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UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2015

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Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2015 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2015

Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojna’ has been launched for

  1. providing housing loans to poor people at cheaper interest rates
  2. promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas
  3. promoting financial inclusion in the country
  4. providing financial help to the marginalised communities

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

Infographic explaining PM Jan Dhan Yojana, a national mission launched on August 28, 2014, aimed at financial inclusion by providing basic savings accounts to unbanked individuals. It highlights features like no-cost accounts, integration with other schemes, achievements such as 80% adult financial inclusion and 66.6% account usage, and challenges including low transaction activity and infrastructure gaps.

Answer: (c) providing financial inclusion in the country; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
  2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • 14TH FC Chairman: Mr Y.V. Reddy (Former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India).
  • It recommended an increase in the share of states in the centre’s tax revenue from 32 per cent to 42 per cent. This was indeed the single largest increase ever recommended by a Finance Commission.

Infographic explaining the 16th Finance Commission of India, detailing its constitutional basis under Article 280, structure with 1 Chairman and 4 Members, and qualifications per Finance Commission Act, 1951. It highlights terms of reference including horizontal and vertical devolution of funds, key issues like state debts and industrialized states, and the commission's role in reducing vertical fiscal imbalance and increasing state revenue share to 49%.

Statement 2 is incorrect
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
  1. ASEAN
  2. BRICS
  3. OECD
  4. WTO

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Fortaleza Declaration was adopted during the 6th BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.
  • It focused on strengthening cooperation among BRICS nations and included initiatives like the establishment of the New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA).

Infographic detailing BRICS formation, membership, and economic impact, highlighting Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa with new members Bangladesh, UAE, and Egypt. Includes timeline from 2006 to 2023, BRICS GDP and trade shares, map with member locations, and information on Contingent Reserve Arrangement and New Development Bank funding.

Answer: (b) BRICS; Difficulty Level: Easy

A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

  1. Slowing economic growth rate
  2. Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The tax-to-GDP ratio is a gauge of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy as measured by gross domestic product (GDP). The ratio provides a useful look at a country’s tax revenue because it reveals potential taxation relative to the economy. It also enables a view of the overall direction of a nation’s tax policy and international comparisons between the tax revenues of different countries.
  • A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio can indicate slowing economic growth, as tax revenue is often linked to economic activity. When the economy slows down, there is usually less income, consumption, and business activity, which reduces tax collections relative to GDP.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The tax-to-GDP ratio measures overall tax revenue as a percentage of GDP but does not directly indicate income distribution.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason?

  1. Sea surface temperatures are low
  2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
  3. Coriolis force is too weak
  4. Absence of land in those regions

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Tropical cyclones are low-pressure systems that derive their energy from warm ocean waters. However, in the tropical regions of the South Atlantic and the south-eastern Pacific, several factors inhibit their formation. Sea surface temperatures in these regions are generally lower than the threshold required for cyclone development. Additionally, vertical wind shear remains high throughout the year, including during summer, which disrupts the organization of storms. There is also a scarcity of pre-existing disturbances or centers of rotation that could evolve into cyclones.
  • Further, the Intertropical Convergence Zone typically stays close to the equator, shifting only slightly north or south with the seasons. In these oceanic regions, it is either weak or largely absent. Since the ITCZ provides essential conditions such as convergence, vorticity, and rising air currents needed for thunderstorm development and large-scale rotation, its absence—combined with strong wind shear—makes the formation of tropical cyclones extremely difficult.
Answer: (b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

  1. Assam and Rajasthan
  2. Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
  3. Assam and Gujarat
  4. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state of India, bordering Bhutan, China, and Myanmar. Its easternmost point, Kibithu, is located at 97°25’E longitude.
  • Gujarat is the westernmost state of India, bordering Pakistan and the Arabian Sea. Its westernmost point, Sir Creek, is located at 68°7’E longitude.
Answer: (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

  1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
  2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Nevertheless, the Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

