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March 20-21 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
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- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – March 20-21 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 14
1. Question
Q1. {Envi – Species} Consider the following statements with respect to the Star Tortoise:
- It is endemic to the Indian sub-continent.
- It is classified as critically endangered by the IUCN.
- India has started creating a genetic database of the Indian Star Tortoise.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Its scientific name Geochelone elegans.
- Star Tortoises have a distinct star-like markings on the shell.
- It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and inhabits two disjoined arid regions, northwestern India (including parts of Pakistan) and southern India (including parts of Sri Lanka).
- In India, they are found in six states Gujarat, Karnataka, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and parts of Odisha.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- According to the IUCN Red List, the Indian Star Tortoise is a vulnerable species.
- CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) listed it under Appendix I, the list of most endangered species.
- The species is facing twin challenges of a threat to its habitat at one level and loss of its genetic diversity at the other.
- Rampant illegal trade has caused major losses of the Indian Star Tortoises.
- Unscientific translocations that have resulted in genetic mixing between different populations.
Statement 3 is correct
- India has started creating a genetic database of the Indian Star Tortoise.
- Prior to this, similar genetic databases have been created and effectively used to protect tigers and rhinos in India.
- Integrating genetic information into the management of this highly trafficked species could help in evidence-based conservation and better rehabilitation decisions for seized tortoises.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Its scientific name Geochelone elegans.
- Star Tortoises have a distinct star-like markings on the shell.
- It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and inhabits two disjoined arid regions, northwestern India (including parts of Pakistan) and southern India (including parts of Sri Lanka).
- In India, they are found in six states Gujarat, Karnataka, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and parts of Odisha.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- According to the IUCN Red List, the Indian Star Tortoise is a vulnerable species.
- CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) listed it under Appendix I, the list of most endangered species.
- The species is facing twin challenges of a threat to its habitat at one level and loss of its genetic diversity at the other.
- Rampant illegal trade has caused major losses of the Indian Star Tortoises.
- Unscientific translocations that have resulted in genetic mixing between different populations.
Statement 3 is correct
- India has started creating a genetic database of the Indian Star Tortoise.
- Prior to this, similar genetic databases have been created and effectively used to protect tigers and rhinos in India.
- Integrating genetic information into the management of this highly trafficked species could help in evidence-based conservation and better rehabilitation decisions for seized tortoises.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Its scientific name Geochelone elegans.
- Star Tortoises have a distinct star-like markings on the shell.
- It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and inhabits two disjoined arid regions, northwestern India (including parts of Pakistan) and southern India (including parts of Sri Lanka).
- In India, they are found in six states Gujarat, Karnataka, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and parts of Odisha.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- According to the IUCN Red List, the Indian Star Tortoise is a vulnerable species.
- CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) listed it under Appendix I, the list of most endangered species.
- The species is facing twin challenges of a threat to its habitat at one level and loss of its genetic diversity at the other.
- Rampant illegal trade has caused major losses of the Indian Star Tortoises.
- Unscientific translocations that have resulted in genetic mixing between different populations.
Statement 3 is correct
- India has started creating a genetic database of the Indian Star Tortoise.
- Prior to this, similar genetic databases have been created and effectively used to protect tigers and rhinos in India.
- Integrating genetic information into the management of this highly trafficked species could help in evidence-based conservation and better rehabilitation decisions for seized tortoises.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 14
2. Question
Q2. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements with respect to the Euclid Telescope:
- The Euclid mission hopes to understand the evolution of the Universe by looking at the light emitted from galaxies 10 billion years ago.
- It is an initiative of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Euclid mission hopes to understand the evolution of the Universe by looking at the light emitted from galaxies 10 billion years ago.
- Euclid is a cosmology survey mission, optimized to determine the properties of dark energy and dark matter on universal scales.
- Dark Energy is the undetectable form of energy that is causing the expansion of space, about 68% of the universe is made of Dark energy while Dark matter makes up 27% and only 5% of the Universe is made of Normal matter.
- The telescope will also focus on gleaning more information on dark energy and dark matter and will scan more than 1/3rd of the sky.
- The Euclid spacecraft is approximately 7 m tall and 3.7 m in diameter.
- It consists of two major components: the service module and the payload module.
- Its operational orbit will be a halo around a point known as the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 2 (L2), at an average distance of 5 million km beyond Earth’s orbit.
