of reporting countries using standardized set of forms.
Data is shown for lowand middle-income countries that report public and publicly guaranteed external debt to the World Bank’s Debtor Reporting System (DRS).
This Data is then fed toInternational Debt Statistics Databaseand then gets Published in International Debt Report.
India – The debt status of India can be inferred from the below images
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 2 of 6
2. Question
Q2. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements:
Indian Constitution empowers the government to notify elephant corridors .
Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications that promise greater protection of elephant.
Activities like mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc, are prohibited in an Elephant Reserves.
The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), coordinating with the State Forest Departments, has ground-validated 150 elephant corridors across 15 elephant range states.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications.
They don’t promise greater protection of elephant habitats because they are not recognised by law.
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (WPA 1972), a ‘protected area’ can be one of a ‘national park’, a ‘wildlife sanctuary’, a ‘conservation reserve’ or a ‘community reserve’.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The prohibited activities in protected areas, including mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc., are permissible in an elephant reserve.
As a result,governments can divert elephant reserves and corridors for various projects.
Statement 4 is correct
Elephants are the largest terrestrial mammals. They are keystone species.
They are matriarchal, meaning they live in female-led groups.
The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months, and the calf is nursed for 2 to 4 years.
The lifespan of elephants is 60-70 years in the wild
India is home to 60% of the Asian elephant population.
Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), coordinating with the State Forest Departments, has ground-validated 150 elephant corridors across 15 elephant range states.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications.
They don’t promise greater protection of elephant habitats because they are not recognised by law.
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (WPA 1972), a ‘protected area’ can be one of a ‘national park’, a ‘wildlife sanctuary’, a ‘conservation reserve’ or a ‘community reserve’.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The prohibited activities in protected areas, including mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc., are permissible in an elephant reserve.
As a result,governments can divert elephant reserves and corridors for various projects.
Statement 4 is correct
Elephants are the largest terrestrial mammals. They are keystone species.
They are matriarchal, meaning they live in female-led groups.
The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months, and the calf is nursed for 2 to 4 years.
The lifespan of elephants is 60-70 years in the wild
India is home to 60% of the Asian elephant population.
Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), coordinating with the State Forest Departments, has ground-validated 150 elephant corridors across 15 elephant range states.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications.
They don’t promise greater protection of elephant habitats because they are not recognised by law.
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (WPA 1972), a ‘protected area’ can be one of a ‘national park’, a ‘wildlife sanctuary’, a ‘conservation reserve’ or a ‘community reserve’.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The prohibited activities in protected areas, including mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc., are permissible in an elephant reserve.
As a result,governments can divert elephant reserves and corridors for various projects.
Statement 4 is correct
Elephants are the largest terrestrial mammals. They are keystone species.
They are matriarchal, meaning they live in female-led groups.
The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months, and the calf is nursed for 2 to 4 years.
The lifespan of elephants is 60-70 years in the wild
India is home to 60% of the Asian elephant population.
Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 6
3. Question
Q3. {Envi – Species – Conservation} Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Tent Turtle:
They are active swimmers which are endemic to India.
It is listed under the Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Indian tent turtle (Pangshura tentoria) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae.
It is a small species of turtle, growing to a maximum straight carapace length of 27 cm.
Subspecies – The 3 subspecies includes:
P. t. tentoria
P. t. circumdata
P. t. flaviventer
Their Habitat includes still water pools on river side and slow running water near the river banks. These are active swimmers and are mainly herbivorous.
The Indian Tent Turtle is found in India, Nepal and Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct
Indian tent turtle is listed in Schedule–I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and is thereby provided the highest degree of protection.
Due to the attractive appearance of the species, they are illegally traded in the pet market.
Answer: (b) 2 only ; Difficulty level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Indian tent turtle (Pangshura tentoria) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae.
It is a small species of turtle, growing to a maximum straight carapace length of 27 cm.
Subspecies – The 3 subspecies includes:
P. t. tentoria
P. t. circumdata
P. t. flaviventer
Their Habitat includes still water pools on river side and slow running water near the river banks. These are active swimmers and are mainly herbivorous.
