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Question 1 of 11
1. Question
Q1. {Prelims – In News – IPRs} Consider the following statements with respect to Trademarks:
A trademark is a symbol, design, word or phrase that is identified with business.
Once registered, a trademark is valid for 25 years and can be renewed by the owner periodically.
There is no notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999, that seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
A trademark is a symbol, design, word or phrase that is identified with business.
Registering a trademark allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage.
The Trademarks Act of 1999 governs the regime of trademarks and their registration in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
According to Section 25 of the 1999 Act, once registered, a trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner periodically.
It guarantees protection for trademarks registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry.
Statement 3 is incorrect
‘Passing off’ is a deception where a brand misrepresents itselfas another to benefit from their reputation.
The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks.
Example of Passing Off, Recently the Delhi high courtcancelled a trademark registration titled ‘Dolma Aunty Moms’ in the name of one Mohammed Akram Khan, after Dolma Tsering moved court against Khan for using her trademark.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
A trademark is a symbol, design, word or phrase that is identified with business.
Registering a trademark allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage.
The Trademarks Act of 1999 governs the regime of trademarks and their registration in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
According to Section 25 of the 1999 Act, once registered, a trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner periodically.
It guarantees protection for trademarks registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry.
Statement 3 is incorrect
‘Passing off’ is a deception where a brand misrepresents itselfas another to benefit from their reputation.
The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks.
Example of Passing Off, Recently the Delhi high courtcancelled a trademark registration titled ‘Dolma Aunty Moms’ in the name of one Mohammed Akram Khan, after Dolma Tsering moved court against Khan for using her trademark.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
A trademark is a symbol, design, word or phrase that is identified with business.
Registering a trademark allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage.
The Trademarks Act of 1999 governs the regime of trademarks and their registration in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
According to Section 25 of the 1999 Act, once registered, a trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner periodically.
It guarantees protection for trademarks registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry.
Statement 3 is incorrect
‘Passing off’ is a deception where a brand misrepresents itselfas another to benefit from their reputation.
The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks.
Example of Passing Off, Recently the Delhi high courtcancelled a trademark registration titled ‘Dolma Aunty Moms’ in the name of one Mohammed Akram Khan, after Dolma Tsering moved court against Khan for using her trademark.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 11
2. Question
Q2. {Prelims – PIN World} Gulf of Tonkin, sometimes seen in news is located in?
Correct
Explanation
The Gulf of Tonkin, situated in the South China Sea, borders Tonkin in northern Vietnam and South China.
It is bordered by Vietnam’s northern coastline to the west and northwest, China’s Guangxi Zhuang Autonomous Region to the north, and the Leizhou Peninsula and Hainan Island to the east.
The Gulf of Tonkin incident in 1964 heightened U.S. involvement in the Vietnam War.
Vietnam calls for respect of international law following China’s establishment of a baseline in the Gulf of Tonkin.
The move raises concerns amid overlapping claims in the South China Sea, but both countries have historically maintained friendlier relations in the Gulf of Tonkin.
Answer: (d) South China Sea; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
The Gulf of Tonkin, situated in the South China Sea, borders Tonkin in northern Vietnam and South China.
It is bordered by Vietnam’s northern coastline to the west and northwest, China’s Guangxi Zhuang Autonomous Region to the north, and the Leizhou Peninsula and Hainan Island to the east.
The Gulf of Tonkin incident in 1964 heightened U.S. involvement in the Vietnam War.
Vietnam calls for respect of international law following China’s establishment of a baseline in the Gulf of Tonkin.
The move raises concerns amid overlapping claims in the South China Sea, but both countries have historically maintained friendlier relations in the Gulf of Tonkin.
Answer: (d) South China Sea; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
The Gulf of Tonkin, situated in the South China Sea, borders Tonkin in northern Vietnam and South China.
It is bordered by Vietnam’s northern coastline to the west and northwest, China’s Guangxi Zhuang Autonomous Region to the north, and the Leizhou Peninsula and Hainan Island to the east.
The Gulf of Tonkin incident in 1964 heightened U.S. involvement in the Vietnam War.
