
December 29 2023 Current Affairs MCQs
- These Current Affairs MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – December 29 2023
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {IR – India – Startegic Partnerships } Consider the following statements with respect to Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant:
- It is India’s first nuclear plant to use imported Pressurised Water Reactor (PWR) technology.
- The technical assistance for the plant is provided by the USA.
- It is being developed by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is India’s largest nuclear power station that is being built in Tamil Nadu.
- It is expected to be completed by 2027.
- It is India’s first nuclear plant to use imported Pressurised Water Reactor (PWR) technology.
- It uses the advanced version of the Russian-developed PWR nuclear technology, VVER-1000 type reactors, also known as water-water power reactors.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The technical assistance for the plant is provided by Russia.
- The subsidiary of the Russian State Nuclear Energy Corporation Rosatom, Atomstroyexport, is responsible for the technical design.
Statement 3 is correct
- It is being developed and will be operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is India’s largest nuclear power station that is being built in Tamil Nadu.
- It is expected to be completed by 2027.
- It is India’s first nuclear plant to use imported Pressurised Water Reactor (PWR) technology.
- It uses the advanced version of the Russian-developed PWR nuclear technology, VVER-1000 type reactors, also known as water-water power reactors.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The technical assistance for the plant is provided by Russia.
- The subsidiary of the Russian State Nuclear Energy Corporation Rosatom, Atomstroyexport, is responsible for the technical design.
Statement 3 is correct
- It is being developed and will be operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is India’s largest nuclear power station that is being built in Tamil Nadu.
- It is expected to be completed by 2027.
- It is India’s first nuclear plant to use imported Pressurised Water Reactor (PWR) technology.
- It uses the advanced version of the Russian-developed PWR nuclear technology, VVER-1000 type reactors, also known as water-water power reactors.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The technical assistance for the plant is provided by Russia.
- The subsidiary of the Russian State Nuclear Energy Corporation Rosatom, Atomstroyexport, is responsible for the technical design.
Statement 3 is correct
- It is being developed and will be operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {IR – Issues} Nicaragua, sometimes seen in the news recently, is located in which part of the region?
Correct
Explanation
- Nicaragua is a country in Central America, located between the Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean.
- It is the largest country in Central America and is known as the “land of lakes and volcanoes“.
- Nicaragua is home to the Bosawas Biosphere Reserve, the 2nd largest rainforest in the American continent.
- It was the only country in Latin America to be colonized by both the Spanish and the British.
- The country’s name is derived from Nicarao, chief of the indigenous people.
Answer: (a) Central America; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Nicaragua is a country in Central America, located between the Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean.
- It is the largest country in Central America and is known as the “land of lakes and volcanoes“.
- Nicaragua is home to the Bosawas Biosphere Reserve, the 2nd largest rainforest in the American continent.
- It was the only country in Latin America to be colonized by both the Spanish and the British.
- The country’s name is derived from Nicarao, chief of the indigenous people.
Answer: (a) Central America; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Nicaragua is a country in Central America, located between the Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean.
- It is the largest country in Central America and is known as the “land of lakes and volcanoes“.
- Nicaragua is home to the Bosawas Biosphere Reserve, the 2nd largest rainforest in the American continent.
- It was the only country in Latin America to be colonized by both the Spanish and the British.
- The country’s name is derived from Nicarao, chief of the indigenous people.
Answer: (a) Central America; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {MoSJE – Initiatives} Consider the following statements with respect to Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA):
- It is under the administrative control of Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
- Its major objective is socio-economic upliftment and development of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) students through education.
- Admissions in private residential schools through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) scheme was discussed in Parliament.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Objectives of the SHRESHTA scheme
- Socio-economic upliftment and development of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) through education.
- Easier access to the meritorious SC students in the best schools in the Country.
Statement 3 is correct
- Admissions in private residential schools through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
- Grants-in-aid will be released to NGO/VO-operated Schools/Hostels having classes up to class 12.