  1. Coal production
  2. Electricity generation
  3. Fertiliser production
  4. Steel production

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production/output of eight core industries.
  • The Office of Economic Advisor (Ministry of Commerce and Industries) releases ICI.
  • The objective is to provide an advanced indication of the production performance of core industries before the release of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) by the Central Statistics Office (Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation).
  • The core sectors account for about 40.3% of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
  • Core Industries Weightage (In percentage):
    • Petroleum & Refinery production – 28.04
    • Electricity generation – 19.85
    • Steel production – 17.92
    • Coal production – 10.33
    • Crude Oil production – 8.98
    • Natural Gas production – 6.88
    • Cement production – 5.37
    • Fertilisers production – 2.63
Answer: (b) Electricity generation; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

  1. Bhitarkanika National Park
  2. Keibul Lamjao National Park
  3. Keoladeo Ghana National Park
  4. Sultanpur National Park

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating park in the world. It is an integral part of Loktak Lake (a Ramsar site). The National Park is characterised by floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis. It was declared a National Park to preserve the natural refuge of brow-antlered deer (also called sangai, dancing deer & Manipurs’s Eld’s deer; EN).
  • Vegetation: semi-evergreen forests, aquatic, and wetland.
  • Major Fauna: brow-antlered deer, hog deer, large Indian civet, Asian golden cat.

Map of Northeast India highlighting protected areas including national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and tiger reserves across seven states. Color-coded labels and boundaries mark locations such as Kaziranga NP-TR, Manas NP-TR, and Namdapha NP-TR, emphasizing biodiversity hotspots and conservation zones.

Option (a) is incorrect
  • Bhitarkanika National Park is the second Ramsar Site of Odisha after Chilika Lake.
  • Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary separates the National Park from the Bay of Bengal. It is inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani & Dhamra.
  • It hosts many mangrove species and is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
  • Major Fauna: Saltwater (Estuarine) Crocodile (LC).
  • Major Flora: Mangrove species.

Map showing protected areas in Chhattisgarh and Odisha, including national parks (NP), wildlife sanctuaries (WLS), and tiger reserves (TR). Key locations like Guru Ghasidas NP, Indravati NP-TR, Satkosia TR, and Bhitarkanika NP are highlighted with color-coded labels and markers, indicating important conservation sites and wildlife habitats.

Option (c) is incorrect
  • Formerly known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, it is a freshwater swamp. It gets flooded during the monsoon. It is a famous avifauna sanctuary that hosts thousands of birds, especially during the winter season. It is a Ramsar Site and UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • Vegetation: tropical dry deciduous forests, dry grasslands and wetlands.
  • It is the only regular wintering area in India for the Siberian crane (CR).
  • Major Avifauna: Migratory waterfowl, sarus crane (VU) (large non-migratory crane found in parts of India).
  • Major Fauna: Blackbuck, hog deer, chital deer, sambar.

Map of Rajasthan showing locations of national parks (NP), tiger reserves (TR), and wildlife sanctuaries (WLS) with labels in various colors such as purple for parks, green for sanctuaries, and red for tiger reserves. Key sites include Ranthambhore NP-TR, Sariska NP-TR, and Mukundra Hills NP-TR, highlighting protected areas and conservation zones across the state.

Option (d) is incorrect
  • Sultanpur National Park is a Ramsar Site located 15 km from Gurugram. The park is famous for migratory birds.
  • Major Migratory Avifauna: Siberian crane, greater flamingo, spot-billed pelican, wood sandpiper, grey heron.

Map showing wildlife sanctuaries (WLS), conservation reserves (CnR), and national parks (NP) across Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, and Delhi regions. Key locations are marked with green, red, and purple labels indicating various protected areas, with notable clusters around Kanjli, Ropar, and Sultampur, highlighting regional biodiversity hotspots.

Answer: (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation India (NIF)?

  1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
  2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The National Innovation Foundation (NIF) was set up in March 2000, and is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • It is India’s national initiative to strengthen the grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. Its mission is to help India become a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding policy and institutional space for grassroots technological innovators.
  • NIF scouts, supports and spawns’ grassroots innovations developed by individuals and local communities in any technological field, helping in human survival without any help from formal sector
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilisers in agriculture?

