March 28 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
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- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
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[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 28 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 11
1. Question
Q1. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following Pairs:
Colored Carbons Sources - Blue Carbon
Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments. - Black Carbon
Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter. - Red Carbon
Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions. - Purple Carbon
Carbon released through biological particles on snow and ice that reduce albedo. How many of the above pairs are not matched correctly?
Correct
Explanation
- Scientists use color to classify carbon at different points in the carbon cycle based on carbon function, characteristics, and location.
- Blue – Carbon stored in ocean plants and sediments.
- Green – Carbon stored in terrestrial plants.
- Brown – Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter.
- Red – Carbon released through biological particles on snow and ice that reduce albedo.
- Gray – Carbon released through industrial emissions.
- Teal – Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments.
- Purple – Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions.
- Black – Carbon emitted alongside other pollutants when biomass and fossil fuels are not fully combusted.
Answer: (d) All; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Scientists use color to classify carbon at different points in the carbon cycle based on carbon function, characteristics, and location.
- Blue – Carbon stored in ocean plants and sediments.
- Green – Carbon stored in terrestrial plants.
- Brown – Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter.
- Red – Carbon released through biological particles on snow and ice that reduce albedo.
- Gray – Carbon released through industrial emissions.
- Teal – Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments.
- Purple – Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions.
- Black – Carbon emitted alongside other pollutants when biomass and fossil fuels are not fully combusted.
Answer: (d) All; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Scientists use color to classify carbon at different points in the carbon cycle based on carbon function, characteristics, and location.
- Blue – Carbon stored in ocean plants and sediments.
- Green – Carbon stored in terrestrial plants.
- Brown – Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter.
- Red – Carbon released through biological particles on snow and ice that reduce albedo.
- Gray – Carbon released through industrial emissions.
- Teal – Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments.
- Purple – Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions.
- Black – Carbon emitted alongside other pollutants when biomass and fossil fuels are not fully combusted.
Answer: (d) All; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 2 of 11
2. Question
Q2. {Agri – Crops} Consider the following statements with respect to Mushk Budji:
- It is wheat variety indigenous to the Himalayan region with a high crop yield.
- Kashmir has bagged the GI tag for Mushk Budiji.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mushk Budji rice is a short, bold, aromatic rice variety.
- It is grown in the higher reaches of the Kashmir valley.
- The cooked rice possesses a harmonious blend of taste and rich aroma.
- It stands out for its unique flavour and sensory qualities.
Statement 2 is correct
- Mushk budiji was on the verge of extinction for some time due to various factors.
- Chief among them was the prevalence of rice blast disease, its low yield, and lack of profitability.
- However, a revival programme launched in 2007 by the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST) scientists saw the crop make a slow comeback.
- Mushk Budiji received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in August 2023.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mushk Budji rice is a short, bold, aromatic rice variety.
- It is grown in the higher reaches of the Kashmir valley.
- The cooked rice possesses a harmonious blend of taste and rich aroma.
- It stands out for its unique flavour and sensory qualities.
Statement 2 is correct
- Mushk budiji was on the verge of extinction for some time due to various factors.
- Chief among them was the prevalence of rice blast disease, its low yield, and lack of profitability.
- However, a revival programme launched in 2007 by the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST) scientists saw the crop make a slow comeback.
- Mushk Budiji received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in August 2023.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mushk Budji rice is a short, bold, aromatic rice variety.
- It is grown in the higher reaches of the Kashmir valley.
- The cooked rice possesses a harmonious blend of taste and rich aroma.
- It stands out for its unique flavour and sensory qualities.
Statement 2 is correct
- Mushk budiji was on the verge of extinction for some time due to various factors.
- Chief among them was the prevalence of rice blast disease, its low yield, and lack of profitability.
- However, a revival programme launched in 2007 by the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST) scientists saw the crop make a slow comeback.
- Mushk Budiji received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in August 2023.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 3 of 11
3. Question
Q3. {IE – Balance of Payments} Consider the following:
- Capital account records a country’s transactions with the rest of the world in goods, services, income, and transfers.
- Current account inflows and outflows reflect changes in the value of an asset through investments, loans, bank balances, and property value.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Current Account
- A current account records a country’s transactions with the rest of the world in goods, services, income, and transfers.
- Most of the traditional forms of international trade are included in the current account.