- Nominal mission lifetime is six years, with the possibility of extension (limited by the amount of cold gas used for propulsion).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Euclid Telescope was launched by European Space Agency from Cape Canaveral in Florida.
- It is named after the Greek mathematician Euclid of Alexandria, who lived around 300 BC and founded the subject of geometry.
- The layers of ice covering Euclid’s optics are the same width as a strand of DNA, but it is already impacting the spacecraft’s vision.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Euclid mission hopes to understand the evolution of the Universe by looking at the light emitted from galaxies 10 billion years ago.
- Euclid is a cosmology survey mission, optimized to determine the properties of dark energy and dark matter on universal scales.
- Dark Energy is the undetectable form of energy that is causing the expansion of space, about 68% of the universe is made of Dark energy while Dark matter makes up 27% and only 5% of the Universe is made of Normal matter.
- The telescope will also focus on gleaning more information on dark energy and dark matter and will scan more than 1/3rd of the sky.
- The Euclid spacecraft is approximately 7 m tall and 3.7 m in diameter.
- It consists of two major components: the service module and the payload module.
- Its operational orbit will be a halo around a point known as the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 2 (L2), at an average distance of 5 million km beyond Earth’s orbit.
- Nominal mission lifetime is six years, with the possibility of extension (limited by the amount of cold gas used for propulsion).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Euclid Telescope was launched by European Space Agency from Cape Canaveral in Florida.
- It is named after the Greek mathematician Euclid of Alexandria, who lived around 300 BC and founded the subject of geometry.
- The layers of ice covering Euclid’s optics are the same width as a strand of DNA, but it is already impacting the spacecraft’s vision.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Euclid mission hopes to understand the evolution of the Universe by looking at the light emitted from galaxies 10 billion years ago.
- Euclid is a cosmology survey mission, optimized to determine the properties of dark energy and dark matter on universal scales.
- Dark Energy is the undetectable form of energy that is causing the expansion of space, about 68% of the universe is made of Dark energy while Dark matter makes up 27% and only 5% of the Universe is made of Normal matter.
- The telescope will also focus on gleaning more information on dark energy and dark matter and will scan more than 1/3rd of the sky.
- The Euclid spacecraft is approximately 7 m tall and 3.7 m in diameter.
- It consists of two major components: the service module and the payload module.
- Its operational orbit will be a halo around a point known as the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 2 (L2), at an average distance of 5 million km beyond Earth’s orbit.
- Nominal mission lifetime is six years, with the possibility of extension (limited by the amount of cold gas used for propulsion).
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Euclid Telescope was launched by European Space Agency from Cape Canaveral in Florida.
- It is named after the Greek mathematician Euclid of Alexandria, who lived around 300 BC and founded the subject of geometry.
- The layers of ice covering Euclid’s optics are the same width as a strand of DNA, but it is already impacting the spacecraft’s vision.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 14
3. Question
Q3. {Envi – Species} Consider the following passage:
- This species is exclusive to the Northeast India. It is nocturnal and arboreal. It is classified as Vulnerable by the IUCN. They have been newly found in Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve.
Based on the above passage, which one of the following species is being talked about?
Correct
Explanation
- Two mammal species, the binturong and small-clawed otter, were newly found in Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve.
- The Binturong, an arboreal mammal that is is nocturnal in nature is exclusive to the Northeast region in India.
- The small-clawed otter, the smallest otter species in the world, is the third otter species to be found in Kaziranga.
- In India it is found mostly in the protected areas of West Bengal, Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh and in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and some parts of Kerala in the Western Ghats region.
- A mammal native to south and southeast Asia, the binturong (also known as bearcat) is not easily found due to its nocturnal and arboreal habits.
- They live in elevated areas and prefer dense forests with a lot of canopy cover.
- It has been assessed as a vulnerable species by The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) because of its declining population.
Answer: (c) Binturong; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Two mammal species, the binturong and small-clawed otter, were newly found in Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve.
- The Binturong, an arboreal mammal that is is nocturnal in nature is exclusive to the Northeast region in India.
- The small-clawed otter, the smallest otter species in the world, is the third otter species to be found in Kaziranga.
- In India it is found mostly in the protected areas of West Bengal, Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh and in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and some parts of Kerala in the Western Ghats region.
- A mammal native to south and southeast Asia, the binturong (also known as bearcat) is not easily found due to its nocturnal and arboreal habits.
- They live in elevated areas and prefer dense forests with a lot of canopy cover.