  1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
  2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
  3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Impact 1 is incorrect
  • Excessive use of nitrogenous fertilisers (like urea) reduces the need for biological nitrogen fixation. As a result, the activity and population of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms (e.g., Rhizobium) may decline, not proliferate.
Impacts 2 and 3 are correct
  • Nitrogenous fertilisers can release acidic compounds as they break down in the soil, leading to increased soil acidity.
  • Nitrates are highly soluble and can easily leach into groundwater, leading to contamination and problems such as eutrophication and health hazards.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
  2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
  3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
  • IUCN is an international NGO working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
  • Its headquarters are in Gland, Switzerland.
  • IUCN is involved in research, field projects, advocacy, lobbying and education.
  • The organization is best known for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.
  • CITES, also known as the Washington Convention, is an international agreement (multilateral treaty) between governments to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
  • It was drafted in 1963 following a resolution adopted by members of IUCN and entered into force in 1975.
  • CITES is legally binding on the Parties (184 (including EU)). However, it does not take the place of national laws.
  • It only provides a framework to be respected by each Party. The parties need to adopt their own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the

  1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
  2. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
  3. Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture
  4. Agricultural Produce Market Committee

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price sugar mills have to pay farmers for sugarcane. In 2009, amending the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, the Centre replaced the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane with the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP).
  • The price is decided by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) based on recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and in consultation with State governments and the sugar industry. However, some States, like Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Punjab, offer higher prices for sugarcane under the State Advised Price (SAP), which mills in those States must abide by.
  • Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) members: The Prime Minister, the Defence Minister, the Home Minister, the Finance Minister, the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and some other senior ministers.

Infographic diagram explains Minimum Support Price (MSP) system for farmers’ produce in India, detailing government-set MSPs for 23 commodities across cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops with specific crop counts per category. It outlines MSP calculation components including actual paid-out cost, family labor, and comprehensive cost, compares MSP with Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP), and describes procedural steps involving CACP, CEEA, and government roles, highlighting MSP as 1.5 times paid-out cost and penalties for non-payment.

Option (b) is incorrect
  • It is mandated to recommend minimum support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the cultivators to adopt modern technology, and raise productivity and overall grain production in line with the emerging demand patterns in the country.
  • Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) members. It comprises a Chairman, a Member Secretary, one Member (Official) and two Members (Non-Official). The non-official members are representatives of the farming community and usually have an active association with the farming community.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • The Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI), an attached Office of the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
  • It was set up in the year 1935 to implement the agricultural marketing policies and programmes for the integrated development of marketing of agricultural and other allied produce in the country with a view to safeguard the interests of farmers as well as the consumers.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • An Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a marketing board established by state governments in India to ensure farmers are safeguarded from exploitation by large retailers, as well as ensuring the farm to retail price spread does not reach excessively high levels.
Answer: (a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs; Difficulty Level: Easy

What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

  1. The Earth’s rotation on its axis
  2. Convergence of the two equatorial currents
  3. Difference in salinity of water
  4. Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The eastward flow of the Equatorial Counter-Current is primarily explained by the convergence of the North and South Equatorial Currents, which flow westward due to trade winds. This convergence causes a piling-up of water near the western coasts (e.g., Eastern Brazil).
  • The accumulated water flows back eastward toward regions of lower water levels, forming the counter-current. The Earth’s rotation and weaker winds near the equator further facilitate this eastward flow.

World map diagram illustrating major ocean currents, with warm currents marked in red and cold currents in blue, including labels for Equatorial, Subtropical, and Antarctic Circumpolar currents. The map highlights current directions and key gyres, emphasizing seasonal changes in the Indian Ocean's Equatorial Counter-Equatorial Current during monsoon periods.

