March 06 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
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- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
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[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 06 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Q1. {Prelims – IE – Banks} Reserve Banks of India’s UDGAM portal has been launched recently with the objective of?
Correct
Explanation
- UDGAM refers to Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation, which is an online portal developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place in a centralised manner.
- All unclaimed deposits/accounts that are part of Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
- This portal provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category unclaimed deposits.
- It facilitates only the search of unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place and provides information on claim/settlement process of each bank.
- The unclaimed deposits can be claimed only from the respective bank.
- After registration on the portal a person will get Unclaimed Deposit Reference Number (UDRN) which is a unique number generated through Core Banking Solution (CBS) by banks and assigned to each Unclaimed account/ deposit transferred to Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
- This number is used so that the account holder or the bank branch where account is maintained, cannot be identified by any third party.
- The UDRN enables the bank branches to seamlessly settle claims received from the customers/depositors, who have made successful search in UDGAM portal.
Answer: (c) Facilitating search for unclaimed deposits across multiple banks; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- UDGAM refers to Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation, which is an online portal developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place in a centralised manner.
- All unclaimed deposits/accounts that are part of Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
- This portal provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category unclaimed deposits.
- It facilitates only the search of unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place and provides information on claim/settlement process of each bank.
- The unclaimed deposits can be claimed only from the respective bank.
- After registration on the portal a person will get Unclaimed Deposit Reference Number (UDRN) which is a unique number generated through Core Banking Solution (CBS) by banks and assigned to each Unclaimed account/ deposit transferred to Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
- This number is used so that the account holder or the bank branch where account is maintained, cannot be identified by any third party.
- The UDRN enables the bank branches to seamlessly settle claims received from the customers/depositors, who have made successful search in UDGAM portal.
Answer: (c) Facilitating search for unclaimed deposits across multiple banks; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- UDGAM refers to Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation, which is an online portal developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place in a centralised manner.
- All unclaimed deposits/accounts that are part of Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
- This portal provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category unclaimed deposits.
- It facilitates only the search of unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place and provides information on claim/settlement process of each bank.
- The unclaimed deposits can be claimed only from the respective bank.
- After registration on the portal a person will get Unclaimed Deposit Reference Number (UDRN) which is a unique number generated through Core Banking Solution (CBS) by banks and assigned to each Unclaimed account/ deposit transferred to Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
- This number is used so that the account holder or the bank branch where account is maintained, cannot be identified by any third party.
- The UDRN enables the bank branches to seamlessly settle claims received from the customers/depositors, who have made successful search in UDGAM portal.
Answer: (c) Facilitating search for unclaimed deposits across multiple banks; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Q2. {IE – Taxation} Consider the following statements:
- Tax to GDP Ratio reflects the share of taxes in the overall output generated in the country.
- Tax to GDP Ratio has steadily increased in the recent years.
- For the year 2022-23, the growth rate for taxes is higher than the nominal GDP growth.
- Tax buoyancy considers the automatic response of revenues to the change in income given that tax structure is unchanged.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The tax-to-GDP ratio is the measure of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy.
- It’s calculated by dividing a period’s tax revenue by its GDP.
- According to the World Bank, tax revenues above 15% of a country’s gross domestic product (GDP) are a key ingredient for economic growth and poverty reduction.
- It reflects the share of taxes in the overall output generated in the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It has not steadily increased in the recent years.
- For the year 2020-21, the direct tax decreased in relative to the previous year (2019-20).
Statement 3 is correct
- The direct tax rate has peaked in the year 2022-23.
- The growth rate for taxes was recorded at 17.79 % in 2022-23, higher than 15.11 % nominal GDP growth.
- In the overall tax collections by the government, direct tax collections accounted for 54.62 % share in financial year 2022-23, a four-year high.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
- It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
- When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
- It depends upon:
- the size of the tax base,
- the friendliness of the tax administration,
- the rationality and simplicity of tax rates.
- Tax buoyancy reflects both the impacts of income and discretionary changes on revenue earnings.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The tax-to-GDP ratio is the measure of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy.
- It’s calculated by dividing a period’s tax revenue by its GDP.
