April 14-15 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – April 14-15 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
Q1. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements about Science Based Targets Initiative (SBTi):
- SBTi is the world’s only framework for corporate net-zero target setting in line with climate science.
- SBTi is a partnership between the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SBTi is a global initiative established in 2015 that aims to encourage and support companies to set science-based targets (SBTs) to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
- SBTi oversees the SBTi Net-Zero Standard, a pioneering framework for corporate net-zero target establishment.
- It is the world’s only framework for corporate net-zero target setting in line with climate science.
- It provides the guidance and tools companies need to set science-based net-zero targets.
Statement 2 is correct
- The SBTi is a partnership between CDP, the United Nations Global Compact, the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
- This involves setting targets that are consistent with limiting warming to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, which is the more ambitious goal of the Paris Agreement.
- The SBTi distinguishes between near and long-term goals and commitments.
- Near-term targets show how organizations intend to reduce emissions over the next 5-10 years, crucial for significant progress by 2030 and a prerequisite for net zero targets.
- Long-term targets indicate how organizations need to reduce their emissions to achieve net zero, according to the criteria of the SBTi Corporate Net-Zero Standard, by 2050 at the latest.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SBTi is a global initiative established in 2015 that aims to encourage and support companies to set science-based targets (SBTs) to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
- SBTi oversees the SBTi Net-Zero Standard, a pioneering framework for corporate net-zero target establishment.
- It is the world’s only framework for corporate net-zero target setting in line with climate science.
- It provides the guidance and tools companies need to set science-based net-zero targets.
Statement 2 is correct
- The SBTi is a partnership between CDP, the United Nations Global Compact, the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
- This involves setting targets that are consistent with limiting warming to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, which is the more ambitious goal of the Paris Agreement.
- The SBTi distinguishes between near and long-term goals and commitments.
- Near-term targets show how organizations intend to reduce emissions over the next 5-10 years, crucial for significant progress by 2030 and a prerequisite for net zero targets.
- Long-term targets indicate how organizations need to reduce their emissions to achieve net zero, according to the criteria of the SBTi Corporate Net-Zero Standard, by 2050 at the latest.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SBTi is a global initiative established in 2015 that aims to encourage and support companies to set science-based targets (SBTs) to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
- SBTi oversees the SBTi Net-Zero Standard, a pioneering framework for corporate net-zero target establishment.
- It is the world’s only framework for corporate net-zero target setting in line with climate science.
- It provides the guidance and tools companies need to set science-based net-zero targets.
Statement 2 is correct
- The SBTi is a partnership between CDP, the United Nations Global Compact, the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
- This involves setting targets that are consistent with limiting warming to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, which is the more ambitious goal of the Paris Agreement.
- The SBTi distinguishes between near and long-term goals and commitments.
- Near-term targets show how organizations intend to reduce emissions over the next 5-10 years, crucial for significant progress by 2030 and a prerequisite for net zero targets.
- Long-term targets indicate how organizations need to reduce their emissions to achieve net zero, according to the criteria of the SBTi Corporate Net-Zero Standard, by 2050 at the latest.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Q2. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements about BepiColombo mission:
- It will be the first ever mission to orbit Mercury.
- The objective is to study Mercury’s magnetic field, its geological history and its interaction with the solar wind.
- It is a joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- BepiColombo Mission is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and study the planet from unique vantage points. The mission was named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and engineer who made significant contributions to the understanding of Mercury’s orbit.
- It will be the second mission ever to orbit Mercury and the most complex one.
- The first spacecraft to visit Mercury was NASA’s Mariner 10, which imaged about 45% of the surface.
- The spacecraft were launched on October 20, 2018, aboard an Ariane 5 rocket from French Guiana. It is scheduled to begin orbiting Mercury in 2025.
Statement 2 is correct
- The primary scientific objectives of the mission are to study Mercury’s magnetic field, its composition, the geology of its surface, and its interaction with the solar wind.
- The mission will also investigate the planet’s exosphere and study its geological history.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is a joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japanese counterpart JAXA.
- ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior.
- JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field.
