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April 05 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
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- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – April 05 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Q1. {IE – Banking} Consider the following statements with respect to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
- The Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of RRBs.
- RRBs are regulated by the RBI and supervised by the Small Industries Development Bank of India.
- The RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 90% of total outstanding advances for RRBs.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- RRBs are banks formed in collaboration by the Central Government, State Governments, and Sponsoring Commercial Banks to give loans to rural areas.
- The Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of RRBs.
- Rathama Grameen Bank was the first RRB bank and was established on 2nd October 1975.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Regional Rural Banks are regulated by the RBI and supervised by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
- It comprise of owned funds, deposits, borrowings from NABARD, Sponsor Banks and other sources, including SIDBI and the National Housing Bank.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of total outstanding advances for RRBs as against 40% for Scheduled Commercial Banks.
- The shareholding pattern of RRBs among the three sponsoring entities is 50:35:15 among the central government, sponsoring bank, and state government, respectively.
- The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by the Government of India, covering one or more districts in the State.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- RRBs are banks formed in collaboration by the Central Government, State Governments, and Sponsoring Commercial Banks to give loans to rural areas.
- The Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of RRBs.
- Rathama Grameen Bank was the first RRB bank and was established on 2nd October 1975.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Regional Rural Banks are regulated by the RBI and supervised by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
- It comprise of owned funds, deposits, borrowings from NABARD, Sponsor Banks and other sources, including SIDBI and the National Housing Bank.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of total outstanding advances for RRBs as against 40% for Scheduled Commercial Banks.
- The shareholding pattern of RRBs among the three sponsoring entities is 50:35:15 among the central government, sponsoring bank, and state government, respectively.
- The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by the Government of India, covering one or more districts in the State.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- RRBs are banks formed in collaboration by the Central Government, State Governments, and Sponsoring Commercial Banks to give loans to rural areas.
- The Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of RRBs.
- Rathama Grameen Bank was the first RRB bank and was established on 2nd October 1975.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Regional Rural Banks are regulated by the RBI and supervised by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
- It comprise of owned funds, deposits, borrowings from NABARD, Sponsor Banks and other sources, including SIDBI and the National Housing Bank.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of total outstanding advances for RRBs as against 40% for Scheduled Commercial Banks.
- The shareholding pattern of RRBs among the three sponsoring entities is 50:35:15 among the central government, sponsoring bank, and state government, respectively.
- The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by the Government of India, covering one or more districts in the State.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Q2. {Ethics – Assisted Suicide} Consider the following statements with respect to Living Will:
- It is a legal document that allows patients who are no longer able to take medical decisions, to give instructions in advance concerning their medical treatment.
- A living will has to be made in the presence of two attesting witnesses and countersigned by the jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC).
- Both Passive and Active Euthanasia has been legalized by Supreme Court since 2018.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The “living will” is a person’s right to issue advance directive on the course of his/her treatment, including withdrawal of life support, should such a situation arise.
- However, there is no way a living will provision can be made fool-proof requiring no intervention of the doctor or immediate decisionmakers around a person.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Supreme Court has modified its order in the 2018 judgement on passive euthanasia in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018).
- With the modified order, the Court aims to make the procedure of removal of (or withholding) life support from terminally ill patients less cumbersome for the patients, their families and the doctors by limiting the role played by government officials.
- The Court has done away with the rule mandating that the district collector set up the review board.
- The Court said both boards will be constituted by the hospital and there would be one nominee doctor of the district medical officer in the review board.
- The medical board must take a decision on such cases preferably within 48 hours.
- The Court has also made the process of making a “Living Will” simplified.
- While the earlier rule stipulated that a living will had to be made in the presence of two attesting witnesses and countersigned by the jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC).
- The new order says such a will can be attested by notary or a gazetted rank officer.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Passive euthanasia refers to withholding or withdrawing treatment which is necessary for maintaining life.