- According to the World Bank, tax revenues above 15% of a country’s gross domestic product (GDP) are a key ingredient for economic growth and poverty reduction.
- It reflects the share of taxes in the overall output generated in the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It has not steadily increased in the recent years.
- For the year 2020-21, the direct tax decreased in relative to the previous year (2019-20).
Statement 3 is correct
- The direct tax rate has peaked in the year 2022-23.
- The growth rate for taxes was recorded at 17.79 % in 2022-23, higher than 15.11 % nominal GDP growth.
- In the overall tax collections by the government, direct tax collections accounted for 54.62 % share in financial year 2022-23, a four-year high.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
- It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
- When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
- It depends upon:
- the size of the tax base,
- the friendliness of the tax administration,
- the rationality and simplicity of tax rates.
- Tax buoyancy reflects both the impacts of income and discretionary changes on revenue earnings.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The tax-to-GDP ratio is the measure of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy.
- It’s calculated by dividing a period’s tax revenue by its GDP.
- According to the World Bank, tax revenues above 15% of a country’s gross domestic product (GDP) are a key ingredient for economic growth and poverty reduction.
- It reflects the share of taxes in the overall output generated in the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It has not steadily increased in the recent years.
- For the year 2020-21, the direct tax decreased in relative to the previous year (2019-20).
Statement 3 is correct
- The direct tax rate has peaked in the year 2022-23.
- The growth rate for taxes was recorded at 17.79 % in 2022-23, higher than 15.11 % nominal GDP growth.
- In the overall tax collections by the government, direct tax collections accounted for 54.62 % share in financial year 2022-23, a four-year high.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
- It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
- When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
- It depends upon:
- the size of the tax base,
- the friendliness of the tax administration,
- the rationality and simplicity of tax rates.
- Tax buoyancy reflects both the impacts of income and discretionary changes on revenue earnings.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – In News} Global Resources Outlook Report, recently seen in news, is published by?
Correct
Explanation
- Global Resource Outlook 2024 was launched on the final day of the Sixth United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA-6) at the UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
- Global Resource Outlook is the flagship report of the International Resource Panel of the United Nations Environment Programme.
- This year’s report sheds light on how resources are essential to the effective implementation of the Agenda 2030 and multilateral environmental agreements to tackle the triple planetary crisis.
- It brings together the best available data, modelling and assessments from 180 countries, seven world regions and four income groups, to analyse trends, impacts and distributional effects of resource use.
Answer: (d) United Nations Environment Programme; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Global Resource Outlook 2024 was launched on the final day of the Sixth United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA-6) at the UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
- Global Resource Outlook is the flagship report of the International Resource Panel of the United Nations Environment Programme.
- This year’s report sheds light on how resources are essential to the effective implementation of the Agenda 2030 and multilateral environmental agreements to tackle the triple planetary crisis.
- It brings together the best available data, modelling and assessments from 180 countries, seven world regions and four income groups, to analyse trends, impacts and distributional effects of resource use.
Answer: (d) United Nations Environment Programme; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Global Resource Outlook 2024 was launched on the final day of the Sixth United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA-6) at the UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
- Global Resource Outlook is the flagship report of the International Resource Panel of the United Nations Environment Programme.
- This year’s report sheds light on how resources are essential to the effective implementation of the Agenda 2030 and multilateral environmental agreements to tackle the triple planetary crisis.
- It brings together the best available data, modelling and assessments from 180 countries, seven world regions and four income groups, to analyse trends, impacts and distributional effects of resource use.
Answer: (d) United Nations Environment Programme; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Q4. {S&T – Defense} Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defense Innovation Organization (iDEX-DIO):
- The scheme aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
- It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defense and aerospace.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Govt of India launched in 2018.
- Objective:
- The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
- Serving as end-users, nodals, and domain experts, the military’s involvement helps guide innovation and seamlessly integrate advancements into existing platforms.
Statement 2 is correct
- It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defense Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder members, Defense Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) – HAL & BEL.
- It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defense and aerospace.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Govt of India launched in 2018.
- Objective:
- The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
- Serving as end-users, nodals, and domain experts, the military’s involvement helps guide innovation and seamlessly integrate advancements into existing platforms.
