March 09 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
Subscribe to Never Miss an Important Update! Assured Discounts on New Products!
Must Join PMF IAS Telegram Channel & PMF IAS History Telegram Channel
- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 09 2024
0 of 9 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
Information
These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 09 2024 "
0 of 9 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
-
Not categorized
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 9
1. Question
Q1. {Geo – PG – Geomorphology} Consider the following statements:
- All of humanity’s recorded history is within the Human Epoch.
- Geologic Time Scale (GTS) is used to measure the history of the planet Earth and it’s divided in ascending order of duration, into aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.
- Stratigraphy is a branch of geology that deals with the relation between rock strata and the measurement of geological time.
- The term Anthropocene has recently been formally adopted by the International Union of Geological Sciences.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Holocene epoch began some 11,700 years ago, at the end of the Last Glacial Period (LGP).
- During the LGP, up to 25% of the Earth’s land surface was covered by glaciers, the mean sea level was up to 400 feet lower, and the average temperature fell to 8 degree Celsius.
- It witnessed Earth’s warming, aligning with the emergence and spread of human beings.
- Although Homo sapiens evolved before the Holocene, all of humanity’s recorded history is within this epoch.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Scientists who study the Earth use the geologic time scale (GTS) to measure the history of the planet.
- The GTS (since the formation of Earth roughly 4.54 billion years ago) is divided, in descending order of duration, into aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.
- Currently, we are in,
- Aeons: Phanerozoic.
- Era: Cenozoic.
- Period: Quaternary.
- Epoch: Holocene.
- Age: Meghalayan.
- Chronostratigraphic units, such as aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages, don’t have uniform durations like days or minutes.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The GTS is based on chronostratigraphic classification.
- Stratigraphy: Branch of geology that deals with the study of rock layers (or strata).
- Chronostratigraphy: (chrono: relating to time) It is an aspect of stratigraphy that deals with the relation between rock strata and the measurement of geological time.
- The shifts from one unit to another are characterized by events, sometimes violent, such as mass extinctions, that significantly impact the planet and its living conditions.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- A group of 18 scientists has rejected a proposal to officially designate the beginning of the Anthropocene, also known as the Human Epoch, in geological time.
- The Anthropocene Working Group (AWG) submitted its proposal to declare the Anthropocene epoch to the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS) last year.
- The proposal went up for a vote in February by the Sub commission on Quaternary Stratigraphy (SQS), a part of the International Commission on Stratigraphy (ICS) within the IUGS.
- The IUGS committee decided that introducing an Anthropocene epoch and ending the Holocene wasn’t supported by the standards used to define epochs in chronostratigraphy.
What is the International Union of Geolgical Sciences?
- The International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS), founded in 1961, is one of the World’s largest scientific organizations.
- It encourages international cooperation and participation in the earth sciences in relation to human welfare and is a member of the International Council for Science (ICSU). Membership is open to countries or defined regions.
- IUGS has over 120 members representing over a million geoscientists.
Answer: (d) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Holocene epoch began some 11,700 years ago, at the end of the Last Glacial Period (LGP).
- During the LGP, up to 25% of the Earth’s land surface was covered by glaciers, the mean sea level was up to 400 feet lower, and the average temperature fell to 8 degree Celsius.
- It witnessed Earth’s warming, aligning with the emergence and spread of human beings.
- Although Homo sapiens evolved before the Holocene, all of humanity’s recorded history is within this epoch.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Scientists who study the Earth use the geologic time scale (GTS) to measure the history of the planet.
- The GTS (since the formation of Earth roughly 4.54 billion years ago) is divided, in descending order of duration, into aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.
- Currently, we are in,
- Aeons: Phanerozoic.
- Era: Cenozoic.
- Period: Quaternary.
- Epoch: Holocene.
- Age: Meghalayan.
- Chronostratigraphic units, such as aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages, don’t have uniform durations like days or minutes.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The GTS is based on chronostratigraphic classification.
- Stratigraphy: Branch of geology that deals with the study of rock layers (or strata).
- Chronostratigraphy: (chrono: relating to time) It is an aspect of stratigraphy that deals with the relation between rock strata and the measurement of geological time.
- The shifts from one unit to another are characterized by events, sometimes violent, such as mass extinctions, that significantly impact the planet and its living conditions.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- A group of 18 scientists has rejected a proposal to officially designate the beginning of the Anthropocene, also known as the Human Epoch, in geological time.
