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February 15 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
Table of contents
- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – February 15 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
Q1. {IC – Parliament} Consider the following statements about Private Members Bill:
- It is introduced by the Member of Parliament who is not a Minister and requires a prior on week notice before introduction.
- The house’s refusal does not impact the credibility of the private member.
- It can only be introduced and discussed on Fridays.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- A Private Member Bill is introduced by the Member of Parliament (MP), who is not a Minister.
- The concerned member is in charge of drafting it, and the House requires one month’s notice before introducing a Private Members Bill.
- To introduce Private Member’s Bill during a Parliament Session, a private member may provide a maximum of three notices.
- A Private Member Bill is intended to alert the government to problems with the current legal system that certain MPs believe call for legislative action.
Statement 2 is correct
- All such bills are examined by the Parliamentary Committee on Private Member’s Bills and Resolutions, which classifies them according to their urgency and importance.
- The House’s rejection of it has no bearing on the government’s departure or parliamentary confidence.
- Tradition dictates that the Indian President can veto a Private Member Bill by exercising his absolute veto power.
Statement 3 is correct
- The government bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- A Private Member Bill is introduced by the Member of Parliament (MP), who is not a Minister.
- The concerned member is in charge of drafting it, and the House requires one month’s notice before introducing a Private Members Bill.
- To introduce Private Member’s Bill during a Parliament Session, a private member may provide a maximum of three notices.
- A Private Member Bill is intended to alert the government to problems with the current legal system that certain MPs believe call for legislative action.
Statement 2 is correct
- All such bills are examined by the Parliamentary Committee on Private Member’s Bills and Resolutions, which classifies them according to their urgency and importance.
- The House’s rejection of it has no bearing on the government’s departure or parliamentary confidence.
- Tradition dictates that the Indian President can veto a Private Member Bill by exercising his absolute veto power.
Statement 3 is correct
- The government bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- A Private Member Bill is introduced by the Member of Parliament (MP), who is not a Minister.
- The concerned member is in charge of drafting it, and the House requires one month’s notice before introducing a Private Members Bill.
- To introduce Private Member’s Bill during a Parliament Session, a private member may provide a maximum of three notices.
- A Private Member Bill is intended to alert the government to problems with the current legal system that certain MPs believe call for legislative action.
Statement 2 is correct
- All such bills are examined by the Parliamentary Committee on Private Member’s Bills and Resolutions, which classifies them according to their urgency and importance.
- The House’s rejection of it has no bearing on the government’s departure or parliamentary confidence.
- Tradition dictates that the Indian President can veto a Private Member Bill by exercising his absolute veto power.
Statement 3 is correct
- The government bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Q2. {Agri – MSP} Consider the following statements about Zero Budget Natural Farming:
- It is a no-cost farming system that avoids the use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides.
- It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a low-cost farming system that avoids the use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides.
- It is based on homemade amendments made from locally sourced materials such as cow dung, urine and plant residues (mulch).
Statement 2 is correct
- It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods.
- It promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching.
- It discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
- Zero Budget Natural Farming has been adopted enthusiastically in Andhra Pradesh, with nearly 600,000 farmers currently engaged.
- It was also highlighted in the 2019 budget in the bid to double farmers’ income by 2022.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a low-cost farming system that avoids the use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides.
- It is based on homemade amendments made from locally sourced materials such as cow dung, urine and plant residues (mulch).
Statement 2 is correct
- It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods.
- It promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching.
- It discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
- Zero Budget Natural Farming has been adopted enthusiastically in Andhra Pradesh, with nearly 600,000 farmers currently engaged.
- It was also highlighted in the 2019 budget in the bid to double farmers’ income by 2022.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a low-cost farming system that avoids the use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides.
- It is based on homemade amendments made from locally sourced materials such as cow dung, urine and plant residues (mulch).
Statement 2 is correct
- It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods.
- It promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching.
- It discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
- Zero Budget Natural Farming has been adopted enthusiastically in Andhra Pradesh, with nearly 600,000 farmers currently engaged.
- It was also highlighted in the 2019 budget in the bid to double farmers’ income by 2022.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Consider the following statements about Horseshoe Crabs:
- This is the species of Crabs which have segmented bodies, segmented limbs, and thick chitinous cuticles.
- Goa is their largest habitat in India.
- Horseshoe crabs are listed under Schedule IV of India’s Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Horseshoe crabs are marine and brackish water arthropods of the family Limulidae and the only living members of the order Xiphosura.