- It has been assessed as a vulnerable species by The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) because of its declining population.
Answer: (c) Binturong; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Two mammal species, the binturong and small-clawed otter, were newly found in Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve.
- The Binturong, an arboreal mammal that is is nocturnal in nature is exclusive to the Northeast region in India.
- The small-clawed otter, the smallest otter species in the world, is the third otter species to be found in Kaziranga.
- In India it is found mostly in the protected areas of West Bengal, Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh and in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and some parts of Kerala in the Western Ghats region.
- A mammal native to south and southeast Asia, the binturong (also known as bearcat) is not easily found due to its nocturnal and arboreal habits.
- They live in elevated areas and prefer dense forests with a lot of canopy cover.
- It has been assessed as a vulnerable species by The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) because of its declining population.
Answer: (c) Binturong; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 14
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – Species} Consider the following statements about the Right Whales:
- Right Whales are found only in the Northern Hemisphere of the Earth.
- The North Atlantic Right Whale is categorized as Critically Endangered by the IUCN and differ significantly in their external appearance from North Pacific right whales.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The species’ name originates from the fact that historically whalers considered right whales the RIGHT whale to hunt.
- These whales yielded high quantities of oil and baleen, and were easy to catch and process because they were found close to shore, swam slowly, and floated when they were dead.
- There are three recognized species of right whales that occur in different parts of the world:
- These are Southern right whales (Eubalaena australis), North Atlantic right whales (Eubalaena glacialis) and North Pacific right whales (Eubalaena japonica).
- The North Atlantic right whale is one of the world’s most endangered large whale species.
- North Atlantic right whales are legally protected, both internationally and in U.S. waters.
- The North Pacific right whale is found in the North Pacific Ocean, and the Southern right whale is found in the southern hemisphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- IUCN Status:
- Southern right whales – Least Concern.
- North Atlantic right whales – Critically Endangered.
- North Pacific right whales – Endangered.
- While they differ genetically, and in conservation status, they do not differ significantly in their external appearance.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The species’ name originates from the fact that historically whalers considered right whales the RIGHT whale to hunt.
- These whales yielded high quantities of oil and baleen, and were easy to catch and process because they were found close to shore, swam slowly, and floated when they were dead.
- There are three recognized species of right whales that occur in different parts of the world:
- These are Southern right whales (Eubalaena australis), North Atlantic right whales (Eubalaena glacialis) and North Pacific right whales (Eubalaena japonica).
- The North Atlantic right whale is one of the world’s most endangered large whale species.
- North Atlantic right whales are legally protected, both internationally and in U.S. waters.
- The North Pacific right whale is found in the North Pacific Ocean, and the Southern right whale is found in the southern hemisphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- IUCN Status:
- Southern right whales – Least Concern.
- North Atlantic right whales – Critically Endangered.
- North Pacific right whales – Endangered.
- While they differ genetically, and in conservation status, they do not differ significantly in their external appearance.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The species’ name originates from the fact that historically whalers considered right whales the RIGHT whale to hunt.
- These whales yielded high quantities of oil and baleen, and were easy to catch and process because they were found close to shore, swam slowly, and floated when they were dead.
- There are three recognized species of right whales that occur in different parts of the world:
- These are Southern right whales (Eubalaena australis), North Atlantic right whales (Eubalaena glacialis) and North Pacific right whales (Eubalaena japonica).
- The North Atlantic right whale is one of the world’s most endangered large whale species.
- North Atlantic right whales are legally protected, both internationally and in U.S. waters.
- The North Pacific right whale is found in the North Pacific Ocean, and the Southern right whale is found in the southern hemisphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- IUCN Status:
- Southern right whales – Least Concern.
- North Atlantic right whales – Critically Endangered.
- North Pacific right whales – Endangered.
- While they differ genetically, and in conservation status, they do not differ significantly in their external appearance.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 14
5. Question
Q5. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements with respect to Global E-waste Monitor 2024:
- It is released by the International Association of Electrical, Electronic and Energy Engineering (IAEEEE).
- According to the Global E-waste Monitor 2024, India and China generated the highest amount of e-waste per capita in 2022.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Global E-waste Monitor (GEM) is prepared by Global E-waste Statistics Partnership (GESP) with the support from Fondation Carmignac, a corporate foundation.
- A record 62 million tonnes of e-waste was produced in 2022, 82% up from 2010.
- It will rise another 32% to 82 million tonnes in 2030.
