February 21 2024 Current Affairs MCQs

Explanation

• ORAN promotes interoperability and open interfaces within the Radio Access Network (RAN) ecosystem, enabling mobile network operators to mix and match components from various vendors.
• This approach enables innovation, reduces reliance on a single vendor, and creates a more competitive and diverse market for RAN equipment.
• ORAN is based on open standards and architectures, allowing for a more flexible, scalable, and cost-effective deployment of mobile networks, including 5G.
• It features an open, multi-vendor architecture for deploying mobile networks, contrasting with the single-vendor proprietary architecture.

Answer: (d) It is an approach to building cellular network infrastructure that allows for greater flexibility and innovation compared to traditional, vendor-locked systems; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The UAE is part of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) infrastructure project, which was signed during the G-20 summit in Delhi, aiming to enhance trade and connectivity between the regions.
• This is aimed to counter China’s Belt and road initiative in the region.

Statement 2 is correct

• The UAE is only nation from the gulf region which has strategic oil reserves stored in India.
• An agreement was signed by Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd (ISPRL) and the Abu Dhabi National Oil Company to invest in the strategic crude oil storage facility in Mangaluru.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Trade in oil and gas from the U.A.E. to India is the largest contributor to the economic relationship between India and the U.A.E.
• While tourism is a significant aspect of the relationship, the largest contributors are trade and investment.

Statement 4 is correct

• The UAE is India’s third-largest trading partner and India’s second-largest export destination.
• The UAE is also the fourth-largest overall investor in India.
• The RuPay card, a key component of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), is accepted in the UAE. From July 2023, the Indian Rupee was also accepted for transactions at Dubai’s airports.

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Defence Acquisition Council is the apex body for decision-making in matters related to military procurement in India.
• It is responsible for approving major defence acquisitions, including weapons, platforms, and equipment, to meet the operational requirements of the Indian armed forces.
• The council was formed in 2001.
• It is headed by Defence minister.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The DAC’s primary role is to provide approvals and policy direction for defense acquisitions.
• Contract negotiations for international deals are typically handled by separate teams within the Ministry of Defence.

Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The report is released by the Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER).
• The report is based on a new approach to measure digitalization by recognizing the scale of the network and depth of use of technology at the economy wide level to arrive at its conclusions.
• Other established global indices that focus entirely on the average users are:
  • E-Government Development Index (EGDI) of the United Nations
  • Network Readiness Index (NRI) of Harvard University
  • ICT Development Index (IDI) of International Telecommunication Union

Statement 2 is correct

• Using a new approach called the CHIPS (connect-harness-innovate-protect-sustain) the report benchmarked the scale and depth of India’s digital transformation with respect to G20 countries as well as for Indian states and UTs.
• This approach is better suited for developing countries like India as it captures both the opportunities and risks created by digitalisation.

Statement 3 is correct

• In the SIDE 2024 report, the US ranks first with a score of 65 and China a close second with 62, India is third with a score of 39, followed by the UK (29), Germany (24) and South Korea (22).
  • However, while India as a nation is vastly digitalised, the average user is not, a reason why India is ranked 12th among the G20 countries in terms of level of digitalisation of the user.
  • India’s gender gap in internet connectivity at 10%, is higher than the world average of 9%.
  • The rural-urban divide is at 58%, vis-à-vis the world average at 49%.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• In this initiative, Quality Council of India, in conjunction with ONDC, aims to assess and certify digital readiness of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) entities.
• By leveraging this online self-assessment tool, MSMEs can evaluate their preparedness to seamlessly onboard as sellers on the ONDC platform, thereby expanding their digital capabilities and business potential.
• The portal is meticulously designed to facilitate a streamlined seller journey, ensuring that MSMEs and small retailers can integrate seamlessly into existing digitized workflows.
• The certification process evaluates various aspects of digital readiness, including the presence of necessary documentation for online operations, proficiency in using software and technology, integration with existing digitized workflows, and efficient management of orders and catalogue offerings.
• This initiative presents additional business prospects for sellers, allowing them to become integral to the digital ecosystem.
  

  Key Points about Quality Council of India: It was established in 1997 jointly by the Department for Promotion of Industry & Internal Trade (DPIIT), the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, and the Indian industry. Composition It is governed by a Council of 38 members with equal representations of government, industry and consumers. The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the government.

Answer: (d) Assessing and certifying digital readiness of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) entities; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Kokborok, also known as Tripuri or Tiprakok, is one of the official languages of Tripura.
• It was recognized as an official language in 1979, and it holds significant cultural importance in the region.
• Another official language of Tripura is Bengali.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Kokborok language is a part of the Tibeto-Burman language group within the larger Sino-Tibetan language family.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, where, at times, the law or statute may not provide a remedy.
• While the powers under Article 142 are extraordinary in nature, the apex court has defined its scope and extent through its judgments over time.
• In the Prem Chand Garg case, the supreme court has ruled that that orders or decrees issued under Article 142 must be:
  • Consistent with the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution and
  • Adhere to existing laws established by the Parliament.
• The limitations imposed by ordinary laws (those passed by Parliament or State Legislatures) do not automatically apply to Article 142.
• Article 142 derives its power from the Constitution itself, which is higher than any ordinary law.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Despite its expansive power, the Supreme Court clarified in a 2023 ruling that Article 142 is not universally applicable and may not be invoked in every case.

