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January 06 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
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- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
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[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – January 06 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {Ministry – Schemes} Consider the following statements about PRITHVI Scheme:
- It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology and Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- Its objective is to Develop modelling systems for understanding and predicting weather, ocean and climate hazards and understanding the science of climate change.
- Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER) is a sub scheme of PRITHVI.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Prithvi Vigyan (PRITHVI) is an initiative of Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
- Various components of PRITHVI scheme are inter-dependent and are carried out in an integrated manner through combined efforts of the concerned Institutes under MoES.
- The scheme enables development of integrated multi-disciplinary earth science research and innovative programs across different MoES institutes.
Statement 2 is correct
- PRITHVI stands for Promoting Research in Earth Systems Science, Technology, & Human Resource Development.
- Major Objectives
- Augmentation and sustenance of long-term observations of the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere and solid earth to record the vital signs of the Earth System and change.
- Development of modelling systems for understanding and predicting weather, ocean and climate hazards and understanding the science of climate change.
- Exploration polar and high seas regions of the Earth towards discovery of new phenomena and resources.
- Development of technology for exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources for societal applications.
- Translation of knowledge and insights from Earth systems science into services for societal, environmental and economic benefit.
Statement 3 is correct
- It integrates 5 existing sub-schemes that includes:
- ACROSS – Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services
- O-SMART – Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology
- PACER – Polar Science and Cryosphere Research
- SAGE – Seismology and Geosciences
- REACHOUT – Research, Education, Training, and Outreach
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Prithvi Vigyan (PRITHVI) is an initiative of Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
- Various components of PRITHVI scheme are inter-dependent and are carried out in an integrated manner through combined efforts of the concerned Institutes under MoES.
- The scheme enables development of integrated multi-disciplinary earth science research and innovative programs across different MoES institutes.
Statement 2 is correct
- PRITHVI stands for Promoting Research in Earth Systems Science, Technology, & Human Resource Development.
- Major Objectives
- Augmentation and sustenance of long-term observations of the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere and solid earth to record the vital signs of the Earth System and change.
- Development of modelling systems for understanding and predicting weather, ocean and climate hazards and understanding the science of climate change.
- Exploration polar and high seas regions of the Earth towards discovery of new phenomena and resources.
- Development of technology for exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources for societal applications.
- Translation of knowledge and insights from Earth systems science into services for societal, environmental and economic benefit.
Statement 3 is correct
- It integrates 5 existing sub-schemes that includes:
- ACROSS – Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services
- O-SMART – Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology
- PACER – Polar Science and Cryosphere Research
- SAGE – Seismology and Geosciences
- REACHOUT – Research, Education, Training, and Outreach
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Prithvi Vigyan (PRITHVI) is an initiative of Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
- Various components of PRITHVI scheme are inter-dependent and are carried out in an integrated manner through combined efforts of the concerned Institutes under MoES.
- The scheme enables development of integrated multi-disciplinary earth science research and innovative programs across different MoES institutes.
Statement 2 is correct
- PRITHVI stands for Promoting Research in Earth Systems Science, Technology, & Human Resource Development.
- Major Objectives
- Augmentation and sustenance of long-term observations of the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere and solid earth to record the vital signs of the Earth System and change.
- Development of modelling systems for understanding and predicting weather, ocean and climate hazards and understanding the science of climate change.
- Exploration polar and high seas regions of the Earth towards discovery of new phenomena and resources.
- Development of technology for exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources for societal applications.
- Translation of knowledge and insights from Earth systems science into services for societal, environmental and economic benefit.
Statement 3 is correct
- It integrates 5 existing sub-schemes that includes:
- ACROSS – Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services
- O-SMART – Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology
- PACER – Polar Science and Cryosphere Research
- SAGE – Seismology and Geosciences
- REACHOUT – Research, Education, Training, and Outreach
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {IR – IOR} Select the correct code for the countries bordering the Gulf of Aden?
Correct
Explanation
- The Gulf of Aden lies within the territories of 3 different nations.
- The Gulf of Aden is majorly shared between 3 neighbouring nations- Djibouti to the East, Somalia to the South, and Yemen to the North. The Western front is open water demarcated by a continental shelf system.
- The Gulf of Aden connects the Red Sea in the West and the Arabian Sea in the East.
- The Gulf is connected to the Red Sea via the straits of Bab el Mandeb.