Vietnam calls for respect of international law following China’s establishment of a baseline in the Gulf of Tonkin.
The move raises concerns amid overlapping claims in the South China Sea, but both countries have historically maintained friendlier relations in the Gulf of Tonkin.
Answer: (d) South China Sea; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 11
3. Question
Q3. {IC – Parliament – Elections} Consider the following statements about the Moral Code of Conduct (MCC):
The MCC comes into force from the date the elections’ voting starts until the date that results are out.
The MCC has a statutory backing under Representation of the People Act 1951.
Kerala was the first to implement a ‘Code of Conduct’ for politicians in its state assembly elections.
How many of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The MCC of the Election Commission of India (ECI) is a set of guidelines issued to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.
The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.
The MCC contains eight provisions dealing with general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The MCC has no statutory backing, meaning anybody breaching the MCC cannot be proceeded against under any clause of the Code.
The Election Commission (EC) uses moral sanction or censure for its enforcement.
The ECI can issue a notice to a politician or a party for an alleged breach of the MCC either on its own or based on a complaint by another party or individual.
Once a notice is issued, the person or party must reply in writing, either accepting fault and tendering an unconditional apology or rebutting the allegation.
Statement 3 is correct
The origin of the MCC lies in the Assembly elections of Kerala in 1960, when the State administration prepared a ‘Code of Conduct’ for political actors.
Subsequently, in the Lok Sabha elections in 1962, the ECI circulated the code to all recognized political parties and State governments, and it was wholeheartedly followed.
It was in 1991 after repeated flouting of the election norms and continued corruption, the EC decided to enforce the MCC more strictly.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The MCC of the Election Commission of India (ECI) is a set of guidelines issued to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.
The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.
The MCC contains eight provisions dealing with general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The MCC has no statutory backing, meaning anybody breaching the MCC cannot be proceeded against under any clause of the Code.
The Election Commission (EC) uses moral sanction or censure for its enforcement.
The ECI can issue a notice to a politician or a party for an alleged breach of the MCC either on its own or based on a complaint by another party or individual.
Once a notice is issued, the person or party must reply in writing, either accepting fault and tendering an unconditional apology or rebutting the allegation.
Statement 3 is correct
The origin of the MCC lies in the Assembly elections of Kerala in 1960, when the State administration prepared a ‘Code of Conduct’ for political actors.
Subsequently, in the Lok Sabha elections in 1962, the ECI circulated the code to all recognized political parties and State governments, and it was wholeheartedly followed.
It was in 1991 after repeated flouting of the election norms and continued corruption, the EC decided to enforce the MCC more strictly.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The MCC of the Election Commission of India (ECI) is a set of guidelines issued to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.
The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.
The MCC contains eight provisions dealing with general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The MCC has no statutory backing, meaning anybody breaching the MCC cannot be proceeded against under any clause of the Code.
The Election Commission (EC) uses moral sanction or censure for its enforcement.
The ECI can issue a notice to a politician or a party for an alleged breach of the MCC either on its own or based on a complaint by another party or individual.
Once a notice is issued, the person or party must reply in writing, either accepting fault and tendering an unconditional apology or rebutting the allegation.
Statement 3 is correct
The origin of the MCC lies in the Assembly elections of Kerala in 1960, when the State administration prepared a ‘Code of Conduct’ for political actors.
Subsequently, in the Lok Sabha elections in 1962, the ECI circulated the code to all recognized political parties and State governments, and it was wholeheartedly followed.
It was in 1991 after repeated flouting of the election norms and continued corruption, the EC decided to enforce the MCC more strictly.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 11
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements about Bugun Liocichla:
BugunLiocichla is found only in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary and nowhere else in the world.
It is listed under Endangered species in IUCN Red List.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Bugun Liocichla is found ONLY in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary and nowhere else in the world.
Bugun Liocichla is a small babbler bird (only 20 cm) with olive-grey plumage and black cap.
The bird was identified by RamanaAthreya, a Pune-based astrophysicist in 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The avian species is critically endangered with only 14 individual birds spotted so far in the Braiduah village under the Singchung sub-division.