- Horseshoe crabs are marine arthropods, not true crabs, but are chelicerates, closely related to arachnids like spiders, ticks, and scorpions.
- Their segmented body, segmented limbs, and thick chitinous cuticle (exoskeleton) are typical features of arthropods.
- They predominantly spawn (release eggs) on intertidal beaches during summer-spring high tides.
- Horseshoe crabs are often regarded as “living fossils” due to their ancient lineage.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Horseshoe crabs utilize different habitats depending on their stage of development.
- The eggs are laid on coastal beaches in late spring and summer. After hatching, the juvenile horseshoe crabs can be found offshore on the sandy ocean floor of tidal flats.
- Adult horseshoe crabs feed deeper in the ocean until they return to the beach to spawn.
- Maximum density of Horseshoe crabs is found along the Odisha coast and Balasore used to be the largest spawning ground.
Statement 3 is correct
- The American horseshoe crab is listed as Vulnerable to extinction and the tri-spine horseshoe crab is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Horseshoe crabs are listed under Schedule IV of India’s Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Horseshoe crabs are marine and brackish water arthropods of the family Limulidae and the only living members of the order Xiphosura.
- Horseshoe crabs are marine arthropods, not true crabs, but are chelicerates, closely related to arachnids like spiders, ticks, and scorpions.
- Their segmented body, segmented limbs, and thick chitinous cuticle (exoskeleton) are typical features of arthropods.
- They predominantly spawn (release eggs) on intertidal beaches during summer-spring high tides.
- Horseshoe crabs are often regarded as “living fossils” due to their ancient lineage.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Horseshoe crabs utilize different habitats depending on their stage of development.
- The eggs are laid on coastal beaches in late spring and summer. After hatching, the juvenile horseshoe crabs can be found offshore on the sandy ocean floor of tidal flats.
- Adult horseshoe crabs feed deeper in the ocean until they return to the beach to spawn.
- Maximum density of Horseshoe crabs is found along the Odisha coast and Balasore used to be the largest spawning ground.
Statement 3 is correct
- The American horseshoe crab is listed as Vulnerable to extinction and the tri-spine horseshoe crab is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Horseshoe crabs are listed under Schedule IV of India’s Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Horseshoe crabs are marine and brackish water arthropods of the family Limulidae and the only living members of the order Xiphosura.
- Horseshoe crabs are marine arthropods, not true crabs, but are chelicerates, closely related to arachnids like spiders, ticks, and scorpions.
- Their segmented body, segmented limbs, and thick chitinous cuticle (exoskeleton) are typical features of arthropods.
- They predominantly spawn (release eggs) on intertidal beaches during summer-spring high tides.
- Horseshoe crabs are often regarded as “living fossils” due to their ancient lineage.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Horseshoe crabs utilize different habitats depending on their stage of development.
- The eggs are laid on coastal beaches in late spring and summer. After hatching, the juvenile horseshoe crabs can be found offshore on the sandy ocean floor of tidal flats.
- Adult horseshoe crabs feed deeper in the ocean until they return to the beach to spawn.
- Maximum density of Horseshoe crabs is found along the Odisha coast and Balasore used to be the largest spawning ground.
Statement 3 is correct
- The American horseshoe crab is listed as Vulnerable to extinction and the tri-spine horseshoe crab is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Horseshoe crabs are listed under Schedule IV of India’s Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – A&C – In News} Consider the following statements about Dhokra Shilpkala:
- The origins of Dhokra Shilpkala can be traced back to Dhokra Damar tribes of Northeastern India.
- Its making involves the process of metal casting using the lost-wax technique.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The origins of Dhokra Shilpkala can be traced back to the tribal communities residing in the regions of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha.
- The word “Dhokra” is believed to be derived from the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are the traditional metal smiths of Central India.
Statement 2 is correct
- Themes: Artisans draw inspiration from nature, mythology, and everyday life, incorporating motifs such as animals, birds, deities, and tribal symbols into their creations.
- It involves an intricate process of metal casting, using the lost-wax technique (cire perdue).
- Size: It encompasses a wide range of artistic expressions from miniature figurines and jewellery to larger-than-life sculptures and functional objects.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The origins of Dhokra Shilpkala can be traced back to the tribal communities residing in the regions of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha.
- The word “Dhokra” is believed to be derived from the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are the traditional metal smiths of Central India.
Statement 2 is correct
- Themes: Artisans draw inspiration from nature, mythology, and everyday life, incorporating motifs such as animals, birds, deities, and tribal symbols into their creations.
