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Question 1 of 16
1. Question
Q1. {IC – Parliament – Elections} Consider the following statements:
The allocation of symbols in elections is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
If a recognized political party splits, the Election Commission decides on symbol allocation.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The allocation of symbols in elections falls under the jurisdiction of the Election Commission of India (ECI).
This process is governed by The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, which aims to define, reserve, and assign symbols for recognized political parties.
Symbols are classified as either reserved (reserved solely for recognized parties) or ‘free‘ (accessible to unacknowledged registered parties).
Exclusive symbols are allocated to recognized national and state parties.
Statement 2 is correct
The 1968 order gives the Election Commission power to handle symbol selection and allocation for parliamentary and assembly elections, aiming to recognize political parties.
Unregistered parties need to provide ten preferred symbolsfrom the commission’s list. They can also propose three new symbols with designs and names for consideration by the Commission.
These new symbols must meet certain criteria, avoiding similarity to existing symbols and steering clear of religious or communal connections or animal depictions.
If a recognized political party splits, the Election Commission decides on symbol allocation.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The allocation of symbols in elections falls under the jurisdiction of the Election Commission of India (ECI).
This process is governed by The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, which aims to define, reserve, and assign symbols for recognized political parties.
Symbols are classified as either reserved (reserved solely for recognized parties) or ‘free‘ (accessible to unacknowledged registered parties).
Exclusive symbols are allocated to recognized national and state parties.
Statement 2 is correct
The 1968 order gives the Election Commission power to handle symbol selection and allocation for parliamentary and assembly elections, aiming to recognize political parties.
Unregistered parties need to provide ten preferred symbolsfrom the commission’s list. They can also propose three new symbols with designs and names for consideration by the Commission.
These new symbols must meet certain criteria, avoiding similarity to existing symbols and steering clear of religious or communal connections or animal depictions.
If a recognized political party splits, the Election Commission decides on symbol allocation.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The allocation of symbols in elections falls under the jurisdiction of the Election Commission of India (ECI).
This process is governed by The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, which aims to define, reserve, and assign symbols for recognized political parties.
Symbols are classified as either reserved (reserved solely for recognized parties) or ‘free‘ (accessible to unacknowledged registered parties).
Exclusive symbols are allocated to recognized national and state parties.
Statement 2 is correct
The 1968 order gives the Election Commission power to handle symbol selection and allocation for parliamentary and assembly elections, aiming to recognize political parties.
Unregistered parties need to provide ten preferred symbolsfrom the commission’s list. They can also propose three new symbols with designs and names for consideration by the Commission.
These new symbols must meet certain criteria, avoiding similarity to existing symbols and steering clear of religious or communal connections or animal depictions.
If a recognized political party splits, the Election Commission decides on symbol allocation.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 16
2. Question
Q2. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements about Sannati Buddhist Site:
It is the ancient Buddhist site on the bank of Bhima River in Maharashtra.
A stone sculpture portraying Mauryan Emperor Ashoka has been found here.
Sannati is the largest Buddhist site in India excavated by the ASI.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Sannati was known as Ranamandal about 2000 years ago
Statement 2 is correct
It is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Ranamandala area of Sannati offers a unique chronological scale from prehistoric to early historic times.
An inscription written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script is also found here.
The excavation also recovered another precious stone of historical importance – a stone sculpture portraying Mauryan Emperor Ashoka.
The emperor is seen surrounded by his queens and female attendants in this rare sculpture.
The sculpture had the words “Raya Asoko” etched on it in Brahmi script leaving little scope for mistaking the identity of the man featured in it.
Statement 3 is correct
Sannati is the largest Buddhist site in India excavated by the ASI.
Maha Stupa – An ‘abandoned well’ was turned out to be the Maha Stupa, which was referred to as Adholoka Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the netherworlds) in the inscriptions.
The Maha Stupa is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Built using lime stone, the Maha Stupa is believed to be one of the largest of its time.
Sannati was known as Ranamandal about 2000 years ago
Statement 2 is correct
It is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Ranamandala area of Sannati offers a unique chronological scale from prehistoric to early historic times.
An inscription written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script is also found here.
The excavation also recovered another precious stone of historical importance – a stone sculpture portraying Mauryan Emperor Ashoka.
The emperor is seen surrounded by his queens and female attendants in this rare sculpture.
The sculpture had the words “Raya Asoko” etched on it in Brahmi script leaving little scope for mistaking the identity of the man featured in it.
Statement 3 is correct
Sannati is the largest Buddhist site in India excavated by the ASI.
Maha Stupa – An ‘abandoned well’ was turned out to be the Maha Stupa, which was referred to as Adholoka Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the netherworlds) in the inscriptions.
The Maha Stupa is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Built using lime stone, the Maha Stupa is believed to be one of the largest of its time.