Answer: (b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Pace of Pilgrimage Location
1) Srisailam Nallamala Hills
2) Omkareshwa Satmala Hills
3) Pushkar Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Located on the banks of the River Krishna in the Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh, Srisailam is a renowned pilgrimage centre housing one of the twelve Jyotirlingas (Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple) dedicated to Lord Shiva. The Temple is nestled deep within the dense forests of the Nallamala Hills.
Pair 2 is incorrect
  • Omkareshwar Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, located in island Mandhata, nearby Khandwa city in Khandwa district of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. Satmala is a mountain range which runs across Nashik District, Maharashtra. They are an integral part of the Sahyadris range within Nashik.
Pair 3 is incorrect
  • Pushkar, in Rajasthan’s Ajmer district, is a known pilgrimage site with the only temple dedicated to Lord Brahma globally and for its Pushkar Lake. Nag Pahar separates Pushkar from Ajmer. Mahadeo Hills are located in the northern part of the Satpura Range, in Madhya Pradesh.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
  2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilise the Home Rule League.
  3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • During World War I, the British administration faced a political crisis due to the rising nationalism and the intensification of the struggle for independence. To counter this, the Government of India appointed a Sedition Committee headed by Justice Sydney Rowlatt to investigate “revolutionary crime” in the country. Based on the recommendations, the Government of India passed the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919 (Rowlatt Act) in March 1919.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Rowlatt Bills were widely condemned throughout the country. Mahatma Gandhi vehemently opposed their provisions, referring to them as a “Black Law.
  • Gandhiji formed a Satyagraha Sabha on 24th February 1919 in Bombay to protest against the Rowlatt Bills. Its members took a pledge to disobey the Act and thus to court arrest and imprisonment. The Satyagraha Sabha was composed mainly of young, radical members of the Home Rule League. In addition, some Pan-Islamic leaders, like Abdul Bari, and some radical members of the Muslim League joined the Satyagraha Sabha.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The Rowlatt Satyagraha took place in 1919, while the Simon Commission arrived in India in February 1928.
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of the Ebola virus recently?

  1. Syria and Jordan
  2. Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
  3. Philippines and Papua New Guinea
  4. Jamaica, Haiti and Suriname

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The 2014–2016 outbreak in West Africa was one of largest Ebola outbreak since the virus was first discovered in 1976. It started in Guinea then quickly spread to neighbouring countries Sierra Leone and Liberia. In August 2014, WHO declared the outbreak a Public Health Emergency of International Concern.
Answer: (b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
  2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
  3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 and 2 are correct
  • Fly ash is primarily generated as a by-product of coal combustion in thermal power plants. Its improper disposal leads to environmental concerns, as it can pollute air and water, introduce heavy metals into water bodies, and adversely affect crops and vegetation when it settles on leaves, thereby reducing photosynthesis. However, when managed properly, fly ash has several beneficial uses. It can replace cement in construction up to about 35%, reducing costs, and is used to make lightweight and durable bricks. It serves as an efficient fill material for road embankments and concrete roads. Fly ash is also useful in the reclamation of wastelands and in filling abandoned mines. In agriculture, controlled application of fly ash can improve soil properties by enhancing water-holding capacity and increasing crop yield. Nonetheless, its deposition on plant leaves remains harmful, as it hampers photosynthesis.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Fly ash is oxide-rich and consists of silica, alumina, oxides of iron, calcium, and magnesium and toxic heavy metals like lead, mercury, cadmium, arsenic, cobalt, and copper. Oxides present in large quantities are aluminium silicate, silicon dioxide (SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO).
Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
  2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
  3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect
  • Dugong is one of four living species of Sea cows. It is the largest herbivorous marine mammal.
  • Sea cows: They are an order of fully aquatic, herbivorous mammals that inhabit swamps, rivers, estuaries, marine wetlands, and coastal marine waters.
  • Distribution: East Africa, South Asia, SE Asia, East Asia and Australia. In India, it is found in the Palk Bay, Gulf of Mannar, A&N Islands, and Gulf of Kutch.
  • Habitat: Coastal areas (shallow to medium deep) with warm waters (15-17°C) and seagrass beds of sub-tropical and tropical species of seagrass.
  • Threats: Loss of seagrass beds, shipping, fishing, recreational activities, pollution and natural disasters.
  • IUCN: VU | CITES: Appx I | CMS: Appx II | WPA: Sch I
  • India’s first dugong conservation reserve is being set up in Palk Bay in TN.