- Active euthanasia refers to the physician deliberate act, usually the administration of lethal drugs, to end an incurably or terminally ill patient’s life.
- A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018) recognised a person’s right to die with dignity, saying that a terminally ill person can opt for passive euthanasia and execute a living will to refuse medical treatment.
- In India, active euthanasia is a crime.
- Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the attempt to commit suicide and Section 306 of the IPC deals with abetment of suicide – both actions are punishable.
- Only those who are brain dead can be taken off life support with the help of family members.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The “living will” is a person’s right to issue advance directive on the course of his/her treatment, including withdrawal of life support, should such a situation arise.
- However, there is no way a living will provision can be made fool-proof requiring no intervention of the doctor or immediate decisionmakers around a person.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Supreme Court has modified its order in the 2018 judgement on passive euthanasia in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018).
- With the modified order, the Court aims to make the procedure of removal of (or withholding) life support from terminally ill patients less cumbersome for the patients, their families and the doctors by limiting the role played by government officials.
- The Court has done away with the rule mandating that the district collector set up the review board.
- The Court said both boards will be constituted by the hospital and there would be one nominee doctor of the district medical officer in the review board.
- The medical board must take a decision on such cases preferably within 48 hours.
- The Court has also made the process of making a “Living Will” simplified.
- While the earlier rule stipulated that a living will had to be made in the presence of two attesting witnesses and countersigned by the jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC).
- The new order says such a will can be attested by notary or a gazetted rank officer.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Passive euthanasia refers to withholding or withdrawing treatment which is necessary for maintaining life.
- Active euthanasia refers to the physician deliberate act, usually the administration of lethal drugs, to end an incurably or terminally ill patient’s life.
- A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018) recognised a person’s right to die with dignity, saying that a terminally ill person can opt for passive euthanasia and execute a living will to refuse medical treatment.
- In India, active euthanasia is a crime.
- Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the attempt to commit suicide and Section 306 of the IPC deals with abetment of suicide – both actions are punishable.
- Only those who are brain dead can be taken off life support with the help of family members.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The “living will” is a person’s right to issue advance directive on the course of his/her treatment, including withdrawal of life support, should such a situation arise.
- However, there is no way a living will provision can be made fool-proof requiring no intervention of the doctor or immediate decisionmakers around a person.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Supreme Court has modified its order in the 2018 judgement on passive euthanasia in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018).
- With the modified order, the Court aims to make the procedure of removal of (or withholding) life support from terminally ill patients less cumbersome for the patients, their families and the doctors by limiting the role played by government officials.
- The Court has done away with the rule mandating that the district collector set up the review board.
- The Court said both boards will be constituted by the hospital and there would be one nominee doctor of the district medical officer in the review board.
- The medical board must take a decision on such cases preferably within 48 hours.
- The Court has also made the process of making a “Living Will” simplified.
- While the earlier rule stipulated that a living will had to be made in the presence of two attesting witnesses and countersigned by the jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC).
- The new order says such a will can be attested by notary or a gazetted rank officer.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Passive euthanasia refers to withholding or withdrawing treatment which is necessary for maintaining life.
- Active euthanasia refers to the physician deliberate act, usually the administration of lethal drugs, to end an incurably or terminally ill patient’s life.
- A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018) recognised a person’s right to die with dignity, saying that a terminally ill person can opt for passive euthanasia and execute a living will to refuse medical treatment.
- In India, active euthanasia is a crime.
- Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the attempt to commit suicide and Section 306 of the IPC deals with abetment of suicide – both actions are punishable.
- Only those who are brain dead can be taken off life support with the help of family members.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Q3. {S&T – Biotech} Consider the following statements with respect to the Opti Drop Platform:
- It is a laser-based technology that analyzes the characteristics of cells or particles.
- It is developed by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research and IIT-Madras.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The OptiDrop Platform is a groundbreaking microfluidic chip-based system designed to streamline and cut down the costs associated with studying individual cells.