As a major step towards conservation, the Arunachal Pradesh government finally notifiedBraiduah Community Reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
The reserve is situated adjacent to the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
Buguns, one of the major tribes, mainly living adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Singchung sub-division of Arunachal Pradesh’s West Kameng district have set an example by donating 1,470 hectares of forest land to the state forest department giving a push to efforts for protection of Bugun Liocichla.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Bugun Liocichla is found ONLY in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary and nowhere else in the world.
Bugun Liocichla is a small babbler bird (only 20 cm) with olive-grey plumage and black cap.
The bird was identified by RamanaAthreya, a Pune-based astrophysicist in 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The avian species is critically endangered with only 14 individual birds spotted so far in the Braiduah village under the Singchung sub-division.
As a major step towards conservation, the Arunachal Pradesh government finally notifiedBraiduah Community Reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
The reserve is situated adjacent to the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
Buguns, one of the major tribes, mainly living adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Singchung sub-division of Arunachal Pradesh’s West Kameng district have set an example by donating 1,470 hectares of forest land to the state forest department giving a push to efforts for protection of Bugun Liocichla.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Bugun Liocichla is found ONLY in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary and nowhere else in the world.
Bugun Liocichla is a small babbler bird (only 20 cm) with olive-grey plumage and black cap.
The bird was identified by RamanaAthreya, a Pune-based astrophysicist in 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The avian species is critically endangered with only 14 individual birds spotted so far in the Braiduah village under the Singchung sub-division.
As a major step towards conservation, the Arunachal Pradesh government finally notifiedBraiduah Community Reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
The reserve is situated adjacent to the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
Buguns, one of the major tribes, mainly living adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Singchung sub-division of Arunachal Pradesh’s West Kameng district have set an example by donating 1,470 hectares of forest land to the state forest department giving a push to efforts for protection of Bugun Liocichla.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 5 of 11
5. Question
Q5. {S&T – AI} Consider the following statements about AI Model:
AI models undergo training on extensive datasets and have limitations in independent operation whereas an AI Agent has the ability to process data and take actions autonomously.
Alexa, developed by Amazon, is an example of AI model.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
AI models or artificial intelligence models are programs that detect specific patterns using a collection of data sets.
It is an illustration of a system that can receive data inputs and draw conclusions or conduct actions depending on those conclusions.
Intelligent agents in AI are autonomous entities that act upon an environment using sensors and actuators to achieve their goals.
In addition, intelligent agents may learn from the environment to achieve those goals.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Alexa, developed by Amazon, is an example of an AI Agent, as an AI Agent use AI models to help make decisions, but also add extra layers of logic, learning, or planning to handle complex situations.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
AI models or artificial intelligence models are programs that detect specific patterns using a collection of data sets.
It is an illustration of a system that can receive data inputs and draw conclusions or conduct actions depending on those conclusions.
Intelligent agents in AI are autonomous entities that act upon an environment using sensors and actuators to achieve their goals.
In addition, intelligent agents may learn from the environment to achieve those goals.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Alexa, developed by Amazon, is an example of an AI Agent, as an AI Agent use AI models to help make decisions, but also add extra layers of logic, learning, or planning to handle complex situations.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
AI models or artificial intelligence models are programs that detect specific patterns using a collection of data sets.
It is an illustration of a system that can receive data inputs and draw conclusions or conduct actions depending on those conclusions.
Intelligent agents in AI are autonomous entities that act upon an environment using sensors and actuators to achieve their goals.
In addition, intelligent agents may learn from the environment to achieve those goals.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Alexa, developed by Amazon, is an example of an AI Agent, as an AI Agent use AI models to help make decisions, but also add extra layers of logic, learning, or planning to handle complex situations.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 6 of 11
6. Question
Q6. {IR – Trade Agreements} Consider the following statements with respect to the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) signed between India and the EFTA countries:
As per the agreement, India can withdraw tariff concessions if investment targets aren’t met by the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) countries.
The tariff concession, as per the agreement, applies to the gold imported from EFTA countries to India.
India’s exports to EFTA countries are expected to see a significant impact due to the agreement.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) countries includes a provision that allows India to withdraw tariff concessions if the expected investment targets are not met.
