Subscribe to Never Miss an Important Update! Assured Discounts on New Products!
March 30 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
Table of contents
- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 30 2024
Time limit: 0
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 30 2024 "
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
-
Not categorized
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Your result has been entered into leaderboard
Loading
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Q1. {S&T – Botany} Consider the following statements about Stomata:
- Statement I: Stomata are tiny openings or pores in plant tissue that are found nowhere else except in the leaves of plant.
- Statement II: With the help of guard cells that surround stoma, stomata allow for exchange of gas in plants.
Which one of the following is correct based on the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect
- Stomata (singular, “stoma”) are tiny pores through which plants breathe.
- Stomata are found on the upper and lower sides of leaves, on flower petals, on stems, and on roots.
- Stomata allow a plant to take in carbon dioxide, which is needed for photosynthesis.
- They also help to reduce water loss by closing when conditions are hot or dry.
- Stomata look like tiny mouths which open and close as they assist in transpiration.
Statement II is correct
- Guard cells are large, crescent-shaped cells, two of which surround a stoma and are connected to at both ends.
- A stomate opens and closes in response to the internal pressure of guard cells.
- These cells enlarge and contract to open and close stomatal pores.
- Guard cells work to control excessive water loss, closing on hot, dry, or windy days and opening when conditions are more favourable for gas exchange.
- Guard cells also contain chloroplasts, the light-capturing organelles in plants.
- Subsidiary cells, also called accessory cells, surround and support guard cells.
- They act as a buffer between guard cells and epidermal cells, protecting epidermal cells against guard cell expansion.
Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect
- Stomata (singular, “stoma”) are tiny pores through which plants breathe.
- Stomata are found on the upper and lower sides of leaves, on flower petals, on stems, and on roots.
- Stomata allow a plant to take in carbon dioxide, which is needed for photosynthesis.
- They also help to reduce water loss by closing when conditions are hot or dry.
- Stomata look like tiny mouths which open and close as they assist in transpiration.
Statement II is correct
- Guard cells are large, crescent-shaped cells, two of which surround a stoma and are connected to at both ends.
- A stomate opens and closes in response to the internal pressure of guard cells.
- These cells enlarge and contract to open and close stomatal pores.
- Guard cells work to control excessive water loss, closing on hot, dry, or windy days and opening when conditions are more favourable for gas exchange.
- Guard cells also contain chloroplasts, the light-capturing organelles in plants.
- Subsidiary cells, also called accessory cells, surround and support guard cells.
- They act as a buffer between guard cells and epidermal cells, protecting epidermal cells against guard cell expansion.
Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect
- Stomata (singular, “stoma”) are tiny pores through which plants breathe.
- Stomata are found on the upper and lower sides of leaves, on flower petals, on stems, and on roots.
- Stomata allow a plant to take in carbon dioxide, which is needed for photosynthesis.
- They also help to reduce water loss by closing when conditions are hot or dry.
- Stomata look like tiny mouths which open and close as they assist in transpiration.
Statement II is correct
- Guard cells are large, crescent-shaped cells, two of which surround a stoma and are connected to at both ends.
- A stomate opens and closes in response to the internal pressure of guard cells.
- These cells enlarge and contract to open and close stomatal pores.
- Guard cells work to control excessive water loss, closing on hot, dry, or windy days and opening when conditions are more favourable for gas exchange.
- Guard cells also contain chloroplasts, the light-capturing organelles in plants.
- Subsidiary cells, also called accessory cells, surround and support guard cells.
- They act as a buffer between guard cells and epidermal cells, protecting epidermal cells against guard cell expansion.
Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Q2. {IE – Financial Instruments} Consider the following statements about Treasury Bills:
- Statement I: Treasury bills or T-bills are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India in three maturities of 91 days, 182 days and 364 days.
- Statement II: These are zero coupon securities and pay no interest.
Which one of the following is correct based on the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Statement I is correct
- Treasury bills or T-bills are money market instruments.
- These are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.
- Maturity period: At present, treasury bills are issued in three maturities — 91-day, 182-day and 364-day.
- Who can buy T-Bills ?
- Individuals, trusts, institutions and banks can purchase T-Bills, but they are usually held by financial institutions.
- They have a very important role in the financial market beyond investment instruments.