- This innovative platform employs a novel approach for accurate and cost-efficient examination of single cells encapsulated within droplets.
- Here are some key features of the OptiDrop Platform:
- Microfluidic Chip-Based Design: The platform utilizes microfluidic chips, also known as “lab-on-a-chip” devices. These miniature platforms manipulate and analyze small volumes of fluids, integrating various functions like mixing, pumping, and sensing onto a compact substrate. This enables precise control over minute amounts of liquids.
- Precise Single-Cell Analysis: OptiDrop simplifies and reduces the cost of studying single cells. By encapsulating single cells within droplets, it provides accurate data while minimizing resource usage.
- Live Data Visualization: Researchers can visualize live data during experiments, enhancing real-time insights into cellular behavior.
- Smaller Data Footprint: The platform generates smaller data files, making data management and analysis more efficient.
- Closed System Design: OptiDrop’s ‘closed’ system design prevents external contamination, ensuring the integrity of experiments.
- Applications:
- Diagnostics: OptiDrop can be used in diagnostic applications, studying the impact on individual cells during drug screens.
- Therapeutics: It aids in detecting and sorting CAR-T cells in immuno-oncotherapeutics.
- Agriculture: OptiDrop has potential applications in agriculture, such as water contamination control.
- Animal Health: Researchers can use it to select CRISPR-modified single cells and high-efficiency clones in single-cell genomics.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is Developed by the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) and IIT, Madras.
- C-CAMP (Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms) is an initiative supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
- The development of the OptiDrop Platform was supported by the Biotechnology Industry Research Council (BIRAC), the Department of Science and Technology (DST), and the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD).
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The OptiDrop Platform is a groundbreaking microfluidic chip-based system designed to streamline and cut down the costs associated with studying individual cells.
- This innovative platform employs a novel approach for accurate and cost-efficient examination of single cells encapsulated within droplets.
- Here are some key features of the OptiDrop Platform:
- Microfluidic Chip-Based Design: The platform utilizes microfluidic chips, also known as “lab-on-a-chip” devices. These miniature platforms manipulate and analyze small volumes of fluids, integrating various functions like mixing, pumping, and sensing onto a compact substrate. This enables precise control over minute amounts of liquids.
- Precise Single-Cell Analysis: OptiDrop simplifies and reduces the cost of studying single cells. By encapsulating single cells within droplets, it provides accurate data while minimizing resource usage.
- Live Data Visualization: Researchers can visualize live data during experiments, enhancing real-time insights into cellular behavior.
- Smaller Data Footprint: The platform generates smaller data files, making data management and analysis more efficient.
- Closed System Design: OptiDrop’s ‘closed’ system design prevents external contamination, ensuring the integrity of experiments.
- Applications:
- Diagnostics: OptiDrop can be used in diagnostic applications, studying the impact on individual cells during drug screens.
- Therapeutics: It aids in detecting and sorting CAR-T cells in immuno-oncotherapeutics.
- Agriculture: OptiDrop has potential applications in agriculture, such as water contamination control.
- Animal Health: Researchers can use it to select CRISPR-modified single cells and high-efficiency clones in single-cell genomics.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is Developed by the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) and IIT, Madras.
- C-CAMP (Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms) is an initiative supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
- The development of the OptiDrop Platform was supported by the Biotechnology Industry Research Council (BIRAC), the Department of Science and Technology (DST), and the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD).
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The OptiDrop Platform is a groundbreaking microfluidic chip-based system designed to streamline and cut down the costs associated with studying individual cells.
- This innovative platform employs a novel approach for accurate and cost-efficient examination of single cells encapsulated within droplets.
- Here are some key features of the OptiDrop Platform:
- Microfluidic Chip-Based Design: The platform utilizes microfluidic chips, also known as “lab-on-a-chip” devices. These miniature platforms manipulate and analyze small volumes of fluids, integrating various functions like mixing, pumping, and sensing onto a compact substrate. This enables precise control over minute amounts of liquids.