Statement 2 is correct
- It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defense Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder members, Defense Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) – HAL & BEL.
- It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defense and aerospace.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Govt of India launched in 2018.
- Objective:
- The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
- Serving as end-users, nodals, and domain experts, the military’s involvement helps guide innovation and seamlessly integrate advancements into existing platforms.
Statement 2 is correct
- It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defense Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder members, Defense Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) – HAL & BEL.
- It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defense and aerospace.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Q5. {Vulnerable Sections – Children} Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission for Protection of Child Rights:
- It is an executive body working under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- It is mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
- The members are appointed by the President for a term of 5 years.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been constituted by the Government of India, under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
- The Commission is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
Statement 2 is correct
- It is also mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children.
- Six members, out of which at least two are woman, who are person of eminence from the following fields:
- Education
- Child health, care, welfare or child development
- Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities
- Elimination of child labour or children in distress
- Child psychology or sociology
- Laws relating to children
- These members are appointed by the Central Government for a term of 3 years.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been constituted by the Government of India, under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
- The Commission is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
Statement 2 is correct
- It is also mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children.
- Six members, out of which at least two are woman, who are person of eminence from the following fields:
- Education
- Child health, care, welfare or child development
- Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities
- Elimination of child labour or children in distress
- Child psychology or sociology
- Laws relating to children
- These members are appointed by the Central Government for a term of 3 years.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been constituted by the Government of India, under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
- The Commission is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
Statement 2 is correct
- It is also mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children.
- Six members, out of which at least two are woman, who are person of eminence from the following fields:
- Education
- Child health, care, welfare or child development
- Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities
- Elimination of child labour or children in distress
- Child psychology or sociology
- Laws relating to children
- These members are appointed by the Central Government for a term of 3 years.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Q6. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements with respect to the Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP):
- The goal is to convert at least 80% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2047 and to have Green Tugs operating at all major ports.
- It aims to convert all tugboats working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, running on non-fossil fuel like Methanol, Ammonia, Hydrogen.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sarbananda Sonowal, Union Minister of Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) & AYUSH, virtually inaugurated the 60T bollard pull tug named ‘Ocean Grace’ and the Medical Mobile Unit (MMU) on March 2, 2024.
- The Ocean Grace is the first Make-in-India Approved Standardised Tug Design and Specification (ASTDS) Tug developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited under MoPSW.
- Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP)
- GTTP aims to convert 50% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2030, with major ports transitioning to eco-friendly operations.
Statement 2 is correct
- It will convert all tugboats working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, running on non-fossil fuel like Methanol, Ammonia, Hydrogen.
- By implementing measures to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, domestic/short sea shipping ferries, port vessels (tugs/crafts/dredgers) India aims to achieve a remarkable reduction of 50% by 2030 to 70% by 2047 as a part of Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sarbananda Sonowal, Union Minister of Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) & AYUSH, virtually inaugurated the 60T bollard pull tug named ‘Ocean Grace’ and the Medical Mobile Unit (MMU) on March 2, 2024.
- The Ocean Grace is the first Make-in-India Approved Standardised Tug Design and Specification (ASTDS) Tug developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited under MoPSW.
- Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP)
- GTTP aims to convert 50% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2030, with major ports transitioning to eco-friendly operations.
Statement 2 is correct
- It will convert all tugboats working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, running on non-fossil fuel like Methanol, Ammonia, Hydrogen.
- By implementing measures to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, domestic/short sea shipping ferries, port vessels (tugs/crafts/dredgers) India aims to achieve a remarkable reduction of 50% by 2030 to 70% by 2047 as a part of Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sarbananda Sonowal, Union Minister of Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) & AYUSH, virtually inaugurated the 60T bollard pull tug named ‘Ocean Grace’ and the Medical Mobile Unit (MMU) on March 2, 2024.
- The Ocean Grace is the first Make-in-India Approved Standardised Tug Design and Specification (ASTDS) Tug developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited under MoPSW.
- Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP)
- GTTP aims to convert 50% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2030, with major ports transitioning to eco-friendly operations.
Statement 2 is correct
- It will convert all tugboats working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, running on non-fossil fuel like Methanol, Ammonia, Hydrogen.