- It involves an intricate process of metal casting, using the lost-wax technique (cire perdue).
- Size: It encompasses a wide range of artistic expressions from miniature figurines and jewellery to larger-than-life sculptures and functional objects.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The origins of Dhokra Shilpkala can be traced back to the tribal communities residing in the regions of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha.
- The word “Dhokra” is believed to be derived from the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are the traditional metal smiths of Central India.
Statement 2 is correct
- Themes: Artisans draw inspiration from nature, mythology, and everyday life, incorporating motifs such as animals, birds, deities, and tribal symbols into their creations.
- It involves an intricate process of metal casting, using the lost-wax technique (cire perdue).
- Size: It encompasses a wide range of artistic expressions from miniature figurines and jewellery to larger-than-life sculptures and functional objects.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
Q5. {IC – Judiciary} Consider the following statements with respect to the adjournments in Supreme Court:
- The letters for adjournment can be circulated by one party or the counsel to the case only once.
- No letters of adjournment is allowed in cases relating to bail and anticipatory bail.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The letters for adjournment can be circulated by one party or counsel to the case only once.
- The lawyers will have to submit the request for adjournment of a case through email in the prescribed format.
- The specific reason for seeking adjournment and the number of adjournments already sought are also to be mentioned.
- It will also be mandatory to obtain the consent or no-objection of the advocates or parties appearing on the other side, or the caveator, before circulating the letter for adjournment.
- The court will not allow two consecutive adjournments, irrespective of which party is seeking an adjournment, without the matter being listed before the court.
- The cases so adjourned will be listed before the court within an outer limit of four weeks with a specific date of listing and no mentioning of seeking advancement of the date in such matters will be permitted.
- The letters seeking adjournment will be placed before the competent authority.
Statement 2 is correct
- No letters of adjournment are to be entertained in the following cases:
- Relating to bail/anticipatory bail.
- Where exemption from surrendering has been granted.
- Where an interim order is operating in favour of the party who seeks adjournment.
- Where suspension of sentence has been sought.
- In other matters, letters for adjournment can be circulated till one day prior to publication of the main list.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The letters for adjournment can be circulated by one party or counsel to the case only once.
- The lawyers will have to submit the request for adjournment of a case through email in the prescribed format.
- The specific reason for seeking adjournment and the number of adjournments already sought are also to be mentioned.
- It will also be mandatory to obtain the consent or no-objection of the advocates or parties appearing on the other side, or the caveator, before circulating the letter for adjournment.
- The court will not allow two consecutive adjournments, irrespective of which party is seeking an adjournment, without the matter being listed before the court.
- The cases so adjourned will be listed before the court within an outer limit of four weeks with a specific date of listing and no mentioning of seeking advancement of the date in such matters will be permitted.
- The letters seeking adjournment will be placed before the competent authority.
Statement 2 is correct
- No letters of adjournment are to be entertained in the following cases:
- Relating to bail/anticipatory bail.
- Where exemption from surrendering has been granted.
- Where an interim order is operating in favour of the party who seeks adjournment.
- Where suspension of sentence has been sought.
- In other matters, letters for adjournment can be circulated till one day prior to publication of the main list.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The letters for adjournment can be circulated by one party or counsel to the case only once.
- The lawyers will have to submit the request for adjournment of a case through email in the prescribed format.
- The specific reason for seeking adjournment and the number of adjournments already sought are also to be mentioned.
- It will also be mandatory to obtain the consent or no-objection of the advocates or parties appearing on the other side, or the caveator, before circulating the letter for adjournment.
- The court will not allow two consecutive adjournments, irrespective of which party is seeking an adjournment, without the matter being listed before the court.
- The cases so adjourned will be listed before the court within an outer limit of four weeks with a specific date of listing and no mentioning of seeking advancement of the date in such matters will be permitted.
- The letters seeking adjournment will be placed before the competent authority.
Statement 2 is correct
- No letters of adjournment are to be entertained in the following cases:
- Relating to bail/anticipatory bail.
- Where exemption from surrendering has been granted.
- Where an interim order is operating in favour of the party who seeks adjournment.
- Where suspension of sentence has been sought.
- In other matters, letters for adjournment can be circulated till one day prior to publication of the main list.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements with respect to World Governments Summit:
- The summit explores and supports the next generation governments by leveraging innovation for global problem-solving.
- It works under the aegis of the United Nations General Assembly.