Sannati was known as Ranamandal about 2000 years ago
Statement 2 is correct
It is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Ranamandala area of Sannati offers a unique chronological scale from prehistoric to early historic times.
An inscription written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script is also found here.
The excavation also recovered another precious stone of historical importance – a stone sculpture portraying Mauryan Emperor Ashoka.
The emperor is seen surrounded by his queens and female attendants in this rare sculpture.
The sculpture had the words “Raya Asoko” etched on it in Brahmi script leaving little scope for mistaking the identity of the man featured in it.
Statement 3 is correct
Sannati is the largest Buddhist site in India excavated by the ASI.
Maha Stupa – An ‘abandoned well’ was turned out to be the Maha Stupa, which was referred to as Adholoka Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the netherworlds) in the inscriptions.
The Maha Stupa is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Built using lime stone, the Maha Stupa is believed to be one of the largest of its time.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 16
3. Question
Q3. {Parliament – Federalism} Consider the following statements with respect to WHIP:
The office of whip is neither mentioned in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute.
The importance of a whip can be inferred from the number of times an order is underlined.
Only National Parties can issue Whip to their members.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the Housenor in a Parliamentary Statute.
It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Statement 2 is correct
Whips can be of varying degrees of seriousness.
The importance of a whip can be inferred from the number of times an order is underlined.
A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
A two-line whipdirects them to be present during the vote.
A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion and places an obligation on members to toe the party line.
Statement 3 is incorrect
With respect to parliament, a whip is a written order that party members be present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way.
It can also refer to a designated official (Chief Whip) authorised by a partyto issue a whip.
In India, all parties can issue whips to their members.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the Housenor in a Parliamentary Statute.
It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Statement 2 is correct
Whips can be of varying degrees of seriousness.
The importance of a whip can be inferred from the number of times an order is underlined.
A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
A two-line whipdirects them to be present during the vote.
A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion and places an obligation on members to toe the party line.
Statement 3 is incorrect
With respect to parliament, a whip is a written order that party members be present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way.
It can also refer to a designated official (Chief Whip) authorised by a partyto issue a whip.
In India, all parties can issue whips to their members.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the Housenor in a Parliamentary Statute.
It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Statement 2 is correct
Whips can be of varying degrees of seriousness.
The importance of a whip can be inferred from the number of times an order is underlined.
A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
A two-line whipdirects them to be present during the vote.
A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion and places an obligation on members to toe the party line.
Statement 3 is incorrect
With respect to parliament, a whip is a written order that party members be present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way.
It can also refer to a designated official (Chief Whip) authorised by a partyto issue a whip.
In India, all parties can issue whips to their members.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 16
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – Internal Security} Consider the following statements with respect to Nuclear Command Authority (NCA):
It is the authority responsible for command, control, and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
Strategic Nuclear Command is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s nuclear weapons stockpile.
Home Minister of India chairs the Executive Council of NCA.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Nuclear Command Authority is the authority responsible for command, control, and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
It comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council.
On 4 January 2003, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) constituted the Political Council and the Executive Council of the NCA. The Executive Council gives its opinion to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack when deemed necessary.
Statement 2 is correct
Strategic Forces Command (SFC), sometimes called Strategic Nuclear Command, forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA), which is responsible for command-and-control decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
SFC is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile.
It was created on January 4, 2003.
It has the sole responsibility of initiating the process of delivering nuclear weapons and warheads after acquiringclear approval from the NCA.
Moreover, the final target selection is also done by the SFC through a calibrated, cumulative process involving various levels of decision-making, including formal approval from the NCA.
The SFC manages and administers all strategic forces by exercising complete command and control over nuclear assets, and producing all contingency plans as needed to fulfill the required tasks.
Statement 3 is incorrect
While the Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor (NSA), the Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
This mechanism was implemented to ensure that Indian nukes remain firmly in civilian control and that there exists a sophisticated Command and Control (C2) mechanism to prevent their accidental or unauthorised use.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Nuclear Command Authority is the authority responsible for command, control, and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
It comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council.
On 4 January 2003, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) constituted the Political Council and the Executive Council of the NCA. The Executive Council gives its opinion to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack when deemed necessary.
Statement 2 is correct
Strategic Forces Command (SFC), sometimes called Strategic Nuclear Command, forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA), which is responsible for command-and-control decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
SFC is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile.
It was created on January 4, 2003.
It has the sole responsibility of initiating the process of delivering nuclear weapons and warheads after acquiringclear approval from the NCA.
Moreover, the final target selection is also done by the SFC through a calibrated, cumulative process involving various levels of decision-making, including formal approval from the NCA.
The SFC manages and administers all strategic forces by exercising complete command and control over nuclear assets, and producing all contingency plans as needed to fulfill the required tasks.
Statement 3 is incorrect
While the Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor (NSA), the Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
This mechanism was implemented to ensure that Indian nukes remain firmly in civilian control and that there exists a sophisticated Command and Control (C2) mechanism to prevent their accidental or unauthorised use.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Nuclear Command Authority is the authority responsible for command, control, and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
It comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council.