- Banks give treasury bills to the RBI to get money under repo.
- Similarly, they can also keep it to fulfil their Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) requirements.
Statement II is correct
- These are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.
- How do T-bills work ?
- Treasury bills are issued at a discount to original value and the buyer gets the original value upon maturity.
- The return on treasury bill depends on liquidity position in the economy, when there is a liquidity crisis, the returns are higher, and vice versa.
Answer: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is correct
- Treasury bills or T-bills are money market instruments.
- These are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.
- Maturity period: At present, treasury bills are issued in three maturities — 91-day, 182-day and 364-day.
- Who can buy T-Bills ?
- Individuals, trusts, institutions and banks can purchase T-Bills, but they are usually held by financial institutions.
- They have a very important role in the financial market beyond investment instruments.
- Banks give treasury bills to the RBI to get money under repo.
- Similarly, they can also keep it to fulfil their Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) requirements.
Statement II is correct
- These are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.
- How do T-bills work ?
- Treasury bills are issued at a discount to original value and the buyer gets the original value upon maturity.
- The return on treasury bill depends on liquidity position in the economy, when there is a liquidity crisis, the returns are higher, and vice versa.
Answer: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement I is correct
- Treasury bills or T-bills are money market instruments.
- These are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.
- Maturity period: At present, treasury bills are issued in three maturities — 91-day, 182-day and 364-day.
- Who can buy T-Bills ?
- Individuals, trusts, institutions and banks can purchase T-Bills, but they are usually held by financial institutions.
- They have a very important role in the financial market beyond investment instruments.
- Banks give treasury bills to the RBI to get money under repo.
- Similarly, they can also keep it to fulfil their Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) requirements.
Statement II is correct
- These are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.
- How do T-bills work ?
- Treasury bills are issued at a discount to original value and the buyer gets the original value upon maturity.
- The return on treasury bill depends on liquidity position in the economy, when there is a liquidity crisis, the returns are higher, and vice versa.
Answer: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – S&T – In News} Sagittarius A*, recently seen in news, is a?
Correct
Explanation
- Astronomers have detected a twisted magnetic field in a spiral pattern around the Milky Way’s supermassive black hole, Sagittarius A* (Sgr A*), indicating previously unknown features of the powerful object.
- The term “twisted” magnetic field refers to a magnetic field that has a spiral or helical shape rather than being uniformly aligned.
- This discovery sheds light on previously unknown qualities of the supermassive black hole at the centre of our galaxy, indicating similarities with the magnetic field surrounding another black hole known as M87*.
- The twisted magnetic field structure suggests the potential for the Milky Way’s black hole to power efficient jets of material into space, similar to those observed in M87*.
Answer: (d) A massive black hole located at the center of the Milky Way galaxy; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Astronomers have detected a twisted magnetic field in a spiral pattern around the Milky Way’s supermassive black hole, Sagittarius A* (Sgr A*), indicating previously unknown features of the powerful object.
- The term “twisted” magnetic field refers to a magnetic field that has a spiral or helical shape rather than being uniformly aligned.
- This discovery sheds light on previously unknown qualities of the supermassive black hole at the centre of our galaxy, indicating similarities with the magnetic field surrounding another black hole known as M87*.
- The twisted magnetic field structure suggests the potential for the Milky Way’s black hole to power efficient jets of material into space, similar to those observed in M87*.
Answer: (d) A massive black hole located at the center of the Milky Way galaxy; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Astronomers have detected a twisted magnetic field in a spiral pattern around the Milky Way’s supermassive black hole, Sagittarius A* (Sgr A*), indicating previously unknown features of the powerful object.
- The term “twisted” magnetic field refers to a magnetic field that has a spiral or helical shape rather than being uniformly aligned.
- This discovery sheds light on previously unknown qualities of the supermassive black hole at the centre of our galaxy, indicating similarities with the magnetic field surrounding another black hole known as M87*.
- The twisted magnetic field structure suggests the potential for the Milky Way’s black hole to power efficient jets of material into space, similar to those observed in M87*.
Answer: (d) A massive black hole located at the center of the Milky Way galaxy; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – PIN} Consider the following statements with respect to the Red Fort:
- The Red Fort Complex was built by the Third Mughal emperor of India, Akbar.
