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March 10-11-12 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
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These Current Affairs MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – March 10-11-12 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 16
1. Question
Q1. {Prelims – In News} Inflection 2.5, recently seen in news, is?
Correct
Explanation
- Inflection-2.5 is an upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading Large Language Models like GPT-4 and Gemini.
- Inflection AI recently launched Inflection 2.5, an upgraded version of its language model powering Pi.
- Inflection-2.5 achieves competitive performance with GPT-4 while using 40% less computing power for training.
- It excels in IQ-oriented tasks, outperforming its predecessors and achieving significant milestones in areas like the Massive Multitask Language Understanding (MMLU) benchmark and Physics GRE.
- Pi Chatbot
- Pi Chatbot is an AI chatbot developed by Inflection AI, designed to engage in deep and meaningful conversations with users.
- It aims to be empathetic, helpful, and safe, offering a unique persona compared to other chatbots like ChatGPT and Gemini.
Answer: (a) Upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading LLMs like GPT-4 and Gemini; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Inflection-2.5 is an upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading Large Language Models like GPT-4 and Gemini.
- Inflection AI recently launched Inflection 2.5, an upgraded version of its language model powering Pi.
- Inflection-2.5 achieves competitive performance with GPT-4 while using 40% less computing power for training.
- It excels in IQ-oriented tasks, outperforming its predecessors and achieving significant milestones in areas like the Massive Multitask Language Understanding (MMLU) benchmark and Physics GRE.
- Pi Chatbot
- Pi Chatbot is an AI chatbot developed by Inflection AI, designed to engage in deep and meaningful conversations with users.
- It aims to be empathetic, helpful, and safe, offering a unique persona compared to other chatbots like ChatGPT and Gemini.
Answer: (a) Upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading LLMs like GPT-4 and Gemini; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Inflection-2.5 is an upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading Large Language Models like GPT-4 and Gemini.
- Inflection AI recently launched Inflection 2.5, an upgraded version of its language model powering Pi.
- Inflection-2.5 achieves competitive performance with GPT-4 while using 40% less computing power for training.
- It excels in IQ-oriented tasks, outperforming its predecessors and achieving significant milestones in areas like the Massive Multitask Language Understanding (MMLU) benchmark and Physics GRE.
- Pi Chatbot
- Pi Chatbot is an AI chatbot developed by Inflection AI, designed to engage in deep and meaningful conversations with users.
- It aims to be empathetic, helpful, and safe, offering a unique persona compared to other chatbots like ChatGPT and Gemini.
Answer: (a) Upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading LLMs like GPT-4 and Gemini; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 16
2. Question
Q2. {Modern India – Personalities} Consider the following statements:
- Battle of Saraighat was an infantry battle fought in 1671 between the Mughal Empire and the Ahom Kingdom.
- Under General Lachit Borphukan, Ahom’s defeated the Mughals in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
- During their rule of 600 years, the Ahom’s were defeated only twice by the Burmese.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It was a naval battle fought in 1671 between the Mughal Empire and the Ahom Kingdom on the Brahmaputra River at Saraighat, now in Guwahati, Assam.
- The weaker Ahom Army defeated the Mughal Army through diplomatic negotiations, guerrilla tactics, psychological warfare, and military intelligence.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Ahoms, under General Lachit Borphukan, defeated the Mughals in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Ahom Dynasty ruled Assam and remained undefeated for nearly 600 years.
- It fell to repeated Burmese invasions of Assam.
- With the defeat of the Burmese after the First Anglo-Burmese War and the Treaty of Yandabo in 1826, control of the kingdom passed into the East India Company’s hands.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It was a naval battle fought in 1671 between the Mughal Empire and the Ahom Kingdom on the Brahmaputra River at Saraighat, now in Guwahati, Assam.
- The weaker Ahom Army defeated the Mughal Army through diplomatic negotiations, guerrilla tactics, psychological warfare, and military intelligence.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Ahoms, under General Lachit Borphukan, defeated the Mughals in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Ahom Dynasty ruled Assam and remained undefeated for nearly 600 years.
- It fell to repeated Burmese invasions of Assam.
- With the defeat of the Burmese after the First Anglo-Burmese War and the Treaty of Yandabo in 1826, control of the kingdom passed into the East India Company’s hands.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It was a naval battle fought in 1671 between the Mughal Empire and the Ahom Kingdom on the Brahmaputra River at Saraighat, now in Guwahati, Assam.