- The Anthropocene Working Group (AWG) submitted its proposal to declare the Anthropocene epoch to the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS) last year.
- The proposal went up for a vote in February by the Sub commission on Quaternary Stratigraphy (SQS), a part of the International Commission on Stratigraphy (ICS) within the IUGS.
- The IUGS committee decided that introducing an Anthropocene epoch and ending the Holocene wasn’t supported by the standards used to define epochs in chronostratigraphy.
What is the International Union of Geolgical Sciences?
- The International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS), founded in 1961, is one of the World’s largest scientific organizations.
- It encourages international cooperation and participation in the earth sciences in relation to human welfare and is a member of the International Council for Science (ICSU). Membership is open to countries or defined regions.
- IUGS has over 120 members representing over a million geoscientists.
Answer: (d) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Holocene epoch began some 11,700 years ago, at the end of the Last Glacial Period (LGP).
- During the LGP, up to 25% of the Earth’s land surface was covered by glaciers, the mean sea level was up to 400 feet lower, and the average temperature fell to 8 degree Celsius.
- It witnessed Earth’s warming, aligning with the emergence and spread of human beings.
- Although Homo sapiens evolved before the Holocene, all of humanity’s recorded history is within this epoch.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Scientists who study the Earth use the geologic time scale (GTS) to measure the history of the planet.
- The GTS (since the formation of Earth roughly 4.54 billion years ago) is divided, in descending order of duration, into aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.
- Currently, we are in,
- Aeons: Phanerozoic.
- Era: Cenozoic.
- Period: Quaternary.
- Epoch: Holocene.
- Age: Meghalayan.
- Chronostratigraphic units, such as aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages, don’t have uniform durations like days or minutes.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The GTS is based on chronostratigraphic classification.
- Stratigraphy: Branch of geology that deals with the study of rock layers (or strata).
- Chronostratigraphy: (chrono: relating to time) It is an aspect of stratigraphy that deals with the relation between rock strata and the measurement of geological time.
- The shifts from one unit to another are characterized by events, sometimes violent, such as mass extinctions, that significantly impact the planet and its living conditions.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- A group of 18 scientists has rejected a proposal to officially designate the beginning of the Anthropocene, also known as the Human Epoch, in geological time.
- The Anthropocene Working Group (AWG) submitted its proposal to declare the Anthropocene epoch to the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS) last year.
- The proposal went up for a vote in February by the Sub commission on Quaternary Stratigraphy (SQS), a part of the International Commission on Stratigraphy (ICS) within the IUGS.
- The IUGS committee decided that introducing an Anthropocene epoch and ending the Holocene wasn’t supported by the standards used to define epochs in chronostratigraphy.
What is the International Union of Geolgical Sciences?
- The International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS), founded in 1961, is one of the World’s largest scientific organizations.
- It encourages international cooperation and participation in the earth sciences in relation to human welfare and is a member of the International Council for Science (ICSU). Membership is open to countries or defined regions.
- IUGS has over 120 members representing over a million geoscientists.
Answer: (d) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Q2. {Vulnerable Sections – Children} Consider the following statements:
- The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines ‘adolescent’ as a person who has completed eighteen years of age.
- Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 8 talks about Eradication of child labour in all forms by 2025.
- Employing children in entertainment and advertisement industry is Violative of Article 24 of Indian Constitution.
- The Chairperson and Members of National Commission for Protection of Child Rights have a fixed tenure of 3 years.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines ‘child’ as a person who has not completed eighteen years of age.
- The term ‘adolescent’ is not defined in the JJ Act, 2015.
Statement 2 is correct
- SDG-8:- “Take immediate and effective measures to eradicate forced labour, end modern slavery and human trafficking and secure the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour, including recruitment and use of child soldiers, and by 2025 end child labour in all its forms.”
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Article 24 of the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy provide child protection. It says no child under 14 years of age shall be employed to work at any hazardous place.
- The existing laws in India permit employing children in entertainment and advertisement industry. Since they are not covered either under the Factories Act 1948 or in Child Labour [Prohibition and Regulation] Act 1986 because it does not come under the hazardous category.
Statement 4 is correct
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has a chairperson and six members of which at least two should be women.
- All of them are appointed by the Central Government for 3 years.