- The Red Fort is a UNESCO World Heritage Centre.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Red Fort Complex was built as the palace fort of Shahjahanabad – the new capital of the fifth Mughal Emperor of India, Shah Jahan.
- Named for its massive enclosing walls of red sandstone, it is adjacent to an older fort, the Salimgarh, built by Islam Shah Suri in 1546, with which it forms the Red Fort Complex.
- The private apartments consist of a row of pavilions connected by a continuous water channel, known as the Nahr-i-Behisht (Stream of Paradise).
- The Red Fort is considered to represent the zenith of Mughal creativity which, under the Shah Jahan, was brought to a new level of refinement.
- The planning of the palace is based on Islamic prototypes, but each pavilion reveals architectural elements typical of Mughal building, reflecting a fusion of Persian, Timurid and Hindu traditions.
- The Red Fort’s innovative planning and architectural style, including the garden design, strongly influenced later buildings and gardens in Rajasthan, Delhi, Agra and further afield.
Statement 2 is correct
- Red Fort was recognised UNESCO World Heritage Centre in 2007.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Red Fort Complex was built as the palace fort of Shahjahanabad – the new capital of the fifth Mughal Emperor of India, Shah Jahan.
- Named for its massive enclosing walls of red sandstone, it is adjacent to an older fort, the Salimgarh, built by Islam Shah Suri in 1546, with which it forms the Red Fort Complex.
- The private apartments consist of a row of pavilions connected by a continuous water channel, known as the Nahr-i-Behisht (Stream of Paradise).
- The Red Fort is considered to represent the zenith of Mughal creativity which, under the Shah Jahan, was brought to a new level of refinement.
- The planning of the palace is based on Islamic prototypes, but each pavilion reveals architectural elements typical of Mughal building, reflecting a fusion of Persian, Timurid and Hindu traditions.
- The Red Fort’s innovative planning and architectural style, including the garden design, strongly influenced later buildings and gardens in Rajasthan, Delhi, Agra and further afield.
Statement 2 is correct
- Red Fort was recognised UNESCO World Heritage Centre in 2007.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Red Fort Complex was built as the palace fort of Shahjahanabad – the new capital of the fifth Mughal Emperor of India, Shah Jahan.
- Named for its massive enclosing walls of red sandstone, it is adjacent to an older fort, the Salimgarh, built by Islam Shah Suri in 1546, with which it forms the Red Fort Complex.
- The private apartments consist of a row of pavilions connected by a continuous water channel, known as the Nahr-i-Behisht (Stream of Paradise).
- The Red Fort is considered to represent the zenith of Mughal creativity which, under the Shah Jahan, was brought to a new level of refinement.
- The planning of the palace is based on Islamic prototypes, but each pavilion reveals architectural elements typical of Mughal building, reflecting a fusion of Persian, Timurid and Hindu traditions.
- The Red Fort’s innovative planning and architectural style, including the garden design, strongly influenced later buildings and gardens in Rajasthan, Delhi, Agra and further afield.
Statement 2 is correct
- Red Fort was recognised UNESCO World Heritage Centre in 2007.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Q5. {IC – Parliament} Consider the following statements about Parliamentary Privileges:
- Parliamentary privileges are absolute in nature and are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
- The parliamentary privileges also extend to the President of India.
- Both courts and Parliament have separate jurisdictions to address bribery by lawmakers.
- Parliamentary privileges are in conflict with Equality before law.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Parliamentary privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
- The members of Parliament are exempted from any civil or criminal liability for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
- It is important to note that parliamentary privileges are not absolute and are subject to certain limits.
- For example, MPs are expected to use their privileges responsibly and not abuse them for personal gain. Accepting bribes clearly violates this.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
- The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.
- This includes the attorney general of India and Union ministers.
- The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct
- Both the Court and Parliament can exercise jurisdiction to address bribery by lawmakers (Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislative Assembly).
- The court have clarified that both courts and Parliament have separate jurisdictions to address bribery by lawmakers.
- The House punishes for contempt, while courts handle criminal prosecution.
Statement 4 is correct
- Parliamentary privileges may sometimes conflict with other constitutional principles, such as equality before the law.
- For example, the privilege of immunity from arrest and legal process may be seen as giving members of parliament special privileges that are not available to other citizens.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Parliamentary privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
- The members of Parliament are exempted from any civil or criminal liability for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
- It is important to note that parliamentary privileges are not absolute and are subject to certain limits.
