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Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – April 10 2024 "
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
Q1. {Agri – Crops} Consider the following statements with respect to Lavender Cultivation:
It is a small, perennial aromatic herb shrub native to the region of Jammu and Kashmir, used in the fragrance and alternative medicine industries.
Propagation of lavender can be done by seeds, rooted cuttings, tissue culture, layering and can go well with poor or eroded soil.
The ideal climatic conditions are cool winters and cool summers with good amount of sunlight.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Lavender is a crop native to Europe but was introduced in the temperate regions of Jammu & Kashmir state by the CSIR Aroma Mission.
It is a small, perennialaromatic herb shrub used in the fragrance, specialty food, and alternative medicine industries.
Statement 2 is correct
Propagation of lavender can be done by seeds, rooted cuttings, tissueculture, and layering.
It can grow well in light well-aerated soil rich with organic matter.
It grows best in neutral to alkaline soil which is free draining.
This crop is very sensitive to waterlogging however can go well withpoor or eroded soil.
Statement 3 is correct
It can produce well with an annual rainfall range from 300 to 1400 mm per year.
It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions.
The ideal climatic conditions are cool winters and cool summers.
It requires a good amount of sunlight.
It can be grown in areas that experience snowfall and have a hilly terrain.
Its applications are in Food and flavoring, Pharmaceutical and therapeutic, Cosmetic, and Industrial purposes etc.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Lavender is a crop native to Europe but was introduced in the temperate regions of Jammu & Kashmir state by the CSIR Aroma Mission.
It is a small, perennialaromatic herb shrub used in the fragrance, specialty food, and alternative medicine industries.
Statement 2 is correct
Propagation of lavender can be done by seeds, rooted cuttings, tissueculture, and layering.
It can grow well in light well-aerated soil rich with organic matter.
It grows best in neutral to alkaline soil which is free draining.
This crop is very sensitive to waterlogging however can go well withpoor or eroded soil.
Statement 3 is correct
It can produce well with an annual rainfall range from 300 to 1400 mm per year.
It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions.
The ideal climatic conditions are cool winters and cool summers.
It requires a good amount of sunlight.
It can be grown in areas that experience snowfall and have a hilly terrain.
Its applications are in Food and flavoring, Pharmaceutical and therapeutic, Cosmetic, and Industrial purposes etc.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Lavender is a crop native to Europe but was introduced in the temperate regions of Jammu & Kashmir state by the CSIR Aroma Mission.
It is a small, perennialaromatic herb shrub used in the fragrance, specialty food, and alternative medicine industries.
Statement 2 is correct
Propagation of lavender can be done by seeds, rooted cuttings, tissueculture, and layering.
It can grow well in light well-aerated soil rich with organic matter.
It grows best in neutral to alkaline soil which is free draining.
This crop is very sensitive to waterlogging however can go well withpoor or eroded soil.
Statement 3 is correct
It can produce well with an annual rainfall range from 300 to 1400 mm per year.
It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions.
The ideal climatic conditions are cool winters and cool summers.
It requires a good amount of sunlight.
It can be grown in areas that experience snowfall and have a hilly terrain.
Its applications are in Food and flavoring, Pharmaceutical and therapeutic, Cosmetic, and Industrial purposes etc.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Q2. {Internal Security – Money Laundering} Consider the following statements about Predicate Offences:
It is used to describe criminal activity associated with money laundering or terrorist financing activities.
There is no legal provision in India to punish predicate offence.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
A predicate offence is a crime that is a component of a more complex criminal activity, often associated with money laundering or organised crime.
It serves as the underlying criminal act that generates proceeds or funds for the subsequent illegal activity.
The term “predicate offence” is usually used to describe money laundering or terrorist financing activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Predicate Offence under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):
The legislative intent behind predicate offences under PMLA finds its roots in the pursuit of curbing not only illicitly gained wealth but also income legally acquiredyet concealed from the watchful eyes of public authorities.
The PMLA designates certain offences as predicate offences through the Schedule, consisting of three parts:
Part A:
This section enumerates offencesunder theIndian Penal Code (IPC) that are deemed predicate offences.
Ranging from criminal conspiracy, waging war against the government, counterfeiting, to offences related to extortion, robbery, forgery, cheating, and more, Part A delves into the core fabric of criminal activities.
Part B:
Under this section, offences under the Customs Act become predicate offences if their value exceeds one crore rupees.
This section focuses on violations related to customs duties and regulations.
Part C:
This segment encompasses offences of cross-border implications, encompassing not only Part A’s offences but also those against property under Chapter XVII of the Indian Penal Code.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
A predicate offence is a crime that is a component of a more complex criminal activity, often associated with money laundering or organised crime.
It serves as the underlying criminal act that generates proceeds or funds for the subsequent illegal activity.