- The maximum age to serve in the commission is 65 years for Chairman and 60 years for members.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines ‘child’ as a person who has not completed eighteen years of age.
- The term ‘adolescent’ is not defined in the JJ Act, 2015.
Statement 2 is correct
- SDG-8:- “Take immediate and effective measures to eradicate forced labour, end modern slavery and human trafficking and secure the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour, including recruitment and use of child soldiers, and by 2025 end child labour in all its forms.”
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Article 24 of the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy provide child protection. It says no child under 14 years of age shall be employed to work at any hazardous place.
- The existing laws in India permit employing children in entertainment and advertisement industry. Since they are not covered either under the Factories Act 1948 or in Child Labour [Prohibition and Regulation] Act 1986 because it does not come under the hazardous category.
Statement 4 is correct
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has a chairperson and six members of which at least two should be women.
- All of them are appointed by the Central Government for 3 years.
- The maximum age to serve in the commission is 65 years for Chairman and 60 years for members.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines ‘child’ as a person who has not completed eighteen years of age.
- The term ‘adolescent’ is not defined in the JJ Act, 2015.
Statement 2 is correct
- SDG-8:- “Take immediate and effective measures to eradicate forced labour, end modern slavery and human trafficking and secure the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour, including recruitment and use of child soldiers, and by 2025 end child labour in all its forms.”
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Article 24 of the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy provide child protection. It says no child under 14 years of age shall be employed to work at any hazardous place.
- The existing laws in India permit employing children in entertainment and advertisement industry. Since they are not covered either under the Factories Act 1948 or in Child Labour [Prohibition and Regulation] Act 1986 because it does not come under the hazardous category.
Statement 4 is correct
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has a chairperson and six members of which at least two should be women.
- All of them are appointed by the Central Government for 3 years.
- The maximum age to serve in the commission is 65 years for Chairman and 60 years for members.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Q3. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements with respect to National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) Fund:
- The Funds is released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to the Central Pollution Control Board.
- The National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi received and utilised the most funds.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- A total of 131 cities (Non-attainment Cities and Million Plus Cities) receive funds under National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) or grants sanctioned by the 15th Financial Commission (FC) for air quality improvement.
- Of these, 42 are “million-plus cities” that receive 15th FC grants for augmenting infrastructure and other essential measures at city level to improve air quality.
- City Action Plans (CAPs) have been prepared by all 131 cities and being implemented by Urban Local Bodies.
- Performance based financial support is being provided to these131 cities for implementation of activities of City Action Plan.
- Non-attainment cities are the Cities that consistently do not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for certain pollutants.
- Funds are allocated to these cities based on the assessment by the Central Pollution Control Board and the utilisation of the amount allocated in the previous financial year.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Of all 131 cities, Mumbai received and utilised the most funds.
- Kolkata falls second in the list and Chennai lists 3rd in the list.
- Delhi being the most populated city in India ranks 50 in the terms of the fund received.
- Patna, the second most polluted city (in terms of PM 2.5 levels) received the 9th highest allocation for the NCAP.
- Urban local bodies are the implementing agencies for NCAP and they are responsible for spending the funds disbursed to them for clean air action plans.
- These plans outline the work that the cities are required to undertake in the short, medium and long term.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- A total of 131 cities (Non-attainment Cities and Million Plus Cities) receive funds under National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) or grants sanctioned by the 15th Financial Commission (FC) for air quality improvement.
- Of these, 42 are “million-plus cities” that receive 15th FC grants for augmenting infrastructure and other essential measures at city level to improve air quality.
- City Action Plans (CAPs) have been prepared by all 131 cities and being implemented by Urban Local Bodies.
- Performance based financial support is being provided to these131 cities for implementation of activities of City Action Plan.
- Non-attainment cities are the Cities that consistently do not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for certain pollutants.
- Funds are allocated to these cities based on the assessment by the Central Pollution Control Board and the utilisation of the amount allocated in the previous financial year.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Of all 131 cities, Mumbai received and utilised the most funds.
- Kolkata falls second in the list and Chennai lists 3rd in the list.
- Delhi being the most populated city in India ranks 50 in the terms of the fund received.
- Patna, the second most polluted city (in terms of PM 2.5 levels) received the 9th highest allocation for the NCAP.
- Urban local bodies are the implementing agencies for NCAP and they are responsible for spending the funds disbursed to them for clean air action plans.