- These transactions are usually more immediate and visible than those recorded in the capital account.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Capital Account
- Capital account inflows and outflows reflect changes in the value of an asset through investments, loans, bank balances, and property value.
- It is not as immediate and invisible as the current account.
- When there is an imbalance in trade in goods and services between two nations, these imbalances are financed by offsetting financial and capital flows.
- A country with a large trade balance deficit will have large investment surpluses from foreign countries and large demands on foreign assets.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Current Account
- A current account records a country’s transactions with the rest of the world in goods, services, income, and transfers.
- Most of the traditional forms of international trade are included in the current account.
- These transactions are usually more immediate and visible than those recorded in the capital account.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Capital Account
- Capital account inflows and outflows reflect changes in the value of an asset through investments, loans, bank balances, and property value.
- It is not as immediate and invisible as the current account.
- When there is an imbalance in trade in goods and services between two nations, these imbalances are financed by offsetting financial and capital flows.
- A country with a large trade balance deficit will have large investment surpluses from foreign countries and large demands on foreign assets.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Current Account
- A current account records a country’s transactions with the rest of the world in goods, services, income, and transfers.
- Most of the traditional forms of international trade are included in the current account.
- These transactions are usually more immediate and visible than those recorded in the capital account.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Capital Account
- Capital account inflows and outflows reflect changes in the value of an asset through investments, loans, bank balances, and property value.
- It is not as immediate and invisible as the current account.
- When there is an imbalance in trade in goods and services between two nations, these imbalances are financed by offsetting financial and capital flows.
- A country with a large trade balance deficit will have large investment surpluses from foreign countries and large demands on foreign assets.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 4 of 11
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – Envi – Conservation} Which of the following Tiger Reserve is a part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?
Correct
Explanation
- Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- It is a part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (1st Biosphere Reserve in India) along with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the West, Bandipur National Park (Karnataka) in the North, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley in the South.
- The name Mudumalai means ”the ancient hill range”. Indeed, it is as old as 65 million years when Western Ghats were formed.
- Flora:
- The Reserve has tall grasses, commonly referred to as ‘Elephant Grass‘.
- Bamboo of the giant variety, valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
- There are several species of endemic flora.
- Fauna:
- Flagship Species: Tiger and Asian Elephant.
- Other species: Indian Gaur, Spotted Deer, Common Langur, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat among others.
- Reserve has got a wide variety of more than 260 species of birds.
- 8% of bird species found in India are recorded in Mudumalai.
- This includes rare birds like Malabar grey hornbill, Malabar pied hornbill, Malabar laughing thrush among others.
Answer: (d) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR); Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- It is a part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (1st Biosphere Reserve in India) along with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the West, Bandipur National Park (Karnataka) in the North, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley in the South.
- The name Mudumalai means ”the ancient hill range”. Indeed, it is as old as 65 million years when Western Ghats were formed.
- Flora:
- The Reserve has tall grasses, commonly referred to as ‘Elephant Grass‘.
- Bamboo of the giant variety, valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
- There are several species of endemic flora.
- Fauna:
- Flagship Species: Tiger and Asian Elephant.
- Other species: Indian Gaur, Spotted Deer, Common Langur, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat among others.
- Reserve has got a wide variety of more than 260 species of birds.
- 8% of bird species found in India are recorded in Mudumalai.
- This includes rare birds like Malabar grey hornbill, Malabar pied hornbill, Malabar laughing thrush among others.
Answer: (d) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR); Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- It is a part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (1st Biosphere Reserve in India) along with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the West, Bandipur National Park (Karnataka) in the North, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley in the South.
- The name Mudumalai means ”the ancient hill range”. Indeed, it is as old as 65 million years when Western Ghats were formed.
- Flora:
- The Reserve has tall grasses, commonly referred to as ‘Elephant Grass‘.
- Bamboo of the giant variety, valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
- There are several species of endemic flora.
- Fauna:
- Flagship Species: Tiger and Asian Elephant.
- Other species: Indian Gaur, Spotted Deer, Common Langur, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat among others.
- Reserve has got a wide variety of more than 260 species of birds.
- 8% of bird species found in India are recorded in Mudumalai.
- This includes rare birds like Malabar grey hornbill, Malabar pied hornbill, Malabar laughing thrush among others.
Answer: (d) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR); Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 11
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements about Magnetofossils:
- Statement I- These are the fossilised remains of magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria.
