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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Q1. {IR – Asia} Consider the following statements about the Sierra Madre:
The Sierra Madre mountain range is strategically positioned along the eastern coastline of the Philippines, facing the South China Sea.
The Sierra Madre mountain range has been utilized as a site for covert military operations by certain claimant states, exacerbating the complexities of the territorial disputes in the South China Sea.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Sierra Madre mountain rangeruns parallel to the eastern coastline of the Philippines, facing the South China Sea.
This positioning indeed makes it significant in the context of the South China Sea disputes, as it influencesterritorial claims and access to resources.
Statement 2 is correct
Over the years, various claimant states, including China and the Philippines, have engaged in activities such as establishing outposts, conducting surveillance, and deploying military personnel in the region.
While not openly acknowledged, these covert operations have indeed contributed to the complexities of the territorial disputes in the South China Sea.
The Sierra Madre’s rugged terrain and remote location make it an ideal site for such activities, adding a layer of intrigue and difficulty in resolving the disputes peacefully.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Sierra Madre mountain rangeruns parallel to the eastern coastline of the Philippines, facing the South China Sea.
This positioning indeed makes it significant in the context of the South China Sea disputes, as it influencesterritorial claims and access to resources.
Statement 2 is correct
Over the years, various claimant states, including China and the Philippines, have engaged in activities such as establishing outposts, conducting surveillance, and deploying military personnel in the region.
While not openly acknowledged, these covert operations have indeed contributed to the complexities of the territorial disputes in the South China Sea.
The Sierra Madre’s rugged terrain and remote location make it an ideal site for such activities, adding a layer of intrigue and difficulty in resolving the disputes peacefully.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Sierra Madre mountain rangeruns parallel to the eastern coastline of the Philippines, facing the South China Sea.
This positioning indeed makes it significant in the context of the South China Sea disputes, as it influencesterritorial claims and access to resources.
Statement 2 is correct
Over the years, various claimant states, including China and the Philippines, have engaged in activities such as establishing outposts, conducting surveillance, and deploying military personnel in the region.
While not openly acknowledged, these covert operations have indeed contributed to the complexities of the territorial disputes in the South China Sea.
The Sierra Madre’s rugged terrain and remote location make it an ideal site for such activities, adding a layer of intrigue and difficulty in resolving the disputes peacefully.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Q2. {IR – Asia} What are India’s primary interests and stakes in the South China Sea region?
Safeguarding maritime trade routes: India relies heavily on the South China Sea for maritime trade, as a significant portion of its trade passes through these waters.
Ensuring freedom of navigation and unimpeded access to these routes is crucial for India’s economic interests.
Ensuring energy security: The South China Sea is believed to contain significant oil and natural gas reserves.
India, like many other countries, seeks access to these resources to meet its growing energy demands.
Therefore, stability and security in the region are vital for India’s energy security.
Maintaining presence in the Indo-Pacific: The Indo-Pacific region has emerged as a focal point for geopolitical competition, particularly between India and China.
India views the South China Sea as part of its broader Indo-Pacific strategy and seeks to maintain a presence in the region to counterbalance China’s growing influence.
This presence helps India protect its strategic interests and promote a rules-based order in the Indo-Pacific.
Answer: (c) India’s strategic interests in the South China Sea include safeguarding its maritime trade routes, ensuring energy security, and maintaining its presence in the Indo-Pacific to counter-balance China’s growing influence; Difficulty Level: Medium
Safeguarding maritime trade routes: India relies heavily on the South China Sea for maritime trade, as a significant portion of its trade passes through these waters.
Ensuring freedom of navigation and unimpeded access to these routes is crucial for India’s economic interests.
Ensuring energy security: The South China Sea is believed to contain significant oil and natural gas reserves.
India, like many other countries, seeks access to these resources to meet its growing energy demands.
Therefore, stability and security in the region are vital for India’s energy security.
Maintaining presence in the Indo-Pacific: The Indo-Pacific region has emerged as a focal point for geopolitical competition, particularly between India and China.
India views the South China Sea as part of its broader Indo-Pacific strategy and seeks to maintain a presence in the region to counterbalance China’s growing influence.
This presence helps India protect its strategic interests and promote a rules-based order in the Indo-Pacific.