The term “predicate offence” is usually used to describe money laundering or terrorist financing activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Predicate Offence under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):
The legislative intent behind predicate offences under PMLA finds its roots in the pursuit of curbing not only illicitly gained wealth but also income legally acquiredyet concealed from the watchful eyes of public authorities.
The PMLA designates certain offences as predicate offences through the Schedule, consisting of three parts:
Part A:
This section enumerates offencesunder theIndian Penal Code (IPC) that are deemed predicate offences.
Ranging from criminal conspiracy, waging war against the government, counterfeiting, to offences related to extortion, robbery, forgery, cheating, and more, Part A delves into the core fabric of criminal activities.
Part B:
Under this section, offences under the Customs Act become predicate offences if their value exceeds one crore rupees.
This section focuses on violations related to customs duties and regulations.
Part C:
This segment encompasses offences of cross-border implications, encompassing not only Part A’s offences but also those against property under Chapter XVII of the Indian Penal Code.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
A predicate offence is a crime that is a component of a more complex criminal activity, often associated with money laundering or organised crime.
It serves as the underlying criminal act that generates proceeds or funds for the subsequent illegal activity.
The term “predicate offence” is usually used to describe money laundering or terrorist financing activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Predicate Offence under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):
The legislative intent behind predicate offences under PMLA finds its roots in the pursuit of curbing not only illicitly gained wealth but also income legally acquiredyet concealed from the watchful eyes of public authorities.
The PMLA designates certain offences as predicate offences through the Schedule, consisting of three parts:
Part A:
This section enumerates offencesunder theIndian Penal Code (IPC) that are deemed predicate offences.
Ranging from criminal conspiracy, waging war against the government, counterfeiting, to offences related to extortion, robbery, forgery, cheating, and more, Part A delves into the core fabric of criminal activities.
Part B:
Under this section, offences under the Customs Act become predicate offences if their value exceeds one crore rupees.
This section focuses on violations related to customs duties and regulations.
Part C:
This segment encompasses offences of cross-border implications, encompassing not only Part A’s offences but also those against property under Chapter XVII of the Indian Penal Code.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – IR – UN} Consider the following statements about United Nations (UN) Membership Process:
States are admitted to membership in the UN by a decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
For a country to attain achieve full membership it should receive all 15 votes of members of the Security Council.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
UN full membership is open to allpeace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and are able to carry out these obligations.
States are admitted to membership in the United Nations by a decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The procedure to achieve full membership:
The State submits an application to the Secretary-General and a letter formally stating that it accepts the obligations under the Charter.
The Security Council considers the application.
Any recommendation for admission must receive the affirmativevotes of9 of the 15 members of the Council, provided that none of its five permanent members have voted against the application.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
UN full membership is open to allpeace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and are able to carry out these obligations.
States are admitted to membership in the United Nations by a decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The procedure to achieve full membership:
The State submits an application to the Secretary-General and a letter formally stating that it accepts the obligations under the Charter.
The Security Council considers the application.
Any recommendation for admission must receive the affirmativevotes of9 of the 15 members of the Council, provided that none of its five permanent members have voted against the application.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
UN full membership is open to allpeace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and are able to carry out these obligations.
States are admitted to membership in the United Nations by a decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The procedure to achieve full membership:
The State submits an application to the Secretary-General and a letter formally stating that it accepts the obligations under the Charter.
The Security Council considers the application.
Any recommendation for admission must receive the affirmativevotes of9 of the 15 members of the Council, provided that none of its five permanent members have voted against the application.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – Governance – Urban Local Bodies} Consider the following statements with respect to Cantonments:
A cantonment is both created and administered by the Central government.
Both the elected members and nominated members hold office for a term of five years.
Only six cantonments have been established after India’s independence.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
Cantonments are designed as places of residence of both civilians and military personnel.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006, a legislation enacted by the Central government.
It is the Entry 3 of Union List (Schedule VII) of the Constitution of India.
It works under the administrative control of the Defense Ministry of the Central government.
Directorate General Defence Estates (DGDE) is an Inter Services Organisation of the Ministry of Defence which directly controls the Cantonment Administration.
Thus, unlike the other urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is createdas well as administered by the Central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect
A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.
The military officercommanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings.
The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years.
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
Cantonments are designed as places of residence of both civilians and military personnel.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006, a legislation enacted by the Central government.
It is the Entry 3 of Union List (Schedule VII) of the Constitution of India.
It works under the administrative control of the Defense Ministry of the Central government.
Directorate General Defence Estates (DGDE) is an Inter Services Organisation of the Ministry of Defence which directly controls the Cantonment Administration.
Thus, unlike the other urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is createdas well as administered by the Central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect
A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.
The military officercommanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings.