- In the West, it narrows into the Gulf of Tadjoura near Djibouti.
- It is demarcated from the Arabian Sea by the Horn of Africa and the Yemeni Socotra islands.
- The Guardafui channel near these islands is also linked to the Gulf of Aden.
Answer: (d) Djibouti, Somalia, Yemen; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Gulf of Aden lies within the territories of 3 different nations.
- The Gulf of Aden is majorly shared between 3 neighbouring nations- Djibouti to the East, Somalia to the South, and Yemen to the North. The Western front is open water demarcated by a continental shelf system.
- The Gulf of Aden connects the Red Sea in the West and the Arabian Sea in the East.
- The Gulf is connected to the Red Sea via the straits of Bab el Mandeb.
- In the West, it narrows into the Gulf of Tadjoura near Djibouti.
- It is demarcated from the Arabian Sea by the Horn of Africa and the Yemeni Socotra islands.
- The Guardafui channel near these islands is also linked to the Gulf of Aden.
Answer: (d) Djibouti, Somalia, Yemen; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Gulf of Aden lies within the territories of 3 different nations.
- The Gulf of Aden is majorly shared between 3 neighbouring nations- Djibouti to the East, Somalia to the South, and Yemen to the North. The Western front is open water demarcated by a continental shelf system.
- The Gulf of Aden connects the Red Sea in the West and the Arabian Sea in the East.
- The Gulf is connected to the Red Sea via the straits of Bab el Mandeb.
- In the West, it narrows into the Gulf of Tadjoura near Djibouti.
- It is demarcated from the Arabian Sea by the Horn of Africa and the Yemeni Socotra islands.
- The Guardafui channel near these islands is also linked to the Gulf of Aden.
Answer: (d) Djibouti, Somalia, Yemen; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {Polity – IC – FRs} Consider the following statements:
- A Person convicted of murder is eligible for a Parole if a family member of his dies.
- Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prisoners Act, 1900, lay down the specific provisions for Parole and Furlough.
- Parole and Furlough are seen as a matter of right for prisoners to be granted periodically.
- The President and governors of states’ right to remit sentences of any person convicted of any offence is the only exception when the executive can alter a sentence passed by the court.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Except for foreigners and those serving death sentences, all convicted persons may be eligible for emergency parole for 14 days for reasons such as the death of a family member (which includes grandparents, father, mother, spouse, son, daughter, brother, sister) and the marriage of a family member (which includes son, daughter, brother, sister).
- The emergency parole cannot be extended.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- There are no specific provisions related to Parole and Furlough in the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prisoners Act, 1900.
- Section 59 of the Prisons Act empowers States to make rules for the shortening of sentences as rewards for good conduct.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Parole is not seen as a matter of right.
- It is given to a prisoner for a specific reason (E.g. death in the family).
- However, a Furlough is seen as a matter of right for prisoners to be granted periodically.
- It can be granted without any reason.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- One basic principle of Indian sentencing jurisprudence is that the executive cannot alter a sentence passed by the court.
- Section 432 of the Code Of Criminal Procedure allows state governments to grant remission to convicts. The provision states that “where any person has been sentenced to punishment for an offence, the appropriate government may, at any time, without conditions or upon any conditions which the person sentenced accepts, suspend the execution of his sentence or remit the whole or any part of the punishment to which he has been sentenced”.
- The President and governors of states have also been given the right to remit sentences of any person convicted of any offence under Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution.
- The reason why remission of sentence under this section does not affect this principle is that merely the execution of the sentence is being altered. Remission does not mean that the person’s conviction is set aside, just that the execution is treated differently.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty: Tough
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Except for foreigners and those serving death sentences, all convicted persons may be eligible for emergency parole for 14 days for reasons such as the death of a family member (which includes grandparents, father, mother, spouse, son, daughter, brother, sister) and the marriage of a family member (which includes son, daughter, brother, sister).
- The emergency parole cannot be extended.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- There are no specific provisions related to Parole and Furlough in the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prisoners Act, 1900.
- Section 59 of the Prisons Act empowers States to make rules for the shortening of sentences as rewards for good conduct.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Parole is not seen as a matter of right.
- It is given to a prisoner for a specific reason (E.g. death in the family).
- However, a Furlough is seen as a matter of right for prisoners to be granted periodically.