- The World Governments Summit, 2024 was recently held at New Delhi, India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an annual global gathering that brings together world leaders, policymakers, experts, and thought leaders from various fields to discuss and address pressing global issues.
- It was established in 2013 under the leadership of the Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE.
- The Summit, in its various activities, explores the agenda of the next generation of governments, focusing on harnessing innovation and technology to solve universal challenges faced by humanity.
- Since its inception, the Summit has championed the mission of shaping future governments and creating a better future for humanity.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is an initiative of the World Governments Summit Organization.
- World Governments Summit Organization is a global, neutral, non-profit organization dedicated to shaping the future of governments.
- The headquarters of the World Governments Summit is located in Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is annually held in Dubai, UAE.
- This year theme is Shaping Future Governments.
- It will focus on six main themes:
- Government Acceleration and Transformation
- Artificial Intelligence and The Next Frontiers
- Reimagining Development and Future Economies
- Future Societies and Education
- Sustainability and The New Global Shifts
- Urbanization and Global Health Priorities
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an annual global gathering that brings together world leaders, policymakers, experts, and thought leaders from various fields to discuss and address pressing global issues.
- It was established in 2013 under the leadership of the Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE.
- The Summit, in its various activities, explores the agenda of the next generation of governments, focusing on harnessing innovation and technology to solve universal challenges faced by humanity.
- Since its inception, the Summit has championed the mission of shaping future governments and creating a better future for humanity.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is an initiative of the World Governments Summit Organization.
- World Governments Summit Organization is a global, neutral, non-profit organization dedicated to shaping the future of governments.
- The headquarters of the World Governments Summit is located in Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is annually held in Dubai, UAE.
- This year theme is Shaping Future Governments.
- It will focus on six main themes:
- Government Acceleration and Transformation
- Artificial Intelligence and The Next Frontiers
- Reimagining Development and Future Economies
- Future Societies and Education
- Sustainability and The New Global Shifts
- Urbanization and Global Health Priorities
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an annual global gathering that brings together world leaders, policymakers, experts, and thought leaders from various fields to discuss and address pressing global issues.
- It was established in 2013 under the leadership of the Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE.
- The Summit, in its various activities, explores the agenda of the next generation of governments, focusing on harnessing innovation and technology to solve universal challenges faced by humanity.
- Since its inception, the Summit has championed the mission of shaping future governments and creating a better future for humanity.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is an initiative of the World Governments Summit Organization.
- World Governments Summit Organization is a global, neutral, non-profit organization dedicated to shaping the future of governments.
- The headquarters of the World Governments Summit is located in Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is annually held in Dubai, UAE.
- This year theme is Shaping Future Governments.
- It will focus on six main themes:
- Government Acceleration and Transformation
- Artificial Intelligence and The Next Frontiers
- Reimagining Development and Future Economies
- Future Societies and Education
- Sustainability and The New Global Shifts
- Urbanization and Global Health Priorities
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements with respect to Leith’s Soft-Shell Turtle:
- It is a large freshwater turtle species endemic to peninsular India.
- It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
- The turtles possess distinct ocelli on their carapace, which tend to fade as they grow.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Leith’s soft-shell turtle (Nilssonia leithii) is large freshwater turtle species endemic to peninsular India.
- This species can be found in parts of the Thungabhadra, Ghataprabha, Bhavani, Godavari, Krishna, Chalakkudy, Cauvery, and Moyar Rivers.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is listed as Critically endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is protected under Schedule 1 of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- There has been steady decline in the soft-shell turtle sightings in recent years due to poaching, habitat fragmentation, hydropower projects and to some extent, illegal river sand mining.
Statement 3 is correct
- When young, these turtles possess distinct ocelli on their carapace, which tend to fade as they grow.
- Ocelli are simply eyes found in many insects that have evolved as a second visual system.
- A carapace is a hard shell or case that covers the back of some animals, such as crabs, turtles, lobsters, and tortoises.
- Adults exhibit an olive green or greyish hue on their carapace, while their plastron is white or cream-colored.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Leith’s soft-shell turtle (Nilssonia leithii) is large freshwater turtle species endemic to peninsular India.
- This species can be found in parts of the Thungabhadra, Ghataprabha, Bhavani, Godavari, Krishna, Chalakkudy, Cauvery, and Moyar Rivers.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is listed as Critically endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is protected under Schedule 1 of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- There has been steady decline in the soft-shell turtle sightings in recent years due to poaching, habitat fragmentation, hydropower projects and to some extent, illegal river sand mining.