- These plans outline the work that the cities are required to undertake in the short, medium and long term.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- A total of 131 cities (Non-attainment Cities and Million Plus Cities) receive funds under National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) or grants sanctioned by the 15th Financial Commission (FC) for air quality improvement.
- Of these, 42 are “million-plus cities” that receive 15th FC grants for augmenting infrastructure and other essential measures at city level to improve air quality.
- City Action Plans (CAPs) have been prepared by all 131 cities and being implemented by Urban Local Bodies.
- Performance based financial support is being provided to these131 cities for implementation of activities of City Action Plan.
- Non-attainment cities are the Cities that consistently do not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for certain pollutants.
- Funds are allocated to these cities based on the assessment by the Central Pollution Control Board and the utilisation of the amount allocated in the previous financial year.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Of all 131 cities, Mumbai received and utilised the most funds.
- Kolkata falls second in the list and Chennai lists 3rd in the list.
- Delhi being the most populated city in India ranks 50 in the terms of the fund received.
- Patna, the second most polluted city (in terms of PM 2.5 levels) received the 9th highest allocation for the NCAP.
- Urban local bodies are the implementing agencies for NCAP and they are responsible for spending the funds disbursed to them for clean air action plans.
- These plans outline the work that the cities are required to undertake in the short, medium and long term.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
Q4. {S&T – IPR – GI} Consider the following statements regarding GI Tagged products in India:
- Every State in India has at least one GI tagged product.
- Agricultural sector has the most number of GI tagged products when compared to other sectors.
- Karnataka has the maximum number of GI tagged products in India.
- A Registered GI is valid for 10 years and can be renewed free of cost on the request of the concerned state.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Every State in India has at least one GI Tag.
- A GI tag helps to protect the reputation and uniqueness of a product.
- It prevents unauthorized use of the name or indication. This can help to ensure that consumers get the genuine product and that producers are not undercut by counterfeiters.
- A GI tag can help increase the marketability and price realization of a product.
- It provides consumers with a guarantee of quality and authenticity. This can be especially important for products that are sold in international markets.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The products in the GI registry fall under five major categories such as Agriculture, Foodstuff, Handicrafts, Manufactured products, and natural products.
- Handicrafts have the most number of GI tagged products when compared to other sectors.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Tamil Nadu (61) has the maximum number of GI tagged products, followed by the state of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- A registered GI shall be valid for 10 years and can be renewed on payment of renewal fee.
- The process of renewal involves submitting an application form, a cover letter, and a cheque of ₹3,000 to GI registry.
- Though the government initially helps the societies or applicants in getting GI tags for their products, it doesn’t extend any help in getting the tag renewed.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Every State in India has at least one GI Tag.
- A GI tag helps to protect the reputation and uniqueness of a product.
- It prevents unauthorized use of the name or indication. This can help to ensure that consumers get the genuine product and that producers are not undercut by counterfeiters.
- A GI tag can help increase the marketability and price realization of a product.
- It provides consumers with a guarantee of quality and authenticity. This can be especially important for products that are sold in international markets.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The products in the GI registry fall under five major categories such as Agriculture, Foodstuff, Handicrafts, Manufactured products, and natural products.
- Handicrafts have the most number of GI tagged products when compared to other sectors.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Tamil Nadu (61) has the maximum number of GI tagged products, followed by the state of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- A registered GI shall be valid for 10 years and can be renewed on payment of renewal fee.
- The process of renewal involves submitting an application form, a cover letter, and a cheque of ₹3,000 to GI registry.
- Though the government initially helps the societies or applicants in getting GI tags for their products, it doesn’t extend any help in getting the tag renewed.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Every State in India has at least one GI Tag.
- A GI tag helps to protect the reputation and uniqueness of a product.
- It prevents unauthorized use of the name or indication. This can help to ensure that consumers get the genuine product and that producers are not undercut by counterfeiters.
- A GI tag can help increase the marketability and price realization of a product.
- It provides consumers with a guarantee of quality and authenticity. This can be especially important for products that are sold in international markets.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The products in the GI registry fall under five major categories such as Agriculture, Foodstuff, Handicrafts, Manufactured products, and natural products.
- Handicrafts have the most number of GI tagged products when compared to other sectors.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Tamil Nadu (61) has the maximum number of GI tagged products, followed by the state of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- A registered GI shall be valid for 10 years and can be renewed on payment of renewal fee.