- Just 1% of rare earth element demand is met by e-waste recycling.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Per-capita e-waste:
- Europe (17.6 kg), Oceania (16.1 kg) and the America (14.1 kg) generated the highest amount of e-waste per capita in 2022.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Global E-waste Monitor (GEM) is prepared by Global E-waste Statistics Partnership (GESP) with the support from Fondation Carmignac, a corporate foundation.
- A record 62 million tonnes of e-waste was produced in 2022, 82% up from 2010.
- It will rise another 32% to 82 million tonnes in 2030.
- Just 1% of rare earth element demand is met by e-waste recycling.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Per-capita e-waste:
- Europe (17.6 kg), Oceania (16.1 kg) and the America (14.1 kg) generated the highest amount of e-waste per capita in 2022.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Global E-waste Monitor (GEM) is prepared by Global E-waste Statistics Partnership (GESP) with the support from Fondation Carmignac, a corporate foundation.
- A record 62 million tonnes of e-waste was produced in 2022, 82% up from 2010.
- It will rise another 32% to 82 million tonnes in 2030.
- Just 1% of rare earth element demand is met by e-waste recycling.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Per-capita e-waste:
- Europe (17.6 kg), Oceania (16.1 kg) and the America (14.1 kg) generated the highest amount of e-waste per capita in 2022.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 14
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Which of the following crustacean species was recently discovered off the coast of Kerala?
Correct
Explanation
- New species of deep-sea isopod discovered off Kollam, Kerala named after ISRO.
- The tiny fish-parasitic crustacean, belonging to the genus Brucethoa, was recovered from the base of the gill cavity of the Spinyjaw greeneye, a marine fish.
- The new species has been named Brucethoa isro in honour of the Indian space agency’s successful space missions, including the successful lunar mission titled Chandrayaan-3.
- The new species was identified by the same team that had in 2020 described Brucethoa as a new genus from India.
- Females of the Brucethoa isro species tend to be larger than the males.
- Females grow to about 19 mm in length and 6 mm in width, while males are smaller at around half the size.
- The distinctive morphology and behaviour of deep-sea parasitic isopods have long intrigued taxonomists.
- Brucethoa isro is the second species within this genus to be documented in India.
Answer: (d) Brucethoa isro; Difficulty Level: Tough
Incorrect
Explanation
- New species of deep-sea isopod discovered off Kollam, Kerala named after ISRO.
- The tiny fish-parasitic crustacean, belonging to the genus Brucethoa, was recovered from the base of the gill cavity of the Spinyjaw greeneye, a marine fish.
- The new species has been named Brucethoa isro in honour of the Indian space agency’s successful space missions, including the successful lunar mission titled Chandrayaan-3.
- The new species was identified by the same team that had in 2020 described Brucethoa as a new genus from India.
- Females of the Brucethoa isro species tend to be larger than the males.
- Females grow to about 19 mm in length and 6 mm in width, while males are smaller at around half the size.
- The distinctive morphology and behaviour of deep-sea parasitic isopods have long intrigued taxonomists.
- Brucethoa isro is the second species within this genus to be documented in India.
Answer: (d) Brucethoa isro; Difficulty Level: Tough
Unattempted
Explanation
- New species of deep-sea isopod discovered off Kollam, Kerala named after ISRO.
- The tiny fish-parasitic crustacean, belonging to the genus Brucethoa, was recovered from the base of the gill cavity of the Spinyjaw greeneye, a marine fish.
- The new species has been named Brucethoa isro in honour of the Indian space agency’s successful space missions, including the successful lunar mission titled Chandrayaan-3.
- The new species was identified by the same team that had in 2020 described Brucethoa as a new genus from India.
- Females of the Brucethoa isro species tend to be larger than the males.
- Females grow to about 19 mm in length and 6 mm in width, while males are smaller at around half the size.
- The distinctive morphology and behaviour of deep-sea parasitic isopods have long intrigued taxonomists.
- Brucethoa isro is the second species within this genus to be documented in India.
Answer: (d) Brucethoa isro; Difficulty Level: Tough
-
Question 7 of 14
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – In News} Which one of the following best describes the term “Genetic Rescue”?
Correct
Explanation
- Genetic rescue is the process of increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population.
- In practice, wildlife managers take individuals from a larger, healthier population, and bring them to a smaller population to introduce new variation and eventually help grow the population.