- ESA is also responsible for the launcher, the interplanetary cruising engine, and the placement of BepiColombo into Mercury’s orbit.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- BepiColombo Mission is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and study the planet from unique vantage points. The mission was named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and engineer who made significant contributions to the understanding of Mercury’s orbit.
- It will be the second mission ever to orbit Mercury and the most complex one.
- The first spacecraft to visit Mercury was NASA’s Mariner 10, which imaged about 45% of the surface.
- The spacecraft were launched on October 20, 2018, aboard an Ariane 5 rocket from French Guiana. It is scheduled to begin orbiting Mercury in 2025.
Statement 2 is correct
- The primary scientific objectives of the mission are to study Mercury’s magnetic field, its composition, the geology of its surface, and its interaction with the solar wind.
- The mission will also investigate the planet’s exosphere and study its geological history.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is a joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japanese counterpart JAXA.
- ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior.
- JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field.
- ESA is also responsible for the launcher, the interplanetary cruising engine, and the placement of BepiColombo into Mercury’s orbit.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- BepiColombo Mission is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and study the planet from unique vantage points. The mission was named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and engineer who made significant contributions to the understanding of Mercury’s orbit.
- It will be the second mission ever to orbit Mercury and the most complex one.
- The first spacecraft to visit Mercury was NASA’s Mariner 10, which imaged about 45% of the surface.
- The spacecraft were launched on October 20, 2018, aboard an Ariane 5 rocket from French Guiana. It is scheduled to begin orbiting Mercury in 2025.
Statement 2 is correct
- The primary scientific objectives of the mission are to study Mercury’s magnetic field, its composition, the geology of its surface, and its interaction with the solar wind.
- The mission will also investigate the planet’s exosphere and study its geological history.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is a joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japanese counterpart JAXA.
- ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior.
- JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field.
- ESA is also responsible for the launcher, the interplanetary cruising engine, and the placement of BepiColombo into Mercury’s orbit.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Q3. {MoA – Initiatives} Consider the following statements with respect to the District Agromet Units:
- They are the only units involved in rendering Agromet advisory services at a district or block level.
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the funding agency for District Agromet Units.
- It is a part of Rashtriya Krishi Vigyan Yojana (RKVY).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- District Agromet Units (DAMUs) are units established at Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) to provide block level Agro-Met (agrometeorological) Advisory Services (AAS) for farmers.
- They are the only units involved in rendering Agro-met (agrometeorological) advisory services at a district or block level.
- They are established by:
- India Meteorological Department (IMD) under the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
- Indian Institute of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under the agriculture ministry.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The funding agency is Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) or India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- Till date, 199 District Agro-met Units (DAMUs) have been established at KVKs across the country under ICAR network.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- DAMUs were set up in 2018-19 in the premises of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) of ICAR and state agriculture universities, under the Gramin Krishi Mausam Seva (GKMS) scheme.
- They have played an important role in providing value added weather forecast data for the next five days with crop specific weather advisory messages.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- District Agromet Units (DAMUs) are units established at Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) to provide block level Agro-Met (agrometeorological) Advisory Services (AAS) for farmers.
- They are the only units involved in rendering Agro-met (agrometeorological) advisory services at a district or block level.
- They are established by:
- India Meteorological Department (IMD) under the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
- Indian Institute of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under the agriculture ministry.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The funding agency is Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) or India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- Till date, 199 District Agro-met Units (DAMUs) have been established at KVKs across the country under ICAR network.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- DAMUs were set up in 2018-19 in the premises of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) of ICAR and state agriculture universities, under the Gramin Krishi Mausam Seva (GKMS) scheme.
- They have played an important role in providing value added weather forecast data for the next five days with crop specific weather advisory messages.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- District Agromet Units (DAMUs) are units established at Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) to provide block level Agro-Met (agrometeorological) Advisory Services (AAS) for farmers.
- They are the only units involved in rendering Agro-met (agrometeorological) advisory services at a district or block level.
- They are established by:
- India Meteorological Department (IMD) under the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
- Indian Institute of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under the agriculture ministry.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The funding agency is Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) or India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- Till date, 199 District Agro-met Units (DAMUs) have been established at KVKs across the country under ICAR network.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- DAMUs were set up in 2018-19 in the premises of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) of ICAR and state agriculture universities, under the Gramin Krishi Mausam Seva (GKMS) scheme.