A photograph of a dugong swimming underwater with a clear blue background shows its full body from side view. A map highlights dugong distribution across coastal regions of Africa, Asia, and Australia using brown shaded areas along shorelines in Indian and Pacific Oceans.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?

  1. Dadabhai Naoroji
  2. G. Subramania Iyer
  3. R. C. Dutt
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct
  • In the 1870s and 1880s, the early nationalists developed an extensive economic critique of colonialism.
  • This critique was their most important contribution to the development of the national movement.
  • Some of the most prominent figures among them were Dadabhai Naoroji, M.G. Ranade, R.C. Dutt, Dinshaw Wacha, G.V. Joshi, G. Subramaniya Iyer, G.K. Gokhale, Prithwis Chandra Ray, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Surendranath Banerjee.
  • They clearly understood that the essence of British imperialism was in subordinating the Indian economy to the British economy. They opposed the transformation of India into:
    • A supplier of raw materials
    • A market for the British manufacturers
    • A field for the investment of British capital.
  • Books critical of the imperialist drain of India’s resources were:
    • William Digby’s Prosperous British India
    • G.S. Iyer’s Some Economic Aspects of British Rule in India
    • R.C. Dutt’s Economic History of India
    • Dadabhai Naoroji Poverty and un-British Rule in India (put forward the “drain theory” to explain the British exploitation of India)

Diagram illustrating major components of economic drain, highlighting five key factors contributing to financial outflow. Components include company investments, foreign investment profits, interest on government loans from abroad, payments for shipping, banking, insurance services, and salaries, pensions, and incomes of English officials, with numbered labels and icons for each category.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically?

  1. The Asian Development Bank
  2. The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
  3. The US Federal Reserve Bank
  4. The World Bank

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Global Economic Prospects is a World Bank Group flagship report that examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging market and developing economies. It is issued twice a year, in January and June.
Answer: (d) The World Bank; Difficulty Level: Medium

When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?

  1. India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
  2. Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country
  3. Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
  4. It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking, system

Explanation

Option (c) is likely to happen
  • The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the proportion of a bank’s net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that must be maintained in the form of liquid assets like government securities, cash, or gold before providing credit.
  • When the SLR is reduced, it frees up additional funds for Scheduled Commercial Banks, allowing them to lend more to businesses and individuals. This increased availability of funds typically leads to a reduction in lending rates, as banks now have more liquidity to deploy. While this may support GDP growth and attract investments indirectly, these outcomes are not immediate or guaranteed. The reduction in SLR directly impacts the cost and availability of credit in the banking system.
Answer: (c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the use of nano-technology in the health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
  2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • Nanotechnology enables the creation of nanoparticles that can deliver drugs directly to specific cells or tissues in the body. This minimizes side effects and improves the effectiveness of treatments, particularly in diseases like cancer, where nanoparticles can deliver chemotherapy agents directly to tumor cells.
  • It can be used in gene therapy to create nanoscale carriers that transport therapeutic genes into cells. These carriers help overcome challenges such as degradation of genetic material in the bloodstream and ensuring efficient delivery into target cells.

Diagram comparing conventional and nanotechnology-enhanced medical approaches, highlighting differences in drug delivery and diagnostic methods. Conventional side shows harmful radiation, systemic side effects, drug resistance, and late-stage diagnosis, while nanotechnology-enhanced side emphasizes enhanced imaging, faster diagnosis, targeted delivery, lowered toxicity, and increased therapeutic efficiency with color-coded check marks and a detailed lung tissue inset.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the