The Indian Tent Turtle is found in India, Nepal and Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct
Indian tent turtle is listed in Schedule–I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and is thereby provided the highest degree of protection.
Due to the attractive appearance of the species, they are illegally traded in the pet market.
Answer: (b) 2 only ; Difficulty level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Indian tent turtle (Pangshura tentoria) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae.
It is a small species of turtle, growing to a maximum straight carapace length of 27 cm.
Subspecies – The 3 subspecies includes:
P. t. tentoria
P. t. circumdata
P. t. flaviventer
Their Habitat includes still water pools on river side and slow running water near the river banks. These are active swimmers and are mainly herbivorous.
The Indian Tent Turtle is found in India, Nepal and Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct
Indian tent turtle is listed in Schedule–I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and is thereby provided the highest degree of protection.
Due to the attractive appearance of the species, they are illegally traded in the pet market.
Answer: (b) 2 only ; Difficulty level: Easy
Question 4 of 6
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements with regards to E-Waste Management Rules, 2022
Only registered producers, recyclers and refurbishers, are now allowed to collect and process e-waste.
No entity shall carry out any business with any unregistered entity.
There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
According to new rules, bulk consumer consists of government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons only.
How many of the statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
MoEFCC has revised the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 and notified the E-Waste (Management)Rules, 2022, and the same has been in force since 1st April 2023.
Under these rules, the collection and processing of e-waste can be carried out only byregistered producers, recyclers and refurbishers.
The Indian Cellular and Electronics Association (ICEA) report (2022) says harnessing e-waste is a $7 billion market opportunity.
Statement 2 is correct
All manufacturers, producers, refurbishers and recyclers must register on the Central Pollution ControlBoard (CPCB) portal.
No entity shall carry out any businesswithout registration and not deal with any unregistered entity.
Statement 3 is correct
There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
Provision for reducing hazardous substances in the manufacturing of EEE mandates that every producer of EEE and their components shall ensure that their products do not contain lead, mercury and other hazardous substances beyond the maximum prescribed concentration.
It also provides recognition and registration, skill development, monitoring and ensuring the safety and health of workers involved in dismantling and recycling e-waste.
Statement 4 is incorrect
The 2016 Rules had two categories for e-waste management – consumer and bulk consumer, with the latter including government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons. Both categories were required to segregate e-waste and send it to authorized dismantlers or recyclers. Bulk consumers had to maintain records of e-waste and file annual returns with the relevant SPCB or UTPCC.
However, the E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 define ‘bulk consumer‘ as any entity that has used a minimum of one thousand units of electrical and electronic equipment listed in Schedule I at any time in the particular financial year, including e-retailers. They are now required to hand over their e-waste only to registered producers, refurbishes, or recyclers. The 2022 Rules have removed the requirement for separate compliance documents and the consumer category.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy (Conceptual)
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
MoEFCC has revised the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 and notified the E-Waste (Management)Rules, 2022, and the same has been in force since 1st April 2023.
Under these rules, the collection and processing of e-waste can be carried out only byregistered producers, recyclers and refurbishers.
The Indian Cellular and Electronics Association (ICEA) report (2022) says harnessing e-waste is a $7 billion market opportunity.
Statement 2 is correct
All manufacturers, producers, refurbishers and recyclers must register on the Central Pollution ControlBoard (CPCB) portal.
No entity shall carry out any businesswithout registration and not deal with any unregistered entity.
Statement 3 is correct
There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
Provision for reducing hazardous substances in the manufacturing of EEE mandates that every producer of EEE and their components shall ensure that their products do not contain lead, mercury and other hazardous substances beyond the maximum prescribed concentration.
It also provides recognition and registration, skill development, monitoring and ensuring the safety and health of workers involved in dismantling and recycling e-waste.