On 4 January 2003, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) constituted the Political Council and the Executive Council of the NCA. The Executive Council gives its opinion to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack when deemed necessary.
Statement 2 is correct
Strategic Forces Command (SFC), sometimes called Strategic Nuclear Command, forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA), which is responsible for command-and-control decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
SFC is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile.
It was created on January 4, 2003.
It has the sole responsibility of initiating the process of delivering nuclear weapons and warheads after acquiringclear approval from the NCA.
Moreover, the final target selection is also done by the SFC through a calibrated, cumulative process involving various levels of decision-making, including formal approval from the NCA.
The SFC manages and administers all strategic forces by exercising complete command and control over nuclear assets, and producing all contingency plans as needed to fulfill the required tasks.
Statement 3 is incorrect
While the Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor (NSA), the Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
This mechanism was implemented to ensure that Indian nukes remain firmly in civilian control and that there exists a sophisticated Command and Control (C2) mechanism to prevent their accidental or unauthorised use.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 5 of 16
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – MIH – Freedom Struggle} Consider the following statements:
In 1915, the Provisional Government of India was formed in Kabul by a group known as the Indian Independence Committee under the presidency of Raja Mahendra Pratap.
In 1943 the provincial government of free India was formed by Subhash Chandra Bose with Ras Behari Bose being designated as the supreme adviser to Netaji.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
28 years before the Azad Hind government came into existence, the Provisional Government of India was formed in Kabul by a group known as the Indian Independence Committee (IIC).
On 1 December 1915Raja MahendraPratap established the first Provisional Government of India at Kabul in Afghanistan as a government-in-exile of Free Hindustan, with himself as President, MaulaviBarkatullah as Prime Minister, and Maulana Ubaidullah Sindhi as Home Minister.
Barkatullah was also one of the founders of the Ghadar movement, which began in California in 1913, and aimed to overthrow British rule in India.
While the movement was crushed in India by the end of the War, the Ghadarite left a strong and lasting impression on Indians and the British.
The Kabul provisional government was one of many moves orchestrated by Ghadarite revolutionaries.
Statement 2 is correct
Subhas Chandra Bose proclaimed the formation of the Provisional Government of Azad Hind in Singapore on October 21, 1943.
Ras Behari Bose selected the flag for the Azad Hind movement and handed over the flag and the power to Subhas Chandra Bose but his organizational structure remained which was built on the organizational spadework of Rash Behari Bose.
Netaji was the Head of State of this provisional government, and held the foreign affairs and war portfolios. A C Chatterjee was in charge of finance, S A Ayer became minister of publicity and propaganda, and Lakshmi Swaminathan was given the ministry of women’s affairs. A number of officers from Bose’s Azad Hind Fauj were also given cabinet posts.
The Azad Hind government claimed authority over all Indian civilian and military personnel in Britain’s Southeast Asian colonies (primarily Burma, Singapore, and Malaya) which had fallen into Japanese hands during World War II. It also claimed prospective authority over all Indian territory that would be taken by Japanese forces, and Bose’s Azad Hind Fauj, as they attacked British India’s northeastern frontier.
Diplomatically, Bose’s government was recognised by the Axis powers and their satellites: Germany, Japan, and Italy, as well as Nazi and Japanese puppet states in Croatia, China, Thailand, Burma, Manchuria, and the Philippines. Immediately after its formation, the Azad Hind government declared war on Britain and the United States.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
28 years before the Azad Hind government came into existence, the Provisional Government of India was formed in Kabul by a group known as the Indian Independence Committee (IIC).
On 1 December 1915Raja MahendraPratap established the first Provisional Government of India at Kabul in Afghanistan as a government-in-exile of Free Hindustan, with himself as President, MaulaviBarkatullah as Prime Minister, and Maulana Ubaidullah Sindhi as Home Minister.
Barkatullah was also one of the founders of the Ghadar movement, which began in California in 1913, and aimed to overthrow British rule in India.
While the movement was crushed in India by the end of the War, the Ghadarite left a strong and lasting impression on Indians and the British.
The Kabul provisional government was one of many moves orchestrated by Ghadarite revolutionaries.
Statement 2 is correct
Subhas Chandra Bose proclaimed the formation of the Provisional Government of Azad Hind in Singapore on October 21, 1943.
Ras Behari Bose selected the flag for the Azad Hind movement and handed over the flag and the power to Subhas Chandra Bose but his organizational structure remained which was built on the organizational spadework of Rash Behari Bose.
Netaji was the Head of State of this provisional government, and held the foreign affairs and war portfolios. A C Chatterjee was in charge of finance, S A Ayer became minister of publicity and propaganda, and Lakshmi Swaminathan was given the ministry of women’s affairs. A number of officers from Bose’s Azad Hind Fauj were also given cabinet posts.
