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May 03 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
Table of contents
- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – May 03 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {Vulnerable Sections – Children} Consider the following statements about the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012:
- The Act provides for the establishment of special courts for the trial of offenses under its purview.
- Non-penetrative assaults are outside the purview POCSO Act, 2012.
- Right to confront the accused is a right guaranteed to a child victim under the POCSO Act.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Act mandates the establishment of special courts for the trial of offenses under POCSO.
- These special courts are designated to handle cases related to child sexual abuse in order to ensure swift and efficient justice for the victims.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Act defines different types of sexual offenses against children, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, sexual harassment, and the use of children for pornography.
- It imposes reporting obligations on certain professionals, such as doctors, teachers, and child welfare officers, who are required to report cases of child sexual abuse to the authorities.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The POCSO Act is designed to be child-friendly and ensures that the child victim is protected throughout the judicial process.
- The Act specifically provides that the child should not be exposed directly to the accused during testimony, often using methods such as video conferencing to record statements or using a screen to shield the child.
- This is to ensure the child’s comfort and to prevent re-traumatization.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Act mandates the establishment of special courts for the trial of offenses under POCSO.
- These special courts are designated to handle cases related to child sexual abuse in order to ensure swift and efficient justice for the victims.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Act defines different types of sexual offenses against children, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, sexual harassment, and the use of children for pornography.
- It imposes reporting obligations on certain professionals, such as doctors, teachers, and child welfare officers, who are required to report cases of child sexual abuse to the authorities.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The POCSO Act is designed to be child-friendly and ensures that the child victim is protected throughout the judicial process.
- The Act specifically provides that the child should not be exposed directly to the accused during testimony, often using methods such as video conferencing to record statements or using a screen to shield the child.
- This is to ensure the child’s comfort and to prevent re-traumatization.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Act mandates the establishment of special courts for the trial of offenses under POCSO.
- These special courts are designated to handle cases related to child sexual abuse in order to ensure swift and efficient justice for the victims.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Act defines different types of sexual offenses against children, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, sexual harassment, and the use of children for pornography.
- It imposes reporting obligations on certain professionals, such as doctors, teachers, and child welfare officers, who are required to report cases of child sexual abuse to the authorities.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The POCSO Act is designed to be child-friendly and ensures that the child victim is protected throughout the judicial process.
- The Act specifically provides that the child should not be exposed directly to the accused during testimony, often using methods such as video conferencing to record statements or using a screen to shield the child.
- This is to ensure the child’s comfort and to prevent re-traumatization.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {Polity – IC – Governor} Consider the following statements:
- The President of India and the Governors of the states, along with their respective spouses, are granted several immunities during their terms in office under Article 361.
- In an exception to immunities from criminal proceedings, a Governor can be charged under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act during the term of his office.
- Civil/Legal proceedings against a Governor or President for things done by him in his personal capacity can be brought only with a prior two months’ notice.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The immunity under Article 361 of the Indian Constitution is provided only to the President of India and the Governors of the states, not to their spouses.
- They shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done by them in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
- The police can act only after the Governor/President ceases to be in office.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- No, a Governor cannot be charged under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act during the term of his office.
- Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides immunity to the Governor from any criminal proceedings during his term in office.
- This immunity extends to all criminal offenses, including those under the POCSO Act.
- As per Article 361, the Governor cannot be subjected to any criminal prosecution or investigation while holding office, unless the President of India gives permission to do so.
- However, once the Governor’s term in office ends, he can be charged under the POCSO Act or any other law for any alleged offenses committed during his tenure, subject to the normal legal process and requirements.
Statement 3 is correct
- Civil/Legal proceedings cannot be instituted against the President or a Governor in any court during their term of office without prior notice, unless a two-month notice has been served to the President of India or the Governor of the State concerned.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The immunity under Article 361 of the Indian Constitution is provided only to the President of India and the Governors of the states, not to their spouses.
- They shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done by them in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
- The police can act only after the Governor/President ceases to be in office.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- No, a Governor cannot be charged under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act during the term of his office.
- Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides immunity to the Governor from any criminal proceedings during his term in office.
- This immunity extends to all criminal offenses, including those under the POCSO Act.
- As per Article 361, the Governor cannot be subjected to any criminal prosecution or investigation while holding office, unless the President of India gives permission to do so.
- However, once the Governor’s term in office ends, he can be charged under the POCSO Act or any other law for any alleged offenses committed during his tenure, subject to the normal legal process and requirements.