Statement 4 is incorrect
The 2016 Rules had two categories for e-waste management – consumer and bulk consumer, with the latter including government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons. Both categories were required to segregate e-waste and send it to authorized dismantlers or recyclers. Bulk consumers had to maintain records of e-waste and file annual returns with the relevant SPCB or UTPCC.
However, the E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 define ‘bulk consumer‘ as any entity that has used a minimum of one thousand units of electrical and electronic equipment listed in Schedule I at any time in the particular financial year, including e-retailers. They are now required to hand over their e-waste only to registered producers, refurbishes, or recyclers. The 2022 Rules have removed the requirement for separate compliance documents and the consumer category.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy (Conceptual)
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
MoEFCC has revised the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 and notified the E-Waste (Management)Rules, 2022, and the same has been in force since 1st April 2023.
Under these rules, the collection and processing of e-waste can be carried out only byregistered producers, recyclers and refurbishers.
The Indian Cellular and Electronics Association (ICEA) report (2022) says harnessing e-waste is a $7 billion market opportunity.
Statement 2 is correct
All manufacturers, producers, refurbishers and recyclers must register on the Central Pollution ControlBoard (CPCB) portal.
No entity shall carry out any businesswithout registration and not deal with any unregistered entity.
Statement 3 is correct
There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
Provision for reducing hazardous substances in the manufacturing of EEE mandates that every producer of EEE and their components shall ensure that their products do not contain lead, mercury and other hazardous substances beyond the maximum prescribed concentration.
It also provides recognition and registration, skill development, monitoring and ensuring the safety and health of workers involved in dismantling and recycling e-waste.
Statement 4 is incorrect
The 2016 Rules had two categories for e-waste management – consumer and bulk consumer, with the latter including government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons. Both categories were required to segregate e-waste and send it to authorized dismantlers or recyclers. Bulk consumers had to maintain records of e-waste and file annual returns with the relevant SPCB or UTPCC.
However, the E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 define ‘bulk consumer‘ as any entity that has used a minimum of one thousand units of electrical and electronic equipment listed in Schedule I at any time in the particular financial year, including e-retailers. They are now required to hand over their e-waste only to registered producers, refurbishes, or recyclers. The 2022 Rules have removed the requirement for separate compliance documents and the consumer category.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy (Conceptual)
Question 5 of 6
5. Question
Q5. {S&T – AI} Consider the following statements:
Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is built around a shared commitment to the United Nations recent Recommendations on AI.
India is a Founding Member of Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence.
Youth for Unnati and Vikas with AI (YUVAi), is a collaborative initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and Intel India.
YUVAi aims to equip Undergraduate Students nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centric designers and users of AI.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is a multi-stakeholder initiative bridging the gap between AI theory and practice through research and applied activities on AI priorities.
It will bring experts from industry, civil society, governments, and academia to promote the responsible evolution of AI.
It is built around a shared commitment to the OECD Recommendation on AI.
Initially, it will work on Four Themes:
Responsible AI
Data Governance
Future of Work
Innovation and Commercialisation
Statement 2 is correct
GPAIs founding members are Australia, Canada, the European Union, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, New Zealand, Singapore, Slovenia, the UK and the US.
Launched in 2020 with 15 members, GPAI’s membership now includes 28 countries and the EU.
India became the Council Chair of the GPAI in November 2022 after France.
Statement 3 is incorrect
YUVAi is a collaborative initiative of the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) and Intel India.
Statement 4 is incorrect
YUVAi is designed to equip the youth with essential AI skills to enable a future-ready workforce.
It aims to equip students (class 8-12) nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centricdesigners and users of AI.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is a multi-stakeholder initiative bridging the gap between AI theory and practice through research and applied activities on AI priorities.
It will bring experts from industry, civil society, governments, and academia to promote the responsible evolution of AI.
It is built around a shared commitment to the OECD Recommendation on AI.
Initially, it will work on Four Themes:
Responsible AI
Data Governance
Future of Work
Innovation and Commercialisation
Statement 2 is correct
GPAIs founding members are Australia, Canada, the European Union, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, New Zealand, Singapore, Slovenia, the UK and the US.