- Statement II- Magnetotactic bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that assisted them to arrange themselves along the earth’s magnetic field.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- In the depths of the Bay of Bengal, scientists have discovered a 50,000-year-old sediment — a giant magnetofossil and one of the youngest to be found yet.
- These are the fossilised remains of magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria, also known as magnetobacteria, and found preserved within the geological records.
- Analysis of the sediment sample confirmed fluctuations in the monsoon took place as the scientists found particles of magnetic minerals from the two distinct geological periods.
- The rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Ganga-Brahmaputra, Cauvery, and Penner, which empty into the Bay of Bengal, played a crucial role in the formation of the magnetofossils.
- The nutrient-rich sediment carried in by these rivers provided a sufficient supply of reactive iron, which combined with the available organic carbon in the suboxic conditions of the Bay of Bengal to create a favourable environment for the growth of magnetotatic bacteria.
- The scientists also said the presence of the magnetofossils showed that the suboxic conditions of the Bay of Bengal persisted for a long time, allowing the bacteria to thrive.
Statement 2 is correct
- What are Magnetotactic bacteria?
- These are mostly prokaryotic organisms that arrange themselves along the earth’s magnetic field.
- Prokaryotes are organisms whose cells lack a nucleus and other organelles.
- Most prokaryotes are small, single-celled organisms that have a relatively simple structure.
- These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
- These bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
- These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite.
- The crystals help them navigate the changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- In the depths of the Bay of Bengal, scientists have discovered a 50,000-year-old sediment — a giant magnetofossil and one of the youngest to be found yet.
- These are the fossilised remains of magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria, also known as magnetobacteria, and found preserved within the geological records.
- Analysis of the sediment sample confirmed fluctuations in the monsoon took place as the scientists found particles of magnetic minerals from the two distinct geological periods.
- The rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Ganga-Brahmaputra, Cauvery, and Penner, which empty into the Bay of Bengal, played a crucial role in the formation of the magnetofossils.
- The nutrient-rich sediment carried in by these rivers provided a sufficient supply of reactive iron, which combined with the available organic carbon in the suboxic conditions of the Bay of Bengal to create a favourable environment for the growth of magnetotatic bacteria.
- The scientists also said the presence of the magnetofossils showed that the suboxic conditions of the Bay of Bengal persisted for a long time, allowing the bacteria to thrive.
Statement 2 is correct
- What are Magnetotactic bacteria?
- These are mostly prokaryotic organisms that arrange themselves along the earth’s magnetic field.
- Prokaryotes are organisms whose cells lack a nucleus and other organelles.
- Most prokaryotes are small, single-celled organisms that have a relatively simple structure.
- These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
- These bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
- These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite.
- The crystals help them navigate the changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- In the depths of the Bay of Bengal, scientists have discovered a 50,000-year-old sediment — a giant magnetofossil and one of the youngest to be found yet.
- These are the fossilised remains of magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria, also known as magnetobacteria, and found preserved within the geological records.
- Analysis of the sediment sample confirmed fluctuations in the monsoon took place as the scientists found particles of magnetic minerals from the two distinct geological periods.
- The rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Ganga-Brahmaputra, Cauvery, and Penner, which empty into the Bay of Bengal, played a crucial role in the formation of the magnetofossils.
- The nutrient-rich sediment carried in by these rivers provided a sufficient supply of reactive iron, which combined with the available organic carbon in the suboxic conditions of the Bay of Bengal to create a favourable environment for the growth of magnetotatic bacteria.
- The scientists also said the presence of the magnetofossils showed that the suboxic conditions of the Bay of Bengal persisted for a long time, allowing the bacteria to thrive.
Statement 2 is correct
- What are Magnetotactic bacteria?
- These are mostly prokaryotic organisms that arrange themselves along the earth’s magnetic field.
- Prokaryotes are organisms whose cells lack a nucleus and other organelles.
- Most prokaryotes are small, single-celled organisms that have a relatively simple structure.
- These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
- These bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
- These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite.
- The crystals help them navigate the changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 11
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – A&C – Laws} Consider the following statements:
- Under the Ancient Monuments (AMASR Act), 1958 only Archaeological Survey of India has the power to list and delist any monument as Monuments of National Importance (MNI).
