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April 13 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
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- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
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[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – April 13 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {Envi – Species} Consider the following statements about Asiatic Wild Dog:
- They are found only in two clusters across India, namely the Western and Eastern Ghats.
- They are listed as Endangered in IUCN Red List and in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Asiatic wild dogs (Dholes) is a wild canine found in the forests of central, south, and southeast Asia.
- Other Names: Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red wolf, red dog and mountain wolf.
- They are found throughout Eastern and South eastern Asia.
- They are found in three clusters across India, namely the Western and Eastern Ghats, the central Indian landscape and North East India.
- The Western and Eastern Ghats is a stronghold region for dholes.
- Habitat: They are the animals that inhabit dense jungles, steppes, mountains, scrub forests, and pine forests.
- Dholes are highly social animals, and they frequently hunt in packs of 5 to 12. These clans may grow to as many as 30 or 40 members.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Conservation status
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
- The Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule II
- CITES: Appendix II
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Asiatic wild dogs (Dholes) is a wild canine found in the forests of central, south, and southeast Asia.
- Other Names: Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red wolf, red dog and mountain wolf.
- They are found throughout Eastern and South eastern Asia.
- They are found in three clusters across India, namely the Western and Eastern Ghats, the central Indian landscape and North East India.
- The Western and Eastern Ghats is a stronghold region for dholes.
- Habitat: They are the animals that inhabit dense jungles, steppes, mountains, scrub forests, and pine forests.
- Dholes are highly social animals, and they frequently hunt in packs of 5 to 12. These clans may grow to as many as 30 or 40 members.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Conservation status
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
- The Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule II
- CITES: Appendix II
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Asiatic wild dogs (Dholes) is a wild canine found in the forests of central, south, and southeast Asia.
- Other Names: Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red wolf, red dog and mountain wolf.
- They are found throughout Eastern and South eastern Asia.
- They are found in three clusters across India, namely the Western and Eastern Ghats, the central Indian landscape and North East India.
- The Western and Eastern Ghats is a stronghold region for dholes.
- Habitat: They are the animals that inhabit dense jungles, steppes, mountains, scrub forests, and pine forests.
- Dholes are highly social animals, and they frequently hunt in packs of 5 to 12. These clans may grow to as many as 30 or 40 members.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Conservation status
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
- The Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule II
- CITES: Appendix II
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements about Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- It is bordered Nagarhole and Bandipur National Park of Karnakata and Mudumalai National Park of Tamil Nadu.
- It has the largest population of Tigers in Southern India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is located in Wayanad, Kerala, in the southern trenches of the Western Ghats.
- It is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- World Heritage Sites are cultural and/or natural sites considered to be of ‘Outstanding Universal Value’, which have been inscribed on the World Heritage List by the World Heritage Committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- Established in 1973, the sanctuary covers an area of approximately 344.44 sq. km.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is bordered by the protected areas of Nagarhole and Bandipur in Karnataka on the northeastern side and Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu on the southeastern side.
- Tribes living in these forests include some scheduled adivasis, such as Paniyas, Kattunaikkans, Kurumas, Ooralis, Adiyans, and Kurichiyas.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Flora:
- Teak, rosewood, eucalyptus, and silver oak plantations cover roughly one-third of the sanctuary.
- Marshy lands also mark their presence in the sanctuary.
- Fauna:
- It is also home to animals like elephants, panthers, tigers, jungle cats, civet cats, monkeys, wild dogs, bisons, deer and bears.
- It is known for having the largest population of tigers in Kerala.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is located in Wayanad, Kerala, in the southern trenches of the Western Ghats.
- It is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- World Heritage Sites are cultural and/or natural sites considered to be of ‘Outstanding Universal Value’, which have been inscribed on the World Heritage List by the World Heritage Committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- Established in 1973, the sanctuary covers an area of approximately 344.44 sq. km.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is bordered by the protected areas of Nagarhole and Bandipur in Karnataka on the northeastern side and Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu on the southeastern side.
- Tribes living in these forests include some scheduled adivasis, such as Paniyas, Kattunaikkans, Kurumas, Ooralis, Adiyans, and Kurichiyas.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Flora:
- Teak, rosewood, eucalyptus, and silver oak plantations cover roughly one-third of the sanctuary.
- Marshy lands also mark their presence in the sanctuary.
- Fauna:
- It is also home to animals like elephants, panthers, tigers, jungle cats, civet cats, monkeys, wild dogs, bisons, deer and bears.
- It is known for having the largest population of tigers in Kerala.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is located in Wayanad, Kerala, in the southern trenches of the Western Ghats.