- For example, MPs are expected to use their privileges responsibly and not abuse them for personal gain. Accepting bribes clearly violates this.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
- The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.
- This includes the attorney general of India and Union ministers.
- The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct
- Both the Court and Parliament can exercise jurisdiction to address bribery by lawmakers (Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislative Assembly).
- The court have clarified that both courts and Parliament have separate jurisdictions to address bribery by lawmakers.
- The House punishes for contempt, while courts handle criminal prosecution.
Statement 4 is correct
- Parliamentary privileges may sometimes conflict with other constitutional principles, such as equality before the law.
- For example, the privilege of immunity from arrest and legal process may be seen as giving members of parliament special privileges that are not available to other citizens.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Parliamentary privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
- The members of Parliament are exempted from any civil or criminal liability for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
- It is important to note that parliamentary privileges are not absolute and are subject to certain limits.
- For example, MPs are expected to use their privileges responsibly and not abuse them for personal gain. Accepting bribes clearly violates this.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
- The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.
- This includes the attorney general of India and Union ministers.
- The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct
- Both the Court and Parliament can exercise jurisdiction to address bribery by lawmakers (Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislative Assembly).
- The court have clarified that both courts and Parliament have separate jurisdictions to address bribery by lawmakers.
- The House punishes for contempt, while courts handle criminal prosecution.
Statement 4 is correct
- Parliamentary privileges may sometimes conflict with other constitutional principles, such as equality before the law.
- For example, the privilege of immunity from arrest and legal process may be seen as giving members of parliament special privileges that are not available to other citizens.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – A&C – In News} Consider the following statements with respect to the Lalit Kala Akademi:
- It is an autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860 and inaugurated by then Minister of Education Mr. Humayun Kabir in 1954.
- The academy’s prime focus is on promoting Indian Art within India exclusively.
- Samkaleen Kala, is a hindi art journal published by Lalit Kala Akademi monthly.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Lalit Kala Akademi was inaugurated in New Delhi on August 5th, 1954, by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
- It is autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
- The organisation functions through its General Council, Executive Board and other Committees.
- The Lalit Kala Akademi was established in pursuance of the dream of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru for a cultural and national identity.
- The Sangeet Natak Akademi (SNA) was the first of the three to be established in 1953, followed shortly by Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA), and Sahitya Akademi (SA).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Lalit Kala Akademi is the Government’s apex cultural body in the field of visual arts in India.
- The Akademi is fully funded by the Ministry of Culture.
- The academy promotes Indian arts both within India and outside India.
- The Akademi conducts international exhibition on contemporary art in New Delhi every three years.
- It has headquarters at New Delhi and regional centres at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Shimla.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It publishes bi-annual art journals, Lalit Kala Contemporary (English), Lalit Kala Ancient (English) and Samkaleen Kala (Hindi).
- Lalit Kala Akademi National Exhibition of Art:
- It is held every year to exhibit works of brilliance and to give appreciation and recognition to outstanding artists.
- The exhibition covers artworks from extensive series of mediums like paintings, sculptures, graphics, photographs, drawings, installation and multimedia.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Lalit Kala Akademi was inaugurated in New Delhi on August 5th, 1954, by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
- It is autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
- The organisation functions through its General Council, Executive Board and other Committees.
- The Lalit Kala Akademi was established in pursuance of the dream of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru for a cultural and national identity.
- The Sangeet Natak Akademi (SNA) was the first of the three to be established in 1953, followed shortly by Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA), and Sahitya Akademi (SA).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Lalit Kala Akademi is the Government’s apex cultural body in the field of visual arts in India.
- The Akademi is fully funded by the Ministry of Culture.
- The academy promotes Indian arts both within India and outside India.
- The Akademi conducts international exhibition on contemporary art in New Delhi every three years.
- It has headquarters at New Delhi and regional centres at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Shimla.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It publishes bi-annual art journals, Lalit Kala Contemporary (English), Lalit Kala Ancient (English) and Samkaleen Kala (Hindi).
- Lalit Kala Akademi National Exhibition of Art:
- It is held every year to exhibit works of brilliance and to give appreciation and recognition to outstanding artists.