Statement 3 is correct
- Civil/Legal proceedings cannot be instituted against the President or a Governor in any court during their term of office without prior notice, unless a two-month notice has been served to the President of India or the Governor of the State concerned.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The immunity under Article 361 of the Indian Constitution is provided only to the President of India and the Governors of the states, not to their spouses.
- They shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done by them in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
- The police can act only after the Governor/President ceases to be in office.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- No, a Governor cannot be charged under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act during the term of his office.
- Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides immunity to the Governor from any criminal proceedings during his term in office.
- This immunity extends to all criminal offenses, including those under the POCSO Act.
- As per Article 361, the Governor cannot be subjected to any criminal prosecution or investigation while holding office, unless the President of India gives permission to do so.
- However, once the Governor’s term in office ends, he can be charged under the POCSO Act or any other law for any alleged offenses committed during his tenure, subject to the normal legal process and requirements.
Statement 3 is correct
- Civil/Legal proceedings cannot be instituted against the President or a Governor in any court during their term of office without prior notice, unless a two-month notice has been served to the President of India or the Governor of the State concerned.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {IE – Banking} How does lowering rates by the US Federal Reserve impact the Indian Economy?
- It typically leads to a decrease in foreign investment in India.
- It can result in a depreciation of the Indian rupee against the US dollar.
- It will improve India’s current account deficit and stimulate Indian exports by making them more competitive.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- When the US Federal Reserve lowers interest rates, it makes investments in the US less attractive compared to other countries.
- Investors may seek higher returns elsewhere, including in emerging markets like India, thereby increasing Foreign Investments.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- When the US Federal Reserve lowers interest rates, it can lead to a decrease in the value of the US dollar relative to other currencies, including the Indian rupee.
- As a result, the exchange rate between the Indian rupee and the US dollar may shift, potentially causing the Indian rupee to appreciate against the US dollar rather than depreciate.
- This happens because investors may move their funds away from US assets in search of higher returns elsewhere, including emerging markets like India, which can increase the demand for the Indian rupee and strengthen its value relative to the US dollar.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Since lower interest rates in the US will lead to higher availability of dollars, the biggest impact for India can be softening of the dollar and strengthening of the rupee which would mean lower import bill for India.
- A strong dollar bloats its import bill and worsens the current account deficit which in turn increases fiscal deficit, the gap between how much the government earns and how much it spends.
- If the rupee gets stronger due to a softened dollar, Indian exporters will see a drop in income. However, imports will be cheaper which would be good for companies whose business is based on imports such as imported raw materials or subsidiary goods.
- Foreign travel as well as foreign education loans will also get cheaper.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- When the US Federal Reserve lowers interest rates, it makes investments in the US less attractive compared to other countries.
- Investors may seek higher returns elsewhere, including in emerging markets like India, thereby increasing Foreign Investments.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- When the US Federal Reserve lowers interest rates, it can lead to a decrease in the value of the US dollar relative to other currencies, including the Indian rupee.
- As a result, the exchange rate between the Indian rupee and the US dollar may shift, potentially causing the Indian rupee to appreciate against the US dollar rather than depreciate.
- This happens because investors may move their funds away from US assets in search of higher returns elsewhere, including emerging markets like India, which can increase the demand for the Indian rupee and strengthen its value relative to the US dollar.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Since lower interest rates in the US will lead to higher availability of dollars, the biggest impact for India can be softening of the dollar and strengthening of the rupee which would mean lower import bill for India.
- A strong dollar bloats its import bill and worsens the current account deficit which in turn increases fiscal deficit, the gap between how much the government earns and how much it spends.
- If the rupee gets stronger due to a softened dollar, Indian exporters will see a drop in income. However, imports will be cheaper which would be good for companies whose business is based on imports such as imported raw materials or subsidiary goods.
- Foreign travel as well as foreign education loans will also get cheaper.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- When the US Federal Reserve lowers interest rates, it makes investments in the US less attractive compared to other countries.
- Investors may seek higher returns elsewhere, including in emerging markets like India, thereby increasing Foreign Investments.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- When the US Federal Reserve lowers interest rates, it can lead to a decrease in the value of the US dollar relative to other currencies, including the Indian rupee.
- As a result, the exchange rate between the Indian rupee and the US dollar may shift, potentially causing the Indian rupee to appreciate against the US dollar rather than depreciate.