- By implementing measures to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, domestic/short sea shipping ferries, port vessels (tugs/crafts/dredgers) India aims to achieve a remarkable reduction of 50% by 2030 to 70% by 2047 as a part of Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Q7. {S&T – IPR – GI Tag} Risa Textile which got Geographical Indication tag recently originates from?
Correct
Explanation
- Tripura’s traditional tribal attire ‘Risa’ received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag recently.
- Risa Textile is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment and also as headgear, a stole, or a present to express respect.
- It is woven in colourful designs and has a crucial social and religious significance.
- Adolescent Tripuri girls are first given a risa to wear in an event called Risa Sormani, around age 12 to 14.
- Risa is common in almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura.
- The traditional Tripuri female attire consists of three parts; risa, rignai and rikutu.
- Risa is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment.
- Rignai is primarily worn as the lower garment and literally means ‘to wear’.
- Rituku is mainly used as a wrap, or like a ‘chunri’ or a ‘pallu’ of the Indian saree.
- It is also used to cover the heads of newly married Tripuri women.
Answer: (d) Tripura; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Tripura’s traditional tribal attire ‘Risa’ received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag recently.
- Risa Textile is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment and also as headgear, a stole, or a present to express respect.
- It is woven in colourful designs and has a crucial social and religious significance.
- Adolescent Tripuri girls are first given a risa to wear in an event called Risa Sormani, around age 12 to 14.
- Risa is common in almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura.
- The traditional Tripuri female attire consists of three parts; risa, rignai and rikutu.
- Risa is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment.
- Rignai is primarily worn as the lower garment and literally means ‘to wear’.
- Rituku is mainly used as a wrap, or like a ‘chunri’ or a ‘pallu’ of the Indian saree.
- It is also used to cover the heads of newly married Tripuri women.
Answer: (d) Tripura; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Tripura’s traditional tribal attire ‘Risa’ received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag recently.
- Risa Textile is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment and also as headgear, a stole, or a present to express respect.
- It is woven in colourful designs and has a crucial social and religious significance.
- Adolescent Tripuri girls are first given a risa to wear in an event called Risa Sormani, around age 12 to 14.
- Risa is common in almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura.
- The traditional Tripuri female attire consists of three parts; risa, rignai and rikutu.
- Risa is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment.
- Rignai is primarily worn as the lower garment and literally means ‘to wear’.
- Rituku is mainly used as a wrap, or like a ‘chunri’ or a ‘pallu’ of the Indian saree.
- It is also used to cover the heads of newly married Tripuri women.
Answer: (d) Tripura; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Q8. {S&T – Defense} Consider the following statements about ADITI Scheme:
- It aims to develop 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies that are needed for the national security of India.
- Start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 100 crore for their research under this scheme.
- It has been constituted under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- It aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies in the proposed timeframe of 2023-24 to 2025-26.
- The scheme strengthens the aim of self-reliance in defence production.
- With this initiative, the government is promoting indigenous technologies and talents to give their best and contribute to the ideology of Make In India.
- Maybe in the future, we can also export defence technologies to the world and become one of the key players in Defence technologies around the globe.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Under this scheme start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their research, development and innovation endeavours in defence technology.
- The Applying Startup should be recognized by the DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The company must be embodied under the Companies Act 1956/2013.
- Individual innovators can also apply for the ADITI scheme. However, post-selection they have to register as a Startup/ MSME.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- It falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- It aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies in the proposed timeframe of 2023-24 to 2025-26.
- The scheme strengthens the aim of self-reliance in defence production.
- With this initiative, the government is promoting indigenous technologies and talents to give their best and contribute to the ideology of Make In India.
- Maybe in the future, we can also export defence technologies to the world and become one of the key players in Defence technologies around the globe.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Under this scheme start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their research, development and innovation endeavours in defence technology.
- The Applying Startup should be recognized by the DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The company must be embodied under the Companies Act 1956/2013.
- Individual innovators can also apply for the ADITI scheme. However, post-selection they have to register as a Startup/ MSME.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- It falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- It aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies in the proposed timeframe of 2023-24 to 2025-26.
- The scheme strengthens the aim of self-reliance in defence production.