Answer: (a) Only One; Difficulty level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) scheme was discussed in Parliament.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Objectives of the SHRESHTA scheme
- Socio-economic upliftment and development of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) through education.
- Easier access to the meritorious SC students in the best schools in the Country.
Statement 3 is correct
- Admissions in private residential schools through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
- Grants-in-aid will be released to NGO/VO-operated Schools/Hostels having classes up to class 12.
Answer: (a) Only One; Difficulty level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) scheme was discussed in Parliament.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Objectives of the SHRESHTA scheme
- Socio-economic upliftment and development of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) through education.
- Easier access to the meritorious SC students in the best schools in the Country.
Statement 3 is correct
- Admissions in private residential schools through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
- Grants-in-aid will be released to NGO/VO-operated Schools/Hostels having classes up to class 12.
Answer: (a) Only One; Difficulty level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – Judiciary} Consider the following statements with respect to Tribunals:
- A Tribunal is a Statutory Body.
- State Legislatures are allowed to create their own State Administrative Tribunals.
- Members of an Administrative Tribunal have a fixed tenure of 5 years.
- Tribunals interfere with the Power of Judiciary.
Which of the above statement(s) are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Tribunal is a quasi-judicial institution that is set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes. It performs a number of functions like adjudicating disputes, determining rights between contesting parties, making an administrative decision, reviewing an existing administrative decision and so forth.
- Statutory bodies have the power to create laws and regulations. Quasi-judicial bodies do not have the power to create laws.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Tribunals are incorporated under Art 323-A and 323-B (by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976).
- Article 323-A: Under this, Administrative Tribunals can be created only by Parliament, and in pursuance of this Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and State Administrative Tribunals (SAT) have been created.
- Article 323-B: Under this, Tribunals for all other matters can be created by Parliament as well as State Legislatures. E.g. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), etc.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Tenure, terms and conditions of the services of the members of Administrative Tribunal are entirely in the hands of Executive (government).
Statement 4 is correct
- One of the issues with the Tribunals is that it Interferes with the power of Judiciary.
- Tribunals undermine the authority of the judiciary by encroaching upon the jurisdiction of Courts as they replace HC for disputes under the Companies Act, SEBI Act, etc.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Tribunal is a quasi-judicial institution that is set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes. It performs a number of functions like adjudicating disputes, determining rights between contesting parties, making an administrative decision, reviewing an existing administrative decision and so forth.
- Statutory bodies have the power to create laws and regulations. Quasi-judicial bodies do not have the power to create laws.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Tribunals are incorporated under Art 323-A and 323-B (by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976).
- Article 323-A: Under this, Administrative Tribunals can be created only by Parliament, and in pursuance of this Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and State Administrative Tribunals (SAT) have been created.
- Article 323-B: Under this, Tribunals for all other matters can be created by Parliament as well as State Legislatures. E.g. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), etc.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Tenure, terms and conditions of the services of the members of Administrative Tribunal are entirely in the hands of Executive (government).
Statement 4 is correct
- One of the issues with the Tribunals is that it Interferes with the power of Judiciary.
- Tribunals undermine the authority of the judiciary by encroaching upon the jurisdiction of Courts as they replace HC for disputes under the Companies Act, SEBI Act, etc.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Tribunal is a quasi-judicial institution that is set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes. It performs a number of functions like adjudicating disputes, determining rights between contesting parties, making an administrative decision, reviewing an existing administrative decision and so forth.
- Statutory bodies have the power to create laws and regulations. Quasi-judicial bodies do not have the power to create laws.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Tribunals are incorporated under Art 323-A and 323-B (by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976).
- Article 323-A: Under this, Administrative Tribunals can be created only by Parliament, and in pursuance of this Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and State Administrative Tribunals (SAT) have been created.
- Article 323-B: Under this, Tribunals for all other matters can be created by Parliament as well as State Legislatures. E.g. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), etc.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Tenure, terms and conditions of the services of the members of Administrative Tribunal are entirely in the hands of Executive (government).
Statement 4 is correct
- One of the issues with the Tribunals is that it Interferes with the power of Judiciary.