- Once declared as MNI the 100 meter radius of the monument is then considered a ‘prohibited area’ where there is a ban on construction activities.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act (AMASR Act), 1958 (amended in 2010), provides for the declaration and conservation of ancient and historical monuments, and archaeological sites, and remains of national importance.
- Declaration of Listing and De-listing:
- The Central Government issues a notification of its intention to declare any ancient monument which archaeologically, historically, or architecturally qualifies to be of national importance by giving two months’ notice, inviting views/objections from the public.
- After considering the views/objections received within the stipulated period, the Central Government may declare the ancient monument to be of national importance by publishing a notification in the official gazette.
- The ASI also has the power to delist monuments it deems to “have ceased to be of national importance” under Section 35 of the Act.
- Once a monument is delisted, the ASI becomes no longer responsible for protecting these monuments.
Statement 2 is correct
- Once a monument or a site is declared to be MNI, their protection and upkeep is the responsibility of the Archaeological Survey of India, under the Ministry of Culture.
- The One-hundred-meter radius of the monument is then considered a ‘prohibited area’ where there is a ban on construction activities.
- Further 200 meters (i.e., 100+200 meters) are considered a ‘regulated area’ where there are regulations on construction.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act (AMASR Act), 1958 (amended in 2010), provides for the declaration and conservation of ancient and historical monuments, and archaeological sites, and remains of national importance.
- Declaration of Listing and De-listing:
- The Central Government issues a notification of its intention to declare any ancient monument which archaeologically, historically, or architecturally qualifies to be of national importance by giving two months’ notice, inviting views/objections from the public.
- After considering the views/objections received within the stipulated period, the Central Government may declare the ancient monument to be of national importance by publishing a notification in the official gazette.
- The ASI also has the power to delist monuments it deems to “have ceased to be of national importance” under Section 35 of the Act.
- Once a monument is delisted, the ASI becomes no longer responsible for protecting these monuments.
Statement 2 is correct
- Once a monument or a site is declared to be MNI, their protection and upkeep is the responsibility of the Archaeological Survey of India, under the Ministry of Culture.
- The One-hundred-meter radius of the monument is then considered a ‘prohibited area’ where there is a ban on construction activities.
- Further 200 meters (i.e., 100+200 meters) are considered a ‘regulated area’ where there are regulations on construction.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act (AMASR Act), 1958 (amended in 2010), provides for the declaration and conservation of ancient and historical monuments, and archaeological sites, and remains of national importance.
- Declaration of Listing and De-listing:
- The Central Government issues a notification of its intention to declare any ancient monument which archaeologically, historically, or architecturally qualifies to be of national importance by giving two months’ notice, inviting views/objections from the public.
- After considering the views/objections received within the stipulated period, the Central Government may declare the ancient monument to be of national importance by publishing a notification in the official gazette.
- The ASI also has the power to delist monuments it deems to “have ceased to be of national importance” under Section 35 of the Act.
- Once a monument is delisted, the ASI becomes no longer responsible for protecting these monuments.
Statement 2 is correct
- Once a monument or a site is declared to be MNI, their protection and upkeep is the responsibility of the Archaeological Survey of India, under the Ministry of Culture.
- The One-hundred-meter radius of the monument is then considered a ‘prohibited area’ where there is a ban on construction activities.
- Further 200 meters (i.e., 100+200 meters) are considered a ‘regulated area’ where there are regulations on construction.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 11
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – Internal Security – Laws} Consider the following statements about Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA):
- In a disturbed area army can arrest a person and search premises without a warrant.
- These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanction to the prosecuting agencies.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- An area or district is notified as a disturbed area under the AFSPA to facilitate the operations of the armed forces.
- Army have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
- If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
Statement 2 is correct
- These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanction to the prosecuting agencies.
- Apart from Nagaland, the AFSPA is currently in force in Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, and Manipur except Imphal, and Arunachal Pradesh.
- The Union Home Minister recently said the central government will consider revoking the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act in Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- An area or district is notified as a disturbed area under the AFSPA to facilitate the operations of the armed forces.
- Army have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
- If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
Statement 2 is correct
- These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanction to the prosecuting agencies.
- Apart from Nagaland, the AFSPA is currently in force in Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, and Manipur except Imphal, and Arunachal Pradesh.
- The Union Home Minister recently said the central government will consider revoking the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act in Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- An area or district is notified as a disturbed area under the AFSPA to facilitate the operations of the armed forces.