Answer: (c) India’s strategic interests in the South China Sea include safeguarding its maritime trade routes, ensuring energy security, and maintaining its presence in the Indo-Pacific to counter-balance China’s growing influence; Difficulty Level: Medium
Safeguarding maritime trade routes: India relies heavily on the South China Sea for maritime trade, as a significant portion of its trade passes through these waters.
Ensuring freedom of navigation and unimpeded access to these routes is crucial for India’s economic interests.
Ensuring energy security: The South China Sea is believed to contain significant oil and natural gas reserves.
India, like many other countries, seeks access to these resources to meet its growing energy demands.
Therefore, stability and security in the region are vital for India’s energy security.
Maintaining presence in the Indo-Pacific: The Indo-Pacific region has emerged as a focal point for geopolitical competition, particularly between India and China.
India views the South China Sea as part of its broader Indo-Pacific strategy and seeks to maintain a presence in the region to counterbalance China’s growing influence.
This presence helps India protect its strategic interests and promote a rules-based order in the Indo-Pacific.
Answer: (c) India’s strategic interests in the South China Sea include safeguarding its maritime trade routes, ensuring energy security, and maintaining its presence in the Indo-Pacific to counter-balance China’s growing influence; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Q3. {IC – Elections} Consider the following statements:
Winning elections without any opposition primarily indicates widespread public support and legitimacy.
Returning Officers are responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections in a particular constituency and are appointed by the respective state governments.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Winning elections without any opposition does not necessarily indicate widespread public support or legitimacy.
Instead, it may result from various factors such as electoral manipulation, intimidation of political opponents, or systemic flaws in the electoral process.
In such cases, the absence of opposition does not necessarily reflect the will of the people but rather the tactics employed by the ruling party to maintain its grip on power.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Returning Officers (ROs)
ROs are responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections in a particular constituency.
They are appointed by the Election Commission of India (ECI).
Their duties include accepting nominations from candidates, scrutinising nomination papers, allotting symbols to candidates, conducting the polling process, and counting votes.
ROs ensure that elections are conducted fairly, impartially, and in accordance with the law.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Winning elections without any opposition does not necessarily indicate widespread public support or legitimacy.
Instead, it may result from various factors such as electoral manipulation, intimidation of political opponents, or systemic flaws in the electoral process.
In such cases, the absence of opposition does not necessarily reflect the will of the people but rather the tactics employed by the ruling party to maintain its grip on power.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Returning Officers (ROs)
ROs are responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections in a particular constituency.
They are appointed by the Election Commission of India (ECI).
Their duties include accepting nominations from candidates, scrutinising nomination papers, allotting symbols to candidates, conducting the polling process, and counting votes.
ROs ensure that elections are conducted fairly, impartially, and in accordance with the law.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Winning elections without any opposition does not necessarily indicate widespread public support or legitimacy.
Instead, it may result from various factors such as electoral manipulation, intimidation of political opponents, or systemic flaws in the electoral process.
In such cases, the absence of opposition does not necessarily reflect the will of the people but rather the tactics employed by the ruling party to maintain its grip on power.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Returning Officers (ROs)
ROs are responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections in a particular constituency.
They are appointed by the Election Commission of India (ECI).
Their duties include accepting nominations from candidates, scrutinising nomination papers, allotting symbols to candidates, conducting the polling process, and counting votes.
ROs ensure that elections are conducted fairly, impartially, and in accordance with the law.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – CC Impacts} Consider the following statements with respect to Kelps Forest:
Kelp Forests are dense underwater ecosystems that provide habitat for a diverse range of marine species and thrive in cool, clear and deep water.
Kelp forests are threatened by factors such as ocean warming, but they are not affected by pollution or overfishing as such.
When a kelp dies and sinks to the ocean floor, it can contribute to carbon storage in marine sediments.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Kelps are large brown algae.
Kelp Forests are dense underwater ecosystems that thrive in cool, clear, shallow watersnear the shore.
Sea urchins, moving in herds, can devastate entire kelp forests. Sea otters are crucial for controlling sea urchin populations.
Eckloniaradiata is one of the most widespread kelps globally.
Kelp forests are incredibly biodiverse ecosystems, supporting a wide variety of marine life, including fish, invertebrates, and other algae species.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Ocean warming:
Rising ocean temperatures, driven primarily by climate change, pose a significant threat to kelp forests. Kelp species have specific temperature requirements for growth and reproduction, and even small increases in water temperature can stress or kill them.