- This happens because investors may move their funds away from US assets in search of higher returns elsewhere, including emerging markets like India, which can increase the demand for the Indian rupee and strengthen its value relative to the US dollar.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Since lower interest rates in the US will lead to higher availability of dollars, the biggest impact for India can be softening of the dollar and strengthening of the rupee which would mean lower import bill for India.
- A strong dollar bloats its import bill and worsens the current account deficit which in turn increases fiscal deficit, the gap between how much the government earns and how much it spends.
- If the rupee gets stronger due to a softened dollar, Indian exporters will see a drop in income. However, imports will be cheaper which would be good for companies whose business is based on imports such as imported raw materials or subsidiary goods.
- Foreign travel as well as foreign education loans will also get cheaper.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {IE – Industry} Which of the following factors does the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) primarily indicate?
Correct
Explanation
- The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an economic indicator that provides insights into the manufacturing sector’s health.
- It is based on a monthly survey of purchasing managers from various industries, including manufacturing.
- PMI of India is compiled by London-based IHS Markit and published by Japanese firm Nikkei.
- These purchasing managers are surveyed about various aspects of their business, such as new orders, production levels, employment, supplier deliveries, and inventories.
- The PMI is calculated using a diffusion index, which measures whether the surveyed purchasing managers perceive business conditions as improving, staying the same, or deteriorating.
- A PMI reading above 50 indicates expansion in the manufacturing sector, while a reading below 50 suggests contraction.
Answer: (c) Manufacturing sector activity; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an economic indicator that provides insights into the manufacturing sector’s health.
- It is based on a monthly survey of purchasing managers from various industries, including manufacturing.
- PMI of India is compiled by London-based IHS Markit and published by Japanese firm Nikkei.
- These purchasing managers are surveyed about various aspects of their business, such as new orders, production levels, employment, supplier deliveries, and inventories.
- The PMI is calculated using a diffusion index, which measures whether the surveyed purchasing managers perceive business conditions as improving, staying the same, or deteriorating.
- A PMI reading above 50 indicates expansion in the manufacturing sector, while a reading below 50 suggests contraction.
Answer: (c) Manufacturing sector activity; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an economic indicator that provides insights into the manufacturing sector’s health.
- It is based on a monthly survey of purchasing managers from various industries, including manufacturing.
- PMI of India is compiled by London-based IHS Markit and published by Japanese firm Nikkei.
- These purchasing managers are surveyed about various aspects of their business, such as new orders, production levels, employment, supplier deliveries, and inventories.
- The PMI is calculated using a diffusion index, which measures whether the surveyed purchasing managers perceive business conditions as improving, staying the same, or deteriorating.
- A PMI reading above 50 indicates expansion in the manufacturing sector, while a reading below 50 suggests contraction.
Answer: (c) Manufacturing sector activity; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Consider the following statements:
- Batillipes Chandrayaani is a new tardigrade species that has been discovered on the eastern coast of Odisha.
- Tardigrades are closely related to Brown Bears, hence they are also commonly known as ‘water bears’.
- This species has been named in honor of the Chandrayaan-1 mission, India’s first lunar probe, to acknowledge the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) contributions to space exploration.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Batillipes Chandrayaani is a new tardigrade species was discovered on the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu.
- It is the third marine tardigrade species described from Indian waters and second from the East Coast.
- Similar in size to other tardigrades, it grows to a length of 0.15 millimetres and 0.04 millimetres in width.
- It has a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines.
- Both sexes are similar in terms of morphology and size.
- Batillipes chandrayaani is also the 39th species described under the genus Batillipes.
- Earlier tardigrade species from the southwest coast (Stygarctus keralensis) in 2021 and another from the southeast coast (Batillipes kalami) in 2023 were also discovered.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Tardigrades are microscopic multicellular organisms commonly known as ‘water bears,’ although they are not related to actual bears.
- Marine tardigrades account for 17% of all known tardigrade species and are found in all the oceans.
- These are among the hardiest animals, enduring mass extinctions with great survival skills.
- They can survive in extreme physiochemical conditions with the process of cryptobiosis.
- In the cryptobiotic state, all metabolic procedures stop, preventing reproduction, development, and repair.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- This microscopic marvel has been named as Batillipes chandrayaani, as a homage to Chandrayaan-3, the first ever successful lunar south pole landing mission of ISRO.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Batillipes Chandrayaani is a new tardigrade species was discovered on the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu.
- It is the third marine tardigrade species described from Indian waters and second from the East Coast.