- They have played an important role in providing value added weather forecast data for the next five days with crop specific weather advisory messages.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – A&C – Art} Consider the following statements with respect to Kuchipudi:
- It incorporates pure dance and expressive dance elements, as well as storytelling through dance.
- The Kuchipudi performer apart from being a dancer and actor has to be skilled in Sanskrit and Telugu languages, music and manuscripts of the performance.
- Ornaments wore by the performers are made of stainless steel.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Kuchipudi was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology.
- The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions.
- It incorporates pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya).
- It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music.
Statement 2 is correct
- In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form.
- It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition, and it is most closely related to Bhagavata Mela.
- The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute and the tambura.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Performers wear light makeup and ornaments made of light wood. This includes Boorugu, Rakudi, Chandra Vanki, Adda Bhasa, and Kasina Sara.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Kuchipudi was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology.
- The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions.
- It incorporates pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya).
- It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music.
Statement 2 is correct
- In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form.
- It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition, and it is most closely related to Bhagavata Mela.
- The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute and the tambura.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Performers wear light makeup and ornaments made of light wood. This includes Boorugu, Rakudi, Chandra Vanki, Adda Bhasa, and Kasina Sara.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Kuchipudi was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology.
- The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions.
- It incorporates pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya).
- It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music.
Statement 2 is correct
- In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form.
- It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition, and it is most closely related to Bhagavata Mela.
- The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute and the tambura.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Performers wear light makeup and ornaments made of light wood. This includes Boorugu, Rakudi, Chandra Vanki, Adda Bhasa, and Kasina Sara.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
Q5. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements with respect to Global Forest Watch (GFW):
- It is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data and other sources.
- It is a joint initiative of World Economic Forum and IUCN.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Global Forest Watch is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data and other sources.
- It is free and simple to use, enabling anyone to create custom maps, analyze forest trends, subscribe to alerts, or download data for their local area or the entire world.
- It refers to tree cover when talking about forest extent, loss, and gain. Tree cover is a convenient metric for monitoring forest change because it is easily measurable from space using freely available, medium-resolution satellite imagery.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is a project of the Washington-based nonprofit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Most of the data is compiled by the University of Maryland researchers.
- Highlights of the GFW’s annual forest loss data:
- The loss of primary forests–those untouched by people and sometimes known as old-growth forests in the tropics declined 9% last year compared to 2022.
- The world last year lost about 37,000 square kilometers (14,000 square miles) of tropical primary forest, an area nearly as big as Switzerland.
- Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses.
- Deforestation globally rose by 3.2% in 2023.
- India:
- India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, equivalent to a six percent decrease in tree cover during this period.
- The country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 percent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 per cent of its total tree cover loss in the same period.
- Between 2001 and 2022, forests in India emitted 51 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year and removed 141 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. This represents a net carbon sink of 89.9 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year.
- An average of 51.0 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent per year was released into the atmosphere as a result of tree cover loss in India.
- The data showed that 95 percent of the tree cover loss in India from 2013 to 2023 occurred within natural forests.
- The GFW data showed that five states accounted for 60 percent of all tree cover losses between 2001 and 2023.
- Assam had the maximum tree cover loss at 324,000 hectares, compared to an average of 66,600 hectares. Mizoram lost 312,000 hectares of tree cover, Arunachal Pradesh 262,000 hectares, Nagaland 259,000 hectares, and Manipur 240,000 hectares.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Global Forest Watch is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data and other sources.
- It is free and simple to use, enabling anyone to create custom maps, analyze forest trends, subscribe to alerts, or download data for their local area or the entire world.
- It refers to tree cover when talking about forest extent, loss, and gain. Tree cover is a convenient metric for monitoring forest change because it is easily measurable from space using freely available, medium-resolution satellite imagery.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is a project of the Washington-based nonprofit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Most of the data is compiled by the University of Maryland researchers.
- Highlights of the GFW’s annual forest loss data:
- The loss of primary forests–those untouched by people and sometimes known as old-growth forests in the tropics declined 9% last year compared to 2022.