Warmer waters can also facilitate the spread of diseases and pathogens that can harm kelp populations.
Additionally, changes in ocean temperature can disrupt the complex interactions between kelp and the species that depend on them, leading to cascading effects throughout the ecosystem.
Pollution:
Pollution from various human activities can negatively impact kelp forests in several ways.
Runoff from urban areas, agriculture, and industrial sites can introduce pollutants such as heavy metals, pesticides, and nutrients into coastal waters, which can degrade water quality and harm kelp and other marine organisms.
Some pollutants can directly poison kelp, while others can promote the growth of algae that compete with kelp for space and resources.
Overfishing:
Overfishing, particularly of species that play important roles in kelp forest ecosystems, can have significant consequences for kelp forests.
For example, the removal of top predators like sea otters or certain fish species can disrupt the natural balance of the ecosystem, leading to increases in herbivores that graze on kelp, such as sea urchins. This can result in “urchin barrens,” areas where kelp forests are destroyed as a result of overgrazing by urchins.
Additionally, fishing practices that involve bottom trawling or dredging can damage kelp habitats directly by physically removing or disturbing the kelp and the substrate on which they grow.
Statement 3 is correct
Kelp forests are highly effective at capturing and storing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through photosynthesis, thus helping to mitigate climate change by sequestering carbon.
When kelp dies and sinks to the ocean floor, it can also contribute to carbon storage in marine sediments.
Kelp is a rich source of organic carbon, as it is composed primarily of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids.
As the kelp biomass accumulates on the seafloor, it becomes incorporated into the sediment layer.
This organic carbon then undergoes various biogeochemical processes, including microbial decomposition.
Microorganisms in marine sediments break down the organic matter through respiration and other metabolic processes, releasing carbon dioxide (CO2) into the water column.
Over time, the buried kelp biomass and associated organic carbon can become part of the geological record, contributing to the formation of sedimentary rocks.
This process effectively sequesters carbon from the atmosphere and ocean, locking it away in the Earth’s crust over geological timescales.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Kelps are large brown algae.
Kelp Forests are dense underwater ecosystems that thrive in cool, clear, shallow watersnear the shore.
Sea urchins, moving in herds, can devastate entire kelp forests. Sea otters are crucial for controlling sea urchin populations.
Eckloniaradiata is one of the most widespread kelps globally.
Kelp forests are incredibly biodiverse ecosystems, supporting a wide variety of marine life, including fish, invertebrates, and other algae species.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Ocean warming:
Rising ocean temperatures, driven primarily by climate change, pose a significant threat to kelp forests. Kelp species have specific temperature requirements for growth and reproduction, and even small increases in water temperature can stress or kill them.
Warmer waters can also facilitate the spread of diseases and pathogens that can harm kelp populations.
Additionally, changes in ocean temperature can disrupt the complex interactions between kelp and the species that depend on them, leading to cascading effects throughout the ecosystem.
Pollution:
Pollution from various human activities can negatively impact kelp forests in several ways.
Runoff from urban areas, agriculture, and industrial sites can introduce pollutants such as heavy metals, pesticides, and nutrients into coastal waters, which can degrade water quality and harm kelp and other marine organisms.
Some pollutants can directly poison kelp, while others can promote the growth of algae that compete with kelp for space and resources.
Overfishing:
Overfishing, particularly of species that play important roles in kelp forest ecosystems, can have significant consequences for kelp forests.
For example, the removal of top predators like sea otters or certain fish species can disrupt the natural balance of the ecosystem, leading to increases in herbivores that graze on kelp, such as sea urchins. This can result in “urchin barrens,” areas where kelp forests are destroyed as a result of overgrazing by urchins.
Additionally, fishing practices that involve bottom trawling or dredging can damage kelp habitats directly by physically removing or disturbing the kelp and the substrate on which they grow.
Statement 3 is correct
Kelp forests are highly effective at capturing and storing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through photosynthesis, thus helping to mitigate climate change by sequestering carbon.
When kelp dies and sinks to the ocean floor, it can also contribute to carbon storage in marine sediments.
Kelp is a rich source of organic carbon, as it is composed primarily of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids.
As the kelp biomass accumulates on the seafloor, it becomes incorporated into the sediment layer.
This organic carbon then undergoes various biogeochemical processes, including microbial decomposition.