- Precise Single-Cell Analysis: OptiDrop simplifies and reduces the cost of studying single cells. By encapsulating single cells within droplets, it provides accurate data while minimizing resource usage.
- Live Data Visualization: Researchers can visualize live data during experiments, enhancing real-time insights into cellular behavior.
- Smaller Data Footprint: The platform generates smaller data files, making data management and analysis more efficient.
- Closed System Design: OptiDrop’s ‘closed’ system design prevents external contamination, ensuring the integrity of experiments.
- Applications:
- Diagnostics: OptiDrop can be used in diagnostic applications, studying the impact on individual cells during drug screens.
- Therapeutics: It aids in detecting and sorting CAR-T cells in immuno-oncotherapeutics.
- Agriculture: OptiDrop has potential applications in agriculture, such as water contamination control.
- Animal Health: Researchers can use it to select CRISPR-modified single cells and high-efficiency clones in single-cell genomics.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is Developed by the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) and IIT, Madras.
- C-CAMP (Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms) is an initiative supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
- The development of the OptiDrop Platform was supported by the Biotechnology Industry Research Council (BIRAC), the Department of Science and Technology (DST), and the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD).
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – In News} Perungamanallur Massacre, recently seen in news, is associated with which state?
Correct
Explanation
- The Perungamanallur Massacre is a significant historical event that occurred in Tamil Nadu.
- Date: On April 3, 1920, a massive protest took place in the village of Perungamanallur, near Usilampatti, against oppressive British laws.
- Victims: During this protest, 17 people, including a woman named Mayakkal, were shot dead by British authorities in an attempt to suppress the demonstration.
- Reason for Protest: The villagers were opposing the Criminal Tribes Act, 1911, which had severe implications for their community.
- Legacy: The Act was eventually repealed after India gained independence, but the memory of the Perungamanallur Massacre remains as a testament to the brave opposition against imperialism.
Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Perungamanallur Massacre is a significant historical event that occurred in Tamil Nadu.
- Date: On April 3, 1920, a massive protest took place in the village of Perungamanallur, near Usilampatti, against oppressive British laws.
- Victims: During this protest, 17 people, including a woman named Mayakkal, were shot dead by British authorities in an attempt to suppress the demonstration.
- Reason for Protest: The villagers were opposing the Criminal Tribes Act, 1911, which had severe implications for their community.
- Legacy: The Act was eventually repealed after India gained independence, but the memory of the Perungamanallur Massacre remains as a testament to the brave opposition against imperialism.
Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Perungamanallur Massacre is a significant historical event that occurred in Tamil Nadu.
- Date: On April 3, 1920, a massive protest took place in the village of Perungamanallur, near Usilampatti, against oppressive British laws.
- Victims: During this protest, 17 people, including a woman named Mayakkal, were shot dead by British authorities in an attempt to suppress the demonstration.
- Reason for Protest: The villagers were opposing the Criminal Tribes Act, 1911, which had severe implications for their community.
- Legacy: The Act was eventually repealed after India gained independence, but the memory of the Perungamanallur Massacre remains as a testament to the brave opposition against imperialism.
Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Q5. {Vulnerable Sections – Scheduled Caste} Consider the following statements about National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):
- It is a Quasi Judicial Body established with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities.
- The commission has the power to issue summons for evidence.
- The Chairperson and other members, hold office during the pleasure of the President of India.
How many of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body established by Article 338 of the Constitution.
- It is established with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests, special provisions were made in the Constitution.
- The separate National Commission for SCs came into existence in 2004.
Statement 2 is correct
- Powers of the commission
- Calling for witnesses and examining them under oath.
- Demanding documents related to an investigation.
- Accepting sworn statements and obtaining government records.
- Issuing summons for evidence.
- Using additional powers granted by the President.
Statement 3 is correct
- It consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members.