- It can be granted without any reason.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- One basic principle of Indian sentencing jurisprudence is that the executive cannot alter a sentence passed by the court.
- Section 432 of the Code Of Criminal Procedure allows state governments to grant remission to convicts. The provision states that “where any person has been sentenced to punishment for an offence, the appropriate government may, at any time, without conditions or upon any conditions which the person sentenced accepts, suspend the execution of his sentence or remit the whole or any part of the punishment to which he has been sentenced”.
- The President and governors of states have also been given the right to remit sentences of any person convicted of any offence under Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution.
- The reason why remission of sentence under this section does not affect this principle is that merely the execution of the sentence is being altered. Remission does not mean that the person’s conviction is set aside, just that the execution is treated differently.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty: Tough
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Except for foreigners and those serving death sentences, all convicted persons may be eligible for emergency parole for 14 days for reasons such as the death of a family member (which includes grandparents, father, mother, spouse, son, daughter, brother, sister) and the marriage of a family member (which includes son, daughter, brother, sister).
- The emergency parole cannot be extended.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- There are no specific provisions related to Parole and Furlough in the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prisoners Act, 1900.
- Section 59 of the Prisons Act empowers States to make rules for the shortening of sentences as rewards for good conduct.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Parole is not seen as a matter of right.
- It is given to a prisoner for a specific reason (E.g. death in the family).
- However, a Furlough is seen as a matter of right for prisoners to be granted periodically.
- It can be granted without any reason.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- One basic principle of Indian sentencing jurisprudence is that the executive cannot alter a sentence passed by the court.
- Section 432 of the Code Of Criminal Procedure allows state governments to grant remission to convicts. The provision states that “where any person has been sentenced to punishment for an offence, the appropriate government may, at any time, without conditions or upon any conditions which the person sentenced accepts, suspend the execution of his sentence or remit the whole or any part of the punishment to which he has been sentenced”.
- The President and governors of states have also been given the right to remit sentences of any person convicted of any offence under Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution.
- The reason why remission of sentence under this section does not affect this principle is that merely the execution of the sentence is being altered. Remission does not mean that the person’s conviction is set aside, just that the execution is treated differently.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty: Tough
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – Judiciary} Consider the following statements:
- CJI is the Chairman of the SC Legal Services Committee (SCLSC).
- The right to free legal aid or legal service is a fundamental right.
- SC Legal Services Committee (SCLSC) shall be constituted by National Legal Services Authority.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Composition of SCLSC
- Sitting SC judge as Chairman
- Other members (Nine members) possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre and nominated by CJI.
- CJI will nominate both the chairman and other members.
- CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.
Statement 2 is correct
- Under Art 21, the right to free legal aid or legal service is fundamental.
- Article 39A, free legal aid and equal justice are provided to all citizens by appropriate legislation, schemes or other means to ensure that no citizen is denied access to justice.
Statement 3 is correct
- The SCLSC was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act (LSAA), 1987.
- The Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute SCLSC.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Composition of SCLSC
- Sitting SC judge as Chairman
- Other members (Nine members) possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre and nominated by CJI.
- CJI will nominate both the chairman and other members.
- CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.
Statement 2 is correct
- Under Art 21, the right to free legal aid or legal service is fundamental.
- Article 39A, free legal aid and equal justice are provided to all citizens by appropriate legislation, schemes or other means to ensure that no citizen is denied access to justice.
Statement 3 is correct
- The SCLSC was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act (LSAA), 1987.
- The Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute SCLSC.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Composition of SCLSC
- Sitting SC judge as Chairman
- Other members (Nine members) possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre and nominated by CJI.
- CJI will nominate both the chairman and other members.
- CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.
Statement 2 is correct
- Under Art 21, the right to free legal aid or legal service is fundamental.
- Article 39A, free legal aid and equal justice are provided to all citizens by appropriate legislation, schemes or other means to ensure that no citizen is denied access to justice.
Statement 3 is correct
- The SCLSC was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act (LSAA), 1987.
- The Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute SCLSC.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Polity – Judiciary} With reference to National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), consider the following statements:
- Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- Legal Services Mobile App has been launched by NALSA to enable easy access to legal aid to common citizens.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The NALSA was founded in 1995 under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 to monitor and review the effectiveness of legal aid programs and to develop rules and principles for providing legal services under the Act.