- It is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- World Heritage Sites are cultural and/or natural sites considered to be of ‘Outstanding Universal Value’, which have been inscribed on the World Heritage List by the World Heritage Committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- Established in 1973, the sanctuary covers an area of approximately 344.44 sq. km.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is bordered by the protected areas of Nagarhole and Bandipur in Karnataka on the northeastern side and Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu on the southeastern side.
- Tribes living in these forests include some scheduled adivasis, such as Paniyas, Kattunaikkans, Kurumas, Ooralis, Adiyans, and Kurichiyas.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Flora:
- Teak, rosewood, eucalyptus, and silver oak plantations cover roughly one-third of the sanctuary.
- Marshy lands also mark their presence in the sanctuary.
- Fauna:
- It is also home to animals like elephants, panthers, tigers, jungle cats, civet cats, monkeys, wild dogs, bisons, deer and bears.
- It is known for having the largest population of tigers in Kerala.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – In News} Which of the following statements about Methanol is not correct?
Correct
Explanation
- Methanol is also known as wood alcohol.
- It can completely mix with water.
- It appears as a colorless fairly volatile liquid with a faintly sweet pungent odor like that of ethyl alcohol.
- Preparing methanol is based on the direct combination of carbon monoxide gas and hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst. Increasingly, syngas, a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide derived from biomass, is used for methanol production.
- Methanol is cheap to produce relative to other alternative fuels.
- Methanol has a lower risk of flammability compared to gasoline.
- Methanol can be manufactured from a variety of domestic carbon-based feedstocks, such as biomass, natural gas, and coal.
- It is used to make chemicals, to remove water from automotive and aviation fuels, as a solvent for paints and plastics, and as an ingredient in a wide variety of products.
Answer: (d) It has a higher risk of flammability compared to gasoline; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Methanol is also known as wood alcohol.
- It can completely mix with water.
- It appears as a colorless fairly volatile liquid with a faintly sweet pungent odor like that of ethyl alcohol.
- Preparing methanol is based on the direct combination of carbon monoxide gas and hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst. Increasingly, syngas, a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide derived from biomass, is used for methanol production.
- Methanol is cheap to produce relative to other alternative fuels.
- Methanol has a lower risk of flammability compared to gasoline.
- Methanol can be manufactured from a variety of domestic carbon-based feedstocks, such as biomass, natural gas, and coal.
- It is used to make chemicals, to remove water from automotive and aviation fuels, as a solvent for paints and plastics, and as an ingredient in a wide variety of products.
Answer: (d) It has a higher risk of flammability compared to gasoline; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Methanol is also known as wood alcohol.
- It can completely mix with water.
- It appears as a colorless fairly volatile liquid with a faintly sweet pungent odor like that of ethyl alcohol.
- Preparing methanol is based on the direct combination of carbon monoxide gas and hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst. Increasingly, syngas, a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide derived from biomass, is used for methanol production.
- Methanol is cheap to produce relative to other alternative fuels.
- Methanol has a lower risk of flammability compared to gasoline.
- Methanol can be manufactured from a variety of domestic carbon-based feedstocks, such as biomass, natural gas, and coal.
- It is used to make chemicals, to remove water from automotive and aviation fuels, as a solvent for paints and plastics, and as an ingredient in a wide variety of products.
Answer: (d) It has a higher risk of flammability compared to gasoline; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {IC – Separation of Powers – Federalism} Consider the following statements about Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme under which a MP directly receive funds from the centre, that enables him/her to recommend works for creation of durable community assets.
- The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament must recommend works within their Constituencies.
- An elected MP can recommend work up to Rs 25 lakh in a financial year outside his/her constituency or the State/UT.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is an ongoing Central Sector Scheme which was launched in 1993-94.
- The Scheme enables the Members of Parliament to recommend works for creation of durable community assets based on locally felt needs to be taken up in their constituencies in the area of national priorities namely drinking water, education, public health, sanitation, roads etc.
- Under the scheme annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crore.
- MPs do not directly receive funds under MPLADS. The Centre directly transfers the sanctioned amount in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore to the district authorities of the concerned MP’s nodal district after a recommended project gets approval.
- The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has been responsible for the policy formulation, release of funds and prescribing monitoring mechanism for implementation of the Scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies.
- The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the State from where he/she has been elected.
- The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may select any one or more Districts from any one State in the Country for implementation of their choice of work under the scheme.
Statement 3 is correct
- MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
- In case an elected MP wishes to contribute MPLADS funds outside the constituency or the State/UT, they can recommend work up to Rs 25 lakh in a financial year.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is an ongoing Central Sector Scheme which was launched in 1993-94.
- The Scheme enables the Members of Parliament to recommend works for creation of durable community assets based on locally felt needs to be taken up in their constituencies in the area of national priorities namely drinking water, education, public health, sanitation, roads etc.