The Azad Hind government claimed authority over all Indian civilian and military personnel in Britain’s Southeast Asian colonies (primarily Burma, Singapore, and Malaya) which had fallen into Japanese hands during World War II. It also claimed prospective authority over all Indian territory that would be taken by Japanese forces, and Bose’s Azad Hind Fauj, as they attacked British India’s northeastern frontier.
Diplomatically, Bose’s government was recognised by the Axis powers and their satellites: Germany, Japan, and Italy, as well as Nazi and Japanese puppet states in Croatia, China, Thailand, Burma, Manchuria, and the Philippines. Immediately after its formation, the Azad Hind government declared war on Britain and the United States.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
28 years before the Azad Hind government came into existence, the Provisional Government of India was formed in Kabul by a group known as the Indian Independence Committee (IIC).
On 1 December 1915Raja MahendraPratap established the first Provisional Government of India at Kabul in Afghanistan as a government-in-exile of Free Hindustan, with himself as President, MaulaviBarkatullah as Prime Minister, and Maulana Ubaidullah Sindhi as Home Minister.
Barkatullah was also one of the founders of the Ghadar movement, which began in California in 1913, and aimed to overthrow British rule in India.
While the movement was crushed in India by the end of the War, the Ghadarite left a strong and lasting impression on Indians and the British.
The Kabul provisional government was one of many moves orchestrated by Ghadarite revolutionaries.
Statement 2 is correct
Subhas Chandra Bose proclaimed the formation of the Provisional Government of Azad Hind in Singapore on October 21, 1943.
Ras Behari Bose selected the flag for the Azad Hind movement and handed over the flag and the power to Subhas Chandra Bose but his organizational structure remained which was built on the organizational spadework of Rash Behari Bose.
Netaji was the Head of State of this provisional government, and held the foreign affairs and war portfolios. A C Chatterjee was in charge of finance, S A Ayer became minister of publicity and propaganda, and Lakshmi Swaminathan was given the ministry of women’s affairs. A number of officers from Bose’s Azad Hind Fauj were also given cabinet posts.
The Azad Hind government claimed authority over all Indian civilian and military personnel in Britain’s Southeast Asian colonies (primarily Burma, Singapore, and Malaya) which had fallen into Japanese hands during World War II. It also claimed prospective authority over all Indian territory that would be taken by Japanese forces, and Bose’s Azad Hind Fauj, as they attacked British India’s northeastern frontier.
Diplomatically, Bose’s government was recognised by the Axis powers and their satellites: Germany, Japan, and Italy, as well as Nazi and Japanese puppet states in Croatia, China, Thailand, Burma, Manchuria, and the Philippines. Immediately after its formation, the Azad Hind government declared war on Britain and the United States.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 6 of 16
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – S&T – Defence} Consider the following statements about Agnibaan SOrTeD:
It is the world’s first single piece 3D printed semi-cryogenic rocket engine.
It is three-stage launch vehicle developed by AgniKul Cosmos, an IIT Madras incubated space start up.
It will be launched from India’s first private launchpad, ALP-01,located inside the Indian space agency ISRO’s Sriharikota spaceport.
The rocket engine will burn kerosene in liquid oxygen and can be directly used in the rocket.
It has the capability to carry a 100-kg payload up to a height of 700 km with a lift of mass of 14,000 Kgs.
It can access both low and high-inclination orbits and is completely mobile.
It will also have the first everEthernet-based avionics architecture and fully in-house developedautopilot software from India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
AgniKul Cosmos is an IIT Madras incubated space start up based in Chennai.
It was established in 2017.
It became the first company in the country to sign an agreement with ISRO under the IN-SPACe initiative to have access to the space agency’s expertise and its facilities to build Agnibaan in December 2020.
In 2022, Agnikul inaugurated India’s first private launchpad and mission control centre at Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
It will be launched from India’s first private launchpad, ALP-01,located inside the Indian space agency ISRO’s Sriharikota spaceport.
The rocket engine will burn kerosene in liquid oxygen and can be directly used in the rocket.
It has the capability to carry a 100-kg payload up to a height of 700 km with a lift of mass of 14,000 Kgs.
It can access both low and high-inclination orbits and is completely mobile.
It will also have the first everEthernet-based avionics architecture and fully in-house developedautopilot software from India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
AgniKul Cosmos is an IIT Madras incubated space start up based in Chennai.
It was established in 2017.
It became the first company in the country to sign an agreement with ISRO under the IN-SPACe initiative to have access to the space agency’s expertise and its facilities to build Agnibaan in December 2020.
In 2022, Agnikul inaugurated India’s first private launchpad and mission control centre at Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
It will be launched from India’s first private launchpad, ALP-01,located inside the Indian space agency ISRO’s Sriharikota spaceport.
The rocket engine will burn kerosene in liquid oxygen and can be directly used in the rocket.