- Army have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
- If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
Statement 2 is correct
- These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanction to the prosecuting agencies.
- Apart from Nagaland, the AFSPA is currently in force in Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, and Manipur except Imphal, and Arunachal Pradesh.
- The Union Home Minister recently said the central government will consider revoking the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act in Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 11
8. Question
Q8. {Geo – EG – Mineral Resources} Consider the following statements:
- One of the functions of the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) is to enforce national regulations on seabed mining within individual country’s jurisdictions.
- Countries have exclusive rights to exploit resources up to 200 nautical miles from their coastlines, including the underlying seabed.
- Currently, no country has commercially extracted resources from open oceans.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The International Seabed Authority (ISBA) is responsible for governing and regulating the exploration and exploitation of marine minerals in the international seabed area, which lies beyond national jurisdictions.
- ISBA does not enforce national regulations within individual countries’ jurisdictions, as each country is responsible for managing its own resources within its EEZ.
Statement 2 is correct
- Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), countries have exclusive rights to exploit resources within their Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which extends up to 200 nautical miles from their coastlines.
- This includes the right to explore and exploit living and non-living resources, including the underlying seabed.
Statement 3 is correct
- Currently, no country has commercially extracted resources from open oceans or the international seabed area.
- While there have been exploration activities and research projects focused on deep-sea mining, large-scale commercial extraction has not yet been undertaken due to technological, environmental, and regulatory challenges.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The International Seabed Authority (ISBA) is responsible for governing and regulating the exploration and exploitation of marine minerals in the international seabed area, which lies beyond national jurisdictions.
- ISBA does not enforce national regulations within individual countries’ jurisdictions, as each country is responsible for managing its own resources within its EEZ.
Statement 2 is correct
- Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), countries have exclusive rights to exploit resources within their Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which extends up to 200 nautical miles from their coastlines.
- This includes the right to explore and exploit living and non-living resources, including the underlying seabed.
Statement 3 is correct
- Currently, no country has commercially extracted resources from open oceans or the international seabed area.
- While there have been exploration activities and research projects focused on deep-sea mining, large-scale commercial extraction has not yet been undertaken due to technological, environmental, and regulatory challenges.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The International Seabed Authority (ISBA) is responsible for governing and regulating the exploration and exploitation of marine minerals in the international seabed area, which lies beyond national jurisdictions.
- ISBA does not enforce national regulations within individual countries’ jurisdictions, as each country is responsible for managing its own resources within its EEZ.
Statement 2 is correct
- Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), countries have exclusive rights to exploit resources within their Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which extends up to 200 nautical miles from their coastlines.
- This includes the right to explore and exploit living and non-living resources, including the underlying seabed.
Statement 3 is correct
- Currently, no country has commercially extracted resources from open oceans or the international seabed area.
- While there have been exploration activities and research projects focused on deep-sea mining, large-scale commercial extraction has not yet been undertaken due to technological, environmental, and regulatory challenges.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 9 of 11
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – In News} Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to Strategic Litigation against Public Participation (SLAPP)?
Correct
Explanation
- Strategic Litigation against Public Participation (SLAPP) are legal tactics used to intimidate or silence critics, activists, or individuals engaged in public discourse.
- These litigations are often filed by powerful entities, such as corporations or influential individuals, to stifle criticism, debate, or public engagement on matters of public interest.
- These lawsuits are usually meritless and aimed at draining the target’s financial resources, time, and energy to discourage them from voicing their opinions or exercising their right to free speech and public participation.
Answer: (c) These are legal tactics used to intimidate or silence critics, activists, or individuals engaged in public discourse; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Strategic Litigation against Public Participation (SLAPP) are legal tactics used to intimidate or silence critics, activists, or individuals engaged in public discourse.
- These litigations are often filed by powerful entities, such as corporations or influential individuals, to stifle criticism, debate, or public engagement on matters of public interest.
- These lawsuits are usually meritless and aimed at draining the target’s financial resources, time, and energy to discourage them from voicing their opinions or exercising their right to free speech and public participation.
Answer: (c) These are legal tactics used to intimidate or silence critics, activists, or individuals engaged in public discourse; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Strategic Litigation against Public Participation (SLAPP) are legal tactics used to intimidate or silence critics, activists, or individuals engaged in public discourse.
- These litigations are often filed by powerful entities, such as corporations or influential individuals, to stifle criticism, debate, or public engagement on matters of public interest.