- The world last year lost about 37,000 square kilometers (14,000 square miles) of tropical primary forest, an area nearly as big as Switzerland.
- Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses.
- Deforestation globally rose by 3.2% in 2023.
- India:
- India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, equivalent to a six percent decrease in tree cover during this period.
- The country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 percent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 per cent of its total tree cover loss in the same period.
- Between 2001 and 2022, forests in India emitted 51 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year and removed 141 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. This represents a net carbon sink of 89.9 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year.
- An average of 51.0 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent per year was released into the atmosphere as a result of tree cover loss in India.
- The data showed that 95 percent of the tree cover loss in India from 2013 to 2023 occurred within natural forests.
- The GFW data showed that five states accounted for 60 percent of all tree cover losses between 2001 and 2023.
- Assam had the maximum tree cover loss at 324,000 hectares, compared to an average of 66,600 hectares. Mizoram lost 312,000 hectares of tree cover, Arunachal Pradesh 262,000 hectares, Nagaland 259,000 hectares, and Manipur 240,000 hectares.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Global Forest Watch is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data and other sources.
- It is free and simple to use, enabling anyone to create custom maps, analyze forest trends, subscribe to alerts, or download data for their local area or the entire world.
- It refers to tree cover when talking about forest extent, loss, and gain. Tree cover is a convenient metric for monitoring forest change because it is easily measurable from space using freely available, medium-resolution satellite imagery.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is a project of the Washington-based nonprofit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Most of the data is compiled by the University of Maryland researchers.
- Highlights of the GFW’s annual forest loss data:
- The loss of primary forests–those untouched by people and sometimes known as old-growth forests in the tropics declined 9% last year compared to 2022.
- The world last year lost about 37,000 square kilometers (14,000 square miles) of tropical primary forest, an area nearly as big as Switzerland.
- Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses.
- Deforestation globally rose by 3.2% in 2023.
- India:
- India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, equivalent to a six percent decrease in tree cover during this period.
- The country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 percent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 per cent of its total tree cover loss in the same period.
- Between 2001 and 2022, forests in India emitted 51 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year and removed 141 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. This represents a net carbon sink of 89.9 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year.
- An average of 51.0 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent per year was released into the atmosphere as a result of tree cover loss in India.
- The data showed that 95 percent of the tree cover loss in India from 2013 to 2023 occurred within natural forests.
- The GFW data showed that five states accounted for 60 percent of all tree cover losses between 2001 and 2023.
- Assam had the maximum tree cover loss at 324,000 hectares, compared to an average of 66,600 hectares. Mizoram lost 312,000 hectares of tree cover, Arunachal Pradesh 262,000 hectares, Nagaland 259,000 hectares, and Manipur 240,000 hectares.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – S&T – Biotech} Which one of the following techniques is used to investigate the three-dimensional structure of chromosomes in the nucleus?
Correct
Explanation
- The technique used to investigate the three-dimensional structure of chromosomes in the nucleus is chromosome conformation capture (3C).
- Chromosome conformation capture (3C) is a molecular biology technique used to analyze the spatial organization of chromatin in a cell’s nucleus.
- It allows researchers to identify the physical interactions between different genomic regions, providing insights into the three-dimensional structure of chromosomes.
- 3C works by cross-linking DNA segments that are in close proximity, followed by fragmentation, ligation, and high-throughput sequencing of these cross-linked segments.
Answer: (c) Chromosome conformation capture (3C); Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The technique used to investigate the three-dimensional structure of chromosomes in the nucleus is chromosome conformation capture (3C).
- Chromosome conformation capture (3C) is a molecular biology technique used to analyze the spatial organization of chromatin in a cell’s nucleus.
- It allows researchers to identify the physical interactions between different genomic regions, providing insights into the three-dimensional structure of chromosomes.
- 3C works by cross-linking DNA segments that are in close proximity, followed by fragmentation, ligation, and high-throughput sequencing of these cross-linked segments.
Answer: (c) Chromosome conformation capture (3C); Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The technique used to investigate the three-dimensional structure of chromosomes in the nucleus is chromosome conformation capture (3C).
- Chromosome conformation capture (3C) is a molecular biology technique used to analyze the spatial organization of chromatin in a cell’s nucleus.