It has the capability to carry a 100-kg payload up to a height of 700 km with a lift of mass of 14,000 Kgs.
It can access both low and high-inclination orbits and is completely mobile.
It will also have the first everEthernet-based avionics architecture and fully in-house developedautopilot software from India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
AgniKul Cosmos is an IIT Madras incubated space start up based in Chennai.
It was established in 2017.
It became the first company in the country to sign an agreement with ISRO under the IN-SPACe initiative to have access to the space agency’s expertise and its facilities to build Agnibaan in December 2020.
In 2022, Agnikul inaugurated India’s first private launchpad and mission control centre at Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 7 of 16
7. Question
Q7. {Sci – Bio} Consider the following statements about Ribosomes?
Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound cell organelles made of RNA and proteins.
All prokaryotic ribosomes are found free in the cytoplasm of the cell.
Every cell needs ribosomes to manufacture proteins.
Which of of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound cell organelles made of RNA and proteins.
They are made of two subunits, the large and the small subunit which comprises ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
Statement 2 is correct
They are found in bothprokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
In eukaryotic organisms, ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm, mitochondria, and chloroplast.
Allprokaryoticribosomes are found free in the cytoplasm of the cell.
Statement 3 is correct
Ribosomes are complexmolecular machines that make proteins from amino acids in a process called protein synthesis, or translation.
Every cell needs ribosomes to manufacture proteins.
The ribosome reads the messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence and translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.
The newly formed proteins detach themselves from the ribosome site and migrate to other parts of the cell for use.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound cell organelles made of RNA and proteins.
They are made of two subunits, the large and the small subunit which comprises ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
Statement 2 is correct
They are found in bothprokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
In eukaryotic organisms, ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm, mitochondria, and chloroplast.
Allprokaryoticribosomes are found free in the cytoplasm of the cell.
Statement 3 is correct
Ribosomes are complexmolecular machines that make proteins from amino acids in a process called protein synthesis, or translation.
Every cell needs ribosomes to manufacture proteins.
The ribosome reads the messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence and translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.
The newly formed proteins detach themselves from the ribosome site and migrate to other parts of the cell for use.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound cell organelles made of RNA and proteins.
They are made of two subunits, the large and the small subunit which comprises ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
Statement 2 is correct
They are found in bothprokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
In eukaryotic organisms, ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm, mitochondria, and chloroplast.
Allprokaryoticribosomes are found free in the cytoplasm of the cell.
Statement 3 is correct
Ribosomes are complexmolecular machines that make proteins from amino acids in a process called protein synthesis, or translation.
Every cell needs ribosomes to manufacture proteins.
The ribosome reads the messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence and translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.
The newly formed proteins detach themselves from the ribosome site and migrate to other parts of the cell for use.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 8 of 16
8. Question
Q8. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements about Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI):
It is geoengineering approach that uses Aerosols to reflect sunlight into space in order to reverse or stop global warming.
It aims to mimic the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions by injecting sulfur dioxide (SO2) directly into the stratosphere.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI), also known as Stratospheric Aerosol Injection, is a geoengineering or climate engineering approach that uses tiny reflective particles or aerosols to reflect sunlight into space in order to cool the planet and reverse or stop global warming.
It is believed that as more radiation is scattered in the stratosphere by aerosols, less would be absorbed by the troposphere, the lower level of the atmosphere where weather primarily occurs.
It aims to mimic the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions by injecting sulfur dioxide (SO2) directly into the stratosphere, where it forms sunlight-reflectingsulfate aerosols.
The 1991 eruption of Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines, often cited as the inspiration for this concept, deposited massive amounts of particulate matter and sulfur dioxide (SO2) into the atmosphere.
This aerosol layer was reported to have lowered average temperatures around the world by about 0.5 °C (0.9 °F) over the following few years.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI), also known as Stratospheric Aerosol Injection, is a geoengineering or climate engineering approach that uses tiny reflective particles or aerosols to reflect sunlight into space in order to cool the planet and reverse or stop global warming.
It is believed that as more radiation is scattered in the stratosphere by aerosols, less would be absorbed by the troposphere, the lower level of the atmosphere where weather primarily occurs.
It aims to mimic the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions by injecting sulfur dioxide (SO2) directly into the stratosphere, where it forms sunlight-reflectingsulfate aerosols.
The 1991 eruption of Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines, often cited as the inspiration for this concept, deposited massive amounts of particulate matter and sulfur dioxide (SO2) into the atmosphere.
This aerosol layer was reported to have lowered average temperatures around the world by about 0.5 °C (0.9 °F) over the following few years.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI), also known as Stratospheric Aerosol Injection, is a geoengineering or climate engineering approach that uses tiny reflective particles or aerosols to reflect sunlight into space in order to cool the planet and reverse or stop global warming.