- The weaker Ahom Army defeated the Mughal Army through diplomatic negotiations, guerrilla tactics, psychological warfare, and military intelligence.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Ahoms, under General Lachit Borphukan, defeated the Mughals in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Ahom Dynasty ruled Assam and remained undefeated for nearly 600 years.
- It fell to repeated Burmese invasions of Assam.
- With the defeat of the Burmese after the First Anglo-Burmese War and the Treaty of Yandabo in 1826, control of the kingdom passed into the East India Company’s hands.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 16
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – Awards} Consider the following statements about Pritzker Prize:
- It is also referred to as the Nobel Prize for architecture.
- It aims to honour Architects (Living as well as Post-humous) who demonstrate talent, vision, and commitment in their built work and contribute to the humanity and built safe environment.
- Only one Indian has been awarded the Pritzker Prize till now.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Pritzker Prize was founded in 1979 by Jay A Pritzker and his wife, Cindy.
- It is considered one of the world’s premier architecture prizes and is often referred to as the Nobel Prize for architecture.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It aims to honour living architects who demonstrate talent, vision, and commitment in their built work and contribute significantly to humanity and building a safe environment.
- It celebrates their ability to blend creativity, innovation, and social impact in their architectural designs.
Statement 3 is correct
- The only Indian laureate to be awarded the Pritzker Prize is the late Balkrishna Doshi (2018).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Pritzker Prize was founded in 1979 by Jay A Pritzker and his wife, Cindy.
- It is considered one of the world’s premier architecture prizes and is often referred to as the Nobel Prize for architecture.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It aims to honour living architects who demonstrate talent, vision, and commitment in their built work and contribute significantly to humanity and building a safe environment.
- It celebrates their ability to blend creativity, innovation, and social impact in their architectural designs.
Statement 3 is correct
- The only Indian laureate to be awarded the Pritzker Prize is the late Balkrishna Doshi (2018).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Pritzker Prize was founded in 1979 by Jay A Pritzker and his wife, Cindy.
- It is considered one of the world’s premier architecture prizes and is often referred to as the Nobel Prize for architecture.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It aims to honour living architects who demonstrate talent, vision, and commitment in their built work and contribute significantly to humanity and building a safe environment.
- It celebrates their ability to blend creativity, innovation, and social impact in their architectural designs.
Statement 3 is correct
- The only Indian laureate to be awarded the Pritzker Prize is the late Balkrishna Doshi (2018).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 16
4. Question
Q4. {IOR – Exercise} Which one of the following conducted the military exercise known as Steadfast Defender?
Correct
Explanation
- Steadfast Defender is a NATO-led military exercise designed to test and improve the alliance’s ability to defend its member nations against various threats.
- The exercise involves participation from NATO member states, as well as partner nations, and focuses on enhancing interoperability, coordination, and military readiness among the participating forces.
Answer: (c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO); Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Steadfast Defender is a NATO-led military exercise designed to test and improve the alliance’s ability to defend its member nations against various threats.
- The exercise involves participation from NATO member states, as well as partner nations, and focuses on enhancing interoperability, coordination, and military readiness among the participating forces.
Answer: (c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO); Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Steadfast Defender is a NATO-led military exercise designed to test and improve the alliance’s ability to defend its member nations against various threats.
- The exercise involves participation from NATO member states, as well as partner nations, and focuses on enhancing interoperability, coordination, and military readiness among the participating forces.
Answer: (c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO); Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 16
5. Question
Q5. {Infra – Iniatives} Consider the following statements with respect to Sela Tunnel:
- Sela Tunnel is being constructed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
- The technology used here involves combination of silane and a nano-polymer with some amount of cement, which gives strength and flexibility to the bitumen pavement.
- It is the world’s longest bi-lane tunnel.
How many of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sela Tunnel is an under-construction road tunnel at 3,000 metres (9,800 ft) which will ensure all-weather connectivity between Guwahati in Assam and Tawang in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh.
- This strategic tunnel is being constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) under Project Vartak.