- It also distributes funding and grants to state legal services authorities and non-profit organizations to help them execute legal aid systems and initiatives.
- Constitutional Provisions for National Legal Services Authority:
- Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
- Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity to all.
Statement 2 is correct
- To enable equitable access to justice, NALSA has launched Legal Services Mobile App on Android and iOS versions to enable easy access to legal aid to common citizens.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The NALSA was founded in 1995 under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 to monitor and review the effectiveness of legal aid programs and to develop rules and principles for providing legal services under the Act.
- It also distributes funding and grants to state legal services authorities and non-profit organizations to help them execute legal aid systems and initiatives.
- Constitutional Provisions for National Legal Services Authority:
- Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
- Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity to all.
Statement 2 is correct
- To enable equitable access to justice, NALSA has launched Legal Services Mobile App on Android and iOS versions to enable easy access to legal aid to common citizens.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The NALSA was founded in 1995 under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 to monitor and review the effectiveness of legal aid programs and to develop rules and principles for providing legal services under the Act.
- It also distributes funding and grants to state legal services authorities and non-profit organizations to help them execute legal aid systems and initiatives.
- Constitutional Provisions for National Legal Services Authority:
- Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
- Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity to all.
Statement 2 is correct
- To enable equitable access to justice, NALSA has launched Legal Services Mobile App on Android and iOS versions to enable easy access to legal aid to common citizens.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements:
- Wetland City Accreditation is a voluntary system that provides an opportunity for cities that value their natural wetlands to gain international recognition.
- The Amrit Dharohar is an initiative of the MoEF&CC that aims to achieve similar goals by promoting unique conservation values of Ramsar Sites.
- No Indian city have been formally accredited in the Wetland City Accreditation.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) aims to promote the conservation and wise use of urban and peri–urban wetlands, as well as sustainable socio-economic benefits for local populations.
- The Accreditation seeks to encourage cities that are close to and dependent on wetlands, primarily Wetlands of International Importance.
- The Ramsar Convention during COP12 held in the year 2015 approved this voluntary WCA system that recognizes cities that have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
- This voluntary scheme provides an opportunity for cities that value their natural or human-made wetlands to gain international recognition.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Amrit Dharohar is an initiative of the MoEF&CC that aims to achieve similar goals by promoting unique conservation values of Ramsar Sites.
- This scheme was announced in the 2023-24 budget for a period of 3 years. The scheme, identifying the importance of the wetlands, aims to promote their optimal use. Under this scheme, the communities will be at the centre stage with regard to wetland protection.
Statement 3 is correct
- No Indian city have been formally accredited in the Wetland City Accreditation.
- Recently Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) have selected Indore, Bhopal and Udaipur to get accredited formally in Wetland City Accreditation.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) aims to promote the conservation and wise use of urban and peri–urban wetlands, as well as sustainable socio-economic benefits for local populations.
- The Accreditation seeks to encourage cities that are close to and dependent on wetlands, primarily Wetlands of International Importance.
- The Ramsar Convention during COP12 held in the year 2015 approved this voluntary WCA system that recognizes cities that have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
- This voluntary scheme provides an opportunity for cities that value their natural or human-made wetlands to gain international recognition.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Amrit Dharohar is an initiative of the MoEF&CC that aims to achieve similar goals by promoting unique conservation values of Ramsar Sites.
- This scheme was announced in the 2023-24 budget for a period of 3 years. The scheme, identifying the importance of the wetlands, aims to promote their optimal use. Under this scheme, the communities will be at the centre stage with regard to wetland protection.
Statement 3 is correct
- No Indian city have been formally accredited in the Wetland City Accreditation.
- Recently Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) have selected Indore, Bhopal and Udaipur to get accredited formally in Wetland City Accreditation.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) aims to promote the conservation and wise use of urban and peri–urban wetlands, as well as sustainable socio-economic benefits for local populations.
- The Accreditation seeks to encourage cities that are close to and dependent on wetlands, primarily Wetlands of International Importance.
- The Ramsar Convention during COP12 held in the year 2015 approved this voluntary WCA system that recognizes cities that have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
- This voluntary scheme provides an opportunity for cities that value their natural or human-made wetlands to gain international recognition.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Amrit Dharohar is an initiative of the MoEF&CC that aims to achieve similar goals by promoting unique conservation values of Ramsar Sites.