- These lawsuits are usually meritless and aimed at draining the target’s financial resources, time, and energy to discourage them from voicing their opinions or exercising their right to free speech and public participation.
Answer: (c) These are legal tactics used to intimidate or silence critics, activists, or individuals engaged in public discourse; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 10 of 11
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – S&T – ISRO} Which one of the following is the primary objective of the ISRO’s Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) program?
Correct
Explanation
- The primary objective of the Indian Space Research Organization‘s (ISRO) Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) program is to generate interest and potential careers in space science among students.
- The START program aims to encourage and educate undergraduate and postgraduate students in various aspects of space science and technology.
- Through this program, ISRO provides students with exposure to the various fields within space science, including astronomy, atmospheric science, and remote sensing.
- The program includes lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on experience, inspiring students to pursue careers in the space industry and contribute to India’s progress in space exploration.
- Post-graduate students and final year undergraduate students of physical sciences (Physics and Chemistry) and technology (e.g. Electronics, Computer Science, Mechanical, Applied Physics, Radiophysics, Optics & Opto-electronics, Instrumentation and other associated subjects) studying in educational institutes, universities and colleges within India are eligible to be considered for the training.
Answer: (a) To generate interest and potential careers in space science among students; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The primary objective of the Indian Space Research Organization‘s (ISRO) Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) program is to generate interest and potential careers in space science among students.
- The START program aims to encourage and educate undergraduate and postgraduate students in various aspects of space science and technology.
- Through this program, ISRO provides students with exposure to the various fields within space science, including astronomy, atmospheric science, and remote sensing.
- The program includes lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on experience, inspiring students to pursue careers in the space industry and contribute to India’s progress in space exploration.
- Post-graduate students and final year undergraduate students of physical sciences (Physics and Chemistry) and technology (e.g. Electronics, Computer Science, Mechanical, Applied Physics, Radiophysics, Optics & Opto-electronics, Instrumentation and other associated subjects) studying in educational institutes, universities and colleges within India are eligible to be considered for the training.
Answer: (a) To generate interest and potential careers in space science among students; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The primary objective of the Indian Space Research Organization‘s (ISRO) Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) program is to generate interest and potential careers in space science among students.
- The START program aims to encourage and educate undergraduate and postgraduate students in various aspects of space science and technology.
- Through this program, ISRO provides students with exposure to the various fields within space science, including astronomy, atmospheric science, and remote sensing.
- The program includes lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on experience, inspiring students to pursue careers in the space industry and contribute to India’s progress in space exploration.
- Post-graduate students and final year undergraduate students of physical sciences (Physics and Chemistry) and technology (e.g. Electronics, Computer Science, Mechanical, Applied Physics, Radiophysics, Optics & Opto-electronics, Instrumentation and other associated subjects) studying in educational institutes, universities and colleges within India are eligible to be considered for the training.
Answer: (a) To generate interest and potential careers in space science among students; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 11 of 11
11. Question
Q11. {A&C – Art} Consider the following statements about Mohiniyattam dance:
- It is primarily known for its vigorous and angular movements, emphasizing strength and power in its performance.
- The dancers always wear masks during their performances to depict various characters.
- It is accompanied by classical Carnatic music, featuring melodic ragas and rhythmic beats.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, fluid movements and gentle, swaying body movements.
- It does not emphasize vigorous and angular movements, which are more commonly associated with other classical Indian dance forms such as Kathakali or Kuchipudi.
- The dance is characterized by its graceful swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
- History:
- It derives its name from the word ‘Mohini’, a female avatar of Lord Vishnu.
- Its roots date back to the age-old Sanskrit Hindu text on performing arts called ‘Natya Shastra’.
- Mohiniyattam used to be performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in temples during the rule of the Chera kings from 9 to 12 C.E.
- Mohiniattam developed further as a performing art during the 18th and 19th centuries due to the patronage of several princely states.
- The contributions of The Maharaja of the Kingdom of Travancore, Swathi Thirunal Rama Varma, in the early 19th century saw the eventual development and systematization of present-day Mohiniattam.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Dancers in Mohiniyattam do not wear masks.
- More than the footwork, emphasis is given to hand gestures and Mukhabhinaya or subtle facial expressions.
- The hand gestures, 24 in number, are mainly adopted from ‘Hastha Lakshana Deepika’, a text followed by Kathakali.