Launched in 2020 with 15 members, GPAI’s membership now includes 28 countries and the EU.
India became the Council Chair of the GPAI in November 2022 after France.
Statement 3 is incorrect
YUVAi is a collaborative initiative of the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) and Intel India.
Statement 4 is incorrect
YUVAi is designed to equip the youth with essential AI skills to enable a future-ready workforce.
It aims to equip students (class 8-12) nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centricdesigners and users of AI.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is a multi-stakeholder initiative bridging the gap between AI theory and practice through research and applied activities on AI priorities.
It will bring experts from industry, civil society, governments, and academia to promote the responsible evolution of AI.
It is built around a shared commitment to the OECD Recommendation on AI.
Initially, it will work on Four Themes:
Responsible AI
Data Governance
Future of Work
Innovation and Commercialisation
Statement 2 is correct
GPAIs founding members are Australia, Canada, the European Union, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, New Zealand, Singapore, Slovenia, the UK and the US.
Launched in 2020 with 15 members, GPAI’s membership now includes 28 countries and the EU.
India became the Council Chair of the GPAI in November 2022 after France.
Statement 3 is incorrect
YUVAi is a collaborative initiative of the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) and Intel India.
Statement 4 is incorrect
YUVAi is designed to equip the youth with essential AI skills to enable a future-ready workforce.
It aims to equip students (class 8-12) nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centricdesigners and users of AI.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 6 of 6
6. Question
Q6. {Infra – Transportation} Consider the following statements with respect to Special Economic Zones (SEZ):
The SEZ is a territory within a country that is typically duty-free and has same business and commercial laws to encourage investment and create employment.
The SEZ is exempted from various taxes like Income Tax, minimum alternate tax and GST.
The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Minister of Commerce and Industry.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
A special economic zone (SEZ) is an area in a country that is subject to different economic regulations than other regions within the same country.
Duty free import and domestic procurement of goods for the development, operation, and maintenance of concerned company/SEZ unit.
Statement 2 is correct
Exemptions given to SEZs,
100% income tax exemption on export income for first five years, 50% for five years thereafter, and 50% of the export profit reinvested in the business for the next five years.
Exemption from GST and levies imposed by state government (supplies to SEZs are zero rated under the IGST Act, 2017, meaning they are not taxed).
Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
Exemption in electricity duty and tax on sale of electricity by certain states in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce. The Approval Committee at the Zone level deals with approval of units in the SEZs and other related issues.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
A special economic zone (SEZ) is an area in a country that is subject to different economic regulations than other regions within the same country.
Duty free import and domestic procurement of goods for the development, operation, and maintenance of concerned company/SEZ unit.
Statement 2 is correct
Exemptions given to SEZs,
100% income tax exemption on export income for first five years, 50% for five years thereafter, and 50% of the export profit reinvested in the business for the next five years.
Exemption from GST and levies imposed by state government (supplies to SEZs are zero rated under the IGST Act, 2017, meaning they are not taxed).
Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
Exemption in electricity duty and tax on sale of electricity by certain states in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce. The Approval Committee at the Zone level deals with approval of units in the SEZs and other related issues.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
A special economic zone (SEZ) is an area in a country that is subject to different economic regulations than other regions within the same country.
Duty free import and domestic procurement of goods for the development, operation, and maintenance of concerned company/SEZ unit.
Statement 2 is correct
Exemptions given to SEZs,
100% income tax exemption on export income for first five years, 50% for five years thereafter, and 50% of the export profit reinvested in the business for the next five years.
Exemption from GST and levies imposed by state government (supplies to SEZs are zero rated under the IGST Act, 2017, meaning they are not taxed).
Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
Exemption in electricity duty and tax on sale of electricity by certain states in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce. The Approval Committee at the Zone level deals with approval of units in the SEZs and other related issues.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Leaderboard: [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – December 15 2023
maximum of 6 points
Pos.