Statement 3 is correct

• In recent years, there have been several judgments of the Supreme Court wherein it has been foraying into areas which had long been forbidden to the judiciary by reason of the doctrine of ‘separation of powers’, which is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
• One such example is:
  • The ban on the sale of alcohol along national and state highways: While the notification by the central government prohibited liquor stores along National Highways, the Supreme Court put in place a ban on a distance of 500 metres by invoking Article 142.
  • Additionally, and in the absence of any similar notification by any of the State governments, the court extended the ban to State highways as well.
  • Such judgments have created uncertainty about the discretion vested in the court to invoke Article 142 where even fundamental rights of individuals are being ignored.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• African-Eurasian Migratory Land-birds Action Plan (AEMLAP) is an initiative of the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS) to conserve the migrant birds in the flyway.
• The aim of this Action Plan is to improve the conservation status of migratory land-bird species in the African-Eurasian by:
  • Uniting nations across borders – This Action Plan joins forces internationally to protect migratory land-birds in Africa and Eurasia.
  • Empowering local action – By sparking national efforts to improve the conservation status of these precious birds.
• The overall goal is to develop a common strategic framework for different countries to work together to save and protect birds that migrate across Africa and Europe.

Statement 2 is correct

• The African-Eurasian Flyway – The Birds that migrate through the African-Eurasian Flyway can be divided in 3 main groups:
  • Water-birds
  • Land-birds
  • Birds of Prey (Raptors)
• The African- Eurasian migratory bird includes species such as Common Cuckoo, the Turtle Dove, swallows and songbirds.
• Throughout their migration, these birds are facing various threats, from habitat loss to illegal killing, most of them being anthropogenic such as pollution.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Water-birds (AEWA): It is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory water-birds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland and the Canadian Archipelago.
• It is developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Water-birds (AEWA) is an independent treaty, not a subcomponent of the African-Eurasian Migratory Land-birds Action Plan (AEMLAP).

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Nuclear fusion is defined as the combining of several small nuclei into one large nucleus with the subsequent release of huge amounts of energy.
• It is the opposite reaction of fission, where heavy isotopes are split apart.

Statement 2 is correct

• Fusion reactions take place in a state of matter called plasma.
• Plasma is a hot, charged gas made of positive ions and free-moving electrons that has unique properties distinct from solids, liquids and gases.
• At high temperatures, electrons are ripped from atom’s nuclei and become a plasma or an ionised state of matter.
• Plasma is also known as the fourth state of matter.

Statement 3 is correct

• Joint European Torus (JET) in the UK is a large tokamak, the first device to achieve controlled fusion power using deuterium and tritium.
• The Joint European Torus (JET) in Oxfordshire began operating in 1983.
• When running, it was temporarily the hottest point in the solar system, reaching 150 million°C.
• The reactor’s previous record was a reaction lasting for 5 seconds in 2021, producing 59 megajoules of heat energy.
• But in its final tests in late 2023, it surpassed this by sustaining a reaction for 5.2 seconds while also reaching 69 megajoules of output, using just 0.2 milligrams of fuel.
• A larger and more modern replacement for JET, the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) in France, is nearing completion and its first experiments are due to start in 2025.

Answer: (c) All; Difficulty Level: Easy

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Parthenogenesis in Greek, means ‘virgin creation’.
• It is a rare form of asexual reproduction in which a female produces an embryo without fertilization by a male’s sperm.
• It can operate on either a haploid (n) or a diploid (2n) cell.
• It has been observed in more than 80 vertebrate species, including California condors and a crocodile.
• Many species of sharks and rays are also capable of this.

Statement 2 is correct

• Apomixis – A process where the egg is fertilised with cells from the mother rather than by a male.
• A smaller cell known as a “polar body,” which forms at the same time as the egg and contains DNA similar to the mother’s, merges with the fertile egg.
• The offspring’s are similar to the mother but not exact clones.
• It is more common in low-density populations, such as those on the verge of extinction.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• Morodharo is a fortified settlement dating back to the Harappan-era.
• It is located in Kutch District of Gujarat.
• Features:
  • The settlement looks mature (2,600-1,900BCE) to late (1,900-1,300 BCE) Harappan.
  • The fortification measures 102 m east to the west and 58 m north to the south.
  • The thickness of the wall is an average of 3.3 m.
  • It has a 10×10 m platform on the south-west side and a well on the north-east.
  • Burial cairns, which are mounds of stones to demarcate a boundary, are also found here.
  • Harappan pottery with perforated jar sherds, reserved slipware, and terracotta cakes were unearthed.
• All these items have a striking resemblance to those found in Dholavira.

Answer: (b) Gujarat; Difficulty Level: Medium