Statement 3 is correct
- When young, these turtles possess distinct ocelli on their carapace, which tend to fade as they grow.
- Ocelli are simply eyes found in many insects that have evolved as a second visual system.
- A carapace is a hard shell or case that covers the back of some animals, such as crabs, turtles, lobsters, and tortoises.
- Adults exhibit an olive green or greyish hue on their carapace, while their plastron is white or cream-colored.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Leith’s soft-shell turtle (Nilssonia leithii) is large freshwater turtle species endemic to peninsular India.
- This species can be found in parts of the Thungabhadra, Ghataprabha, Bhavani, Godavari, Krishna, Chalakkudy, Cauvery, and Moyar Rivers.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is listed as Critically endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is protected under Schedule 1 of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- There has been steady decline in the soft-shell turtle sightings in recent years due to poaching, habitat fragmentation, hydropower projects and to some extent, illegal river sand mining.
Statement 3 is correct
- When young, these turtles possess distinct ocelli on their carapace, which tend to fade as they grow.
- Ocelli are simply eyes found in many insects that have evolved as a second visual system.
- A carapace is a hard shell or case that covers the back of some animals, such as crabs, turtles, lobsters, and tortoises.
- Adults exhibit an olive green or greyish hue on their carapace, while their plastron is white or cream-colored.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
Q8. {IR – Groupings} Consider the following statements with respect to NATO:
- NATO is based on the principle of Community Security.
- NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada.
- The newest member is Sweden, which joined in 2023 in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The foundations of NATO were officially laid down in 1949 to counter the Soviet Union with Cold War tensions rising with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as the Washington Treaty.
- If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations.
- These are carried out under the Collective Defence clause of NATO’s founding treaty, i.e. Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.
Statement 2 is correct
- NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The newest member is Finland, which joined in 2023 in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine.
- Sweden applied to join along with Finland but is waiting for Hungary to ratify its application as the final major step before membership.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The foundations of NATO were officially laid down in 1949 to counter the Soviet Union with Cold War tensions rising with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as the Washington Treaty.
- If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations.
- These are carried out under the Collective Defence clause of NATO’s founding treaty, i.e. Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.
Statement 2 is correct
- NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The newest member is Finland, which joined in 2023 in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine.
- Sweden applied to join along with Finland but is waiting for Hungary to ratify its application as the final major step before membership.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The foundations of NATO were officially laid down in 1949 to counter the Soviet Union with Cold War tensions rising with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as the Washington Treaty.
- If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations.
- These are carried out under the Collective Defence clause of NATO’s founding treaty, i.e. Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.
Statement 2 is correct
- NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The newest member is Finland, which joined in 2023 in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine.
- Sweden applied to join along with Finland but is waiting for Hungary to ratify its application as the final major step before membership.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 9 of 9
9. Question
Q9. {Geo – Oceanology} Consider the following statements about Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC):
- AMOC is a large-scale ocean circulation system that plays a crucial role in redistributing heat around the Earth.
- A weakening or slowdown of the AMOC has been linked to potential changes in regional and global climate patterns.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a major component of the global ocean circulation system.
- It involves the movement of warm surface waters from the tropics to the North Atlantic, where they release heat to the atmosphere, and then the cold, dense water sinks and flows southward in the deep ocean.
Statement 2 is correct
- A weakening or slowdown of the AMOC has been observed and is linked to potential changes in regional and global climate patterns.
- A weaker AMOC can affect the distribution of heat around the Earth, impacting weather patterns, sea level, and marine ecosystems.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a major component of the global ocean circulation system.
- It involves the movement of warm surface waters from the tropics to the North Atlantic, where they release heat to the atmosphere, and then the cold, dense water sinks and flows southward in the deep ocean.
Statement 2 is correct
- A weakening or slowdown of the AMOC has been observed and is linked to potential changes in regional and global climate patterns.
- A weaker AMOC can affect the distribution of heat around the Earth, impacting weather patterns, sea level, and marine ecosystems.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a major component of the global ocean circulation system.
- It involves the movement of warm surface waters from the tropics to the North Atlantic, where they release heat to the atmosphere, and then the cold, dense water sinks and flows southward in the deep ocean.
Statement 2 is correct
- A weakening or slowdown of the AMOC has been observed and is linked to potential changes in regional and global climate patterns.
- A weaker AMOC can affect the distribution of heat around the Earth, impacting weather patterns, sea level, and marine ecosystems.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
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