Name
Entered on
Points
Result
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Questions with their Answers and Explanation
Q1. {Organizations – Reports} Consider the following statements about International Debt Report 2023:
It is published annually by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
The report gives debt data only on the low and middle-income countries.
The report is based on the data available with the World Bank Debt Reporting System (DRS).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Only one
Only two
All
None
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The International Debt Report 2023 is the 50th edition of the World Bank’sannual publication on external debt along with the International Debt Statistics (IDS) database.
The Report highlights that Currently, about 60% of low-income countries are at high risk of debt distress or already in it.
Statement 2 is correct
It is the most comprehensive and transparent source of verifiable, cross-country comparable external debt data of low and middle-income countries (LMICs).
The report analyses 122 low and middle-income countries that report to the World Bank DebtReporting System (DRS).
LMICs – Debt servicing costs on public and publicly guaranteed debt are projected to grow by 10% for all developing countries over the 2023–24 period and by nearly 40 % for low-incomecountries.
Developing countries – Debt-service payments, which include principal and interest, increased by 5% in 2022 over the previous year for all developing countries.
For the first time since 2015, the private creditors have received more fundsthan they put intodeveloping countries.
Poor countries – Over the past decade, interest payments by poor countries have quadrupled to an all-time high of USD 23.6 billion in 2022.
Overall, debt-servicing costs for the 24 poorest countries are expected to increase by 39% in 2023 and 2024.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The World Bank Debtor Reporting System (DRS) was established in 1951. The DRS system captures detailed information at loan level for external borrowing of reporting countries using standardized set of forms.
Data is shown for lowand middle-income countries that report public and publicly guaranteed external debt to the World Bank’s Debtor Reporting System (DRS).
This Data is then fed toInternational Debt Statistics Databaseand then gets Published in International Debt Report.
India – The debt status of India can be inferred from the below images
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy
Q2. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements:
Indian Constitution empowers the government to notify elephant corridors .
Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications that promise greater protection of elephant.
Activities like mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc, are prohibited in an Elephant Reserves.
The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Only two
Only three
All
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), coordinating with the State Forest Departments, has ground-validated 150 elephant corridors across 15 elephant range states.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Elephant reserves and elephant corridors are essentially administrative classifications.
They don’t promise greater protection of elephant habitats because they are not recognised by law.
The prohibited activities in protected areas, including mining, oil and gas drilling, dams, etc., are permissible in an elephant reserve.
As a result,governments can divert elephant reserves and corridors for various projects.
Statement 4 is correct
Elephants are the largest terrestrial mammals. They are keystone species.
They are matriarchal, meaning they live in female-led groups.
The elephant’s gestation period is 18 to 22 months, and the calf is nursed for 2 to 4 years.
The lifespan of elephants is 60-70 years in the wild
India is home to 60% of the Asian elephant population.
Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Q3. {Envi – Species – Conservation} Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Tent Turtle:
They are active swimmers which are endemic to India.
It is listed under the Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Indian tent turtle (Pangshura tentoria) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae.
It is a small species of turtle, growing to a maximum straight carapace length of 27 cm.
Subspecies – The 3 subspecies includes:
P. t. tentoria
P. t. circumdata
P. t. flaviventer
Their Habitat includes still water pools on river side and slow running water near the river banks. These are active swimmers and are mainly herbivorous.
The Indian Tent Turtle is found in India, Nepal and Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct
Indian tent turtle is listed in Schedule–I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and is thereby provided the highest degree of protection.
Due to the attractive appearance of the species, they are illegally traded in the pet market.
Answer: (b) 2 only ; Difficulty level: Easy
Q4. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements with regards to E-Waste Management Rules, 2022
Only registered producers, recyclers and refurbishers, are now allowed to collect and process e-waste.
No entity shall carry out any business with any unregistered entity.
There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
According to new rules, bulk consumer consists of government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons only.
How many of the statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Only one
Only two
Only three
All
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
MoEFCC has revised the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 and notified the E-Waste (Management)Rules, 2022, and the same has been in force since 1st April 2023.