- They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
- Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body established by Article 338 of the Constitution.
- It is established with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests, special provisions were made in the Constitution.
- The separate National Commission for SCs came into existence in 2004.
Statement 2 is correct
- Powers of the commission
- Calling for witnesses and examining them under oath.
- Demanding documents related to an investigation.
- Accepting sworn statements and obtaining government records.
- Issuing summons for evidence.
- Using additional powers granted by the President.
Statement 3 is correct
- It consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members.
- They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
- Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body established by Article 338 of the Constitution.
- It is established with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests, special provisions were made in the Constitution.
- The separate National Commission for SCs came into existence in 2004.
Statement 2 is correct
- Powers of the commission
- Calling for witnesses and examining them under oath.
- Demanding documents related to an investigation.
- Accepting sworn statements and obtaining government records.
- Issuing summons for evidence.
- Using additional powers granted by the President.
Statement 3 is correct
- It consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members.
- They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
- Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – S&T – Defence} Consider the following statements about Agni Prime Missile:
- It is a nuclear-capable new-generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles.
- It is a short-range surface-to-air missile.
- It is a three-stage canisterised missile that is lighter than all the earlier Agni series of missiles.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The ‘Agni Prime’ or ‘Agni-P’ is a nuclear-capable new-generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is a Medium Range (1200-2000 kilometres) Surface-to-surface missile.
- It is a two-stage canisterised missile.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is a two-stage canisterised missile with a maximum range of 1,000 to 2,000 km.
- It is lighter than all the earlier Agni series of missiles.
- It weighs at least 50 per cent less than the Agni 3 missile and has new guidance and propulsion systems.
- It can be transported by road and rail and stored for longer periods, significantly reducing the time required for preparation and launch.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The ‘Agni Prime’ or ‘Agni-P’ is a nuclear-capable new-generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is a Medium Range (1200-2000 kilometres) Surface-to-surface missile.
- It is a two-stage canisterised missile.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is a two-stage canisterised missile with a maximum range of 1,000 to 2,000 km.
- It is lighter than all the earlier Agni series of missiles.
- It weighs at least 50 per cent less than the Agni 3 missile and has new guidance and propulsion systems.
- It can be transported by road and rail and stored for longer periods, significantly reducing the time required for preparation and launch.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The ‘Agni Prime’ or ‘Agni-P’ is a nuclear-capable new-generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is a Medium Range (1200-2000 kilometres) Surface-to-surface missile.
- It is a two-stage canisterised missile.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is a two-stage canisterised missile with a maximum range of 1,000 to 2,000 km.
- It is lighter than all the earlier Agni series of missiles.
- It weighs at least 50 per cent less than the Agni 3 missile and has new guidance and propulsion systems.
- It can be transported by road and rail and stored for longer periods, significantly reducing the time required for preparation and launch.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Q7. {Agri – Crops} Consider the following statements about Paira cropping system:
- It is a type of cropping which is only practiced in North-eastern states of India.
- This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding, irrigation and fertilizer.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The utera/paira is a type of cropping which is commonly practiced in Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
- This practice enables us to use better soil moisture available at the time of harvesting of rice crops, which could otherwise be lost quickly.
- It produced more yield of lentil than planting with tillage after harvesting of the rice crop.
- This is an efficient way of utilising resources for sustainable crop intensification and boosting land productivity.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil/ lathyrus/ urdbean/ mungbean seeds are broadcast in the standing crop of rice about 2 weeks before its harvest.
- This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding, irrigation and fertilizer. However, rice variety decides the productivity of pulses in this system.
- Relay cropping method:
- It is a method of multiple cropping where one crop is seeded into standing second crop well before harvesting of second crop.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The utera/paira is a type of cropping which is commonly practiced in Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
- This practice enables us to use better soil moisture available at the time of harvesting of rice crops, which could otherwise be lost quickly.
- It produced more yield of lentil than planting with tillage after harvesting of the rice crop.