- This conservation strategy aims to alleviate genetic load, decrease extinction risk, and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations.
- It is often employed in conservation biology to mitigate the negative effects of inbreeding depression, which can occur when individuals within a population mate with close relatives, leading to decreased reproductive success and viability of offspring.
- Genetic rescue can have both beneficial and deleterious effects, depending on factors such as the magnitude and duration of gene flow, as well as the genetic and non-genetic factors influencing population dynamics.
Answer: (d) Increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Genetic rescue is the process of increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population.
- In practice, wildlife managers take individuals from a larger, healthier population, and bring them to a smaller population to introduce new variation and eventually help grow the population.
- This conservation strategy aims to alleviate genetic load, decrease extinction risk, and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations.
- It is often employed in conservation biology to mitigate the negative effects of inbreeding depression, which can occur when individuals within a population mate with close relatives, leading to decreased reproductive success and viability of offspring.
- Genetic rescue can have both beneficial and deleterious effects, depending on factors such as the magnitude and duration of gene flow, as well as the genetic and non-genetic factors influencing population dynamics.
Answer: (d) Increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Genetic rescue is the process of increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population.
- In practice, wildlife managers take individuals from a larger, healthier population, and bring them to a smaller population to introduce new variation and eventually help grow the population.
- This conservation strategy aims to alleviate genetic load, decrease extinction risk, and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations.
- It is often employed in conservation biology to mitigate the negative effects of inbreeding depression, which can occur when individuals within a population mate with close relatives, leading to decreased reproductive success and viability of offspring.
- Genetic rescue can have both beneficial and deleterious effects, depending on factors such as the magnitude and duration of gene flow, as well as the genetic and non-genetic factors influencing population dynamics.
Answer: (d) Increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 14
8. Question
Q8. {Envi – Wetlands} Consider the following statements about Peatland:
- Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems, where the production of organic matter exceeds decomposition.
- Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
- Congo basin has the world’s largest tropical peatlands.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
- Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat.
- Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
Statement 2 is correct
- About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in natural, or near-natural state.
- Drained peatlands make up about 16% of the world’s peatlands, or 0.5% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
- Due to the process of peat accumulation, peatlands are carbon rich ecosystems.
- Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
- They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined.
- Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.
Statement 3 is correct
- Peatlands occur in almost every country on Earth, currently covering 3% of the global land surface.
- In 2017, the world’s largest tropical peatland was discovered beneath the forests of the Congo Basin in 2017.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
- Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat.
- Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
Statement 2 is correct
- About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in natural, or near-natural state.
- Drained peatlands make up about 16% of the world’s peatlands, or 0.5% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
- Due to the process of peat accumulation, peatlands are carbon rich ecosystems.
- Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
- They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined.
- Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.
Statement 3 is correct
- Peatlands occur in almost every country on Earth, currently covering 3% of the global land surface.
- In 2017, the world’s largest tropical peatland was discovered beneath the forests of the Congo Basin in 2017.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
- Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat.
- Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
Statement 2 is correct
- About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in natural, or near-natural state.
- Drained peatlands make up about 16% of the world’s peatlands, or 0.5% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
- Due to the process of peat accumulation, peatlands are carbon rich ecosystems.
- Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
- They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined.
- Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.
Statement 3 is correct
- Peatlands occur in almost every country on Earth, currently covering 3% of the global land surface.
- In 2017, the world’s largest tropical peatland was discovered beneath the forests of the Congo Basin in 2017.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 9 of 14
9. Question
Q9. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements about Valmiki Tiger Reserve:
- It forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India and is bordered by Nepal’s Chitwan National Park to the north.
- It is the only tiger reserve in Bihar.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Bihar’s Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) utilizes solar-powered pumps to provide water to wild animals during the hot summer months.
- Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the northwestern portion of the West Champaran district of Bihar, constituting 17.4% of the district’s total geographical area.
- It forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India.
- It is bordered by Nepal’s Chitwan National Park to the north and Uttar Pradesh to the west.
- Situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone, the forest has a combination of bhabar and terai tracts.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is the only tiger reserve in Bihar.
- River Gandak forms the western boundary of Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Bihar’s Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) utilizes solar-powered pumps to provide water to wild animals during the hot summer months.
- Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the northwestern portion of the West Champaran district of Bihar, constituting 17.4% of the district’s total geographical area.
- It forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India.
- It is bordered by Nepal’s Chitwan National Park to the north and Uttar Pradesh to the west.
- Situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone, the forest has a combination of bhabar and terai tracts.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is the only tiger reserve in Bihar.
- River Gandak forms the western boundary of Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Bihar’s Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) utilizes solar-powered pumps to provide water to wild animals during the hot summer months.
- Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the northwestern portion of the West Champaran district of Bihar, constituting 17.4% of the district’s total geographical area.
- It forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India.
- It is bordered by Nepal’s Chitwan National Park to the north and Uttar Pradesh to the west.
- Situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone, the forest has a combination of bhabar and terai tracts.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is the only tiger reserve in Bihar.
- River Gandak forms the western boundary of Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty level: Medium
-
Question 10 of 14
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements about Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS):
- It is a scheme introduced by G7 countries to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy and strengthen supply chains.
- The DCTS does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as ‘upper-middle income’ for three consecutive years.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a scheme introduced by the UK Government to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy, create stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthen supply chains.
- It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme which has been designed to boost trade with developing countries in order to support their development.
- It reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries into the UK.
Statement 2 is correct
- The DCTS applies to 65 countries, that are:
- least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations
- low-income countries (LIC) and lower middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank.
- DCTS will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries.
- The DCTS does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as ‘upper-middle income’ for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a scheme introduced by the UK Government to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy, create stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthen supply chains.
- It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme which has been designed to boost trade with developing countries in order to support their development.
- It reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries into the UK.
Statement 2 is correct
- The DCTS applies to 65 countries, that are:
- least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations
- low-income countries (LIC) and lower middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank.
- DCTS will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries.
- The DCTS does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as ‘upper-middle income’ for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a scheme introduced by the UK Government to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy, create stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthen supply chains.
- It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme which has been designed to boost trade with developing countries in order to support their development.
- It reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries into the UK.
Statement 2 is correct
- The DCTS applies to 65 countries, that are:
- least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations
- low-income countries (LIC) and lower middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank.
- DCTS will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries.
- The DCTS does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as ‘upper-middle income’ for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty level: Medium
-
Question 11 of 14
11. Question
Q11. {IE – Industry} Consider the following statements with respect to Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme, 2024:
- It is applicable only to the electric two-wheeler and three-wheeler.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Heavy Industries, in collaboration with the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme, 2024 is a fund limited scheme for faster adoption of electric two-wheeler (e-2W) and three-wheeler (e-3W).
- It aims to provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing eco-system in the country.
- The programme also aims to spur localisation of EV components while also driving sales up.
- The scheme is valid for 4 months from April 1 onwards.
- Eligible EV categories
- Two Wheelers (electric) (e-2W)
- Three-wheeler (electric) including registered e-rickshaws & e-carts and L5 (e-3W)
- Scheme will be applicable mainly to those e-2W and e-3Ws registered for commercial purposes.
- Further, in addition to commercial use, privately or corporate owned registered e-2W will also be eligible under the scheme.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is an initiative of The Ministry of Heavy Industries, in collaboration with the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
- Under the scheme, financial support of Rs10,000 per two-wheeler and Rs50,000 for three-wheeler will be provided.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme, 2024 is a fund limited scheme for faster adoption of electric two-wheeler (e-2W) and three-wheeler (e-3W).
- It aims to provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing eco-system in the country.
- The programme also aims to spur localisation of EV components while also driving sales up.
- The scheme is valid for 4 months from April 1 onwards.
- Eligible EV categories
- Two Wheelers (electric) (e-2W)
- Three-wheeler (electric) including registered e-rickshaws & e-carts and L5 (e-3W)
- Scheme will be applicable mainly to those e-2W and e-3Ws registered for commercial purposes.
- Further, in addition to commercial use, privately or corporate owned registered e-2W will also be eligible under the scheme.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is an initiative of The Ministry of Heavy Industries, in collaboration with the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
- Under the scheme, financial support of Rs10,000 per two-wheeler and Rs50,000 for three-wheeler will be provided.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme, 2024 is a fund limited scheme for faster adoption of electric two-wheeler (e-2W) and three-wheeler (e-3W).
- It aims to provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing eco-system in the country.
- The programme also aims to spur localisation of EV components while also driving sales up.
- The scheme is valid for 4 months from April 1 onwards.
- Eligible EV categories
- Two Wheelers (electric) (e-2W)
- Three-wheeler (electric) including registered e-rickshaws & e-carts and L5 (e-3W)
- Scheme will be applicable mainly to those e-2W and e-3Ws registered for commercial purposes.