- Costumes in Mohiniyattam include plain white or ivory cream traditional sari embroidered with bright gold-laced brocade.
Statement 3 is correct
- Mohiniyattam is traditionally accompanied by classical Carnatic music with its unique emphasis on melodic ragas and rhythssmic patterns (talas).
- It is conventionally a solo dance performed by female artists.
- It adheres to the Lasya type that showcases a more graceful, gentle and feminine form of dancing.
- It emotes a play through dancing and singing, where the song is customarily in Manipravala, which is a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam language.
- The recitation may be performed by the dancer or a vocalist, with the music style being Carnatic.
- Musical instruments include Mridangam, Madhalam, ldakka, flute, Veena,and Kuzhitalam(cymbals).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, fluid movements and gentle, swaying body movements.
- It does not emphasize vigorous and angular movements, which are more commonly associated with other classical Indian dance forms such as Kathakali or Kuchipudi.
- The dance is characterized by its graceful swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
- History:
- It derives its name from the word ‘Mohini’, a female avatar of Lord Vishnu.
- Its roots date back to the age-old Sanskrit Hindu text on performing arts called ‘Natya Shastra’.
- Mohiniyattam used to be performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in temples during the rule of the Chera kings from 9 to 12 C.E.
- Mohiniattam developed further as a performing art during the 18th and 19th centuries due to the patronage of several princely states.
- The contributions of The Maharaja of the Kingdom of Travancore, Swathi Thirunal Rama Varma, in the early 19th century saw the eventual development and systematization of present-day Mohiniattam.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Dancers in Mohiniyattam do not wear masks.
- More than the footwork, emphasis is given to hand gestures and Mukhabhinaya or subtle facial expressions.
- The hand gestures, 24 in number, are mainly adopted from ‘Hastha Lakshana Deepika’, a text followed by Kathakali.
- Costumes in Mohiniyattam include plain white or ivory cream traditional sari embroidered with bright gold-laced brocade.
Statement 3 is correct
- Mohiniyattam is traditionally accompanied by classical Carnatic music with its unique emphasis on melodic ragas and rhythssmic patterns (talas).
- It is conventionally a solo dance performed by female artists.
- It adheres to the Lasya type that showcases a more graceful, gentle and feminine form of dancing.
- It emotes a play through dancing and singing, where the song is customarily in Manipravala, which is a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam language.
- The recitation may be performed by the dancer or a vocalist, with the music style being Carnatic.
- Musical instruments include Mridangam, Madhalam, ldakka, flute, Veena,and Kuzhitalam(cymbals).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, fluid movements and gentle, swaying body movements.
- It does not emphasize vigorous and angular movements, which are more commonly associated with other classical Indian dance forms such as Kathakali or Kuchipudi.
- The dance is characterized by its graceful swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
- History:
- It derives its name from the word ‘Mohini’, a female avatar of Lord Vishnu.
- Its roots date back to the age-old Sanskrit Hindu text on performing arts called ‘Natya Shastra’.
- Mohiniyattam used to be performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in temples during the rule of the Chera kings from 9 to 12 C.E.
- Mohiniattam developed further as a performing art during the 18th and 19th centuries due to the patronage of several princely states.
- The contributions of The Maharaja of the Kingdom of Travancore, Swathi Thirunal Rama Varma, in the early 19th century saw the eventual development and systematization of present-day Mohiniattam.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Dancers in Mohiniyattam do not wear masks.
- More than the footwork, emphasis is given to hand gestures and Mukhabhinaya or subtle facial expressions.
- The hand gestures, 24 in number, are mainly adopted from ‘Hastha Lakshana Deepika’, a text followed by Kathakali.
- Costumes in Mohiniyattam include plain white or ivory cream traditional sari embroidered with bright gold-laced brocade.
Statement 3 is correct
- Mohiniyattam is traditionally accompanied by classical Carnatic music with its unique emphasis on melodic ragas and rhythssmic patterns (talas).
- It is conventionally a solo dance performed by female artists.
- It adheres to the Lasya type that showcases a more graceful, gentle and feminine form of dancing.
- It emotes a play through dancing and singing, where the song is customarily in Manipravala, which is a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam language.
- The recitation may be performed by the dancer or a vocalist, with the music style being Carnatic.
- Musical instruments include Mridangam, Madhalam, ldakka, flute, Veena,and Kuzhitalam(cymbals).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
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