Microorganisms in marine sediments break down the organic matter through respiration and other metabolic processes, releasing carbon dioxide (CO2) into the water column.
Over time, the buried kelp biomass and associated organic carbon can become part of the geological record, contributing to the formation of sedimentary rocks.
This process effectively sequesters carbon from the atmosphere and ocean, locking it away in the Earth’s crust over geological timescales.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Kelps are large brown algae.
Kelp Forests are dense underwater ecosystems that thrive in cool, clear, shallow watersnear the shore.
Sea urchins, moving in herds, can devastate entire kelp forests. Sea otters are crucial for controlling sea urchin populations.
Eckloniaradiata is one of the most widespread kelps globally.
Kelp forests are incredibly biodiverse ecosystems, supporting a wide variety of marine life, including fish, invertebrates, and other algae species.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Ocean warming:
Rising ocean temperatures, driven primarily by climate change, pose a significant threat to kelp forests. Kelp species have specific temperature requirements for growth and reproduction, and even small increases in water temperature can stress or kill them.
Warmer waters can also facilitate the spread of diseases and pathogens that can harm kelp populations.
Additionally, changes in ocean temperature can disrupt the complex interactions between kelp and the species that depend on them, leading to cascading effects throughout the ecosystem.
Pollution:
Pollution from various human activities can negatively impact kelp forests in several ways.
Runoff from urban areas, agriculture, and industrial sites can introduce pollutants such as heavy metals, pesticides, and nutrients into coastal waters, which can degrade water quality and harm kelp and other marine organisms.
Some pollutants can directly poison kelp, while others can promote the growth of algae that compete with kelp for space and resources.
Overfishing:
Overfishing, particularly of species that play important roles in kelp forest ecosystems, can have significant consequences for kelp forests.
For example, the removal of top predators like sea otters or certain fish species can disrupt the natural balance of the ecosystem, leading to increases in herbivores that graze on kelp, such as sea urchins. This can result in “urchin barrens,” areas where kelp forests are destroyed as a result of overgrazing by urchins.
Additionally, fishing practices that involve bottom trawling or dredging can damage kelp habitats directly by physically removing or disturbing the kelp and the substrate on which they grow.
Statement 3 is correct
Kelp forests are highly effective at capturing and storing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through photosynthesis, thus helping to mitigate climate change by sequestering carbon.
When kelp dies and sinks to the ocean floor, it can also contribute to carbon storage in marine sediments.
Kelp is a rich source of organic carbon, as it is composed primarily of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids.
As the kelp biomass accumulates on the seafloor, it becomes incorporated into the sediment layer.
This organic carbon then undergoes various biogeochemical processes, including microbial decomposition.
Microorganisms in marine sediments break down the organic matter through respiration and other metabolic processes, releasing carbon dioxide (CO2) into the water column.
Over time, the buried kelp biomass and associated organic carbon can become part of the geological record, contributing to the formation of sedimentary rocks.
This process effectively sequesters carbon from the atmosphere and ocean, locking it away in the Earth’s crust over geological timescales.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Q5. {S&T – Sci} Consider the following statements with respect to Opioids:
Opioids are exclusively used for moderate pain management due to their potent analgesic properties.
Opioid addiction and dependence can lead to serious health consequences, including overdose and death.
Synthetic opioids are significantly more potent than natural or semi-synthetic opioids, like morphine or heroin.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Opioids are commonly prescribed to manage moderate to severe pain, such as postoperative pain, cancer pain, or pain related to terminal illnesses.
These drugs need to be taken at scheduled times to keep a constant level of the drug in the body to help keep the pain from coming back. Drugs may be taken by mouth or given in other ways, such as by infusion or injection.
Some patients with cancer stop getting pain relief from opioids if they take them for a long time. This is called tolerance.
Larger doses or a different opioid may be needed if your body stops responding to the same dose. Tolerance of an opioid is a physical dependence on it.
This is not the same as addiction (psychological dependence).
They are effective analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, reducing the perception of pain.
Statement 2 is correct
Opioid addiction and dependence are serious medical conditions associated with a range of health consequences.
Misuse of opioids can lead to tolerance (requiring higher doses to achieve the same effects), physical dependence (experiencing withdrawal symptoms upon cessation), addiction (compulsive drug-seeking behavior despite negative consequences), and overdose, which can be fatal.
Statement 3 is correct
Synthetic opioids like fentanyl are man-made compounds designed to mimic the effects of natural opioids such as morphine.