- It allows researchers to identify the physical interactions between different genomic regions, providing insights into the three-dimensional structure of chromosomes.
- 3C works by cross-linking DNA segments that are in close proximity, followed by fragmentation, ligation, and high-throughput sequencing of these cross-linked segments.
Answer: (c) Chromosome conformation capture (3C); Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Which one of the following principles states that the size of a predator’s mouth limits the size of prey they can consume?
Correct
Explanation
- The principle that suggests the ability of carnivorous species to consume prey is restricted by the size of their mouth openings in relation to the size of the prey is Gape limitation hypothesis.
- The Gape limitation hypothesis states that the size of a predator’s mouth, or “gape,” limits the size of prey they can consume.
- This hypothesis has implications for understanding feeding habits, prey selection, and niche partitioning among carnivorous species.
- According to this hypothesis, predators with smaller gape sizes will target smaller prey, while those with larger gape sizes can consume a broader range of prey sizes.
- Gape limitation can lead to evolutionary pressures on both predators and prey.
- Prey may evolve larger sizes or faster speeds to escape predators with smaller gape sizes.
- Conversely, predators may develop larger mouths or different hunting strategies to overcome gape limitations and access a broader range of prey.
Answer: (d) Gape limitation hypothesis; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The principle that suggests the ability of carnivorous species to consume prey is restricted by the size of their mouth openings in relation to the size of the prey is Gape limitation hypothesis.
- The Gape limitation hypothesis states that the size of a predator’s mouth, or “gape,” limits the size of prey they can consume.
- This hypothesis has implications for understanding feeding habits, prey selection, and niche partitioning among carnivorous species.
- According to this hypothesis, predators with smaller gape sizes will target smaller prey, while those with larger gape sizes can consume a broader range of prey sizes.
- Gape limitation can lead to evolutionary pressures on both predators and prey.
- Prey may evolve larger sizes or faster speeds to escape predators with smaller gape sizes.
- Conversely, predators may develop larger mouths or different hunting strategies to overcome gape limitations and access a broader range of prey.
Answer: (d) Gape limitation hypothesis; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The principle that suggests the ability of carnivorous species to consume prey is restricted by the size of their mouth openings in relation to the size of the prey is Gape limitation hypothesis.
- The Gape limitation hypothesis states that the size of a predator’s mouth, or “gape,” limits the size of prey they can consume.
- This hypothesis has implications for understanding feeding habits, prey selection, and niche partitioning among carnivorous species.
- According to this hypothesis, predators with smaller gape sizes will target smaller prey, while those with larger gape sizes can consume a broader range of prey sizes.
- Gape limitation can lead to evolutionary pressures on both predators and prey.
- Prey may evolve larger sizes or faster speeds to escape predators with smaller gape sizes.
- Conversely, predators may develop larger mouths or different hunting strategies to overcome gape limitations and access a broader range of prey.
Answer: (d) Gape limitation hypothesis; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
Q8. {IE – Infra & Development} Consider the following statements:
- The dedicated freight corridor is expected to increase carbon dioxide emissions, due to the increased number of freight trains.
- The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) which extends from Punjab to Bihar, is fully operational.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
- rs are designed for faster and more efficient movement of goods trains.
- This reduces traffic congestion on regular passenger lines, leading to fewer delays and improved fuel efficiency.
- Additionally, dedicated corridors allow for the use of electric locomotives, further reducing reliance on diesel and its associated emissions.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) stretches 1,337 km from Ludhiana, Punjab to Sonnagar, Bihar and is fully operational.
- The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) extends 1,506 km from Jawaharlal Nehru Port Terminal, Maharashtra to Dadri, Uttar Pradesh, with 88% operational.
- Both EDFC and WDFC are operated by the Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Ltd. (DFCCIL).
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
- rs are designed for faster and more efficient movement of goods trains.
- This reduces traffic congestion on regular passenger lines, leading to fewer delays and improved fuel efficiency.
- Additionally, dedicated corridors allow for the use of electric locomotives, further reducing reliance on diesel and its associated emissions.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) stretches 1,337 km from Ludhiana, Punjab to Sonnagar, Bihar and is fully operational.