Under these rules, the collection and processing of e-waste can be carried out only byregistered producers, recyclers and refurbishers.
The Indian Cellular and Electronics Association (ICEA) report (2022) says harnessing e-waste is a $7 billion market opportunity.
Statement 2 is correct
All manufacturers, producers, refurbishers and recyclers must register on the Central Pollution ControlBoard (CPCB) portal.
No entity shall carry out any businesswithout registration and not deal with any unregistered entity.
Statement 3 is correct
There is a provision for the constitution of a Steering Committee to oversee the overall implementation of the rules.
Provision for reducing hazardous substances in the manufacturing of EEE mandates that every producer of EEE and their components shall ensure that their products do not contain lead, mercury and other hazardous substances beyond the maximum prescribed concentration.
It also provides recognition and registration, skill development, monitoring and ensuring the safety and health of workers involved in dismantling and recycling e-waste.
Statement 4 is incorrect
The 2016 Rules had two categories for e-waste management – consumer and bulk consumer, with the latter including government departments, educational institutions, companies, and other judicial persons. Both categories were required to segregate e-waste and send it to authorized dismantlers or recyclers. Bulk consumers had to maintain records of e-waste and file annual returns with the relevant SPCB or UTPCC.
However, the E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 define ‘bulk consumer‘ as any entity that has used a minimum of one thousand units of electrical and electronic equipment listed in Schedule I at any time in the particular financial year, including e-retailers. They are now required to hand over their e-waste only to registered producers, refurbishes, or recyclers. The 2022 Rules have removed the requirement for separate compliance documents and the consumer category.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Easy (Conceptual)
Q5. {S&T – AI} Consider the following statements:
Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is built around a shared commitment to the United Nations recent Recommendations on AI.
India is a Founding Member of Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence.
Youth for Unnati and Vikas with AI (YUVAi), is a collaborative initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and Intel India.
YUVAi aims to equip Undergraduate Students nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centric designers and users of AI.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Only two
Only three
All
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence is a multi-stakeholder initiative bridging the gap between AI theory and practice through research and applied activities on AI priorities.
It will bring experts from industry, civil society, governments, and academia to promote the responsible evolution of AI.
It is built around a shared commitment to the OECD Recommendation on AI.
Initially, it will work on Four Themes:
Responsible AI
Data Governance
Future of Work
Innovation and Commercialisation
Statement 2 is correct
GPAIs founding members are Australia, Canada, the European Union, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, New Zealand, Singapore, Slovenia, the UK and the US.
Launched in 2020 with 15 members, GPAI’s membership now includes 28 countries and the EU.
India became the Council Chair of the GPAI in November 2022 after France.
Statement 3 is incorrect
YUVAi is a collaborative initiative of the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) and Intel India.
Statement 4 is incorrect
YUVAi is designed to equip the youth with essential AI skills to enable a future-ready workforce.
It aims to equip students (class 8-12) nationwide with AI skills and empower them as human-centricdesigners and users of AI.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Q6. {Infra – Transportation} Consider the following statements with respect to Special Economic Zones (SEZ):
The SEZ is a territory within a country that is typically duty-free and has same business and commercial laws to encourage investment and create employment.
The SEZ is exempted from various taxes like Income Tax, minimum alternate tax and GST.
The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Minister of Commerce and Industry.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Only two
All
None
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
A special economic zone (SEZ) is an area in a country that is subject to different economic regulations than other regions within the same country.
Duty free import and domestic procurement of goods for the development, operation, and maintenance of concerned company/SEZ unit.
Statement 2 is correct
Exemptions given to SEZs,
100% income tax exemption on export income for first five years, 50% for five years thereafter, and 50% of the export profit reinvested in the business for the next five years.
Exemption from GST and levies imposed by state government (supplies to SEZs are zero rated under the IGST Act, 2017, meaning they are not taxed).
Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT).
Exemption in electricity duty and tax on sale of electricity by certain states in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce. The Approval Committee at the Zone level deals with approval of units in the SEZs and other related issues.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
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