Fentanyl and its analogs are much more potent than morphine or heroin, with some estimates suggesting they can be 50 to 100 times more potent.
This increased potency heightens the risk of overdose, as even small amounts of these substances can cause respiratory depression and death.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Opioids are commonly prescribed to manage moderate to severe pain, such as postoperative pain, cancer pain, or pain related to terminal illnesses.
These drugs need to be taken at scheduled times to keep a constant level of the drug in the body to help keep the pain from coming back. Drugs may be taken by mouth or given in other ways, such as by infusion or injection.
Some patients with cancer stop getting pain relief from opioids if they take them for a long time. This is called tolerance.
Larger doses or a different opioid may be needed if your body stops responding to the same dose. Tolerance of an opioid is a physical dependence on it.
This is not the same as addiction (psychological dependence).
They are effective analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, reducing the perception of pain.
Statement 2 is correct
Opioid addiction and dependence are serious medical conditions associated with a range of health consequences.
Misuse of opioids can lead to tolerance (requiring higher doses to achieve the same effects), physical dependence (experiencing withdrawal symptoms upon cessation), addiction (compulsive drug-seeking behavior despite negative consequences), and overdose, which can be fatal.
Statement 3 is correct
Synthetic opioids like fentanyl are man-made compounds designed to mimic the effects of natural opioids such as morphine.
Fentanyl and its analogs are much more potent than morphine or heroin, with some estimates suggesting they can be 50 to 100 times more potent.
This increased potency heightens the risk of overdose, as even small amounts of these substances can cause respiratory depression and death.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Opioids are commonly prescribed to manage moderate to severe pain, such as postoperative pain, cancer pain, or pain related to terminal illnesses.
These drugs need to be taken at scheduled times to keep a constant level of the drug in the body to help keep the pain from coming back. Drugs may be taken by mouth or given in other ways, such as by infusion or injection.
Some patients with cancer stop getting pain relief from opioids if they take them for a long time. This is called tolerance.
Larger doses or a different opioid may be needed if your body stops responding to the same dose. Tolerance of an opioid is a physical dependence on it.
This is not the same as addiction (psychological dependence).
They are effective analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, reducing the perception of pain.
Statement 2 is correct
Opioid addiction and dependence are serious medical conditions associated with a range of health consequences.
Misuse of opioids can lead to tolerance (requiring higher doses to achieve the same effects), physical dependence (experiencing withdrawal symptoms upon cessation), addiction (compulsive drug-seeking behavior despite negative consequences), and overdose, which can be fatal.
Statement 3 is correct
Synthetic opioids like fentanyl are man-made compounds designed to mimic the effects of natural opioids such as morphine.
Fentanyl and its analogs are much more potent than morphine or heroin, with some estimates suggesting they can be 50 to 100 times more potent.
This increased potency heightens the risk of overdose, as even small amounts of these substances can cause respiratory depression and death.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – S&T – Biotech} Which of the following is an example of a biohacking technique?
Correct
Explanation
CRISPR-Cas9 technology is a revolutionary tool in molecular biology that allows researchers to edit genes with unprecedented precision and efficiency.
It works by using a bacterial protein called Cas9, which can be programmed to target specific sequences of DNA within a cell’s genome.
When coupled with guide RNA molecules, Cas9 can precisely cut the DNA at the desired location, enabling researchers to insert, remove, or modify genes.
This technique has numerous applications in various fields, including medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.
In the context of biohacking, CRISPR-Cas9 technology can be used to modify the genetic code of organisms, including humans, animals, and plants, for a wide range of purposes.
For example, biohackers may use CRISPR-Cas9 to enhance traits such as intelligence, physical performance, or resistance to diseases in humans, or to create genetically modified organisms (GMOs) with desired characteristics in agriculture.
Issues:
However, the use of CRISPR-Cas9 technology in biohacking raises significant ethical and safety concerns.
Altering the human genome, in particular, raises questions about the potential consequences and unintended side effects of genetic modifications.
Additionally, there are regulatory and legal considerations surrounding the use of gene-editing technologies in both research and commercial applications.
Answer: (a) Editing genes using CRISPR-Cas9 technology; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
CRISPR-Cas9 technology is a revolutionary tool in molecular biology that allows researchers to edit genes with unprecedented precision and efficiency.