- The process of renewal involves submitting an application form, a cover letter, and a cheque of ₹3,000 to GI registry.
- Though the government initially helps the societies or applicants in getting GI tags for their products, it doesn’t extend any help in getting the tag renewed.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
Q5. {IE – Industry} Consider the following statements with respect to Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme (UNNATI):
- It is a Central Sector Scheme aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the Aspirational Districts.
- Implementation of the scheme will be overseen by the Ministry of Heavy Industries
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It is proposed to be divided into two parts:
- Part A caters to the incentives to the eligible units (Rs. 9737 crores), and Part B is for implementation and institutional arrangements for the scheme. (Rs. 300 Crore).
- Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme (UNNATI) is aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the North East Region, seeks to create productive economic activity in manufacturing and services.
- Its main objective is to generate gainful employment, leading to the overall socio-economic development of the region.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Implementation of the scheme will be overseen by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It is proposed to be divided into two parts:
- Part A caters to the incentives to the eligible units (Rs. 9737 crores), and Part B is for implementation and institutional arrangements for the scheme. (Rs. 300 Crore).
- Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme (UNNATI) is aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the North East Region, seeks to create productive economic activity in manufacturing and services.
- Its main objective is to generate gainful employment, leading to the overall socio-economic development of the region.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Implementation of the scheme will be overseen by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It is proposed to be divided into two parts:
- Part A caters to the incentives to the eligible units (Rs. 9737 crores), and Part B is for implementation and institutional arrangements for the scheme. (Rs. 300 Crore).
- Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme (UNNATI) is aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the North East Region, seeks to create productive economic activity in manufacturing and services.
- Its main objective is to generate gainful employment, leading to the overall socio-economic development of the region.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Implementation of the scheme will be overseen by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – In News} Dolutegravir, recently seen in news is a?
Correct
Explanation
- Dolutegravir (DTG) is an antiviral drug used with other medications to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, the virus that can cause the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
- Dolutegravir is in a class of medications called HIV integrase inhibitors.
- It works by decreasing the amount of HIV in your blood and increasing the number of immune cells.
Answer: (b) Anti-retroviral drug; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Dolutegravir (DTG) is an antiviral drug used with other medications to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, the virus that can cause the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
- Dolutegravir is in a class of medications called HIV integrase inhibitors.
- It works by decreasing the amount of HIV in your blood and increasing the number of immune cells.
Answer: (b) Anti-retroviral drug; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Dolutegravir (DTG) is an antiviral drug used with other medications to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, the virus that can cause the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
- Dolutegravir is in a class of medications called HIV integrase inhibitors.
- It works by decreasing the amount of HIV in your blood and increasing the number of immune cells.
Answer: (b) Anti-retroviral drug; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
Q7. {IC – Judiciary} Consider the following statements with respect to Article 131 of the Constitution of India:
- The Supreme Court of India has exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
- The original jurisdiction also extends to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- According to Article 131, the SC has exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
- Original jurisdiction is the power of the court to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The original jurisdiction of the SC does not extend to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad, or any other similar instrument which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
- The parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of the SC in disputes relating to the use, distribution, or control of the water of any inter-state river.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- According to Article 131, the SC has exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
- Original jurisdiction is the power of the court to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The original jurisdiction of the SC does not extend to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad, or any other similar instrument which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
- The parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of the SC in disputes relating to the use, distribution, or control of the water of any inter-state river.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- According to Article 131, the SC has exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
- Original jurisdiction is the power of the court to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The original jurisdiction of the SC does not extend to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad, or any other similar instrument which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
- The parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of the SC in disputes relating to the use, distribution, or control of the water of any inter-state river.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – IR – Exercises} Sea Defenders 2024, recently seen in the news, is a joint coast guard exercise between India and which country?
Correct
Explanation
- The US Coast Guard Bertholf ship arrived in Port Blair for the ‘Sea Defenders 2024’ joint exercise with the Indian Coast Guard.
- Set off the coast of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the two-day event focuses on maritime piracy, simulated drone attacks, search and rescue operations, firefighting, pollution response, and counter-drug exercises.
- Emphasizing international cooperation, the exercise underscores the partnership between the Indian and US Coast Guards, showcasing readiness for emergencies like medical evacuations.
- The Exercise included a variety of scenarios including a Pollution Response Demonstration, in which Indian Coast Guard ships and aircraft showcased their expertise in responding to oil spills and other environmental hazards at sea.