- It will enhance Indian military’s capabilities in combating the threat of China’s Western Theater Command opposite India’s eastern sector of Line of Actual Control.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has successfully utilised an indigenous road construction technology to build high-altitude bituminous road sections at the Sela tunnel and LGG-Damteng–Yangste (LDY) road near the India-China border in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The indigenous technology, ‘Rejupave‘, developed by India’s oldest and premier road research organisation, CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI), is beneficial in constructing high-altitude bituminous roads at low and sub-zero temperature conditions.
Statement 3 is correct
- The Sela Tunnel once completed will offer the world the longest bi-lane tunnel at an altitude above 13,000 feet.
- The Sela Tunnel is 400 meters below the Sela Pass and once the tunnel is completed, people will be able to pass through it even in winter.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sela Tunnel is an under-construction road tunnel at 3,000 metres (9,800 ft) which will ensure all-weather connectivity between Guwahati in Assam and Tawang in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh.
- This strategic tunnel is being constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) under Project Vartak.
- It will enhance Indian military’s capabilities in combating the threat of China’s Western Theater Command opposite India’s eastern sector of Line of Actual Control.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has successfully utilised an indigenous road construction technology to build high-altitude bituminous road sections at the Sela tunnel and LGG-Damteng–Yangste (LDY) road near the India-China border in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The indigenous technology, ‘Rejupave‘, developed by India’s oldest and premier road research organisation, CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI), is beneficial in constructing high-altitude bituminous roads at low and sub-zero temperature conditions.
Statement 3 is correct
- The Sela Tunnel once completed will offer the world the longest bi-lane tunnel at an altitude above 13,000 feet.
- The Sela Tunnel is 400 meters below the Sela Pass and once the tunnel is completed, people will be able to pass through it even in winter.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sela Tunnel is an under-construction road tunnel at 3,000 metres (9,800 ft) which will ensure all-weather connectivity between Guwahati in Assam and Tawang in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh.
- This strategic tunnel is being constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) under Project Vartak.
- It will enhance Indian military’s capabilities in combating the threat of China’s Western Theater Command opposite India’s eastern sector of Line of Actual Control.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has successfully utilised an indigenous road construction technology to build high-altitude bituminous road sections at the Sela tunnel and LGG-Damteng–Yangste (LDY) road near the India-China border in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The indigenous technology, ‘Rejupave‘, developed by India’s oldest and premier road research organisation, CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI), is beneficial in constructing high-altitude bituminous roads at low and sub-zero temperature conditions.
Statement 3 is correct
- The Sela Tunnel once completed will offer the world the longest bi-lane tunnel at an altitude above 13,000 feet.
- The Sela Tunnel is 400 meters below the Sela Pass and once the tunnel is completed, people will be able to pass through it even in winter.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 16
6. Question
Q6. {Governance – Criminal Justice} Consider the following statements:
- A copy of every General Diary (GD) of the police station is forwarded to the higher-ranking officers and the relevant Judicial Magistrate.
- General Diary (GD) is an internal police record which is not required to be provided to the complainant.
- The term First Information Report (FIR) is not specified in the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- General Diary (GD) is an internal record maintained by the police, and it is not mandatory to forward a copy of every GD entry to higher-ranking officers or the Judicial Magistrate.
- The GD is primarily used for internal communication, recording daily events, and tracking the progress of investigations
Statement 2 is correct
- General Diary (GD) is an internal police record, and there is no legal requirement to provide a copy of the GD to the complainant.
- However, the complainant or the victim has the right to receive a copy of the First Information Report (FIR) as per Section 154(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Statement 3 is correct
- The term FIR is not specified in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973, or any other legislation.
- However, within police regulations or rules, information documented under Section 154 of the CrPC is referred to as the First Information Report (FIR).
Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- General Diary (GD) is an internal record maintained by the police, and it is not mandatory to forward a copy of every GD entry to higher-ranking officers or the Judicial Magistrate.
- The GD is primarily used for internal communication, recording daily events, and tracking the progress of investigations
Statement 2 is correct
- General Diary (GD) is an internal police record, and there is no legal requirement to provide a copy of the GD to the complainant.
- However, the complainant or the victim has the right to receive a copy of the First Information Report (FIR) as per Section 154(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Statement 3 is correct
- The term FIR is not specified in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973, or any other legislation.
- However, within police regulations or rules, information documented under Section 154 of the CrPC is referred to as the First Information Report (FIR).
Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- General Diary (GD) is an internal record maintained by the police, and it is not mandatory to forward a copy of every GD entry to higher-ranking officers or the Judicial Magistrate.
- The GD is primarily used for internal communication, recording daily events, and tracking the progress of investigations
Statement 2 is correct
- General Diary (GD) is an internal police record, and there is no legal requirement to provide a copy of the GD to the complainant.
- However, the complainant or the victim has the right to receive a copy of the First Information Report (FIR) as per Section 154(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Statement 3 is correct
- The term FIR is not specified in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973, or any other legislation.
- However, within police regulations or rules, information documented under Section 154 of the CrPC is referred to as the First Information Report (FIR).
Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 16
7. Question
Q7. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements about Blue Leaders Group:
- It is a group of countries calling for urgent action to save the global ocean from overfishing and pollution.
- It has set target to protect at least 50% of the global ocean through a network of highly and fully protected marine areas by 2030.
- India is a member.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Blue Leaders are an ambitious group of countries calling for urgent action to save the global ocean in the face of the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other threats.
- The first Blue Leaders event took place in New York on the margins of the 2019 United Nations General Assembly and the second in Madrid, Spain during the 2019 UN Climate Change Conference, ‘The Blue COP’.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Blue Leaders are committed to two major goals:
- Securing a new international target to protect at least 30% of the global ocean through a network of highly and fully protected marine areas by 2030.
- The rapid and successful conclusion of a new High Seas Treaty that provides for establishment of fully and highly protected marine areas in the high seas and strengthens management of human activities outside protected areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Member countries:
- The group of Blue Leaders has 24 countries as its members.
- India is NOT a Member.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Blue Leaders are an ambitious group of countries calling for urgent action to save the global ocean in the face of the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other threats.
- The first Blue Leaders event took place in New York on the margins of the 2019 United Nations General Assembly and the second in Madrid, Spain during the 2019 UN Climate Change Conference, ‘The Blue COP’.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Blue Leaders are committed to two major goals:
- Securing a new international target to protect at least 30% of the global ocean through a network of highly and fully protected marine areas by 2030.
- The rapid and successful conclusion of a new High Seas Treaty that provides for establishment of fully and highly protected marine areas in the high seas and strengthens management of human activities outside protected areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Member countries:
- The group of Blue Leaders has 24 countries as its members.
- India is NOT a Member.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Blue Leaders are an ambitious group of countries calling for urgent action to save the global ocean in the face of the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other threats.
- The first Blue Leaders event took place in New York on the margins of the 2019 United Nations General Assembly and the second in Madrid, Spain during the 2019 UN Climate Change Conference, ‘The Blue COP’.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Blue Leaders are committed to two major goals:
- Securing a new international target to protect at least 30% of the global ocean through a network of highly and fully protected marine areas by 2030.
- The rapid and successful conclusion of a new High Seas Treaty that provides for establishment of fully and highly protected marine areas in the high seas and strengthens management of human activities outside protected areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Member countries:
- The group of Blue Leaders has 24 countries as its members.
- India is NOT a Member.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 16
8. Question
Q8. {Agri – Marketing} Consider the following statements about e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi:
- It aims to encourage more farmers to utilise the warehouses and enhance their income.
- It is a join initiative of Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of Agriculture.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi is a digital gateway of Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
- It aims to encourage more farmers, especially small farmers, to utilise the warehouses and enhance their income.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has recently launched e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi.
- The farmers stocking their produce at these warehouses would need to pay only 1% security deposit instead of the earlier 3%.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi is a digital gateway of Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
- It aims to encourage more farmers, especially small farmers, to utilise the warehouses and enhance their income.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has recently launched e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi.
- The farmers stocking their produce at these warehouses would need to pay only 1% security deposit instead of the earlier 3%.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi is a digital gateway of Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
- It aims to encourage more farmers, especially small farmers, to utilise the warehouses and enhance their income.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has recently launched e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi.
- The farmers stocking their produce at these warehouses would need to pay only 1% security deposit instead of the earlier 3%.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 9 of 16
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – PIN World} Blue Line serves as the boundary between which of the following two countries?
Correct
Explanation
- The Blue Line is a border demarcation established by the United Nations in 2000 after Israeli troops withdrew from southern Lebanon.