- Similar in size to other tardigrades, it grows to a length of 0.15 millimetres and 0.04 millimetres in width.
- It has a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines.
- Both sexes are similar in terms of morphology and size.
- Batillipes chandrayaani is also the 39th species described under the genus Batillipes.
- Earlier tardigrade species from the southwest coast (Stygarctus keralensis) in 2021 and another from the southeast coast (Batillipes kalami) in 2023 were also discovered.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Tardigrades are microscopic multicellular organisms commonly known as ‘water bears,’ although they are not related to actual bears.
- Marine tardigrades account for 17% of all known tardigrade species and are found in all the oceans.
- These are among the hardiest animals, enduring mass extinctions with great survival skills.
- They can survive in extreme physiochemical conditions with the process of cryptobiosis.
- In the cryptobiotic state, all metabolic procedures stop, preventing reproduction, development, and repair.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- This microscopic marvel has been named as Batillipes chandrayaani, as a homage to Chandrayaan-3, the first ever successful lunar south pole landing mission of ISRO.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Batillipes Chandrayaani is a new tardigrade species was discovered on the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu.
- It is the third marine tardigrade species described from Indian waters and second from the East Coast.
- Similar in size to other tardigrades, it grows to a length of 0.15 millimetres and 0.04 millimetres in width.
- It has a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines.
- Both sexes are similar in terms of morphology and size.
- Batillipes chandrayaani is also the 39th species described under the genus Batillipes.
- Earlier tardigrade species from the southwest coast (Stygarctus keralensis) in 2021 and another from the southeast coast (Batillipes kalami) in 2023 were also discovered.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Tardigrades are microscopic multicellular organisms commonly known as ‘water bears,’ although they are not related to actual bears.
- Marine tardigrades account for 17% of all known tardigrade species and are found in all the oceans.
- These are among the hardiest animals, enduring mass extinctions with great survival skills.
- They can survive in extreme physiochemical conditions with the process of cryptobiosis.
- In the cryptobiotic state, all metabolic procedures stop, preventing reproduction, development, and repair.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- This microscopic marvel has been named as Batillipes chandrayaani, as a homage to Chandrayaan-3, the first ever successful lunar south pole landing mission of ISRO.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Red colobus monkeys are primarily found in which region?
Correct
Explanation
- Red colobus monkeys are primarily found in the African Savanna.
- These monkeys belong to the genus Procolobus and are distributed across various countries in Africa, including but not limited to, countries in West Africa (such as Ghana, Ivory Coast, and Nigeria), Central Africa (such as Cameroon and Gabon), and East Africa (such as Uganda, Tanzania, and Kenya).
- The African Savanna is a vast tropical grassland ecosystem characterized by scattered trees and seasonal rainfall.
- This region provides an ideal habitat for red colobus monkeys due to the abundance of trees for shelter and food, such as leaves, fruits, and flowers.
- Red colobus monkeys play a significant role in the ecosystem as seed dispersers and prey for predators like leopards and eagles.
- They live in social groups, typically consisting of multiple females, their offspring, and one or more males.
- These monkeys are known for their striking appearance, characterized by their reddish-brown fur and long tails.
Credit: Down To Earth
- All 18 taxa of Red colobus monkeys are threatened with extinction, and 14 of them are listed as Endangered or Critically Endangered on the IUCN‘s Red List of Threatened Species.
Answer: (b) African Savanna; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Red colobus monkeys are primarily found in the African Savanna.
- These monkeys belong to the genus Procolobus and are distributed across various countries in Africa, including but not limited to, countries in West Africa (such as Ghana, Ivory Coast, and Nigeria), Central Africa (such as Cameroon and Gabon), and East Africa (such as Uganda, Tanzania, and Kenya).
- The African Savanna is a vast tropical grassland ecosystem characterized by scattered trees and seasonal rainfall.
- This region provides an ideal habitat for red colobus monkeys due to the abundance of trees for shelter and food, such as leaves, fruits, and flowers.
- Red colobus monkeys play a significant role in the ecosystem as seed dispersers and prey for predators like leopards and eagles.
- They live in social groups, typically consisting of multiple females, their offspring, and one or more males.
- These monkeys are known for their striking appearance, characterized by their reddish-brown fur and long tails.
Credit: Down To Earth
- All 18 taxa of Red colobus monkeys are threatened with extinction, and 14 of them are listed as Endangered or Critically Endangered on the IUCN‘s Red List of Threatened Species.