This arrangement aims to ensure that the agreement promotes mutual growth and benefits for both parties.
TEPA sets out a target of a $100 billion investment into India from EFTA countries, and consequent one million jobs over a 15-year period.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The tariff concessions under the TEPA do not apply to gold imports from EFTA countries to India. The agreement primarily focuses on boosting trade in goods and services, intellectual property rights, and investment.
Gold, which accounts for 80% of the merchandise imports from EFTA countries, as well as dairy, soya, coal and some sensitive agricultural products have been excluded from India’s tariff concession list.
Statement 3 is incorrect
India’s exports to EFTA countries are unlikelyto be significantly impacted because most products already face low or zero tariffs under the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status.
For instance, approximately 98% of India’s $1.3 billionmerchandise exports to Switzerland consist of industrial products with zero tariffs, while the remaining 2% are agricultural products with minimal trade values.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) countries includes a provision that allows India to withdraw tariff concessions if the expected investment targets are not met.
This arrangement aims to ensure that the agreement promotes mutual growth and benefits for both parties.
TEPA sets out a target of a $100 billion investment into India from EFTA countries, and consequent one million jobs over a 15-year period.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The tariff concessions under the TEPA do not apply to gold imports from EFTA countries to India. The agreement primarily focuses on boosting trade in goods and services, intellectual property rights, and investment.
Gold, which accounts for 80% of the merchandise imports from EFTA countries, as well as dairy, soya, coal and some sensitive agricultural products have been excluded from India’s tariff concession list.
Statement 3 is incorrect
India’s exports to EFTA countries are unlikelyto be significantly impacted because most products already face low or zero tariffs under the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status.
For instance, approximately 98% of India’s $1.3 billionmerchandise exports to Switzerland consist of industrial products with zero tariffs, while the remaining 2% are agricultural products with minimal trade values.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) countries includes a provision that allows India to withdraw tariff concessions if the expected investment targets are not met.
This arrangement aims to ensure that the agreement promotes mutual growth and benefits for both parties.
TEPA sets out a target of a $100 billion investment into India from EFTA countries, and consequent one million jobs over a 15-year period.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The tariff concessions under the TEPA do not apply to gold imports from EFTA countries to India. The agreement primarily focuses on boosting trade in goods and services, intellectual property rights, and investment.
Gold, which accounts for 80% of the merchandise imports from EFTA countries, as well as dairy, soya, coal and some sensitive agricultural products have been excluded from India’s tariff concession list.
Statement 3 is incorrect
India’s exports to EFTA countries are unlikelyto be significantly impacted because most products already face low or zero tariffs under the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status.
For instance, approximately 98% of India’s $1.3 billionmerchandise exports to Switzerland consist of industrial products with zero tariffs, while the remaining 2% are agricultural products with minimal trade values.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 7 of 11
7. Question
Q7. {IR – Defence Exercises} Consider the following statements with respect to Tiger Triumph Exercise:
Tiger Triumph is a bilateral military exercise conducted by India and Bangladesh to enhance interoperability, cooperation, and understanding between the two nations’ armed forces.
The primary focus of the Tiger Triumph exercise is Conducting close-quarter combat drills.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Tiger Triumph is a bilateraltri-services exercise conducted by the United States and India, aiming to enhance interoperability, cooperation, and understanding between the two nations’ armed forces.
The Indian Navy is represented by ships with its integral helicopters and landing crafts as well as aircraft.
The Indian Army will have its personnel and vehicles participate in the exercise.
The Indian Air Force will send its aircraft and helicopters along with the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT).
The US will participate with its naval ships with troops of the US Marine Corps on these ships.
The United States Army is also a part of the exercise.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The Exercise is aimed at developing interoperability for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between forces of both countries.
The exercise will be simulated to undertake HADR operations in a “friendly island nation”, where the troops will execute amphibious landing ops.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Tiger Triumph is a bilateraltri-services exercise conducted by the United States and India, aiming to enhance interoperability, cooperation, and understanding between the two nations’ armed forces.
The Indian Navy is represented by ships with its integral helicopters and landing crafts as well as aircraft.
The Indian Army will have its personnel and vehicles participate in the exercise.