- The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) extends 1,506 km from Jawaharlal Nehru Port Terminal, Maharashtra to Dadri, Uttar Pradesh, with 88% operational.
- Both EDFC and WDFC are operated by the Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Ltd. (DFCCIL).
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
- rs are designed for faster and more efficient movement of goods trains.
- This reduces traffic congestion on regular passenger lines, leading to fewer delays and improved fuel efficiency.
- Additionally, dedicated corridors allow for the use of electric locomotives, further reducing reliance on diesel and its associated emissions.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) stretches 1,337 km from Ludhiana, Punjab to Sonnagar, Bihar and is fully operational.
- The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) extends 1,506 km from Jawaharlal Nehru Port Terminal, Maharashtra to Dadri, Uttar Pradesh, with 88% operational.
- Both EDFC and WDFC are operated by the Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Ltd. (DFCCIL).
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – PIN} The Golan Heights is a plateau bordering which one of the following water bodies to the west?
Correct
Explanation
- The Golan Heights is a plateau that borders the Sea of Galilee and Hula valley to the west.
- This body of water, also known as Lake Tiberias or Lake Kinneret, is the largest freshwater lake in Israel and provides a significant water source for the region.
- The Sea of Galilee is an important source of water for Israel and has significant religious and historical importance.
- As a geopolitical region, it denotes the border area captured from Syria by Israel during the Six-Day War of 1967. Israel has occupied this territory since then and de facto annexed it in 1981.
- The region includes the western two-thirds of the geological Golan Heights and the Israeli-occupied part of Mount Hermon.
- Historical Importance:
- Evidence of human habitation on the Golan dates back to the Upper Paleolithic period.
- Over time, it came under the control of various empires, including Assyrian, Babylonian, Persian, and Ottoman.
- In the 16th century, the Golan was conquered by the Ottoman Empire.
- After World War I, it became part of the French Mandate in Syria.
- Since the Six-Day War, Israel has occupied the western two-thirds, while the eastern third remains under Syrian control.
Answer: (b) Sea of Galilee; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Golan Heights is a plateau that borders the Sea of Galilee and Hula valley to the west.
- This body of water, also known as Lake Tiberias or Lake Kinneret, is the largest freshwater lake in Israel and provides a significant water source for the region.
- The Sea of Galilee is an important source of water for Israel and has significant religious and historical importance.
- As a geopolitical region, it denotes the border area captured from Syria by Israel during the Six-Day War of 1967. Israel has occupied this territory since then and de facto annexed it in 1981.
- The region includes the western two-thirds of the geological Golan Heights and the Israeli-occupied part of Mount Hermon.
- Historical Importance:
- Evidence of human habitation on the Golan dates back to the Upper Paleolithic period.
- Over time, it came under the control of various empires, including Assyrian, Babylonian, Persian, and Ottoman.
- In the 16th century, the Golan was conquered by the Ottoman Empire.
- After World War I, it became part of the French Mandate in Syria.
- Since the Six-Day War, Israel has occupied the western two-thirds, while the eastern third remains under Syrian control.
Answer: (b) Sea of Galilee; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Golan Heights is a plateau that borders the Sea of Galilee and Hula valley to the west.
- This body of water, also known as Lake Tiberias or Lake Kinneret, is the largest freshwater lake in Israel and provides a significant water source for the region.
- The Sea of Galilee is an important source of water for Israel and has significant religious and historical importance.
- As a geopolitical region, it denotes the border area captured from Syria by Israel during the Six-Day War of 1967. Israel has occupied this territory since then and de facto annexed it in 1981.
- The region includes the western two-thirds of the geological Golan Heights and the Israeli-occupied part of Mount Hermon.
- Historical Importance:
- Evidence of human habitation on the Golan dates back to the Upper Paleolithic period.
- Over time, it came under the control of various empires, including Assyrian, Babylonian, Persian, and Ottoman.
- In the 16th century, the Golan was conquered by the Ottoman Empire.
- After World War I, it became part of the French Mandate in Syria.
- Since the Six-Day War, Israel has occupied the western two-thirds, while the eastern third remains under Syrian control.
Answer: (b) Sea of Galilee; Difficulty Level: Medium
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