It is believed that as more radiation is scattered in the stratosphere by aerosols, less would be absorbed by the troposphere, the lower level of the atmosphere where weather primarily occurs.
It aims to mimic the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions by injecting sulfur dioxide (SO2) directly into the stratosphere, where it forms sunlight-reflectingsulfate aerosols.
The 1991 eruption of Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines, often cited as the inspiration for this concept, deposited massive amounts of particulate matter and sulfur dioxide (SO2) into the atmosphere.
This aerosol layer was reported to have lowered average temperatures around the world by about 0.5 °C (0.9 °F) over the following few years.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 9 of 16
9. Question
Q9. {Governance – Initiatives} Consider the following statements with respect to Suvidha Portal:
It is a technological solution developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure a level playing field in elections.
The portal eases the complex process of filing candidates assets in 2024 Lok Sabha elections.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Suvidha Portal is a technological solution developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure a level playing field upholding the democratic principles of free, fair, and transparent elections.
Statement 2 is incorrect
It streamlined the process of obtaining and acting upon requests for permissions and facilities from political parties and candidates during the election period.
It caters to permissions for organising rallies, opening temporary party offices, door-to-door canvassing, video vans, helicopters, obtaining vehicle permits, distributing pamphlets.
Furthermore, the permission data available on the portal serves as a valuable resource for scrutinising election expenditures, contributing to greater accountability and integrity in the electoral process.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Suvidha Portal is a technological solution developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure a level playing field upholding the democratic principles of free, fair, and transparent elections.
Statement 2 is incorrect
It streamlined the process of obtaining and acting upon requests for permissions and facilities from political parties and candidates during the election period.
It caters to permissions for organising rallies, opening temporary party offices, door-to-door canvassing, video vans, helicopters, obtaining vehicle permits, distributing pamphlets.
Furthermore, the permission data available on the portal serves as a valuable resource for scrutinising election expenditures, contributing to greater accountability and integrity in the electoral process.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Suvidha Portal is a technological solution developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure a level playing field upholding the democratic principles of free, fair, and transparent elections.
Statement 2 is incorrect
It streamlined the process of obtaining and acting upon requests for permissions and facilities from political parties and candidates during the election period.
It caters to permissions for organising rallies, opening temporary party offices, door-to-door canvassing, video vans, helicopters, obtaining vehicle permits, distributing pamphlets.
Furthermore, the permission data available on the portal serves as a valuable resource for scrutinising election expenditures, contributing to greater accountability and integrity in the electoral process.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 10 of 16
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – In News} Kumittipathi Rock Paintings, prehistoric paintings recently seen in news, is found in which of the following state?
Correct
Explanation
Kumittipathi Rock Paintings are believed to be around 3,000 years old and are among the important rock arts in the Kongu region.
Theme: The paintings depict an elephant, and the lives of early dwellers of the region.
There are small pits and holes in the cave, which are believed to have been used to store water and other belongings.
Material used: They used an inorganic white pigment, along with natural gum to paint the figures.
While most of the rock painting sites in Tamil Nadu are found on rock shelters, those at Kumittipathi are drawn inside a cave.
Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Kumittipathi Rock Paintings are believed to be around 3,000 years old and are among the important rock arts in the Kongu region.
Theme: The paintings depict an elephant, and the lives of early dwellers of the region.
There are small pits and holes in the cave, which are believed to have been used to store water and other belongings.
Material used: They used an inorganic white pigment, along with natural gum to paint the figures.
While most of the rock painting sites in Tamil Nadu are found on rock shelters, those at Kumittipathi are drawn inside a cave.
Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Kumittipathi Rock Paintings are believed to be around 3,000 years old and are among the important rock arts in the Kongu region.
Theme: The paintings depict an elephant, and the lives of early dwellers of the region.
There are small pits and holes in the cave, which are believed to have been used to store water and other belongings.
Material used: They used an inorganic white pigment, along with natural gum to paint the figures.
While most of the rock painting sites in Tamil Nadu are found on rock shelters, those at Kumittipathi are drawn inside a cave.
Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 11 of 16
11. Question
Q11. {Judiciary – Dispute Redressal Mechanisms} Consider the following statements about Lok Adalats:
Lok Adalat is one of the Alternative Dispute Redressal (ADR) mechanisms.
Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
There is no provision for an appeal against the decision If the parties are not satisfied with the decision of the Lok Adalat.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
NALSA – The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats.
ADR – Lok Adalat is one of the Alternative Dispute Redressal (ADR) mechanisms.
It is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/compromised amicably.
Statement 2 is correct
LokAdalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.
Statement 3 is correct
Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law.
If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat there is no provision for an appeal against such an award.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
NALSA – The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats.
ADR – Lok Adalat is one of the Alternative Dispute Redressal (ADR) mechanisms.
It is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/compromised amicably.
Statement 2 is correct
LokAdalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.