The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years.
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
Cantonments are designed as places of residence of both civilians and military personnel.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006, a legislation enacted by the Central government.
It is the Entry 3 of Union List (Schedule VII) of the Constitution of India.
It works under the administrative control of the Defense Ministry of the Central government.
Directorate General Defence Estates (DGDE) is an Inter Services Organisation of the Ministry of Defence which directly controls the Cantonment Administration.
Thus, unlike the other urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is createdas well as administered by the Central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect
A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.
The military officercommanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings.
The vice president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years.
Hepatitis B: It can be transmitted through contact with bodily fluids, including blood, sexual contact, and from a mother to her baby during childbirth.
Hepatitis C: Transmission primarily occurs through exposure to infected blood, such as sharing needles or medical equipment.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Chronic Infections:
Hepatitis B: While some people may clear the virus, others develop chronic hepatitis B.
Infants infected with hepatitis B are particularly prone to chronic infection.
Hepatitis B: It can be transmitted through contact with bodily fluids, including blood, sexual contact, and from a mother to her baby during childbirth.
Hepatitis C: Transmission primarily occurs through exposure to infected blood, such as sharing needles or medical equipment.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Chronic Infections:
Hepatitis B: While some people may clear the virus, others develop chronic hepatitis B.
Infants infected with hepatitis B are particularly prone to chronic infection.
Hepatitis B: It can be transmitted through contact with bodily fluids, including blood, sexual contact, and from a mother to her baby during childbirth.
Hepatitis C: Transmission primarily occurs through exposure to infected blood, such as sharing needles or medical equipment.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Chronic Infections:
Hepatitis B: While some people may clear the virus, others develop chronic hepatitis B.
Infants infected with hepatitis B are particularly prone to chronic infection.
It is a rare species of butterfly, commonly known as the long-streak sailor.
Till date, the butterfly species was known to be found across various regions of east Asia, including eastern Siberia, Korea, Japan, central and southwest China.
The species, which is part of the Nymphalidae family, is known to prefer habitats such as evergreen forests, riverine vegetation, and rocky streams.
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
It is located near the beautiful Apatani cultural landscape in the Lower Subansiri District of Arunachal Pradesh.
Rivers like Pange, Sipu, Karing, and Subansiri flow through this sanctuary.
It has a stunning spectrum of subtropical and alpine forests like silver fir trees, ferns, orchids, bamboo, and rhododendron.
Fauna: Clouded leopard, Himalayan squirrel, Himalayan Black Bear etc.
It is a rare species of butterfly, commonly known as the long-streak sailor.
Till date, the butterfly species was known to be found across various regions of east Asia, including eastern Siberia, Korea, Japan, central and southwest China.
The species, which is part of the Nymphalidae family, is known to prefer habitats such as evergreen forests, riverine vegetation, and rocky streams.
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
It is located near the beautiful Apatani cultural landscape in the Lower Subansiri District of Arunachal Pradesh.
Rivers like Pange, Sipu, Karing, and Subansiri flow through this sanctuary.
It has a stunning spectrum of subtropical and alpine forests like silver fir trees, ferns, orchids, bamboo, and rhododendron.
Fauna: Clouded leopard, Himalayan squirrel, Himalayan Black Bear etc.
It is a rare species of butterfly, commonly known as the long-streak sailor.
Till date, the butterfly species was known to be found across various regions of east Asia, including eastern Siberia, Korea, Japan, central and southwest China.
The species, which is part of the Nymphalidae family, is known to prefer habitats such as evergreen forests, riverine vegetation, and rocky streams.
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
Q7. {S&T – Sci} Which one of the following best describes the ‘Higgs boson’s’ main function in the particle physics?
Correct
Explanation
The Higgs boson is an elementary particle in the Standard Model of particle physics.
Its primary function is to give mass to other fundamental particles through its interaction with the Higgs field.
This interaction results in the fundamental particles acquiring their characteristic masses, with different particles interacting with the Higgs field to varying degrees.
The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts, which makes it approximately 130 timesmore massive than a proton.
It is chargeless and has zero spin, which means it lacks intrinsic angular momentum.
Answer: (d) It gives mass to other fundamental particles; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
The Higgs boson is an elementary particle in the Standard Model of particle physics.
Its primary function is to give mass to other fundamental particles through its interaction with the Higgs field.
This interaction results in the fundamental particles acquiring their characteristic masses, with different particles interacting with the Higgs field to varying degrees.
The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts, which makes it approximately 130 timesmore massive than a proton.
It is chargeless and has zero spin, which means it lacks intrinsic angular momentum.
Answer: (d) It gives mass to other fundamental particles; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
The Higgs boson is an elementary particle in the Standard Model of particle physics.
Its primary function is to give mass to other fundamental particles through its interaction with the Higgs field.