The Indian Air Force will send its aircraft and helicopters along with the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT).
The US will participate with its naval ships with troops of the US Marine Corps on these ships.
The United States Army is also a part of the exercise.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The Exercise is aimed at developing interoperability for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between forces of both countries.
The exercise will be simulated to undertake HADR operations in a “friendly island nation”, where the troops will execute amphibious landing ops.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Tiger Triumph is a bilateraltri-services exercise conducted by the United States and India, aiming to enhance interoperability, cooperation, and understanding between the two nations’ armed forces.
The Indian Navy is represented by ships with its integral helicopters and landing crafts as well as aircraft.
The Indian Army will have its personnel and vehicles participate in the exercise.
The Indian Air Force will send its aircraft and helicopters along with the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT).
The US will participate with its naval ships with troops of the US Marine Corps on these ships.
The United States Army is also a part of the exercise.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The Exercise is aimed at developing interoperability for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between forces of both countries.
The exercise will be simulated to undertake HADR operations in a “friendly island nation”, where the troops will execute amphibious landing ops.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 8 of 11
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – S&T – Space} Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the Space-borne Assistant and Knowledge Hub for Crew Interaction (SAKHI) app onboard the spacecraft?
Correct
Explanation
The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) facility at Thumba in Thiruvananthapuram, has developed a multi-purpose app that will help astronauts on the Gaganyaan space flight mission carry out a range of tasks such as looking up vital technical information or communicating with one another.
The primary purpose the SAKHI app onboard the spacecraft is providing real-time information and assistance to astronauts.
Strapped to space suits, the platform can be quickly accessed at all times.
The space facility has successfully tested an engineering model of the custom-built, hand-held smart device featuring SAKHI.
The development of a flight model is in progress.
Answer: (c) Providing real-time information and assistance to astronauts; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) facility at Thumba in Thiruvananthapuram, has developed a multi-purpose app that will help astronauts on the Gaganyaan space flight mission carry out a range of tasks such as looking up vital technical information or communicating with one another.
The primary purpose the SAKHI app onboard the spacecraft is providing real-time information and assistance to astronauts.
Strapped to space suits, the platform can be quickly accessed at all times.
The space facility has successfully tested an engineering model of the custom-built, hand-held smart device featuring SAKHI.
The development of a flight model is in progress.
Answer: (c) Providing real-time information and assistance to astronauts; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) facility at Thumba in Thiruvananthapuram, has developed a multi-purpose app that will help astronauts on the Gaganyaan space flight mission carry out a range of tasks such as looking up vital technical information or communicating with one another.
IQAir is a Swiss air quality technologycompany that prepares the annual world air quality reports based on data from monitoring stations operated by governments, institutions and organisations across the world.
Report includes 7,812 locations in 134 countries, regions and territories.
Statement 2 is incorrect
India had the third-worst air quality out of 134 countries in 2023 after Bangladesh and Pakistan.
PM2.5 Concentration – India (54.4 micrograms per cubic metre), Bangladesh (79.9 micrograms per cubic metre) and Pakistan (73.7 micrograms per cubic metre).
In 2022, India was ranked as the eighthmost polluted country with an average PM2.5 concentration of 53.3 micrograms per cubic metre.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Exposure to PM2.5 air pollution leads to and exacerbates numerous health conditions, including but not limited to asthma, cancer, stroke and lung disease.
Exposure to elevated levels of fine particles can impair cognitive development in children, lead to mental health issues, and complicate existing illnesses, including diabetes.
Statement 4 is correct
The IQAir report for 2022 had stated that roughly 60% of cities in India had recorded annual PM2.5 levels at least seven times higher than the WHO guidelines (annual guideline level at 5 micrograms per cubic metre).
Delhi’s PM2.5 levels worsened from 89.1 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 92.7 micrograms per cubic metre in 2023, taking it to the top spot in the world’s most polluted cities list.
The national capital was ranked the most polluted capital city in the world four times on the trot starting in 2018
Begusarai, in Bihar stood out as the most polluted metropolitan areaglobally with an average PM2.5 concentration of 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre
IQAir is a Swiss air quality technologycompany that prepares the annual world air quality reports based on data from monitoring stations operated by governments, institutions and organisations across the world.