- Tribunals undermine the authority of the judiciary by encroaching upon the jurisdiction of Courts as they replace HC for disputes under the Companies Act, SEBI Act, etc.
Answer: (a) Only one ; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements:
- The eSoil works by electrically stimulating plant roots with low power, thus providing an environmentally safer alternative to traditional methods.
- Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Researchers have developed a new electronic soil (eSoil) that was found to increase the growth of barley seedlings by 50%.
- eSoil is made of cellulose, a biopolymer mixed with a conductive polymer called PEDOT.
- The eSoil works by electrically stimulating plant roots with low power, thus providing an environmentally safer alternative to traditional methods.
Statement 2 is correct
- Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil, using water enriched with balance mineral nutrients essential for plant growth and yield.
- The Nutrients and PH level are maintained suiting the selected crop for better growth.
- With increasing water scarcity due to frequent droughts and declining land availability for farming, government agencies are promoting hydroponics for growing vegetables, fruits and fodder.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Researchers have developed a new electronic soil (eSoil) that was found to increase the growth of barley seedlings by 50%.
- eSoil is made of cellulose, a biopolymer mixed with a conductive polymer called PEDOT.
- The eSoil works by electrically stimulating plant roots with low power, thus providing an environmentally safer alternative to traditional methods.
Statement 2 is correct
- Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil, using water enriched with balance mineral nutrients essential for plant growth and yield.
- The Nutrients and PH level are maintained suiting the selected crop for better growth.
- With increasing water scarcity due to frequent droughts and declining land availability for farming, government agencies are promoting hydroponics for growing vegetables, fruits and fodder.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Researchers have developed a new electronic soil (eSoil) that was found to increase the growth of barley seedlings by 50%.
- eSoil is made of cellulose, a biopolymer mixed with a conductive polymer called PEDOT.
- The eSoil works by electrically stimulating plant roots with low power, thus providing an environmentally safer alternative to traditional methods.
Statement 2 is correct
- Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil, using water enriched with balance mineral nutrients essential for plant growth and yield.
- The Nutrients and PH level are maintained suiting the selected crop for better growth.
- With increasing water scarcity due to frequent droughts and declining land availability for farming, government agencies are promoting hydroponics for growing vegetables, fruits and fodder.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {MoA – Schemes} Consider the following statements with respect to PM-KISAN:
- Eligible farmer families receive Rs.6000 annually, distributed in three equal instalments every four months.
- PM KISAN is a centrally sponsored scheme where 60% is Funded by the Centre and 40% by the States. (This Ratio is 90:10 for Northeastern States.)
- A Group D Employee upon Retirement is eligible for monetary assistance under the scheme.
- Landless agricultural labourers and tenant farmers are also Covered under PM-KISAN.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- PM-KISAN Yojana provides minimum income support to farmers.
- Eligible farmer families receive Rs.6000 annually, distributed in three equal instalments every four months.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- PM KISAN is a central sector scheme with all the funding coming from GOI.
Statement 3 is correct
- Every Retired Multi-Tasking Staff/Group D/Class IV employee is eligible for monetary assistance under PM-KISAN Scheme.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- This scheme is not pro-poor since recipients of PM-KISAN seemed to be better off than the general rural population.
- While PM-KISAN aims to cover small and marginal farmers (85% of the farmer population), landless agricultural labourers and tenant farmers are left in the lurch.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- PM-KISAN Yojana provides minimum income support to farmers.
- Eligible farmer families receive Rs.6000 annually, distributed in three equal instalments every four months.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- PM KISAN is a central sector scheme with all the funding coming from GOI.
Statement 3 is correct
- Every Retired Multi-Tasking Staff/Group D/Class IV employee is eligible for monetary assistance under PM-KISAN Scheme.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- This scheme is not pro-poor since recipients of PM-KISAN seemed to be better off than the general rural population.
- While PM-KISAN aims to cover small and marginal farmers (85% of the farmer population), landless agricultural labourers and tenant farmers are left in the lurch.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- PM-KISAN Yojana provides minimum income support to farmers.
