December 27 2023 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
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- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
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[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – December 27 2023
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 6
1. Question
Q1. {Polity – Parliament} Consider the following statements:
- Parliament passes Supplementary Demand for Grants after the end of the financial year.
- The Lok Sabha can’t vote on Excess Grant until it is approved by the Public Accounts Committee.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Supplementary Demand for Grants is raised when the expenditure exceeds the Parliament-authorised amount for that year.
- Parliament must pass this before the end of the financial year.
Statement 2 is correct
- Excess Grant is granted when money is already spent on any service during a financial year over the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year.
- The Lok Sabha votes on it after the financial year.
- Before that, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Supplementary Demand for Grants is raised when the expenditure exceeds the Parliament-authorised amount for that year.
- Parliament must pass this before the end of the financial year.
Statement 2 is correct
- Excess Grant is granted when money is already spent on any service during a financial year over the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year.
- The Lok Sabha votes on it after the financial year.
- Before that, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Supplementary Demand for Grants is raised when the expenditure exceeds the Parliament-authorised amount for that year.
- Parliament must pass this before the end of the financial year.
Statement 2 is correct
- Excess Grant is granted when money is already spent on any service during a financial year over the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year.
- The Lok Sabha votes on it after the financial year.
- Before that, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 6
2. Question
Q2. {MoHA – Laws} Consider the following statements with regards to Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023:
- ‘Facts in issue’ refer to any fact determining the existence, nature, or extent of any right, liability, or disability claimed or denied in a legal proceeding.
- Confessions made in police custody are completely inadmissible.
- The Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam(BSA) adds that electronic records like email records, server logs, smartphones, locational evidence and voice mails, will have the same legal effect as paper records.
- The Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam(BSA) permits witnesses, accused persons, and victims to testify electronically.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Admissible evidence can be classified as ‘facts in issue’ or ‘relevant facts’.
- Facts in issue refer to any fact determining the existence, nature, or extent of any right, liability, or disability claimed or denied in a legal proceeding.
- Relevant facts are facts that are pertinent to a given case. The Indian Evidence Act (IEA) provides two kinds of evidence – documentary and oral evidence.
- Parties involved in a legal proceeding can only present admissible evidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Any confession made to a police officer is inadmissible.
- Confessions made in police custody are also inadmissible unless recorded by a Magistrate.
- However, if a fact is discovered due to information received from an accused in custody, that information may be admitted if it distinctly relates to the fact discovered.
Statement 3 is correct
- The BSA adds that electronic records will also be considered as documents.
- It expands electronic records to include information stored in semiconductor memory or communication devices.
- This will include email records, server logs, smartphones, locational evidence and voice mails.
- The BSA provides that electronic or digital records will have the same legal effect as paper records.
Statement 4 is correct
- The BSA allows oral evidence to be given electronically.
- This would permit witnesses, accused persons, and victims to testify electronically.
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Admissible evidence can be classified as ‘facts in issue’ or ‘relevant facts’.
- Facts in issue refer to any fact determining the existence, nature, or extent of any right, liability, or disability claimed or denied in a legal proceeding.
- Relevant facts are facts that are pertinent to a given case. The Indian Evidence Act (IEA) provides two kinds of evidence – documentary and oral evidence.
- Parties involved in a legal proceeding can only present admissible evidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Any confession made to a police officer is inadmissible.
- Confessions made in police custody are also inadmissible unless recorded by a Magistrate.
- However, if a fact is discovered due to information received from an accused in custody, that information may be admitted if it distinctly relates to the fact discovered.
Statement 3 is correct
- The BSA adds that electronic records will also be considered as documents.
- It expands electronic records to include information stored in semiconductor memory or communication devices.
- This will include email records, server logs, smartphones, locational evidence and voice mails.
- The BSA provides that electronic or digital records will have the same legal effect as paper records.
Statement 4 is correct
- The BSA allows oral evidence to be given electronically.
- This would permit witnesses, accused persons, and victims to testify electronically.
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Admissible evidence can be classified as ‘facts in issue’ or ‘relevant facts’.
- Facts in issue refer to any fact determining the existence, nature, or extent of any right, liability, or disability claimed or denied in a legal proceeding.
- Relevant facts are facts that are pertinent to a given case. The Indian Evidence Act (IEA) provides two kinds of evidence – documentary and oral evidence.
- Parties involved in a legal proceeding can only present admissible evidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Any confession made to a police officer is inadmissible.
- Confessions made in police custody are also inadmissible unless recorded by a Magistrate.
- However, if a fact is discovered due to information received from an accused in custody, that information may be admitted if it distinctly relates to the fact discovered.
Statement 3 is correct
- The BSA adds that electronic records will also be considered as documents.
- It expands electronic records to include information stored in semiconductor memory or communication devices.
- This will include email records, server logs, smartphones, locational evidence and voice mails.
- The BSA provides that electronic or digital records will have the same legal effect as paper records.
Statement 4 is correct
- The BSA allows oral evidence to be given electronically.