- It serves as the boundary between Lebanon and Israel, aiming to prevent conflicts and provide a basis for security arrangements in the region.
Answer: (d) Lebanon and Israel; Difficulty level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Blue Line is a border demarcation established by the United Nations in 2000 after Israeli troops withdrew from southern Lebanon.
- It serves as the boundary between Lebanon and Israel, aiming to prevent conflicts and provide a basis for security arrangements in the region.
Answer: (d) Lebanon and Israel; Difficulty level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Blue Line is a border demarcation established by the United Nations in 2000 after Israeli troops withdrew from southern Lebanon.
- It serves as the boundary between Lebanon and Israel, aiming to prevent conflicts and provide a basis for security arrangements in the region.
Answer: (d) Lebanon and Israel; Difficulty level: Medium
-
Question 10 of 16
10. Question
Q10. {Polity – Bodies – Constitutional} Which one of the following statement is incorrect with respect to Election Commissioners?
Correct
Explanation
- Articles (324-329) in Part XV of the Constitution deals with Election.
- The Election Commission of India is a three-member body, with one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
- The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners.
- The Selection Committee, chaired by the prime minister, leader of the opposition and a Union Minister nominated by the Prime Minister make recommendations to the President for appointment of CEC and other ECs.
- They are appointed with a majority vote of Prime Minister and a Minister chosen by him in the selection committee.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and the two other Election Commissioners have equal powers and in any case of difference of opinion, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Answer: (d) Election Commissioners are ineligible for further appointment by the government; Difficulty level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Articles (324-329) in Part XV of the Constitution deals with Election.
- The Election Commission of India is a three-member body, with one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
- The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners.
- The Selection Committee, chaired by the prime minister, leader of the opposition and a Union Minister nominated by the Prime Minister make recommendations to the President for appointment of CEC and other ECs.
- They are appointed with a majority vote of Prime Minister and a Minister chosen by him in the selection committee.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and the two other Election Commissioners have equal powers and in any case of difference of opinion, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Answer: (d) Election Commissioners are ineligible for further appointment by the government; Difficulty level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Articles (324-329) in Part XV of the Constitution deals with Election.
- The Election Commission of India is a three-member body, with one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
- The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners.
- The Selection Committee, chaired by the prime minister, leader of the opposition and a Union Minister nominated by the Prime Minister make recommendations to the President for appointment of CEC and other ECs.
- They are appointed with a majority vote of Prime Minister and a Minister chosen by him in the selection committee.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and the two other Election Commissioners have equal powers and in any case of difference of opinion, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Answer: (d) Election Commissioners are ineligible for further appointment by the government; Difficulty level: Easy
-
Question 11 of 16
11. Question
Q11. {Vulnerable Sections – Women} Consider the following statements with respect to SheRNI Portal:
- It aims to connect and support women scientists and faculty members.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology and Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SheRNI – She Research Network in India.
- The objective of SheRNI is to create a national-level expert platform for women faculty members and facilitate the exchange of expertise, insights and experiences across diverse fields.
- The SheRNI platform will connect more than 81,000 profiles of Indian women in science and research across various domains.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Recently the SheRNI Portal was launched by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to connect, support women scientists and faculty members across India.
- The platform was launched by the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
- Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) is an Autonomous Inter-University Centre (IUC) of University Grants Commission.
- It is a major National Programme initiated by the UGC on February 1991 as a project under the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
- It became an independent Inter-University Centre on 16th May 1996.
- It is involved in modernizing university libraries in India using the state-of-art technologies for the optimum utilisation of information.
- It is set out to be a major player in promoting scholarly communication among academicians and researchers in India.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SheRNI – She Research Network in India.
- The objective of SheRNI is to create a national-level expert platform for women faculty members and facilitate the exchange of expertise, insights and experiences across diverse fields.
- The SheRNI platform will connect more than 81,000 profiles of Indian women in science and research across various domains.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Recently the SheRNI Portal was launched by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to connect, support women scientists and faculty members across India.
- The platform was launched by the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
- Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) is an Autonomous Inter-University Centre (IUC) of University Grants Commission.
- It is a major National Programme initiated by the UGC on February 1991 as a project under the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
- It became an independent Inter-University Centre on 16th May 1996.
- It is involved in modernizing university libraries in India using the state-of-art technologies for the optimum utilisation of information.