It works by using a bacterial protein called Cas9, which can be programmed to target specific sequences of DNA within a cell’s genome.
When coupled with guide RNA molecules, Cas9 can precisely cut the DNA at the desired location, enabling researchers to insert, remove, or modify genes.
This technique has numerous applications in various fields, including medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.
In the context of biohacking, CRISPR-Cas9 technology can be used to modify the genetic code of organisms, including humans, animals, and plants, for a wide range of purposes.
For example, biohackers may use CRISPR-Cas9 to enhance traits such as intelligence, physical performance, or resistance to diseases in humans, or to create genetically modified organisms (GMOs) with desired characteristics in agriculture.
Issues:
However, the use of CRISPR-Cas9 technology in biohacking raises significant ethical and safety concerns.
Altering the human genome, in particular, raises questions about the potential consequences and unintended side effects of genetic modifications.
Additionally, there are regulatory and legal considerations surrounding the use of gene-editing technologies in both research and commercial applications.
Answer: (a) Editing genes using CRISPR-Cas9 technology; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
CRISPR-Cas9 technology is a revolutionary tool in molecular biology that allows researchers to edit genes with unprecedented precision and efficiency.
It works by using a bacterial protein called Cas9, which can be programmed to target specific sequences of DNA within a cell’s genome.
When coupled with guide RNA molecules, Cas9 can precisely cut the DNA at the desired location, enabling researchers to insert, remove, or modify genes.
This technique has numerous applications in various fields, including medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.
In the context of biohacking, CRISPR-Cas9 technology can be used to modify the genetic code of organisms, including humans, animals, and plants, for a wide range of purposes.
For example, biohackers may use CRISPR-Cas9 to enhance traits such as intelligence, physical performance, or resistance to diseases in humans, or to create genetically modified organisms (GMOs) with desired characteristics in agriculture.
Issues:
However, the use of CRISPR-Cas9 technology in biohacking raises significant ethical and safety concerns.
Altering the human genome, in particular, raises questions about the potential consequences and unintended side effects of genetic modifications.
Additionally, there are regulatory and legal considerations surrounding the use of gene-editing technologies in both research and commercial applications.
Answer: (a) Editing genes using CRISPR-Cas9 technology; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – Personalities in News} Consider the following statements about Raja Ravi Verma:
He was the first Indian to use Western techniques of perspective and composition and to adapt them to Indian subjects, styles, and themes.
Verma was awarded Kaisar–i-Hind Gold Medal by Lord Hardinge II.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Raja Ravi Verma was an Indian painter and artist, born in 1848 in Killimanoor Village, twenty four miles from the town of Kottayam in Travancore State.
He was one of the first Indian artists to use oil paints and to master the art of lithographic reproduction of his work.
He was the first Indian to use Western techniques of perspective and composition and to adapt them to Indian subjects, styles, and themes.
Themes of his paintings: Puranas, the great Indian epics – Mahabharata and Ramayana, portraits of both Indians and British in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
In 1904, Viceroy Lord Curzon, on behalf of the British King Emperor, bestowed upon Varma the Kaisar–i-Hind Gold Medal.
His most famous works include Damayanti Talking to a Swan, Shakuntala Looking for Dushyanta, Nair Lady Adorning Her Hair, and ShantanuandMatsyagandha.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Raja Ravi Verma was an Indian painter and artist, born in 1848 in Killimanoor Village, twenty four miles from the town of Kottayam in Travancore State.
He was one of the first Indian artists to use oil paints and to master the art of lithographic reproduction of his work.
He was the first Indian to use Western techniques of perspective and composition and to adapt them to Indian subjects, styles, and themes.
Themes of his paintings: Puranas, the great Indian epics – Mahabharata and Ramayana, portraits of both Indians and British in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
In 1904, Viceroy Lord Curzon, on behalf of the British King Emperor, bestowed upon Varma the Kaisar–i-Hind Gold Medal.
His most famous works include Damayanti Talking to a Swan, Shakuntala Looking for Dushyanta, Nair Lady Adorning Her Hair, and ShantanuandMatsyagandha.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Raja Ravi Verma was an Indian painter and artist, born in 1848 in Killimanoor Village, twenty four miles from the town of Kottayam in Travancore State.
He was one of the first Indian artists to use oil paints and to master the art of lithographic reproduction of his work.