- This would permit witnesses, accused persons, and victims to testify electronically.
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 6
3. Question
Q3. {IC – FR} Consider the following statements with respect to Places of Worship Act, 1991:
- It Ensures that the religious identity of a place of worship remains the same as it was on August 15, 1947.
- The Act applies to all Ancient and historical monuments as well as archaeological sites in India.
- Judicial Review is not applicable to Places of Worship act, 1991.
- Pilgrimage Sites or Burial Grounds are placed under the Union List.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Act Prevents the conversion of a place of worship, whether in whole or part, from one religious’ denomination to another or within the same denomination.
- It Ensures that the religious identity of a place of worship remains the same as it was on August 15, 1947.
- Any ongoing legal proceedings concerning the conversion of a place of worship’s religious character before August 15, 1947, will be terminated, and no new cases can be initiated.
- Legal proceedings can be initiated if the status change occurred after August 15, 1947.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The act does not apply to Ancient and historical monuments, archaeological sites, and remains covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act of 1958.
Statement 3 is correct
- The act prevents judicial review, a fundamental aspect of the Constitution. This undermines the checks and balances system and limits the judiciary’s role in protecting constitutional rights.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The act covers “Pilgrimage sites” or “burial grounds” (which are placed in the State List). This violates the rights of the states.
- Centre’s Response: Entry 97 of the Union List’s residuary power allows the centre to enforce the act w.r.t “Pilgrimage sites” or “burial grounds”.
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 ; Difficulty level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Act Prevents the conversion of a place of worship, whether in whole or part, from one religious’ denomination to another or within the same denomination.
- It Ensures that the religious identity of a place of worship remains the same as it was on August 15, 1947.
- Any ongoing legal proceedings concerning the conversion of a place of worship’s religious character before August 15, 1947, will be terminated, and no new cases can be initiated.
- Legal proceedings can be initiated if the status change occurred after August 15, 1947.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The act does not apply to Ancient and historical monuments, archaeological sites, and remains covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act of 1958.
Statement 3 is correct
- The act prevents judicial review, a fundamental aspect of the Constitution. This undermines the checks and balances system and limits the judiciary’s role in protecting constitutional rights.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The act covers “Pilgrimage sites” or “burial grounds” (which are placed in the State List). This violates the rights of the states.
- Centre’s Response: Entry 97 of the Union List’s residuary power allows the centre to enforce the act w.r.t “Pilgrimage sites” or “burial grounds”.
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 ; Difficulty level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Act Prevents the conversion of a place of worship, whether in whole or part, from one religious’ denomination to another or within the same denomination.
- It Ensures that the religious identity of a place of worship remains the same as it was on August 15, 1947.
- Any ongoing legal proceedings concerning the conversion of a place of worship’s religious character before August 15, 1947, will be terminated, and no new cases can be initiated.
- Legal proceedings can be initiated if the status change occurred after August 15, 1947.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The act does not apply to Ancient and historical monuments, archaeological sites, and remains covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act of 1958.
Statement 3 is correct
- The act prevents judicial review, a fundamental aspect of the Constitution. This undermines the checks and balances system and limits the judiciary’s role in protecting constitutional rights.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The act covers “Pilgrimage sites” or “burial grounds” (which are placed in the State List). This violates the rights of the states.
- Centre’s Response: Entry 97 of the Union List’s residuary power allows the centre to enforce the act w.r.t “Pilgrimage sites” or “burial grounds”.
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 ; Difficulty level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 6
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – Invasive Species} Lantana Camara, recently seen in news is?
Correct
Explanation
- Lantana is on the IUCN’s list of top 100 invasive species.
- The native range of Lantana camara is Central and South America.
- It was introduced in the country as an ornamental plant by the British in the 1800s.
- Lantanas occupy 40 per cent of forests, including tiger reserves.
- In the Bandipur National Park, an estimated 60% is affected by Lantana, which hinders the growth of native vegetation that herbivores such as deer and elephants feed on.
- Lantana has also invaded most pasture lands in the country.
- Lantana camara is known to be toxic to livestock, causing liver damage and photosensitivity.
- It is difficult to eradicate due to rapid spread, infestation intensity, allelopathy, opportunistic growth behaviour, reproductivity biology traits, and tenacious resistance to cutting and burning.
Answer: (a) An Invasive Plant species which is on the IUCN’s list of top 100 invasive species and has taken over India’s forests, driving wild animals out for foraging ; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Lantana is on the IUCN’s list of top 100 invasive species.
- The native range of Lantana camara is Central and South America.
- It was introduced in the country as an ornamental plant by the British in the 1800s.
- Lantanas occupy 40 per cent of forests, including tiger reserves.
- In the Bandipur National Park, an estimated 60% is affected by Lantana, which hinders the growth of native vegetation that herbivores such as deer and elephants feed on.
- Lantana has also invaded most pasture lands in the country.
- Lantana camara is known to be toxic to livestock, causing liver damage and photosensitivity.