- It also simulated Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS) Operations for inspecting vessels suspected of illegal activity.
Answer: (d) United States; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- The US Coast Guard Bertholf ship arrived in Port Blair for the ‘Sea Defenders 2024’ joint exercise with the Indian Coast Guard.
- Set off the coast of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the two-day event focuses on maritime piracy, simulated drone attacks, search and rescue operations, firefighting, pollution response, and counter-drug exercises.
- Emphasizing international cooperation, the exercise underscores the partnership between the Indian and US Coast Guards, showcasing readiness for emergencies like medical evacuations.
- The Exercise included a variety of scenarios including a Pollution Response Demonstration, in which Indian Coast Guard ships and aircraft showcased their expertise in responding to oil spills and other environmental hazards at sea.
- It also simulated Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS) Operations for inspecting vessels suspected of illegal activity.
Answer: (d) United States; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- The US Coast Guard Bertholf ship arrived in Port Blair for the ‘Sea Defenders 2024’ joint exercise with the Indian Coast Guard.
- Set off the coast of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the two-day event focuses on maritime piracy, simulated drone attacks, search and rescue operations, firefighting, pollution response, and counter-drug exercises.
- Emphasizing international cooperation, the exercise underscores the partnership between the Indian and US Coast Guards, showcasing readiness for emergencies like medical evacuations.
- The Exercise included a variety of scenarios including a Pollution Response Demonstration, in which Indian Coast Guard ships and aircraft showcased their expertise in responding to oil spills and other environmental hazards at sea.
- It also simulated Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS) Operations for inspecting vessels suspected of illegal activity.
Answer: (d) United States; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – Ministry – Initiatives} School Soil Health Programme, recently seen in the news, is a joint initiative of which of the following ministries?
Correct
Explanation
- Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare Shri Arjun Munda and Union Minister for Rural Development Shri Giriraj Singh inaugurated jointly four major key initiatives of Agriculture Sector i.e Revamped Soil health card portal & mobile application, School Soil Health Programme, Krishi Sakhi convergence Programme and Central Fertilizer Quality Control and Training Institutes’ (CFQCTI’s) portal for fertilizer sample testing on March, 07, 2024.
- The collaborative effort between the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and the Department of School Education and Literacy initiated a pilot project in 20 rural Kendriya and Navodaya Vidyalaya schools.
- It involved setting up soil labs, developing study modules, and providing training to students and teachers.
- The program, now expanded to 1000 schools, encourages students to collect soil samples, test them in school labs, and educate farmers based on generated Soil Health Cards.
Answer: (d) Ministry of Education and Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare Shri Arjun Munda and Union Minister for Rural Development Shri Giriraj Singh inaugurated jointly four major key initiatives of Agriculture Sector i.e Revamped Soil health card portal & mobile application, School Soil Health Programme, Krishi Sakhi convergence Programme and Central Fertilizer Quality Control and Training Institutes’ (CFQCTI’s) portal for fertilizer sample testing on March, 07, 2024.
- The collaborative effort between the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and the Department of School Education and Literacy initiated a pilot project in 20 rural Kendriya and Navodaya Vidyalaya schools.
- It involved setting up soil labs, developing study modules, and providing training to students and teachers.
- The program, now expanded to 1000 schools, encourages students to collect soil samples, test them in school labs, and educate farmers based on generated Soil Health Cards.
Answer: (d) Ministry of Education and Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare Shri Arjun Munda and Union Minister for Rural Development Shri Giriraj Singh inaugurated jointly four major key initiatives of Agriculture Sector i.e Revamped Soil health card portal & mobile application, School Soil Health Programme, Krishi Sakhi convergence Programme and Central Fertilizer Quality Control and Training Institutes’ (CFQCTI’s) portal for fertilizer sample testing on March, 07, 2024.
- The collaborative effort between the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and the Department of School Education and Literacy initiated a pilot project in 20 rural Kendriya and Navodaya Vidyalaya schools.
- It involved setting up soil labs, developing study modules, and providing training to students and teachers.
- The program, now expanded to 1000 schools, encourages students to collect soil samples, test them in school labs, and educate farmers based on generated Soil Health Cards.
Answer: (d) Ministry of Education and Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare; Difficulty Level: Medium
Newsletter Updates
Subscribe to our newsletter and never miss an important update!
Assured Discounts on our New Products!