- With this initiative, the government is promoting indigenous technologies and talents to give their best and contribute to the ideology of Make In India.
- Maybe in the future, we can also export defence technologies to the world and become one of the key players in Defence technologies around the globe.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Under this scheme start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their research, development and innovation endeavours in defence technology.
- The Applying Startup should be recognized by the DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The company must be embodied under the Companies Act 1956/2013.
- Individual innovators can also apply for the ADITI scheme. However, post-selection they have to register as a Startup/ MSME.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- It falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements with respect to recently released Women, Business and Law Index:
- The index measures how laws and regulations affect women’s economic opportunity on a scale from 0 to 100.
- It has been published by World Economic Forum and UN Women.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Women, Business and Law Index is a World Bank index to measure how laws and regulations affect women’s economic opportunity on a scale from 0 to 100, where 100 means equal legal rights for men and women.
- The report covers eight related areas: Mobility, workplace, pay, marriage, parenthood, entrepreneurship, assets and pension.
- India’s rank improved to 113 out of 190 countries in the World Bank’s Women, Business and Law index.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The data offer objective and measurable benchmarks for evaluating global progress toward legal gender equality.
- It has been published by World Bank.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Women, Business and Law Index is a World Bank index to measure how laws and regulations affect women’s economic opportunity on a scale from 0 to 100, where 100 means equal legal rights for men and women.
- The report covers eight related areas: Mobility, workplace, pay, marriage, parenthood, entrepreneurship, assets and pension.
- India’s rank improved to 113 out of 190 countries in the World Bank’s Women, Business and Law index.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The data offer objective and measurable benchmarks for evaluating global progress toward legal gender equality.
- It has been published by World Bank.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Women, Business and Law Index is a World Bank index to measure how laws and regulations affect women’s economic opportunity on a scale from 0 to 100, where 100 means equal legal rights for men and women.
- The report covers eight related areas: Mobility, workplace, pay, marriage, parenthood, entrepreneurship, assets and pension.
- India’s rank improved to 113 out of 190 countries in the World Bank’s Women, Business and Law index.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The data offer objective and measurable benchmarks for evaluating global progress toward legal gender equality.
- It has been published by World Bank.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – In News} Cycas Circinalis, recently seen in news is a?
Correct
Explanation
- Cycas circinalis, locally known as Eenthu Pana, a palm like tree, faces imminent extinction in northern Kerala due to an unidentified, rapidly spreading plant disease.
- Belonging to the endangered Cycad family, these ancient plants originated 300 million years ago.
- Growing up to 25 ft., Eenthu Pana thrives in hilly woodlands and holds cultural significance.
- Similar to the areca nut, it requires thorough drying before preparation, a challenge during the rainy season.
- Endemic to the Western Ghats, it serves as a nutraceutical plant for indigenous communities.
Answer: (d) Palm like tree facing Extinction; Difficulty Level: Tough
Incorrect
Explanation
- Cycas circinalis, locally known as Eenthu Pana, a palm like tree, faces imminent extinction in northern Kerala due to an unidentified, rapidly spreading plant disease.
- Belonging to the endangered Cycad family, these ancient plants originated 300 million years ago.
- Growing up to 25 ft., Eenthu Pana thrives in hilly woodlands and holds cultural significance.
- Similar to the areca nut, it requires thorough drying before preparation, a challenge during the rainy season.
- Endemic to the Western Ghats, it serves as a nutraceutical plant for indigenous communities.
Answer: (d) Palm like tree facing Extinction; Difficulty Level: Tough
Unattempted
Explanation
- Cycas circinalis, locally known as Eenthu Pana, a palm like tree, faces imminent extinction in northern Kerala due to an unidentified, rapidly spreading plant disease.
- Belonging to the endangered Cycad family, these ancient plants originated 300 million years ago.
- Growing up to 25 ft., Eenthu Pana thrives in hilly woodlands and holds cultural significance.
- Similar to the areca nut, it requires thorough drying before preparation, a challenge during the rainy season.
- Endemic to the Western Ghats, it serves as a nutraceutical plant for indigenous communities.
Answer: (d) Palm like tree facing Extinction; Difficulty Level: Tough
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