- Under the scheme annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crore.
- MPs do not directly receive funds under MPLADS. The Centre directly transfers the sanctioned amount in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore to the district authorities of the concerned MP’s nodal district after a recommended project gets approval.
- The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has been responsible for the policy formulation, release of funds and prescribing monitoring mechanism for implementation of the Scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies.
- The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the State from where he/she has been elected.
- The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may select any one or more Districts from any one State in the Country for implementation of their choice of work under the scheme.
Statement 3 is correct
- MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
- In case an elected MP wishes to contribute MPLADS funds outside the constituency or the State/UT, they can recommend work up to Rs 25 lakh in a financial year.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is an ongoing Central Sector Scheme which was launched in 1993-94.
- The Scheme enables the Members of Parliament to recommend works for creation of durable community assets based on locally felt needs to be taken up in their constituencies in the area of national priorities namely drinking water, education, public health, sanitation, roads etc.
- Under the scheme annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crore.
- MPs do not directly receive funds under MPLADS. The Centre directly transfers the sanctioned amount in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore to the district authorities of the concerned MP’s nodal district after a recommended project gets approval.
- The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has been responsible for the policy formulation, release of funds and prescribing monitoring mechanism for implementation of the Scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies.
- The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the State from where he/she has been elected.
- The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may select any one or more Districts from any one State in the Country for implementation of their choice of work under the scheme.
Statement 3 is correct
- MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
- In case an elected MP wishes to contribute MPLADS funds outside the constituency or the State/UT, they can recommend work up to Rs 25 lakh in a financial year.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – In News} Khavda Renewable Energy Park, the world’s largest renewable energy park was recently established in which of the following Indian State?
Correct
Explanation
- Khavda Renewable Energy Park is the world’s largest renewable energy park.
- It is located at Khavda in Gujarat’s Kutch region, boasting an impressive 45 GW capacity predominantly fueled by solar energy.
- The region has the second-best solar radiation in the country after Ladakh and wind speeds five times that of the plains.
- Situated just one kilometer from the international border with Pakistan, the energy park maintains a buffer zone manned by the Border Security Force (BSF).
- It spans 538 square kilometres, approximately five times the size of Paris.
- It is being built by Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL), India’s largest renewable energy company.
- AGEL will invest about Rs 1.5 lakh crore to generate 30 megawatts of clean electricity. It would comprise 26 GW of solar and 4GW of wind capacity.
- The Khavda Park, at its peak, is projected to generate 81 billion units of electricity, a quantity capable of powering entire nations such as Belgium, Chile, and Switzerland.
Answer: (c) Gujarat; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Khavda Renewable Energy Park is the world’s largest renewable energy park.
- It is located at Khavda in Gujarat’s Kutch region, boasting an impressive 45 GW capacity predominantly fueled by solar energy.
- The region has the second-best solar radiation in the country after Ladakh and wind speeds five times that of the plains.
- Situated just one kilometer from the international border with Pakistan, the energy park maintains a buffer zone manned by the Border Security Force (BSF).
- It spans 538 square kilometres, approximately five times the size of Paris.
- It is being built by Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL), India’s largest renewable energy company.
- AGEL will invest about Rs 1.5 lakh crore to generate 30 megawatts of clean electricity. It would comprise 26 GW of solar and 4GW of wind capacity.
- The Khavda Park, at its peak, is projected to generate 81 billion units of electricity, a quantity capable of powering entire nations such as Belgium, Chile, and Switzerland.
Answer: (c) Gujarat; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Khavda Renewable Energy Park is the world’s largest renewable energy park.
- It is located at Khavda in Gujarat’s Kutch region, boasting an impressive 45 GW capacity predominantly fueled by solar energy.
- The region has the second-best solar radiation in the country after Ladakh and wind speeds five times that of the plains.
- Situated just one kilometer from the international border with Pakistan, the energy park maintains a buffer zone manned by the Border Security Force (BSF).
- It spans 538 square kilometres, approximately five times the size of Paris.
- It is being built by Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL), India’s largest renewable energy company.
- AGEL will invest about Rs 1.5 lakh crore to generate 30 megawatts of clean electricity. It would comprise 26 GW of solar and 4GW of wind capacity.
- The Khavda Park, at its peak, is projected to generate 81 billion units of electricity, a quantity capable of powering entire nations such as Belgium, Chile, and Switzerland.
Answer: (c) Gujarat; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – Sci – Bio – Defence} Consider the following statements about Mange disease:
- It is a skin disease that affects mammals and is a highly contagious infestation which can be life threatening.