- It is difficult to eradicate due to rapid spread, infestation intensity, allelopathy, opportunistic growth behaviour, reproductivity biology traits, and tenacious resistance to cutting and burning.
Answer: (a) An Invasive Plant species which is on the IUCN’s list of top 100 invasive species and has taken over India’s forests, driving wild animals out for foraging ; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Lantana is on the IUCN’s list of top 100 invasive species.
- The native range of Lantana camara is Central and South America.
- It was introduced in the country as an ornamental plant by the British in the 1800s.
- Lantanas occupy 40 per cent of forests, including tiger reserves.
- In the Bandipur National Park, an estimated 60% is affected by Lantana, which hinders the growth of native vegetation that herbivores such as deer and elephants feed on.
- Lantana has also invaded most pasture lands in the country.
- Lantana camara is known to be toxic to livestock, causing liver damage and photosensitivity.
- It is difficult to eradicate due to rapid spread, infestation intensity, allelopathy, opportunistic growth behaviour, reproductivity biology traits, and tenacious resistance to cutting and burning.
Answer: (a) An Invasive Plant species which is on the IUCN’s list of top 100 invasive species and has taken over India’s forests, driving wild animals out for foraging ; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 6
5. Question
Q5. {IS – Initiatives} Consider the following statements about Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR):
- Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) is a 24/7 regional information-sharing centre, located in Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
- White Shipping information refers to the exchange of advance information on the movement of non-military merchant vessels.
- Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC), set up under the Sagarmala Project, is the single point centre interlinking all the coastal radar chains to generate a seamless real-time picture of India’s 7,500-km long coastline.
- IMAC is Jointly administered by Indian Navy and Indian Coastguard.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- IFC-IOR, hosted by the Indian Navy, was established by the GoI in 2018.
- It is a 24/7 regional information-sharing centre.
- It is established at Gurugram, Haryana, co-located with the Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC).
Statement 2 is correct
- White Shipping information refers to the exchange of advance information on the movement of non-military merchant vessels.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- IMAC, set up in the aftermath of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks, is the single point centre interlinking all the coastal radar chains to generate a seamless real-time picture of India’s 7,500-km long coastline.
Statement 4 is correct
- Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) is jointly administered by the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- IFC-IOR, hosted by the Indian Navy, was established by the GoI in 2018.
- It is a 24/7 regional information-sharing centre.
- It is established at Gurugram, Haryana, co-located with the Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC).
Statement 2 is correct
- White Shipping information refers to the exchange of advance information on the movement of non-military merchant vessels.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- IMAC, set up in the aftermath of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks, is the single point centre interlinking all the coastal radar chains to generate a seamless real-time picture of India’s 7,500-km long coastline.
Statement 4 is correct
- Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) is jointly administered by the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- IFC-IOR, hosted by the Indian Navy, was established by the GoI in 2018.
- It is a 24/7 regional information-sharing centre.
- It is established at Gurugram, Haryana, co-located with the Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC).
Statement 2 is correct
- White Shipping information refers to the exchange of advance information on the movement of non-military merchant vessels.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- IMAC, set up in the aftermath of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks, is the single point centre interlinking all the coastal radar chains to generate a seamless real-time picture of India’s 7,500-km long coastline.
Statement 4 is correct
- Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) is jointly administered by the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 6
6. Question
Q6. {IE – Securities} Consider the following statements with respect to T+0 settlement:
- At present, the settlement of funds and securities happens on the T+1 cycle.
- T+0 settlement shall be made available in the top 500 listed equity shares based on their Traded Volumes.
- The United States, United Kingdom, and Eurozone markets have successfully moved to T+0 Settlement System.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SEBI has proposed the introduction of a facility for clearing and settlement of funds and securities on T+0 (same day) and instant settlement cycle on an optional basis.
- At present, the settlement of funds and securities happens on the T+1 cycle introduced in 2021 and implemented in January 2023. Under it, securities and funds are settled by the next day of the trade.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Initially, T+0 settlement shall be made available in the top 500 listed equity shares based on the market capitalisation.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The United States, United Kingdom, and Eurozone markets have not moved even to the T+1 system.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SEBI has proposed the introduction of a facility for clearing and settlement of funds and securities on T+0 (same day) and instant settlement cycle on an optional basis.
- At present, the settlement of funds and securities happens on the T+1 cycle introduced in 2021 and implemented in January 2023. Under it, securities and funds are settled by the next day of the trade.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Initially, T+0 settlement shall be made available in the top 500 listed equity shares based on the market capitalisation.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The United States, United Kingdom, and Eurozone markets have not moved even to the T+1 system.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SEBI has proposed the introduction of a facility for clearing and settlement of funds and securities on T+0 (same day) and instant settlement cycle on an optional basis.
- At present, the settlement of funds and securities happens on the T+1 cycle introduced in 2021 and implemented in January 2023. Under it, securities and funds are settled by the next day of the trade.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Initially, T+0 settlement shall be made available in the top 500 listed equity shares based on the market capitalisation.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The United States, United Kingdom, and Eurozone markets have not moved even to the T+1 system.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
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