- It is set out to be a major player in promoting scholarly communication among academicians and researchers in India.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SheRNI – She Research Network in India.
- The objective of SheRNI is to create a national-level expert platform for women faculty members and facilitate the exchange of expertise, insights and experiences across diverse fields.
- The SheRNI platform will connect more than 81,000 profiles of Indian women in science and research across various domains.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Recently the SheRNI Portal was launched by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to connect, support women scientists and faculty members across India.
- The platform was launched by the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
- Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) is an Autonomous Inter-University Centre (IUC) of University Grants Commission.
- It is a major National Programme initiated by the UGC on February 1991 as a project under the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
- It became an independent Inter-University Centre on 16th May 1996.
- It is involved in modernizing university libraries in India using the state-of-art technologies for the optimum utilisation of information.
- It is set out to be a major player in promoting scholarly communication among academicians and researchers in India.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 12 of 16
12. Question
Q12. {IC – Parliament} Consider the following statements with respect to NOTA:
- The option of NOTA is available for both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha elections.
- NOTA implies the right to reject in its current form.
- NOTA was used for the first time in the 2014 General Elections.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Supreme court has held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and NOT for polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha.
- The court held that making NOTA applicable in Rajya Sabha elections is contrary to Article 80(4) of the constitution and the Supreme Court’s judgment in PUCL v Union of India (2013).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- NOTA, in its present avatar, has just symbolic value or impact on election outcome and it can at best enrich electoral democracy only gradually.
- NOTA does not imply the right to reject. Even if 9 out of total 10 votes are cast in favour of NOTA, the contestant receiving remaining 1 vote will get elected.
- NOTA is not considered even for determining the forfeiture of deposit.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- NOTA is one of the options available in the Electronic Voting Machine, for people who disagree with the political parties in the election contest.
- The option provides voters the power to reject all the candidates listed on the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM).
- On the basis of the judgment given by the Supreme Court in 2013, in the case filed by the People’s Union of Civil Liberties, NOTA was introduced.
- NOTA was used for the first time in the 2013 Assembly elections in 5 states such as Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi and Madhya Pradesh
- It was also used in the 2014 General Elections.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Supreme court has held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and NOT for polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha.
- The court held that making NOTA applicable in Rajya Sabha elections is contrary to Article 80(4) of the constitution and the Supreme Court’s judgment in PUCL v Union of India (2013).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- NOTA, in its present avatar, has just symbolic value or impact on election outcome and it can at best enrich electoral democracy only gradually.
- NOTA does not imply the right to reject. Even if 9 out of total 10 votes are cast in favour of NOTA, the contestant receiving remaining 1 vote will get elected.
- NOTA is not considered even for determining the forfeiture of deposit.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- NOTA is one of the options available in the Electronic Voting Machine, for people who disagree with the political parties in the election contest.
- The option provides voters the power to reject all the candidates listed on the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM).
- On the basis of the judgment given by the Supreme Court in 2013, in the case filed by the People’s Union of Civil Liberties, NOTA was introduced.
- NOTA was used for the first time in the 2013 Assembly elections in 5 states such as Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi and Madhya Pradesh
- It was also used in the 2014 General Elections.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Supreme court has held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and NOT for polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha.
- The court held that making NOTA applicable in Rajya Sabha elections is contrary to Article 80(4) of the constitution and the Supreme Court’s judgment in PUCL v Union of India (2013).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- NOTA, in its present avatar, has just symbolic value or impact on election outcome and it can at best enrich electoral democracy only gradually.
- NOTA does not imply the right to reject. Even if 9 out of total 10 votes are cast in favour of NOTA, the contestant receiving remaining 1 vote will get elected.
- NOTA is not considered even for determining the forfeiture of deposit.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- NOTA is one of the options available in the Electronic Voting Machine, for people who disagree with the political parties in the election contest.
- The option provides voters the power to reject all the candidates listed on the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM).
- On the basis of the judgment given by the Supreme Court in 2013, in the case filed by the People’s Union of Civil Liberties, NOTA was introduced.
- NOTA was used for the first time in the 2013 Assembly elections in 5 states such as Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi and Madhya Pradesh
- It was also used in the 2014 General Elections.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 13 of 16
13. Question
Q13. {Social Sector – Health – Issues} Rhodamine B, recently seen in news, is a?