He was the first Indian to use Western techniques of perspective and composition and to adapt them to Indian subjects, styles, and themes.
Themes of his paintings: Puranas, the great Indian epics – Mahabharata and Ramayana, portraits of both Indians and British in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
In 1904, Viceroy Lord Curzon, on behalf of the British King Emperor, bestowed upon Varma the Kaisar–i-Hind Gold Medal.
His most famous works include Damayanti Talking to a Swan, Shakuntala Looking for Dushyanta, Nair Lady Adorning Her Hair, and ShantanuandMatsyagandha.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements about Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Status:
AEO status requires rigorous compliance with customs, solvency, and security, demanding extensive documentation and audits.
Mutual Recognition Agreements (MRAs) linked to AEO status streamline international trade by recognizing security standards, reducing redundant inspections.
AEO status offers benefits like fast customs and security, but obtaining it involves rigorous assessments and audits by customs authorities.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The AEO is a programme under the World Customs Organisation (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards (SAFE FoS) to secure and facilitate global trade.
Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) status indeed requires businesses to demonstrate rigorous compliance with customs regulations, financial solvency, and stringent security measures.
Customs authorities typically conduct thorough assessments and audits to verify that the applicant meets these criteria. Extensive documentation is necessary to provide evidence of compliance with the required standards.
Statement 2 is correct
Mutual Recognition Agreements (MRAs) associated with AEO status enable customs authorities in different countries to recognize and accept the security standards implemented by certified businesses.
As a result, redundant inspections at borders are reduced, leading to smoother and more efficient international trade. This is one of the key benefits of AEO status and MRAs.
Statement 3 is correct
AEO status does indeed provide benefits such as expedited customs procedures and enhanced supply chain security.
However, obtaining AEO status requires businesses to undergo rigorous assessments and audits conducted by customs authorities.
These assessments ensure that the applicant meets the necessary criteria and standards for AEO certification. Therefore, while AEO status offers benefits, obtaining it involves significant effort and compliance with stringent requirements.
In India, the Directorate General of Inspection (DGICCE) has been designated as the nodal implementing agency for the AEO Programme.
The Centre has extended Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) status to the gem and jewellery sector.
India’s AEO Programme is in sync with the commitments made under Article 7.7 of WTOTrade Facilitation Agreement (TFA).
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The AEO is a programme under the World Customs Organisation (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards (SAFE FoS) to secure and facilitate global trade.
Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) status indeed requires businesses to demonstrate rigorous compliance with customs regulations, financial solvency, and stringent security measures.
Customs authorities typically conduct thorough assessments and audits to verify that the applicant meets these criteria. Extensive documentation is necessary to provide evidence of compliance with the required standards.
Statement 2 is correct
Mutual Recognition Agreements (MRAs) associated with AEO status enable customs authorities in different countries to recognize and accept the security standards implemented by certified businesses.
As a result, redundant inspections at borders are reduced, leading to smoother and more efficient international trade. This is one of the key benefits of AEO status and MRAs.
Statement 3 is correct
AEO status does indeed provide benefits such as expedited customs procedures and enhanced supply chain security.
However, obtaining AEO status requires businesses to undergo rigorous assessments and audits conducted by customs authorities.
These assessments ensure that the applicant meets the necessary criteria and standards for AEO certification. Therefore, while AEO status offers benefits, obtaining it involves significant effort and compliance with stringent requirements.
In India, the Directorate General of Inspection (DGICCE) has been designated as the nodal implementing agency for the AEO Programme.
The Centre has extended Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) status to the gem and jewellery sector.
India’s AEO Programme is in sync with the commitments made under Article 7.7 of WTOTrade Facilitation Agreement (TFA).
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The AEO is a programme under the World Customs Organisation (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards (SAFE FoS) to secure and facilitate global trade.
Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) status indeed requires businesses to demonstrate rigorous compliance with customs regulations, financial solvency, and stringent security measures.
Customs authorities typically conduct thorough assessments and audits to verify that the applicant meets these criteria. Extensive documentation is necessary to provide evidence of compliance with the required standards.
Statement 2 is correct
Mutual Recognition Agreements (MRAs) associated with AEO status enable customs authorities in different countries to recognize and accept the security standards implemented by certified businesses.
As a result, redundant inspections at borders are reduced, leading to smoother and more efficient international trade. This is one of the key benefits of AEO status and MRAs.