- Further, in addition to commercial use, privately or corporate owned registered e-2W will also be eligible under the scheme.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is an initiative of The Ministry of Heavy Industries, in collaboration with the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
- Under the scheme, financial support of Rs10,000 per two-wheeler and Rs50,000 for three-wheeler will be provided.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 12 of 14
12. Question
Q12. {Prelims – In News – Reports} State of Global Climate Report 2023, recently seen is published by?
Correct
Explanation
- State of Global Climate Report 2023 is an annual report published by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
- Dozens of experts and partners contribute to the report, including UN organizations, National Meteorological and Hydrological Services (NMHSs), and Global Data and Analysis Centers, as well as Regional Climate Centres, the World Climate Research Programme (WCRP), the Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW), the Global Cryosphere Watch, and the Copernicus Climate Change Service operated by ECMWF.
- Important Highlights:
- 2023 was the hottest year on record, with the global average near-surface temperature at 1.45 °Celsius (with a margin of uncertainty of ± 0.12 °C) above the pre-industrial baseline.
- Numerous records for indicatorsof the climate system, including greenhouse gas levels (GHGs), surface temperatures, ocean heat, sea level rise, Antarctic Sea ice cover, glacier retreat, etc., were broken.
- Towards the end of 2023,over 90% of the ocean had experienced heatwave conditions at some point during the year.
- In 2023, renewable capacity additions increased by almost 50% from 2022, for a total of 510 gigawatts (GW), the highest rate observed in the past two decades.
Answer: (b) World Meteorological Organisation; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- State of Global Climate Report 2023 is an annual report published by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
- Dozens of experts and partners contribute to the report, including UN organizations, National Meteorological and Hydrological Services (NMHSs), and Global Data and Analysis Centers, as well as Regional Climate Centres, the World Climate Research Programme (WCRP), the Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW), the Global Cryosphere Watch, and the Copernicus Climate Change Service operated by ECMWF.
- Important Highlights:
- 2023 was the hottest year on record, with the global average near-surface temperature at 1.45 °Celsius (with a margin of uncertainty of ± 0.12 °C) above the pre-industrial baseline.
- Numerous records for indicatorsof the climate system, including greenhouse gas levels (GHGs), surface temperatures, ocean heat, sea level rise, Antarctic Sea ice cover, glacier retreat, etc., were broken.
- Towards the end of 2023,over 90% of the ocean had experienced heatwave conditions at some point during the year.
- In 2023, renewable capacity additions increased by almost 50% from 2022, for a total of 510 gigawatts (GW), the highest rate observed in the past two decades.
Answer: (b) World Meteorological Organisation; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- State of Global Climate Report 2023 is an annual report published by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
- Dozens of experts and partners contribute to the report, including UN organizations, National Meteorological and Hydrological Services (NMHSs), and Global Data and Analysis Centers, as well as Regional Climate Centres, the World Climate Research Programme (WCRP), the Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW), the Global Cryosphere Watch, and the Copernicus Climate Change Service operated by ECMWF.
- Important Highlights:
- 2023 was the hottest year on record, with the global average near-surface temperature at 1.45 °Celsius (with a margin of uncertainty of ± 0.12 °C) above the pre-industrial baseline.
- Numerous records for indicatorsof the climate system, including greenhouse gas levels (GHGs), surface temperatures, ocean heat, sea level rise, Antarctic Sea ice cover, glacier retreat, etc., were broken.
- Towards the end of 2023,over 90% of the ocean had experienced heatwave conditions at some point during the year.
- In 2023, renewable capacity additions increased by almost 50% from 2022, for a total of 510 gigawatts (GW), the highest rate observed in the past two decades.
Answer: (b) World Meteorological Organisation; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 13 of 14
13. Question
Q13. {Envi – Pollution} Consider the following statements about International Partnership for Hydrogen and Fuel Cells in the Economy (IPHE):
- It is an international inter-governmental partnership established on the COP21 at the UN Climate Change Conference.
- India is not a member.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- IPHE, established in 2003, is an international inter-governmental partnership currently consisting of 23 member countries and the European Commission.
- Objective:
- To facilitate and accelerate the transition to clean and efficient energy and mobility systems using fuel cells and hydrogen technologies.