- The exhibition covers artworks from extensive series of mediums like paintings, sculptures, graphics, photographs, drawings, installation and multimedia.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Lalit Kala Akademi was inaugurated in New Delhi on August 5th, 1954, by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
- It is autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
- The organisation functions through its General Council, Executive Board and other Committees.
- The Lalit Kala Akademi was established in pursuance of the dream of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru for a cultural and national identity.
- The Sangeet Natak Akademi (SNA) was the first of the three to be established in 1953, followed shortly by Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA), and Sahitya Akademi (SA).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Lalit Kala Akademi is the Government’s apex cultural body in the field of visual arts in India.
- The Akademi is fully funded by the Ministry of Culture.
- The academy promotes Indian arts both within India and outside India.
- The Akademi conducts international exhibition on contemporary art in New Delhi every three years.
- It has headquarters at New Delhi and regional centres at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Shimla.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It publishes bi-annual art journals, Lalit Kala Contemporary (English), Lalit Kala Ancient (English) and Samkaleen Kala (Hindi).
- Lalit Kala Akademi National Exhibition of Art:
- It is held every year to exhibit works of brilliance and to give appreciation and recognition to outstanding artists.
- The exhibition covers artworks from extensive series of mediums like paintings, sculptures, graphics, photographs, drawings, installation and multimedia.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Q7. {Social Justice – PwD} Consider the following statements:
- Accessibility for individuals with disabilities in utilizing places and services is a fundamental right protected under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution.
- Despite the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act in place, many Indian films continue to be inaccessible to disabled viewers.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Accessibility for individuals with disabilities in utilizing places and services is not protected under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution.
- Instead, it is implicitly safeguarded under Article 19 and Article 15(2) of the Indian Constitution, along with the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, which emphasizes non-discrimination and inclusion for persons with disabilities.
Statement 2 is correct
- Despite the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act in place, many Indian films continue to be inaccessible to disabled viewers.
- While the RPWD Act mandates accessibility in various aspects of life, including transportation, education, and public services, its implementation in the entertainment industry remains inadequate.
- This inaccessibility primarily affects individuals with visual or hearing impairments, as many films lack features like audio descriptions, subtitling, or sign language interpretation, making it difficult for them to enjoy and understand the content fully.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Accessibility for individuals with disabilities in utilizing places and services is not protected under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution.
- Instead, it is implicitly safeguarded under Article 19 and Article 15(2) of the Indian Constitution, along with the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, which emphasizes non-discrimination and inclusion for persons with disabilities.
Statement 2 is correct
- Despite the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act in place, many Indian films continue to be inaccessible to disabled viewers.
- While the RPWD Act mandates accessibility in various aspects of life, including transportation, education, and public services, its implementation in the entertainment industry remains inadequate.
- This inaccessibility primarily affects individuals with visual or hearing impairments, as many films lack features like audio descriptions, subtitling, or sign language interpretation, making it difficult for them to enjoy and understand the content fully.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Accessibility for individuals with disabilities in utilizing places and services is not protected under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution.
- Instead, it is implicitly safeguarded under Article 19 and Article 15(2) of the Indian Constitution, along with the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, which emphasizes non-discrimination and inclusion for persons with disabilities.
Statement 2 is correct
- Despite the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act in place, many Indian films continue to be inaccessible to disabled viewers.
- While the RPWD Act mandates accessibility in various aspects of life, including transportation, education, and public services, its implementation in the entertainment industry remains inadequate.
- This inaccessibility primarily affects individuals with visual or hearing impairments, as many films lack features like audio descriptions, subtitling, or sign language interpretation, making it difficult for them to enjoy and understand the content fully.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – PIN} Cape Calimere, recently seen in news, is located in?
Correct
Explanation
- Annual wildlife census was conducted at Point Calimere by the Forest Department.
- Kodiakkarai also called Point Calimere or Cape Calimere, is a low headland of the Coromandel Coast, in the Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu.
- The Cape is located about 9 km south of Vedaranyam in the delta region of the Cauvery River and marks a nearly right-angle turn in the coastline.
- The area’s antiquity is evidenced by the Kodi Kuzhagar temple, built during the Chola period, and a Chola lighthouse, which was destroyed in the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.