- This is an efficient way of utilising resources for sustainable crop intensification and boosting land productivity.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil/ lathyrus/ urdbean/ mungbean seeds are broadcast in the standing crop of rice about 2 weeks before its harvest.
- This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding, irrigation and fertilizer. However, rice variety decides the productivity of pulses in this system.
- Relay cropping method:
- It is a method of multiple cropping where one crop is seeded into standing second crop well before harvesting of second crop.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The utera/paira is a type of cropping which is commonly practiced in Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
- This practice enables us to use better soil moisture available at the time of harvesting of rice crops, which could otherwise be lost quickly.
- It produced more yield of lentil than planting with tillage after harvesting of the rice crop.
- This is an efficient way of utilising resources for sustainable crop intensification and boosting land productivity.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil/ lathyrus/ urdbean/ mungbean seeds are broadcast in the standing crop of rice about 2 weeks before its harvest.
- This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding, irrigation and fertilizer. However, rice variety decides the productivity of pulses in this system.
- Relay cropping method:
- It is a method of multiple cropping where one crop is seeded into standing second crop well before harvesting of second crop.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Q8. {S&T – Tech – AI} AI Hume, sometimes seen in news, is a?
Correct
Explanation
- Hume, a New York-based research lab, unveiled the first emotionally intelligent conversational AI named Empathic Voice Interface (EVI).
- It utilizes live audio input, returning both audio and transcripts with vocal expression measures.
- Powered by an empathic large language model (eLLM), it understands tones and word emphasis, optimizing human-AI conversations.
- Trained on human reactions, EVI learns from users to enhance positive expressions. By analyzing speech nuances, it can determine when to speak and generate empathic language.
Answer: (d) World’s first conversational AI with emotional intelligence; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Hume, a New York-based research lab, unveiled the first emotionally intelligent conversational AI named Empathic Voice Interface (EVI).
- It utilizes live audio input, returning both audio and transcripts with vocal expression measures.
- Powered by an empathic large language model (eLLM), it understands tones and word emphasis, optimizing human-AI conversations.
- Trained on human reactions, EVI learns from users to enhance positive expressions. By analyzing speech nuances, it can determine when to speak and generate empathic language.
Answer: (d) World’s first conversational AI with emotional intelligence; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Hume, a New York-based research lab, unveiled the first emotionally intelligent conversational AI named Empathic Voice Interface (EVI).
- It utilizes live audio input, returning both audio and transcripts with vocal expression measures.
- Powered by an empathic large language model (eLLM), it understands tones and word emphasis, optimizing human-AI conversations.
- Trained on human reactions, EVI learns from users to enhance positive expressions. By analyzing speech nuances, it can determine when to speak and generate empathic language.
Answer: (d) World’s first conversational AI with emotional intelligence; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Q9. {IE – Taxation} Consider the following statements:
- In India, the power to raise taxes rests largely with the Union government while a greater part of the overall government spending is done by the State governments.
- The RBI’s classification of developmental expenditures includes interest payments, pensions, and subsidies, all of which have seen a decline in spending by the Union government.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- In India, the Union government holds primary responsibility for raising taxes.
- The Constitution empowers the central government to levy taxes on income (except agricultural income), customs duties, excise duties on goods (other than alcoholic beverages and narcotics), and GST.
- State governments are primarily responsible for spending on subjects under the State List and Concurrent List, including healthcare, agriculture, education, and social welfare, leading to a greater share of overall government spending.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The RBI’s classification of developmental expenditures focuses on social services, economic services, and certain components of rural development.
- These expenditures contribute to the social and economic development of the country.
- Interest payments, pensions, and subsidies typically fall under the non-developmental category.
- Over the last two decades, there has been a significant increase in the developmental and social service expenditures by State governments.
- Conversely, the Union government‘s social and developmental spending has remained relatively stable.