- It is caused by microscopic mites that are blood‐feeders and transmit as broad a variety of infectious microbial diseases.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The forest department is monitoring an outbreak of mange among a pack of Asiatic wild dogs in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) in the Nilgiris.
- They suspect the disease spread from the local feral dog population
- It is a skin disease that affects mammals.
- It is a highly contagious infestation.
- The most severe form of mange is caused by varieties of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which also causes human scabies.
- Most forms of mange are treatable.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is caused by microscopic mites that burrow into the skin.
- They are tissue‐juice feeders, not blood‐feeders.
- It is characterised by inflammation, itching, thickening of the skin, and hair loss.
- There are different species of mites that can cause the disease.
- Sarcoptic mange can affect wild and domestic mammals and is often reported in wild canids such as red foxes, coyotes, grey wolves, and red wolves.
- They are transmitted between animals by direct contact and by objects that have been in contact with infected animals.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The forest department is monitoring an outbreak of mange among a pack of Asiatic wild dogs in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) in the Nilgiris.
- They suspect the disease spread from the local feral dog population
- It is a skin disease that affects mammals.
- It is a highly contagious infestation.
- The most severe form of mange is caused by varieties of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which also causes human scabies.
- Most forms of mange are treatable.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is caused by microscopic mites that burrow into the skin.
- They are tissue‐juice feeders, not blood‐feeders.
- It is characterised by inflammation, itching, thickening of the skin, and hair loss.
- There are different species of mites that can cause the disease.
- Sarcoptic mange can affect wild and domestic mammals and is often reported in wild canids such as red foxes, coyotes, grey wolves, and red wolves.
- They are transmitted between animals by direct contact and by objects that have been in contact with infected animals.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The forest department is monitoring an outbreak of mange among a pack of Asiatic wild dogs in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) in the Nilgiris.
- They suspect the disease spread from the local feral dog population
- It is a skin disease that affects mammals.
- It is a highly contagious infestation.
- The most severe form of mange is caused by varieties of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which also causes human scabies.
- Most forms of mange are treatable.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is caused by microscopic mites that burrow into the skin.
- They are tissue‐juice feeders, not blood‐feeders.
- It is characterised by inflammation, itching, thickening of the skin, and hair loss.
- There are different species of mites that can cause the disease.
- Sarcoptic mange can affect wild and domestic mammals and is often reported in wild canids such as red foxes, coyotes, grey wolves, and red wolves.
- They are transmitted between animals by direct contact and by objects that have been in contact with infected animals.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – S&T – IPR} Consider the following statements with respect to Well-Known Trademarks:
- Both trademarks and well-known trademarks are governed under the purview of the Trademarks Act, 1999.
- A well-known mark can be franchised but not licensed to others.
- The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of well-known trademarks of Indian trademarks exclusively.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks.
- Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
- A well-known mark adds value to a brand and increases its reputation in the market.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- A well-known mark can be licensed or franchised to others.
- Criteria – The Indian Trademarks Act provides several factors that can be considered when determining whether a trademark is well-known, including:
- The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India.
- The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark in India.
- The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
- The degree of inherent or acquired distinctiveness of the mark.
- The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of famous trademark in India.
- This list includes both Indian and foreign trademarks.
- Some of the well-known marks in India include, Amul, Coca-Cola, Bisleri, Google, Pepsi, Nestle, McDonald’s, Samsung, LG, Nike, BMW, Mercedes-Benz, Sony, Nokia, and Adidas.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks.
- Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
- A well-known mark adds value to a brand and increases its reputation in the market.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- A well-known mark can be licensed or franchised to others.
- Criteria – The Indian Trademarks Act provides several factors that can be considered when determining whether a trademark is well-known, including:
- The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India.
- The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark in India.
- The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
- The degree of inherent or acquired distinctiveness of the mark.
- The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of famous trademark in India.
- This list includes both Indian and foreign trademarks.
- Some of the well-known marks in India include, Amul, Coca-Cola, Bisleri, Google, Pepsi, Nestle, McDonald’s, Samsung, LG, Nike, BMW, Mercedes-Benz, Sony, Nokia, and Adidas.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks.
- Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
- A well-known mark adds value to a brand and increases its reputation in the market.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- A well-known mark can be licensed or franchised to others.
- Criteria – The Indian Trademarks Act provides several factors that can be considered when determining whether a trademark is well-known, including:
- The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India.
- The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark in India.
- The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
- The degree of inherent or acquired distinctiveness of the mark.
- The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of famous trademark in India.
- This list includes both Indian and foreign trademarks.
- Some of the well-known marks in India include, Amul, Coca-Cola, Bisleri, Google, Pepsi, Nestle, McDonald’s, Samsung, LG, Nike, BMW, Mercedes-Benz, Sony, Nokia, and Adidas.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
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