April 11 2024 Current Affairs MCQs

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Under the Peace Clause, WTO members refrain from challenging any breach in the prescribed subsidy ceiling given by a developing nation at the dispute settlement forum of the WTO.
• The peace clause allows developing countries to breach the subsidy ceiling without being dragged into dispute by members, for rice. However, it comes with tough notification requirements and conditions, all of which are difficult to follow.
• It was put in place in 2013 under the Bali Agreement.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Subsidies over and above the prescribed ceiling are seen as trade-distorting.
• The limit is fixed at 10% of the value of food production for developing countries like India. For developed countries, it is 5%.

Statement 3 is correct

• India has invoked the peace clause at the World Trade Organization (WTO) for the fifth consecutive time due to breaching the prescribed subsidy limit for rice offered to its farmers.
• India had earlier invoked the clause for 2018-19, when it became the first country to do so.
• WTO is a rules based organisation, and the peace clause is seen as a departure from those rules.
• The flexibility provided by WTO in the peace clause is leading to conflict of interest between developed and developing nations.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Tons River originates at a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand.
• It flows through the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand and touches Himachal Pradesh.
• Surging from that great height, the glacier-fed river’s course ends when it meets the Yamuna River.
• It joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand.
• Along the way, the river cuts through deep gorges, tranquil valleys, and dense forests.

Statement 2 is correct

• It is the largest and most important tributary of the Yamuna.
• It is one of the most important perennial rivers emerging from the Himalayas.
• Tons, even being a tributary, contribute more water than Yamuna itself possesses at the point of meeting.
• The Pabbar and Asan rivers are the main tributaries of the Tons River.
• The Tons Valley is also culturally significant, inhabited by indigenous communities like the Jaunsari and Bhotiya tribes, who have their own unique traditions, dialects, and lifestyles.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is an earth-fill embankment dam on the Beas River in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India.
• The Ichari Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Tons River 13 km (8 mi) north of Dakpathar in Uttarakhand, India.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• After malaria, kala-azar is the deadliest parasitic disease in the world.
• It is one of the three conditions in the disease group called leishmaniasis caused by the protozoa parasite Leishmania.
• It is caused by a protozoan parasite of the genus Leishmania, which is transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• It is ransmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.
• The parasite primarily infects the reticuloendothelial system and may be found in abundance in the bone marrow, spleen, and liver.
• Post Kala-azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (PKDL) is a condition when Leishmania donovani invades skin cells, resides and develops there, and manifests as dermal leisions. Some of the kala-azar cases manifests PKD later a few years of treatment.

Statement 3 is correct

• It is one of the most dangerous neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) and is endemic in 76 countries.
• It is also known as black fever or Dum-Dum fever, referring to the greyish or blackish discoloration of the skin during infection.
• Kala-azar is characterized by irregular bouts of fever, substantial weight loss, swelling of the spleen and liver, and severe anaemia.
• If the disease is not treated early and in time, affected individuals can die within two years.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) was established in 1968 and is the independent and quasi-judicial monitoring body for the implementation of the United Nations international drug control conventions.
• It was established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961 by merging two bodies: the Permanent Central Narcotics Board, created by the 1925 International Opium Convention; and the Drug Supervisory Body, created by the 1931 Convention for Limiting the Manufacture and Regulating the Distribution of Narcotic Drugs.
• INCB endeavours in cooperation with Governments, to ensure that adequate supplies of drugs are available for medical and scientific uses and that the diversion of drugs from licit sources to illicit channels does not occur.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• It consists of 13 members who are elected by the Economic and Social Council and who serve in their capacity, not as government representatives.
• Three members with medical, pharmacological or pharmaceutical experience are elected from a list of persons nominated by the World Health Organization (WHO) and 10 members are elected from a list of persons nominated by Governments.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Curative Petition is a way to ask the court to review and revise their own decision, and it is filed after a review petition is dismissed or used.
• It is the final and last option for the people to acquire justice as mentioned and promised by the Constitution of India.
• The concept of curative petition originated from the case of Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs. Ashok Hurra and another case (2002) where the following question arose before the court of law: ‘whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final judgment/order of the Supreme Court, after the dismissal of a review petition?’
• In this case, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that in order to rectify gross miscarriage of justice, the court will allow the curative petition filed by the victim.

Statement 2 is correct

• These petitions can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order.
• It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias.

Statement 3 is correct

• A curative petition must first be circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available.
• Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed, as far as possible, before the same bench.
• A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chamber, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed.
• It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae.
  • The term amicus curiae translates to mean “friend of the court.”
  • He/she is not a party to the case, but simply wants to provide information or expertise to the court to help shed light on the issues at hand.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• Rhamphicarpa fistulosa
• It is a facultative, parasitic weed that grows on rice which is also known as rice vampire weed.
• It also affects sorghum and maize and, potentially, other cereal crops.
• The weed can germinate and grow independently, but significantly increases its reproductive output when parasitizing a suitable host.
• It is not controlled by fertilisers.
• It is found in at least 35 countries in Africa, with 28 of them home to rainfed lowland rice areas.
• Countries with the highest estimated infestation rates were Gambia, Senegal, Burkina Faso, Togo and, to a lesser extent, Mauritania, Guinea-Bissau, Benin, Malawi and Tanzania.