Report includes 7,812 locations in 134 countries, regions and territories.
Statement 2 is incorrect
India had the third-worst air quality out of 134 countries in 2023 after Bangladesh and Pakistan.
PM2.5 Concentration – India (54.4 micrograms per cubic metre), Bangladesh (79.9 micrograms per cubic metre) and Pakistan (73.7 micrograms per cubic metre).
In 2022, India was ranked as the eighthmost polluted country with an average PM2.5 concentration of 53.3 micrograms per cubic metre.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Exposure to PM2.5 air pollution leads to and exacerbates numerous health conditions, including but not limited to asthma, cancer, stroke and lung disease.
Exposure to elevated levels of fine particles can impair cognitive development in children, lead to mental health issues, and complicate existing illnesses, including diabetes.
Statement 4 is correct
The IQAir report for 2022 had stated that roughly 60% of cities in India had recorded annual PM2.5 levels at least seven times higher than the WHO guidelines (annual guideline level at 5 micrograms per cubic metre).
Delhi’s PM2.5 levels worsened from 89.1 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 92.7 micrograms per cubic metre in 2023, taking it to the top spot in the world’s most polluted cities list.
The national capital was ranked the most polluted capital city in the world four times on the trot starting in 2018
Begusarai, in Bihar stood out as the most polluted metropolitan areaglobally with an average PM2.5 concentration of 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre
IQAir is a Swiss air quality technologycompany that prepares the annual world air quality reports based on data from monitoring stations operated by governments, institutions and organisations across the world.
Report includes 7,812 locations in 134 countries, regions and territories.
Statement 2 is incorrect
India had the third-worst air quality out of 134 countries in 2023 after Bangladesh and Pakistan.
PM2.5 Concentration – India (54.4 micrograms per cubic metre), Bangladesh (79.9 micrograms per cubic metre) and Pakistan (73.7 micrograms per cubic metre).
In 2022, India was ranked as the eighthmost polluted country with an average PM2.5 concentration of 53.3 micrograms per cubic metre.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Exposure to PM2.5 air pollution leads to and exacerbates numerous health conditions, including but not limited to asthma, cancer, stroke and lung disease.
Exposure to elevated levels of fine particles can impair cognitive development in children, lead to mental health issues, and complicate existing illnesses, including diabetes.
Statement 4 is correct
The IQAir report for 2022 had stated that roughly 60% of cities in India had recorded annual PM2.5 levels at least seven times higher than the WHO guidelines (annual guideline level at 5 micrograms per cubic metre).
Delhi’s PM2.5 levels worsened from 89.1 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 92.7 micrograms per cubic metre in 2023, taking it to the top spot in the world’s most polluted cities list.
The national capital was ranked the most polluted capital city in the world four times on the trot starting in 2018
Begusarai, in Bihar stood out as the most polluted metropolitan areaglobally with an average PM2.5 concentration of 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 10 of 11
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – S&T – In News} Consider the following statements with respect to the Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation Group (STEAG):
It is a joint collaboration between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and NASA.
The objective is to observe neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources in our universe.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Getting ready for futurisitic warfare, the Indian Army has raised “Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation Group” (STEAG), a first of its kind specialised technology unit, for undertaking research and evaluation of the next generation communication technologies like Artificial Intelligence, 5G and 6G networks, machine learning, and quantum technologies for defence applications.
The move is in sync with realisation in the Indian armed forces to equip themselves with next generation fighting capabilities.
The Army last year decided to operationalise command cyber operations and support wings (CCOSW), for cyberwarfare.
Statement 2 is incorrect
STEAG will be nurturing and developingtailored technologies spanning the complete spectrum of wired and wireless systems to include electronic exchanges, mobile communications, Software Defined Radios (SDR), Electronic Warfare (EW) systems, 5G and 6G networks, Quantum Technologies, Artificial Intelligence, and Machine Learning.