- The forests of Kodiakkarai, also known the Vedaranyam forests, are one of the last remnants of the dry evergreen forests that were once typical of East Deccan dry evergreen forests ecoregion.
- Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary
- The Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary, created in 1967 and houses the famous bird sanctuary of Vedaranyam and the Talaignayar forests.
- It is designated as a Ramsar site.
- It is flanked by the Bay of Bengal in the east and Palk Strait in the south.
- It was created for the conservation of blackbuck (one of the four antelope species in India – Chinkara, Chausingha and Nilgai being the other three).
- It is home to the endangered endemic Indian blackbuck and is one of the few known wintering locations of spoon-billed sandpiper. It also holds large wintering populations of greater flamingos.
- The area is dotted with salt pans and these hold large crustacean populations that support the wintering bird life.
Answer: (a) South Asia; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Annual wildlife census was conducted at Point Calimere by the Forest Department.
- Kodiakkarai also called Point Calimere or Cape Calimere, is a low headland of the Coromandel Coast, in the Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu.
- The Cape is located about 9 km south of Vedaranyam in the delta region of the Cauvery River and marks a nearly right-angle turn in the coastline.
- The area’s antiquity is evidenced by the Kodi Kuzhagar temple, built during the Chola period, and a Chola lighthouse, which was destroyed in the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.
- The forests of Kodiakkarai, also known the Vedaranyam forests, are one of the last remnants of the dry evergreen forests that were once typical of East Deccan dry evergreen forests ecoregion.
- Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary
- The Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary, created in 1967 and houses the famous bird sanctuary of Vedaranyam and the Talaignayar forests.
- It is designated as a Ramsar site.
- It is flanked by the Bay of Bengal in the east and Palk Strait in the south.
- It was created for the conservation of blackbuck (one of the four antelope species in India – Chinkara, Chausingha and Nilgai being the other three).
- It is home to the endangered endemic Indian blackbuck and is one of the few known wintering locations of spoon-billed sandpiper. It also holds large wintering populations of greater flamingos.
- The area is dotted with salt pans and these hold large crustacean populations that support the wintering bird life.
Answer: (a) South Asia; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Annual wildlife census was conducted at Point Calimere by the Forest Department.
- Kodiakkarai also called Point Calimere or Cape Calimere, is a low headland of the Coromandel Coast, in the Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu.
- The Cape is located about 9 km south of Vedaranyam in the delta region of the Cauvery River and marks a nearly right-angle turn in the coastline.
- The area’s antiquity is evidenced by the Kodi Kuzhagar temple, built during the Chola period, and a Chola lighthouse, which was destroyed in the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.
- The forests of Kodiakkarai, also known the Vedaranyam forests, are one of the last remnants of the dry evergreen forests that were once typical of East Deccan dry evergreen forests ecoregion.
- Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary
- The Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary, created in 1967 and houses the famous bird sanctuary of Vedaranyam and the Talaignayar forests.
- It is designated as a Ramsar site.
- It is flanked by the Bay of Bengal in the east and Palk Strait in the south.
- It was created for the conservation of blackbuck (one of the four antelope species in India – Chinkara, Chausingha and Nilgai being the other three).
- It is home to the endangered endemic Indian blackbuck and is one of the few known wintering locations of spoon-billed sandpiper. It also holds large wintering populations of greater flamingos.
- The area is dotted with salt pans and these hold large crustacean populations that support the wintering bird life.
Answer: (a) South Asia; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Q9. {IR – UN} Consider the following statements:
- UN General Assembly resolutions usually offer recommendations, reflecting the collective stance of UN members on specific matters, while UN Security Council (UNSC) resolutions are perceived as more prescriptive and binding.
- Enforcement options of the UNSC resolutions is limited if the targeted country refuses to comply.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- UN General Assembly resolutions are generally non-binding and serve as recommendations that reflect the collective stance of UN members on specific issues.
- They represent the opinions and positions of the international community and guide the actions of member states.
- On the other hand, UN Security Council (UNSC) resolutions are considered more prescriptive and binding, as they have a stronger legal standing and can impose obligations on member states, particularly when it comes to matters of international peace and security.
Statement 2 is correct
- The enforcement options for UNSC resolutions are limited if the targeted country refuses to comply.