Correct
Explanation
- Rhodamine B is a chemical commonly used for dyeing in the textile, paper, leather, and paints industry as a colouring agent that helps in attaining the red and pink spectrum.
- Although in powdered form, the chemical is green in colour, upon being added to water, it turns pink.
- It is a water-soluble chemical generally used in incense and match sticks.
- Even if consumed in small quantities, the chemical is highly toxic and carcinogenic.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has banned its usage in food products.
- Tamil Nadu and Karnataka recently banned the use of Rhodamine B in cotton candy or candy floss and Gobi Manchurian.
Answer: (d) Toxic and carcinogenic chemical used in food industry as food additive; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Rhodamine B is a chemical commonly used for dyeing in the textile, paper, leather, and paints industry as a colouring agent that helps in attaining the red and pink spectrum.
- Although in powdered form, the chemical is green in colour, upon being added to water, it turns pink.
- It is a water-soluble chemical generally used in incense and match sticks.
- Even if consumed in small quantities, the chemical is highly toxic and carcinogenic.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has banned its usage in food products.
- Tamil Nadu and Karnataka recently banned the use of Rhodamine B in cotton candy or candy floss and Gobi Manchurian.
Answer: (d) Toxic and carcinogenic chemical used in food industry as food additive; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Rhodamine B is a chemical commonly used for dyeing in the textile, paper, leather, and paints industry as a colouring agent that helps in attaining the red and pink spectrum.
- Although in powdered form, the chemical is green in colour, upon being added to water, it turns pink.
- It is a water-soluble chemical generally used in incense and match sticks.
- Even if consumed in small quantities, the chemical is highly toxic and carcinogenic.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has banned its usage in food products.
- Tamil Nadu and Karnataka recently banned the use of Rhodamine B in cotton candy or candy floss and Gobi Manchurian.
Answer: (d) Toxic and carcinogenic chemical used in food industry as food additive; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 14 of 16
14. Question
Q14. {Governance – Citizenship} Consider the following statements about the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019:
- The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) aims to grant citizenship to persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan.
- Autonomous councils created under the 6th Schedule of the Constitution are exempted from the purview of CAA.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) is a legislative enactment that the Parliament of India passed on December 11, 2019 to amend the Citizenship Act of 1955.
- It aims to grant citizenship to persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan.
- The persecuted minorities includes from the communities such and entered India before December 31, 2014.
- The amendment reduced the residence requirement for naturalisation from 11 years to 5.
Statement 2 is correct
- Autonomous councils created under the 6th Schedule of the Constitution are exempted from the purview of CAA.
- Autonomous councils under this special status include Karbi Anglong, Dila Hasao and Bodoland Territorial Council areas in Assam, Garo Hills in Meghalaya and Tribal areas in Tripura.
- Areas where the Inner Line Permit (ILP) is required for a visit by people from other parts of the country in North-eastern states are excluded.
- The ILP is in place in parts of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) is a legislative enactment that the Parliament of India passed on December 11, 2019 to amend the Citizenship Act of 1955.
- It aims to grant citizenship to persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan.
- The persecuted minorities includes from the communities such and entered India before December 31, 2014.
- The amendment reduced the residence requirement for naturalisation from 11 years to 5.
Statement 2 is correct
- Autonomous councils created under the 6th Schedule of the Constitution are exempted from the purview of CAA.
- Autonomous councils under this special status include Karbi Anglong, Dila Hasao and Bodoland Territorial Council areas in Assam, Garo Hills in Meghalaya and Tribal areas in Tripura.
- Areas where the Inner Line Permit (ILP) is required for a visit by people from other parts of the country in North-eastern states are excluded.
- The ILP is in place in parts of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) is a legislative enactment that the Parliament of India passed on December 11, 2019 to amend the Citizenship Act of 1955.
- It aims to grant citizenship to persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan.
- The persecuted minorities includes from the communities such and entered India before December 31, 2014.
- The amendment reduced the residence requirement for naturalisation from 11 years to 5.
Statement 2 is correct
- Autonomous councils created under the 6th Schedule of the Constitution are exempted from the purview of CAA.
- Autonomous councils under this special status include Karbi Anglong, Dila Hasao and Bodoland Territorial Council areas in Assam, Garo Hills in Meghalaya and Tribal areas in Tripura.