- This scheme was announced in the 2023-24 budget for a period of 3 years. The scheme, identifying the importance of the wetlands, aims to promote their optimal use. Under this scheme, the communities will be at the centre stage with regard to wetland protection.
Statement 3 is correct
- No Indian city have been formally accredited in the Wetland City Accreditation.
- Recently Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) have selected Indore, Bhopal and Udaipur to get accredited formally in Wetland City Accreditation.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {A&C – Art} Consider the following statements with respect to Etikoppaka Toys:
- These toys are manufactured in the state of Karnataka.
- Etikoppaka Toy is a Geographical Indication (GI) tagged product.
- These toys have no sharp edges and are rounded on all sides.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are Correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Etikoppaka toy industry is believed to be around 400 years old.
- In early days, some craftsmen from Etikoppaka, a Village in Andhra Pradesh made in small wooden bowls and boxes for household purposes.
- These versatile items found utility in storing salt, turmeric, and other aromatic substances, with women especially preferring them for keeping ‘kum-kum’ or their precious gold jewellery.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Etikoppaka toys industry have been flourishing in the recent times.
- The industry has provided livelihood to several women in the village.
- Etikoppaka toys was granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2017.
Statement 3 is correct
- These toys have no sharp edges and are rounded on all sides.
- Initially, wooden creations from Etikoppaka were sold at stalls near temples and during weekly markets, better known as ‘vaaram – santha’.
- Over time, local kings, zamindars, and landlords began placing orders for these wooden products, utilising them both in kitchens and as decorative elements in homes.
- The turning point in their history came when artisans ventured into crafting toys for children.
- The introduction of Lakkapidathalu, a kitchen set featuring vibrant vessels, a stove, a roti-making plate with a stick, and plates marked a breakthrough in the toy industry.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Etikoppaka toy industry is believed to be around 400 years old.
- In early days, some craftsmen from Etikoppaka, a Village in Andhra Pradesh made in small wooden bowls and boxes for household purposes.
- These versatile items found utility in storing salt, turmeric, and other aromatic substances, with women especially preferring them for keeping ‘kum-kum’ or their precious gold jewellery.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Etikoppaka toys industry have been flourishing in the recent times.
- The industry has provided livelihood to several women in the village.
- Etikoppaka toys was granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2017.
Statement 3 is correct
- These toys have no sharp edges and are rounded on all sides.
- Initially, wooden creations from Etikoppaka were sold at stalls near temples and during weekly markets, better known as ‘vaaram – santha’.
- Over time, local kings, zamindars, and landlords began placing orders for these wooden products, utilising them both in kitchens and as decorative elements in homes.
- The turning point in their history came when artisans ventured into crafting toys for children.
- The introduction of Lakkapidathalu, a kitchen set featuring vibrant vessels, a stove, a roti-making plate with a stick, and plates marked a breakthrough in the toy industry.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Etikoppaka toy industry is believed to be around 400 years old.
- In early days, some craftsmen from Etikoppaka, a Village in Andhra Pradesh made in small wooden bowls and boxes for household purposes.
- These versatile items found utility in storing salt, turmeric, and other aromatic substances, with women especially preferring them for keeping ‘kum-kum’ or their precious gold jewellery.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Etikoppaka toys industry have been flourishing in the recent times.
- The industry has provided livelihood to several women in the village.
- Etikoppaka toys was granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2017.
Statement 3 is correct
- These toys have no sharp edges and are rounded on all sides.
- Initially, wooden creations from Etikoppaka were sold at stalls near temples and during weekly markets, better known as ‘vaaram – santha’.
- Over time, local kings, zamindars, and landlords began placing orders for these wooden products, utilising them both in kitchens and as decorative elements in homes.
- The turning point in their history came when artisans ventured into crafting toys for children.
- The introduction of Lakkapidathalu, a kitchen set featuring vibrant vessels, a stove, a roti-making plate with a stick, and plates marked a breakthrough in the toy industry.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
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4 Correct and 3 Incorrect
Question 3 came as a Bouncer!
2 correct 5 wrong. Good quality question.
It was really fun solving today’s questions.
They are indeed rational and knowledge boosters.
Good questions.
Got disappointed with my performance today. But memorized from answers. BTW it is by hussainara khatoon case which makes free legal aid an FR.
Only 4 correct , Good questions sir !!
Question no. 3 and 6 were challenging…. And the explanation of the prithvi scheme was good