- Eligible farmer families receive Rs.6000 annually, distributed in three equal instalments every four months.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- PM KISAN is a central sector scheme with all the funding coming from GOI.
Statement 3 is correct
- Every Retired Multi-Tasking Staff/Group D/Class IV employee is eligible for monetary assistance under PM-KISAN Scheme.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- This scheme is not pro-poor since recipients of PM-KISAN seemed to be better off than the general rural population.
- While PM-KISAN aims to cover small and marginal farmers (85% of the farmer population), landless agricultural labourers and tenant farmers are left in the lurch.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {IE – Banking} Consider the following statements about UPI TAP and PAY Facility:
- Near Field Communication (NFC) capability in smartphones allows users to make on-the-go payments without the need to scan a QR code.
- UPI Tap and Pay Facility for payments apps will be available on all devices.
- For purchases under Rs 500, the payment can be made by the users without entering the UPI PIN.
- NPCI is registered as a non-profit organisation under the Companies Act of 2013.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The UPI Tap and Pay feature leverages the Near Field Communication (NFC) capability in smartphones, allowing users to make on-the-go payments without the need to scan a QR code.
- NFC ensures a secure connection within a 4 cm distance, making it an ideal technology for UPI transactions.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- NPCI begins deployment of UPI Tap and Pay Facility for payments apps.
- It can be accessed only on phones or devices that have NFC capability.
Statement 3 is correct
- Users can initiate transactions of up to Rs 500 at a time, with a daily cap set at Rs 4,000.
- For purchases under Rs 500, users of UPI Lite can tap their phones against a UPI Smart Tag or UPI Smart QR without entering a UPI PIN.
- For transactions exceeding Rs 500, users will be required to input their PIN after tapping their device.
Statement 4 is correct
- NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payment settlement systems in India.
- NPCI was established jointly by the RBI and the Indian Bank’s Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 to create a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
- NPCI is registered as a non-profit organisation under the Companies Act of 2013.
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The UPI Tap and Pay feature leverages the Near Field Communication (NFC) capability in smartphones, allowing users to make on-the-go payments without the need to scan a QR code.
- NFC ensures a secure connection within a 4 cm distance, making it an ideal technology for UPI transactions.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- NPCI begins deployment of UPI Tap and Pay Facility for payments apps.
- It can be accessed only on phones or devices that have NFC capability.
Statement 3 is correct
- Users can initiate transactions of up to Rs 500 at a time, with a daily cap set at Rs 4,000.
- For purchases under Rs 500, users of UPI Lite can tap their phones against a UPI Smart Tag or UPI Smart QR without entering a UPI PIN.
- For transactions exceeding Rs 500, users will be required to input their PIN after tapping their device.
Statement 4 is correct
- NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payment settlement systems in India.
- NPCI was established jointly by the RBI and the Indian Bank’s Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 to create a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
- NPCI is registered as a non-profit organisation under the Companies Act of 2013.
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The UPI Tap and Pay feature leverages the Near Field Communication (NFC) capability in smartphones, allowing users to make on-the-go payments without the need to scan a QR code.
- NFC ensures a secure connection within a 4 cm distance, making it an ideal technology for UPI transactions.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- NPCI begins deployment of UPI Tap and Pay Facility for payments apps.
- It can be accessed only on phones or devices that have NFC capability.
Statement 3 is correct
- Users can initiate transactions of up to Rs 500 at a time, with a daily cap set at Rs 4,000.
- For purchases under Rs 500, users of UPI Lite can tap their phones against a UPI Smart Tag or UPI Smart QR without entering a UPI PIN.
- For transactions exceeding Rs 500, users will be required to input their PIN after tapping their device.
Statement 4 is correct
- NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payment settlement systems in India.
- NPCI was established jointly by the RBI and the Indian Bank’s Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007 to create a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
- NPCI is registered as a non-profit organisation under the Companies Act of 2013.
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium
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4 Correct and 3 Incorrect