Statement 3 is correct
Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law.
If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat there is no provision for an appeal against such an award.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
NALSA – The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats.
ADR – Lok Adalat is one of the Alternative Dispute Redressal (ADR) mechanisms.
It is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/compromised amicably.
Statement 2 is correct
LokAdalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.
Statement 3 is correct
Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law.
If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat there is no provision for an appeal against such an award.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 12 of 16
12. Question
Q12. {Geo – PG – Climatology} Consider the following statements about Polar Vortex:
The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
Polar Vortex is not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The term vortex refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder airnear the Poles.
The polar vortex sits in the stratosphere, which starts at around 6–20 kilometers above the planet’s surface and reaches roughly 50 kilometers above.
The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream.
Polar Vortex is not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface.
Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 13 of 16
13. Question
Q13. {Prelims – RBI – Digital Payments} Which of the following statement about Unified Payment Interface (UPI) is not correct?
Correct
Explanation
UPI is the indigenous digital payment system in India that was conceptualized and operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2016.
It powers multiple bank accountsinto a single mobile application merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
UPI Lite
UPI Lite will be an on-device wallet functionality that will enable offline transactions of smaller values.
UPI Lite will work via the wallet system.
Funds have to be added in the UPI Lite wallet and which can be used to make small payments under Rs 200.
There is an Rs 2,000 limit on the amount of money you can have in this UPI Lite wallet.
The users will not be required to enter their UPI PIN while confirming UPI Lite payments.
Answer: (c) The users will be required to enter their UPI PIN while confirming UPI Lite payments; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
UPI is the indigenous digital payment system in India that was conceptualized and operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2016.
It powers multiple bank accountsinto a single mobile application merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
UPI Lite
UPI Lite will be an on-device wallet functionality that will enable offline transactions of smaller values.
UPI Lite will work via the wallet system.
Funds have to be added in the UPI Lite wallet and which can be used to make small payments under Rs 200.
There is an Rs 2,000 limit on the amount of money you can have in this UPI Lite wallet.
The users will not be required to enter their UPI PIN while confirming UPI Lite payments.
Answer: (c) The users will be required to enter their UPI PIN while confirming UPI Lite payments; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
UPI is the indigenous digital payment system in India that was conceptualized and operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2016.
It powers multiple bank accountsinto a single mobile application merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
UPI Lite
UPI Lite will be an on-device wallet functionality that will enable offline transactions of smaller values.
UPI Lite will work via the wallet system.
Funds have to be added in the UPI Lite wallet and which can be used to make small payments under Rs 200.
There is an Rs 2,000 limit on the amount of money you can have in this UPI Lite wallet.
The users will not be required to enter their UPI PIN while confirming UPI Lite payments.
Answer: (c) The users will be required to enter their UPI PIN while confirming UPI Lite payments; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 14 of 16
14. Question
Q14. {Prelims – IE – Capital Markets} Consider the following statements with respect to the Exchange Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCDs):
ETCDs are standardized financial contracts that are traded in stock exchanges.
Exchange-traded currency contracts are always bought in pairs and are administered by the RBI.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
ETCD is a standardized financial contract that is traded in stock exchanges in a regulated manner.
ETCD are essentially contracts, deriving values from the price fluctuation of their underlying assets.
There are two types of derivatives:
One that is subject to standardized terms and conditions, and hence being traded in the stock exchanges, which is known as Exchange Traded Derivatives (ETDs).
For ex, Stock ETDs, Index ETDs, Currency ETDs, Commodity ETDs, and Bond ETDs.
Second type being traded between private counter-parties, in the absence of a formal intermediary, which is known as Over the Counter (OTC) derivatives.
ETCD are essentially contracts, deriving values from the price fluctuation of their underlying assets.
There are two types of derivatives:
One that is subject to standardized terms and conditions, and hence being traded in the stock exchanges, which is known as Exchange Traded Derivatives (ETDs).
For ex, Stock ETDs, Index ETDs, Currency ETDs, Commodity ETDs, and Bond ETDs.
Second type being traded between private counter-parties, in the absence of a formal intermediary, which is known as Over the Counter (OTC) derivatives.
ETCD are essentially contracts, deriving values from the price fluctuation of their underlying assets.
There are two types of derivatives:
One that is subject to standardized terms and conditions, and hence being traded in the stock exchanges, which is known as Exchange Traded Derivatives (ETDs).
For ex, Stock ETDs, Index ETDs, Currency ETDs, Commodity ETDs, and Bond ETDs.
Second type being traded between private counter-parties, in the absence of a formal intermediary, which is known as Over the Counter (OTC) derivatives.