Statement 3 is correct
AEO status does indeed provide benefits such as expedited customs procedures and enhanced supply chain security.
However, obtaining AEO status requires businesses to undergo rigorous assessments and audits conducted by customs authorities.
These assessments ensure that the applicant meets the necessary criteria and standards for AEO certification. Therefore, while AEO status offers benefits, obtaining it involves significant effort and compliance with stringent requirements.
In India, the Directorate General of Inspection (DGICCE) has been designated as the nodal implementing agency for the AEO Programme.
The Centre has extended Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) status to the gem and jewellery sector.
India’s AEO Programme is in sync with the commitments made under Article 7.7 of WTOTrade Facilitation Agreement (TFA).
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – In News} Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is located in which state?
Eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) is a buffer area around the core protected forestareas to minimise human-wildlife conflict, promote in-situ conservation of wildlife and reduce impact on fragile ecosystems.
The Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS) was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in 1983, but since then declaration of eco-sensitive zone was not finalised. In the past eight years, several efforts made to demarcate ESZ areas.
The sanctuary is home to some endangered wild animals, such as leopard, Indian wolf, blackbuck, chinkara, large Bengal monitor lizard, pythons, peafowl and vulture.
In June 2022, the Supreme Court directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum one km starting from their demarcated boundaries.
Eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) is a buffer area around the core protected forestareas to minimise human-wildlife conflict, promote in-situ conservation of wildlife and reduce impact on fragile ecosystems.
The Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS) was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in 1983, but since then declaration of eco-sensitive zone was not finalised. In the past eight years, several efforts made to demarcate ESZ areas.
The sanctuary is home to some endangered wild animals, such as leopard, Indian wolf, blackbuck, chinkara, large Bengal monitor lizard, pythons, peafowl and vulture.
In June 2022, the Supreme Court directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum one km starting from their demarcated boundaries.
Eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) is a buffer area around the core protected forestareas to minimise human-wildlife conflict, promote in-situ conservation of wildlife and reduce impact on fragile ecosystems.
The Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS) was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in 1983, but since then declaration of eco-sensitive zone was not finalised. In the past eight years, several efforts made to demarcate ESZ areas.
The sanctuary is home to some endangered wild animals, such as leopard, Indian wolf, blackbuck, chinkara, large Bengal monitor lizard, pythons, peafowl and vulture.
In June 2022, the Supreme Court directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum one km starting from their demarcated boundaries.
Answer: (a) Rajasthan; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – In News} What is the primary purpose of Green Taxonomy?
Correct
Explanation
Green Taxonomy serves as a classification system designed to identify and categorizeeconomic activities and investments that contribute toenvironmental sustainability.
Its primary purpose is to provide clarity and transparency to investors, businesses, and policymakers regarding which activities are considered environmentally friendly or sustainable.
By establishing clear criteria and standards, Green Taxonomy aims to guide investment flows towards projects and initiatives that support environmental objectives, such as reducing carbon emissions, conserving natural resources, and promoting biodiversity.
Green Taxonomy is not intended to regulate or tax companies directly for environmental damages or regulate carbon emissions
Answer: (a) To classify environmentally friendly investments; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Green Taxonomy serves as a classification system designed to identify and categorizeeconomic activities and investments that contribute toenvironmental sustainability.
Its primary purpose is to provide clarity and transparency to investors, businesses, and policymakers regarding which activities are considered environmentally friendly or sustainable.
By establishing clear criteria and standards, Green Taxonomy aims to guide investment flows towards projects and initiatives that support environmental objectives, such as reducing carbon emissions, conserving natural resources, and promoting biodiversity.
Green Taxonomy is not intended to regulate or tax companies directly for environmental damages or regulate carbon emissions
Answer: (a) To classify environmentally friendly investments; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Green Taxonomy serves as a classification system designed to identify and categorizeeconomic activities and investments that contribute toenvironmental sustainability.
Its primary purpose is to provide clarity and transparency to investors, businesses, and policymakers regarding which activities are considered environmentally friendly or sustainable.
By establishing clear criteria and standards, Green Taxonomy aims to guide investment flows towards projects and initiatives that support environmental objectives, such as reducing carbon emissions, conserving natural resources, and promoting biodiversity.
Green Taxonomy is not intended to regulate or tax companies directly for environmental damages or regulate carbon emissions
Answer: (a) To classify environmentally friendly investments; Difficulty Level: Medium
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