- The Union government allocates more funds to defence, transport, urban development, and energy.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- In India, the Union government holds primary responsibility for raising taxes.
- The Constitution empowers the central government to levy taxes on income (except agricultural income), customs duties, excise duties on goods (other than alcoholic beverages and narcotics), and GST.
- State governments are primarily responsible for spending on subjects under the State List and Concurrent List, including healthcare, agriculture, education, and social welfare, leading to a greater share of overall government spending.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The RBI’s classification of developmental expenditures focuses on social services, economic services, and certain components of rural development.
- These expenditures contribute to the social and economic development of the country.
- Interest payments, pensions, and subsidies typically fall under the non-developmental category.
- Over the last two decades, there has been a significant increase in the developmental and social service expenditures by State governments.
- Conversely, the Union government‘s social and developmental spending has remained relatively stable.
- The Union government allocates more funds to defence, transport, urban development, and energy.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- In India, the Union government holds primary responsibility for raising taxes.
- The Constitution empowers the central government to levy taxes on income (except agricultural income), customs duties, excise duties on goods (other than alcoholic beverages and narcotics), and GST.
- State governments are primarily responsible for spending on subjects under the State List and Concurrent List, including healthcare, agriculture, education, and social welfare, leading to a greater share of overall government spending.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The RBI’s classification of developmental expenditures focuses on social services, economic services, and certain components of rural development.
- These expenditures contribute to the social and economic development of the country.
- Interest payments, pensions, and subsidies typically fall under the non-developmental category.
- Over the last two decades, there has been a significant increase in the developmental and social service expenditures by State governments.
- Conversely, the Union government‘s social and developmental spending has remained relatively stable.
- The Union government allocates more funds to defence, transport, urban development, and energy.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – In News} Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.), recently seen in news, is launched by?
Correct
Explanation
- Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.) is a digital health promoter prototype with enhanced empathetic response powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
- It is launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
- It aims to provide an additional tool for people to realize their rights to health, wherever they are.
- Fetaures:
- It is trained to provide information across major health topics, including healthy habits and mental health.
- It has the ability to support people in developing better understanding of risk factors for some of the leading causes of death in the world, including cancer, heart disease.
- It can help people access up-to-date information on quitting tobacco, being active, eating a healthy diet and de-stressing among other things.
- It can engage users 24 hours a day in 8 languages on multiple health topics, on any device.
- It is now powered by generative AI rather than a pre-set algorithm or script helping people to provide more accurate responses in real-time.
Answer: (d) World Health Organisation; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.) is a digital health promoter prototype with enhanced empathetic response powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
- It is launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
- It aims to provide an additional tool for people to realize their rights to health, wherever they are.
- Fetaures:
- It is trained to provide information across major health topics, including healthy habits and mental health.
- It has the ability to support people in developing better understanding of risk factors for some of the leading causes of death in the world, including cancer, heart disease.
- It can help people access up-to-date information on quitting tobacco, being active, eating a healthy diet and de-stressing among other things.
- It can engage users 24 hours a day in 8 languages on multiple health topics, on any device.
- It is now powered by generative AI rather than a pre-set algorithm or script helping people to provide more accurate responses in real-time.
Answer: (d) World Health Organisation; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.) is a digital health promoter prototype with enhanced empathetic response powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
- It is launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
- It aims to provide an additional tool for people to realize their rights to health, wherever they are.
- Fetaures:
- It is trained to provide information across major health topics, including healthy habits and mental health.
- It has the ability to support people in developing better understanding of risk factors for some of the leading causes of death in the world, including cancer, heart disease.
- It can help people access up-to-date information on quitting tobacco, being active, eating a healthy diet and de-stressing among other things.
- It can engage users 24 hours a day in 8 languages on multiple health topics, on any device.
- It is now powered by generative AI rather than a pre-set algorithm or script helping people to provide more accurate responses in real-time.
Answer: (d) World Health Organisation; Difficulty Level: Medium
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