- The UNSC can authorize sanctions, peacekeeping operations, or even military action, but these measures often require cooperation from member states.
- If a targeted country defies a UNSC resolution, the council may have difficulty enforcing its decisions, as there are inherent limits to its power and authority within the international system.
- In such cases, the effectiveness of UNSC resolutions may rely on diplomatic pressure, international cooperation, or other indirect means to ensure compliance.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- UN General Assembly resolutions are generally non-binding and serve as recommendations that reflect the collective stance of UN members on specific issues.
- They represent the opinions and positions of the international community and guide the actions of member states.
- On the other hand, UN Security Council (UNSC) resolutions are considered more prescriptive and binding, as they have a stronger legal standing and can impose obligations on member states, particularly when it comes to matters of international peace and security.
Statement 2 is correct
- The enforcement options for UNSC resolutions are limited if the targeted country refuses to comply.
- The UNSC can authorize sanctions, peacekeeping operations, or even military action, but these measures often require cooperation from member states.
- If a targeted country defies a UNSC resolution, the council may have difficulty enforcing its decisions, as there are inherent limits to its power and authority within the international system.
- In such cases, the effectiveness of UNSC resolutions may rely on diplomatic pressure, international cooperation, or other indirect means to ensure compliance.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- UN General Assembly resolutions are generally non-binding and serve as recommendations that reflect the collective stance of UN members on specific issues.
- They represent the opinions and positions of the international community and guide the actions of member states.
- On the other hand, UN Security Council (UNSC) resolutions are considered more prescriptive and binding, as they have a stronger legal standing and can impose obligations on member states, particularly when it comes to matters of international peace and security.
Statement 2 is correct
- The enforcement options for UNSC resolutions are limited if the targeted country refuses to comply.
- The UNSC can authorize sanctions, peacekeeping operations, or even military action, but these measures often require cooperation from member states.
- If a targeted country defies a UNSC resolution, the council may have difficulty enforcing its decisions, as there are inherent limits to its power and authority within the international system.
- In such cases, the effectiveness of UNSC resolutions may rely on diplomatic pressure, international cooperation, or other indirect means to ensure compliance.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – S&T – In News} Recently, which space company has successfully test-fired the ‘Kalam-250’ at the propulsion testbed of the ISRO?
Correct
Explanation
- Skyroot Aerospace recently conducted a successful test-fire of the Kalam-250 at ISRO’s Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
- Kalam-250 is a high-strength carbon composite rocket motor, which uses solid fuel and a high-performance Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM) thermal protection system (TPS).
- It is a stage-2 of the Vikram-1 space launch vehicle.
- The stage includes a carbon ablative flex nozzle along with high-precision electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control of the vehicle, aiding in achieving the desired trajectory.
- The second stage of Vikram-1 will play a crucial role in the ascent of the launch vehicle, propelling it from the atmosphere to the deep vacuum of outer space.
Answer: (d) Skyroot Aerospace; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Skyroot Aerospace recently conducted a successful test-fire of the Kalam-250 at ISRO’s Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
- Kalam-250 is a high-strength carbon composite rocket motor, which uses solid fuel and a high-performance Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM) thermal protection system (TPS).
- It is a stage-2 of the Vikram-1 space launch vehicle.
- The stage includes a carbon ablative flex nozzle along with high-precision electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control of the vehicle, aiding in achieving the desired trajectory.
- The second stage of Vikram-1 will play a crucial role in the ascent of the launch vehicle, propelling it from the atmosphere to the deep vacuum of outer space.
Answer: (d) Skyroot Aerospace; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Skyroot Aerospace recently conducted a successful test-fire of the Kalam-250 at ISRO’s Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
- Kalam-250 is a high-strength carbon composite rocket motor, which uses solid fuel and a high-performance Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM) thermal protection system (TPS).
- It is a stage-2 of the Vikram-1 space launch vehicle.
- The stage includes a carbon ablative flex nozzle along with high-precision electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control of the vehicle, aiding in achieving the desired trajectory.
- The second stage of Vikram-1 will play a crucial role in the ascent of the launch vehicle, propelling it from the atmosphere to the deep vacuum of outer space.
Answer: (d) Skyroot Aerospace; Difficulty Level: Medium
Newsletter Updates
Subscribe to our newsletter and never miss an important update!
Assured Discounts on our New Products!