However, exchange-traded currency contracts are always bought in pairs, as,
Indian Rupee vs United States Dollar (USD-INR)
Indian Rupee vs Euro (EUR-INR)
Indian Rupee vs Great Britain Pound (GBP-INR)
Indian Rupee vs Japan’s Yen (JPY-INR)
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 15 of 16
15. Question
Q15. {Prelims – S&T – IPR} Consider the following statements with respect to Well-Known Trademarks:
Both trademarks and well-known trademarks are governed under the purview of the Trademarks Act, 1999.
A well-known mark can be both licensed and franchised to others.
The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of well-known trademarks of both Indian and foreign trademarks.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks.
Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
A well-known mark adds value to a brand and increases its reputation in the market.
Statement 2 is correct
A well-known mark can be licensed or franchised to others.
Criteria – The Indian Trademarks Act provides several factors that can be considered when determining whether a trademark is well-known, including:
The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India.
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark in India.
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
The degree of inherent or acquireddistinctiveness of the mark.
The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Statement 3 is correct
The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of famous trademark in India.
This list includes both Indian and foreign trademarks.
Some of the well-known marks in India include, Amul, Coca-Cola, Bisleri, Google, Pepsi, Nestle, McDonald’s, Samsung, LG, Nike, BMW, Mercedes-Benz, Sony, Nokia, and Adidas.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks.
Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
A well-known mark adds value to a brand and increases its reputation in the market.
Statement 2 is correct
A well-known mark can be licensed or franchised to others.
Criteria – The Indian Trademarks Act provides several factors that can be considered when determining whether a trademark is well-known, including:
The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India.
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark in India.
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
The degree of inherent or acquireddistinctiveness of the mark.
The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Statement 3 is correct
The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of famous trademark in India.
This list includes both Indian and foreign trademarks.
Some of the well-known marks in India include, Amul, Coca-Cola, Bisleri, Google, Pepsi, Nestle, McDonald’s, Samsung, LG, Nike, BMW, Mercedes-Benz, Sony, Nokia, and Adidas.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks.
Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
A well-known mark adds value to a brand and increases its reputation in the market.
Statement 2 is correct
A well-known mark can be licensed or franchised to others.
Criteria – The Indian Trademarks Act provides several factors that can be considered when determining whether a trademark is well-known, including:
The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India.
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark in India.
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
The degree of inherent or acquireddistinctiveness of the mark.
The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Statement 3 is correct
The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of famous trademark in India.
This list includes both Indian and foreign trademarks.
Some of the well-known marks in India include, Amul, Coca-Cola, Bisleri, Google, Pepsi, Nestle, McDonald’s, Samsung, LG, Nike, BMW, Mercedes-Benz, Sony, Nokia, and Adidas.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 16 of 16
16. Question
Q16. {Prelims – In News} The Jenu Kuruba Tribal Community belongs to which of the following state?
Correct
Explanation
Jenu in Kannada means honey and Kuruba is the caste.
As the name suggests, they are a traditional honey gathering tribe.
They are also known as Kattunayakkars (King of the forest).
They are among the original inhabitants of the forests of the Western Ghats that stretch over three states, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
Majority of the Jenu Kurubas are from Karnataka and post 1970s, they are relocated around Nagarhole and Bandipur forests to enable tiger conservation project.
BidruKotta, a bamboo percussive instrument is played by the tribe.
The main occupation used to be food gathering in the forests, collection of minor forest produce in the forests, collection of minor forest produce including honey.
They live in small settlements called Hadi.
They practice agriculture as a subsidiary occupation.
Instead of ploughing the field, they scratch the surface with a sort of bamboo spear.
Jenu in Kannada means honey and Kuruba is the caste.
As the name suggests, they are a traditional honey gathering tribe.
They are also known as Kattunayakkars (King of the forest).
They are among the original inhabitants of the forests of the Western Ghats that stretch over three states, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
Majority of the Jenu Kurubas are from Karnataka and post 1970s, they are relocated around Nagarhole and Bandipur forests to enable tiger conservation project.
BidruKotta, a bamboo percussive instrument is played by the tribe.
The main occupation used to be food gathering in the forests, collection of minor forest produce in the forests, collection of minor forest produce including honey.
They live in small settlements called Hadi.
They practice agriculture as a subsidiary occupation.
Instead of ploughing the field, they scratch the surface with a sort of bamboo spear.
Jenu in Kannada means honey and Kuruba is the caste.
As the name suggests, they are a traditional honey gathering tribe.
They are also known as Kattunayakkars (King of the forest).
They are among the original inhabitants of the forests of the Western Ghats that stretch over three states, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
Majority of the Jenu Kurubas are from Karnataka and post 1970s, they are relocated around Nagarhole and Bandipur forests to enable tiger conservation project.
BidruKotta, a bamboo percussive instrument is played by the tribe.
The main occupation used to be food gathering in the forests, collection of minor forest produce in the forests, collection of minor forest produce including honey.
They live in small settlements called Hadi.
They practice agriculture as a subsidiary occupation.
Instead of ploughing the field, they scratch the surface with a sort of bamboo spear.