- IPHE serves as a mechanism to organize and implement effective, efficient, and focused international research, development, demonstration, and commercial utilization activities related to hydrogen and fuel cell technologies.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Members: Australia, Canada, European Commission, India, Netherlands, Switzerland, Austria, Chile, France, Italy, Norway, UAE, Belgium, China, Germany, Japan, South Africa, United Kingdom, Brazil, Costa Rica, Iceland, South Korea, Singapore, and the United States.
- India is hosting 41st IPHE in New Delhi at Sushma Swaraj Bhawan.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- IPHE, established in 2003, is an international inter-governmental partnership currently consisting of 23 member countries and the European Commission.
- Objective:
- To facilitate and accelerate the transition to clean and efficient energy and mobility systems using fuel cells and hydrogen technologies.
- IPHE serves as a mechanism to organize and implement effective, efficient, and focused international research, development, demonstration, and commercial utilization activities related to hydrogen and fuel cell technologies.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Members: Australia, Canada, European Commission, India, Netherlands, Switzerland, Austria, Chile, France, Italy, Norway, UAE, Belgium, China, Germany, Japan, South Africa, United Kingdom, Brazil, Costa Rica, Iceland, South Korea, Singapore, and the United States.
- India is hosting 41st IPHE in New Delhi at Sushma Swaraj Bhawan.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- IPHE, established in 2003, is an international inter-governmental partnership currently consisting of 23 member countries and the European Commission.
- Objective:
- To facilitate and accelerate the transition to clean and efficient energy and mobility systems using fuel cells and hydrogen technologies.
- IPHE serves as a mechanism to organize and implement effective, efficient, and focused international research, development, demonstration, and commercial utilization activities related to hydrogen and fuel cell technologies.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Members: Australia, Canada, European Commission, India, Netherlands, Switzerland, Austria, Chile, France, Italy, Norway, UAE, Belgium, China, Germany, Japan, South Africa, United Kingdom, Brazil, Costa Rica, Iceland, South Korea, Singapore, and the United States.
- India is hosting 41st IPHE in New Delhi at Sushma Swaraj Bhawan.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 14 of 14
14. Question
Q14. {Governance – Initiatives} Consider the following statements:
- Vocal For Local is an initiative of NITI Aayog under its Aspirational Blocks Programme.
- The government has made it mandatory for sellers to display the ‘country of origin’ on products to be sold on Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal.
- Government e-Marketplace limits the entry of foreign bidders into the Indian market.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Vocal for Local is an initiative of NITI Aayog under its Aspirational Blocks Programme to encourage a spirit of self-reliance among the people and propel them towards sustainable growth and prosperity.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Indian government has made it mandatory for sellers to display the ‘country of origin’ on products to be sold on the GeM portal.
- This move aimed to promote the ‘Make in India’ initiative and provide transparency to buyers regarding the origin of products they intend to purchase.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- GeM does not limit the entry of foreign bidders into the Indian market.
- Instead, it facilitates the participation of foreign bidders in government procurement, promoting competition and providing access to a larger pool of suppliers.
- However, foreign bidders need to comply with the relevant rules and regulations governing government procurement in India.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Vocal for Local is an initiative of NITI Aayog under its Aspirational Blocks Programme to encourage a spirit of self-reliance among the people and propel them towards sustainable growth and prosperity.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Indian government has made it mandatory for sellers to display the ‘country of origin’ on products to be sold on the GeM portal.
- This move aimed to promote the ‘Make in India’ initiative and provide transparency to buyers regarding the origin of products they intend to purchase.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- GeM does not limit the entry of foreign bidders into the Indian market.
- Instead, it facilitates the participation of foreign bidders in government procurement, promoting competition and providing access to a larger pool of suppliers.
- However, foreign bidders need to comply with the relevant rules and regulations governing government procurement in India.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Vocal for Local is an initiative of NITI Aayog under its Aspirational Blocks Programme to encourage a spirit of self-reliance among the people and propel them towards sustainable growth and prosperity.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Indian government has made it mandatory for sellers to display the ‘country of origin’ on products to be sold on the GeM portal.
- This move aimed to promote the ‘Make in India’ initiative and provide transparency to buyers regarding the origin of products they intend to purchase.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- GeM does not limit the entry of foreign bidders into the Indian market.
- Instead, it facilitates the participation of foreign bidders in government procurement, promoting competition and providing access to a larger pool of suppliers.
- However, foreign bidders need to comply with the relevant rules and regulations governing government procurement in India.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
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