Answer: (c) A parasitic weed that grows on rice; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a comprehensive report published twice a year by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  • The WEO is usually published in April and October, followed by the less comprehensive WEO updates in July and January.
  • The report provides output, inflation, employment, fiscal balances, and debt statistics for member countries.
  • The report, best known for its global growth forecasts, summarizes the state of the global economy and highlights the most important recent developments.
• The Global Financial Stability Report by IMF provides an assessment of the global financial system and markets, and addresses emerging market financing in a global context.
  • It focuses on current market conditions, highlighting systemic issues that could pose a risk to financial stability and sustained market access by emerging market borrowers.
  • The Report draws out the financial ramifications of economic imbalances highlighted by the IMF’s World Economic Outlook.
  • It contains, as special features, analytical chapters or essays on structural or systemic issues relevant to international financial stability.
• Fiscal Monitor Report provides an overview of latest public finance developments, updates the medium-term fiscal outlook, and assesses fiscal implications of policies relevant to the global economy.
  • It is prepared twice a year by the IMF’s Fiscal Affairs Department.
  • Its projections are based on the same database used for the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR).
  • The fiscal projections for individual countries have been prepared by IMF desk economists, and, in line with the WEO guidelines.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The government has come up with a new platform to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP), the Centre’s initiative to promote horticulture crops.
• SURAKSHA – System for Unified Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Secure Horticulture Assistance.
• The CDP-SURAKSHA is essentially a digital platform.
• The platform will allow an instant disbursal of subsidies to farmers in their bank account by utilising the e-RUPI voucher from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
• The CDP-SURAKSHA has features such as:
  • Database integration with PM-KISAN, cloud-based server space from NIC, UIDAI validation, eRUPI integration, local government directory (LGD), content management system, geotagging, and geo-fencing.
• Working:
  • The platform allows access to farmers, vendors, implementing agencies (IA), and cluster development agencies (CDAs), and officials of the National Horticulture Board (NHB).
  • A farmer can login using their mobile number and place an order for planting material such as seeds, seedlings, and plants based on their requirement.
  • Once the demand has been raised by the farmer, the system will ask them to contribute their share of the cost of planting material.
  • The subsidy amount paid by the government will appear on the screen automatically.
  • After the farmer pays their contribution, an e-RUPI voucher will be generated.
  • This voucher will then be received by a vendor, who will provide the required planting material to the farmer.

Statement 2 is correct

• The CDP-SURAKSHA platform uses e-RUPI vouchers from the NPCI.
• The voucher is a one-time payment mechanism that can be redeemed without a card, digital payments app or internet banking access, at the merchants accepting e-RUPI.
• According to the NPCI, the e-RUPI can be shared with the beneficiaries for a specific purpose or activity by organisations or government via SMS or QR code.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• Scientists have achieved the first visualization of the Wigner crystal, solid phase of electrons, It is a unique electron-based matter predicted by Eugene Wigner in 1934.
• This solid phase forms due to electron-electron interactions, resulting in a lattice structure under conditions of low density and extreme cold.
• Unlike classical physics, it follows quantum laws, behaving more like a wave than individual particles.
• The crystal is highly sensitive to environmental factors, making experimental observation challenging.
• Two sheets of graphene were prepared and arranged in a specific configuration before being cooled to just a fraction above absolute zero. A magnetic field was then applied to tune the density of the electron gas sandwiched between the layers.
• The Wigner crystal has an electron density sweet spot.
  • If the density is too low, the electrons will push each other away and they’ll just sort of zoom off.
  • If the density is too high, the electrons will mush together into an electron liquid.
• At the Goldilocks spot, the electrons will try to repel each other, but their escape will be cut off by other electrons. So they’ll just sort of arrange themselves into a grid, maintaining as much equidistance between them as possible.
• To measure this crystal phase, the researchers used high-resolution scanning tunneling microscopy (STM) to measure it.
  • STM uses quantum tunneling to probe materials on an atomic scale, where optical microscopy can’t quite reach.

Answer: (d) Solid Phase of Electrons; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• Xylazine, known by street names such as “tranq,” “tranq dope,” and “zombie drug,” is a new and deadly substance.
• It induces sedative-like symptoms, leading to extreme sleepiness and respiratory depression.
• A different but equally dangerous drug called “kush” is wreaking havoc in West Africa, particularly in Sierra Leone.
• Kush is estimated to kill around a dozen people each week in Sierra Leone.
• It is believed to contain a mixture of cannabis, fentanyl, tramadol, formaldehyde, and, shockingly, ground-down human bones.
• Local criminal gangs mix kush, and its constituent drugs have international sources facilitated by the internet and digital communications.

Answer: (c) A Zombie drug containing a mixture of cannabis, fentanyl, tramadol, formaldehyde, and human bones; Difficulty level: Easy