Answer: (b) African Savanna; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Red colobus monkeys are primarily found in the African Savanna.
- These monkeys belong to the genus Procolobus and are distributed across various countries in Africa, including but not limited to, countries in West Africa (such as Ghana, Ivory Coast, and Nigeria), Central Africa (such as Cameroon and Gabon), and East Africa (such as Uganda, Tanzania, and Kenya).
- The African Savanna is a vast tropical grassland ecosystem characterized by scattered trees and seasonal rainfall.
- This region provides an ideal habitat for red colobus monkeys due to the abundance of trees for shelter and food, such as leaves, fruits, and flowers.
- Red colobus monkeys play a significant role in the ecosystem as seed dispersers and prey for predators like leopards and eagles.
- They live in social groups, typically consisting of multiple females, their offspring, and one or more males.
- These monkeys are known for their striking appearance, characterized by their reddish-brown fur and long tails.
Credit: Down To Earth
- All 18 taxa of Red colobus monkeys are threatened with extinction, and 14 of them are listed as Endangered or Critically Endangered on the IUCN‘s Red List of Threatened Species.
Answer: (b) African Savanna; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements with respect to Gum Arabic:
- Gum Arabic is a natural exudate obtained from the Acacia tree and is commonly used as a food additive and stabilizer in various industries.
- Gum Arabic is primarily sourced from Saudi Arabia and is known for its high caffeine content, making it a popular ingredient in energy drinks.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Gum Arabic, also known as acacia gum, is a natural gum harvested from the sap of various species of Acacia trees, primarily Acacia senegal and Acacia seyal.
- It is commonly found in the dry regions of Africa, particularly Sudan, Senegal, and Chad.
- Gum Arabic has been used for centuries for its adhesive, binding, and stabilizing properties.
- It is widely used in the food industry as a thickening agent, emulsifier, and stabilizer in products such as soft drinks, candies, and confectionery.
- Additionally, it is used in pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and various industrial applications.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Gum Arabic is not primarily sourced from Saudi Arabia; instead, it is mainly sourced from regions in Africa, particularly the Sahel region.
- Furthermore, Gum Arabic does not contain caffeine; it is a carbohydrate polymer composed of arabinose, galactose, rhamnose, and glucuronic acid.
- Therefore, it is not used as an ingredient in energy drinks for its caffeine content. Energy drinks typically contain caffeine sourced from other sources, such as coffee beans or guarana extract.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Gum Arabic, also known as acacia gum, is a natural gum harvested from the sap of various species of Acacia trees, primarily Acacia senegal and Acacia seyal.
- It is commonly found in the dry regions of Africa, particularly Sudan, Senegal, and Chad.
- Gum Arabic has been used for centuries for its adhesive, binding, and stabilizing properties.
- It is widely used in the food industry as a thickening agent, emulsifier, and stabilizer in products such as soft drinks, candies, and confectionery.
- Additionally, it is used in pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and various industrial applications.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Gum Arabic is not primarily sourced from Saudi Arabia; instead, it is mainly sourced from regions in Africa, particularly the Sahel region.
- Furthermore, Gum Arabic does not contain caffeine; it is a carbohydrate polymer composed of arabinose, galactose, rhamnose, and glucuronic acid.
- Therefore, it is not used as an ingredient in energy drinks for its caffeine content. Energy drinks typically contain caffeine sourced from other sources, such as coffee beans or guarana extract.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Gum Arabic, also known as acacia gum, is a natural gum harvested from the sap of various species of Acacia trees, primarily Acacia senegal and Acacia seyal.
- It is commonly found in the dry regions of Africa, particularly Sudan, Senegal, and Chad.
- Gum Arabic has been used for centuries for its adhesive, binding, and stabilizing properties.
- It is widely used in the food industry as a thickening agent, emulsifier, and stabilizer in products such as soft drinks, candies, and confectionery.
- Additionally, it is used in pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and various industrial applications.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Gum Arabic is not primarily sourced from Saudi Arabia; instead, it is mainly sourced from regions in Africa, particularly the Sahel region.
- Furthermore, Gum Arabic does not contain caffeine; it is a carbohydrate polymer composed of arabinose, galactose, rhamnose, and glucuronic acid.
- Therefore, it is not used as an ingredient in energy drinks for its caffeine content. Energy drinks typically contain caffeine sourced from other sources, such as coffee beans or guarana extract.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
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