This interaction results in the fundamental particles acquiring their characteristic masses, with different particles interacting with the Higgs field to varying degrees.
The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts, which makes it approximately 130 timesmore massive than a proton.
It is chargeless and has zero spin, which means it lacks intrinsic angular momentum.
Answer: (d) It gives mass to other fundamental particles; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – Festivals} Consider the following pairs:
Festivals
States
Ugadi
Telangana
Puthandu
Karnataka
Gudi Padwa
Maharashtra
Shigmo
Ladakh
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Explanation
Ugadi: Ugadi is the New Year’s Day festival celebrated in the Indian states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.
Puthandu: Puthandu, also known as Tamil New Year, is the first day of the Tamil calendar, typically falling on April 13th or 14th.
It is celebrated in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Sri Lanka, as well as by Tamil communities worldwide.
GudiPadwa: Gudi Padwa is a springtime festival that marks the traditional New Year for Marathi and Konkani Hindus, primarily celebrated in the state of Maharashtra, India.
Shigmo: Shigmo, also known as Shishirotsava, is a vibrant spring festival celebrated in the Indian state of Goa.
It holds significant cultural and religious importance for the Hindu community.
Shigmo is celebrated around March each year, linked to the Hindulunarcalendar, which causes its date according to the Gregorian calendar to vary.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Ugadi: Ugadi is the New Year’s Day festival celebrated in the Indian states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.
Puthandu: Puthandu, also known as Tamil New Year, is the first day of the Tamil calendar, typically falling on April 13th or 14th.
It is celebrated in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Sri Lanka, as well as by Tamil communities worldwide.
GudiPadwa: Gudi Padwa is a springtime festival that marks the traditional New Year for Marathi and Konkani Hindus, primarily celebrated in the state of Maharashtra, India.
Shigmo: Shigmo, also known as Shishirotsava, is a vibrant spring festival celebrated in the Indian state of Goa.
It holds significant cultural and religious importance for the Hindu community.
Shigmo is celebrated around March each year, linked to the Hindulunarcalendar, which causes its date according to the Gregorian calendar to vary.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Ugadi: Ugadi is the New Year’s Day festival celebrated in the Indian states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.
Puthandu: Puthandu, also known as Tamil New Year, is the first day of the Tamil calendar, typically falling on April 13th or 14th.
It is celebrated in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Sri Lanka, as well as by Tamil communities worldwide.
GudiPadwa: Gudi Padwa is a springtime festival that marks the traditional New Year for Marathi and Konkani Hindus, primarily celebrated in the state of Maharashtra, India.
Shigmo: Shigmo, also known as Shishirotsava, is a vibrant spring festival celebrated in the Indian state of Goa.
It holds significant cultural and religious importance for the Hindu community.
Shigmo is celebrated around March each year, linked to the Hindulunarcalendar, which causes its date according to the Gregorian calendar to vary.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – IE – Startups} Funding Winters, in context of Startups, refers to?
Correct
Explanation
Funding Winters refers to a period characterized by a decline in venture capital investment and overall funding opportunities for startups.
During this time, investors tend to be more cautious with their investments due to economic uncertainty or other factors that may affect the startup ecosystem.
Consequently, it becomes more challenging for early-stage startups to secure the necessary funding for their growth and development.
The duration of a funding winter is unpredictable.
It may last for a long time depending on the multiple factors acting upon it.
It can take place due to geopolitical unrest, or monetary policies and financial irregularities in a country.
Answer: (d) A period of economic recession that leads to a decrease in investor confidence and available funding for startups; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Funding Winters refers to a period characterized by a decline in venture capital investment and overall funding opportunities for startups.
During this time, investors tend to be more cautious with their investments due to economic uncertainty or other factors that may affect the startup ecosystem.
Consequently, it becomes more challenging for early-stage startups to secure the necessary funding for their growth and development.
The duration of a funding winter is unpredictable.
It may last for a long time depending on the multiple factors acting upon it.
It can take place due to geopolitical unrest, or monetary policies and financial irregularities in a country.
Answer: (d) A period of economic recession that leads to a decrease in investor confidence and available funding for startups; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Funding Winters refers to a period characterized by a decline in venture capital investment and overall funding opportunities for startups.
During this time, investors tend to be more cautious with their investments due to economic uncertainty or other factors that may affect the startup ecosystem.
Consequently, it becomes more challenging for early-stage startups to secure the necessary funding for their growth and development.
The duration of a funding winter is unpredictable.
It may last for a long time depending on the multiple factors acting upon it.
It can take place due to geopolitical unrest, or monetary policies and financial irregularities in a country.
Answer: (d) A period of economic recession that leads to a decrease in investor confidence and available funding for startups; Difficulty Level: Medium
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