- Areas where the Inner Line Permit (ILP) is required for a visit by people from other parts of the country in North-eastern states are excluded.
- The ILP is in place in parts of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 15 of 16
15. Question
Q15. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements about Samudrayaan Mission:
- It is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned submersible for Deep Ocean exploration purposes only.
- Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the nodal ministry of Mission Samudrayaan.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
- It is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry three human beings to a water depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration.
- It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well.
- The mission will not disturb the ecosystem as the submersible is used solely for exploration purposes.
Statement 2 is correct
- Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the nodal ministry of Mission Samudrayaan.
- The project is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission, which supports the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
- It has an endurance of 12 hours of operational period and 96 hours in case of emergency.
- Further, it will enhance the capability for deep-sea man-rated vehicle development.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
- It is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry three human beings to a water depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration.
- It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well.
- The mission will not disturb the ecosystem as the submersible is used solely for exploration purposes.
Statement 2 is correct
- Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the nodal ministry of Mission Samudrayaan.
- The project is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission, which supports the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
- It has an endurance of 12 hours of operational period and 96 hours in case of emergency.
- Further, it will enhance the capability for deep-sea man-rated vehicle development.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
- It is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry three human beings to a water depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration.
- It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well.
- The mission will not disturb the ecosystem as the submersible is used solely for exploration purposes.
Statement 2 is correct
- Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the nodal ministry of Mission Samudrayaan.
- The project is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission, which supports the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
- It has an endurance of 12 hours of operational period and 96 hours in case of emergency.
- Further, it will enhance the capability for deep-sea man-rated vehicle development.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 16 of 16
16. Question
Q16. {Envi – Species} Consider the following statements with respect to One horned Rhinoceros:
- They are excellent swimmers that suffer from hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating).
- It is classified as endangered by the IUCN.
- The Indian rhino has a single horn, which is present only in the male Rhinos.
- The gestation period is about 16 months.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The One horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is also known as the Indian rhinos.
- They are excellent swimmers that cannot sweat.
- The increasing climate changes may be a threat to the Rhinos including One horned Rhinoceros since they cannot sweat.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- In 1996, Indian rhinos were classified as endangered by the IUCN.
- Due to conservation efforts, the IUCN changed their status to vulnerable in 2008, and the current status is vulnerable.
- It is the largest rhino species on Earth that are confined to India and Nepal.
- The preferred habitat of an Indian rhinoceros are primarily areas that contain grasslands and wetlands located in the foothills of the Himalayas and the Brahmaputra and Ganges valley.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Indian rhino has a single horn, which is present in both the sexes.
Statement 4 is correct
- Breeding takes place at all times of the year, and the gestation period is about 16 months.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The One horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is also known as the Indian rhinos.
- They are excellent swimmers that cannot sweat.
- The increasing climate changes may be a threat to the Rhinos including One horned Rhinoceros since they cannot sweat.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- In 1996, Indian rhinos were classified as endangered by the IUCN.
- Due to conservation efforts, the IUCN changed their status to vulnerable in 2008, and the current status is vulnerable.
- It is the largest rhino species on Earth that are confined to India and Nepal.
- The preferred habitat of an Indian rhinoceros are primarily areas that contain grasslands and wetlands located in the foothills of the Himalayas and the Brahmaputra and Ganges valley.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Indian rhino has a single horn, which is present in both the sexes.
Statement 4 is correct
- Breeding takes place at all times of the year, and the gestation period is about 16 months.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The One horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is also known as the Indian rhinos.
- They are excellent swimmers that cannot sweat.
- The increasing climate changes may be a threat to the Rhinos including One horned Rhinoceros since they cannot sweat.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- In 1996, Indian rhinos were classified as endangered by the IUCN.
- Due to conservation efforts, the IUCN changed their status to vulnerable in 2008, and the current status is vulnerable.
- It is the largest rhino species on Earth that are confined to India and Nepal.
- The preferred habitat of an Indian rhinoceros are primarily areas that contain grasslands and wetlands located in the foothills of the Himalayas and the Brahmaputra and Ganges valley.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Indian rhino has a single horn, which is present in both the sexes.
Statement 4 is correct
- Breeding takes place at all times of the year, and the gestation period is about 16 months.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
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