It will be a premier organisation, the first of its kind equipped with the capability to harness niche technology, leverage cutting edge solutions and identify suitable use-cases for defence applications by fostering collaboration and partnership with Academia and Industry.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Getting ready for futurisitic warfare, the Indian Army has raised “Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation Group” (STEAG), a first of its kind specialised technology unit, for undertaking research and evaluation of the next generation communication technologies like Artificial Intelligence, 5G and 6G networks, machine learning, and quantum technologies for defence applications.
The move is in sync with realisation in the Indian armed forces to equip themselves with next generation fighting capabilities.
The Army last year decided to operationalise command cyber operations and support wings (CCOSW), for cyberwarfare.
Statement 2 is incorrect
STEAG will be nurturing and developingtailored technologies spanning the complete spectrum of wired and wireless systems to include electronic exchanges, mobile communications, Software Defined Radios (SDR), Electronic Warfare (EW) systems, 5G and 6G networks, Quantum Technologies, Artificial Intelligence, and Machine Learning.
It will be a premier organisation, the first of its kind equipped with the capability to harness niche technology, leverage cutting edge solutions and identify suitable use-cases for defence applications by fostering collaboration and partnership with Academia and Industry.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Getting ready for futurisitic warfare, the Indian Army has raised “Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation Group” (STEAG), a first of its kind specialised technology unit, for undertaking research and evaluation of the next generation communication technologies like Artificial Intelligence, 5G and 6G networks, machine learning, and quantum technologies for defence applications.
The move is in sync with realisation in the Indian armed forces to equip themselves with next generation fighting capabilities.
The Army last year decided to operationalise command cyber operations and support wings (CCOSW), for cyberwarfare.
Statement 2 is incorrect
STEAG will be nurturing and developingtailored technologies spanning the complete spectrum of wired and wireless systems to include electronic exchanges, mobile communications, Software Defined Radios (SDR), Electronic Warfare (EW) systems, 5G and 6G networks, Quantum Technologies, Artificial Intelligence, and Machine Learning.
It will be a premier organisation, the first of its kind equipped with the capability to harness niche technology, leverage cutting edge solutions and identify suitable use-cases for defence applications by fostering collaboration and partnership with Academia and Industry.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 11 of 11
11. Question
Q11. {Prelims – In News} Which of the following statement(s) is associated with the term Afar Triangle recently seen in news?
Correct
Explanation
The Afar Triangle (or Afar Depression) is a low area bordering on the Red Sea.
It is part of the Great Rift Valley in East Africa.
The area overlaps the borders of Eritrea, Djibouti and the entire Afar region of Ethiopia.
Important fossil specimens of the earliest hominins have been found in this area.
These are the earliest of the human clade.
The area is thought by some paleontologists to be the cradle of the evolution of humans.
The Depression is a plate tectonic triple junction.
This geologic feature is one of earth’s great active volcanic areas, so the floor of the depression is composed of lava, mostly basalt.
Answer: (d) A fault in the Great Rift Valley in the Horn of Africa; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
The Afar Triangle (or Afar Depression) is a low area bordering on the Red Sea.
It is part of the Great Rift Valley in East Africa.
The area overlaps the borders of Eritrea, Djibouti and the entire Afar region of Ethiopia.
Important fossil specimens of the earliest hominins have been found in this area.
These are the earliest of the human clade.
The area is thought by some paleontologists to be the cradle of the evolution of humans.
The Depression is a plate tectonic triple junction.
This geologic feature is one of earth’s great active volcanic areas, so the floor of the depression is composed of lava, mostly basalt.
Answer: (d) A fault in the Great Rift Valley in the Horn of Africa; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
The Afar Triangle (or Afar Depression) is a low area bordering on the Red Sea.
It is part of the Great Rift Valley in East Africa.
The area overlaps the borders of Eritrea, Djibouti and the entire Afar region of Ethiopia.
Important fossil specimens of the earliest hominins have been found in this area.
These are the earliest of the human clade.
The area is thought by some paleontologists to be the cradle of the evolution of humans.
The Depression is a plate tectonic triple junction.
This geologic feature is one of earth’s great active volcanic areas, so the floor of the depression is composed of lava, mostly basalt.
Answer: (d) A fault in the Great Rift Valley in the Horn of Africa; Difficulty Level: Medium
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