  1. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
  2. Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
  3. Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
  4. Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Agriculture falls under the State List of the Constitution. Agriculture marketing in most states is regulated by the Agricultural Produce Market Committees established by state governments under the respective Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act. The APMCs provide infrastructure for marketing of agricultural produce, regulate the sale of such produce and collect market fees from such sale, and regulate competition in agricultural marketing.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • The Act empowers the central government to control the production, supply, distribution, storage, and trade of essential commodities.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 was the first legislation enacted by the Central Government to formulate standards and carry out grading and marking of agricultural and allied commodities.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Fruit Products Order -1955, promulgated under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act – 1955, aims at regulating sanitary and hygienic conditions in the manufacture of fruit and vegetable products.
  • In 1973, the Government of India promulgated an Order (Meat Food Products Order, 1973) under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, to enforce strict quality control on the production and processing of meat. The acts were repealed after commencement of FSS Act, 2006.
Answer: (b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

  1. Saltwater crocodile
  2. Olive ridley turtle
  3. Gangetic dolphin
  4. Gharial

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Gangetic River Dolphin is India’s national aquatic animal.

Infographic about Ganges River Dolphin, a freshwater mammal native to South Asia, detailing physical traits, behavior, habitat, population, threats, and conservation status. Features labeled dolphin illustrations with size and gender differences, a geographic range map highlighting India, Nepal, and Bangladesh, and icons representing threats like pollution and hunting, emphasizing endangered status and lifespan of 18-22 years.

  • The other options have been addressed in different questions from previous year papers.
Answer: (c) Gangetic Dolphin; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:

  1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
  2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of the proletariat.
  3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None

Explanation

All statements are incorrect
  • In 1934, Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia, and others formed the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) within the Congress.
  • Acharya Narendra Dev was appointed as the founding President of the Congress Socialist Party, while Jayaprakash Narayan served as the general secretary.
  • While the CSP supported economic and social reforms, it did not promote evasion of taxes.
  • It sought to achieve socialism through democratic and parliamentary means, not through the establishment of a dictatorship of the proletariat.
  • The CSP opposed separate electorates for minorities and oppressed classes, considering them divisive and against national unity.
  • All Congress socialists agreed on four fundamental ideas from the very beginning:
    • The primary struggle in India was for national freedom, and nationalism was an essential stage in the journey towards socialism.
    • Socialists must work within the INC because it was the chief organisation leading the national struggle.
    • Socialists must provide the Congress and the national movement with a socialist direction.
    • Socialists must organise workers and peasants for their economic uplift and to lead the movement to achieve independence and socialism.
  • The Socialists put forward the programme of the abolition of zamindari, state ownership of land, nationalisation of industries and banks, redistribution of land among peasants, and fixation of minimum wages for the working masses.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
  2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
  3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect
  • After a money bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration.
  • The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a money bill.
  • It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can only make recommendations.
  • It must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, whether with or without recommendations.
  • The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants; it is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

  1. The separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
  2. The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
  3. The powers of the Secretary of State for India and Viceroy
  4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Government of India Act of 1919 marked the beginning of responsible government in India. Under this, the central and provincial legislatures were given the authority to make laws on their respective subjects
  • Central List: Foreign and political relations, public debt, tariffs and customs, patents, currency, communications, etc.
  • Provincial List: Local self-government, health, sanitation, education, public works. agriculture, forests, law and order, etc.
    • Transferred Subjects: Local self-government, health, education and some departments relating to agriculture.
    • Reserved Subjects: Police, justice, control over printing presses, irrigation, land revenue, factories etc.
    • (The Act introduced the dyarchy (Diarchy) at the provincial level, i.e. dual government in the provinces. Under this, the provincial administration was divided between reserved and transferred subjects.)
  • The residual powers were vested in the Governor-General in Council
Answer: (b) The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers?

  1. The Reserve Bank of India
  2. The Department of Economic Affairs
  3. The Labour Bureau
  4. The Department of Personnel and Training

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures changes in the price level of a weighted average market basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households.
  • It measures changes over time in the level of retail prices of selected goods and services on which consumers of a defined group spend their incomes.
  • Base year for CPI: 2012.
  • Four types of CPI
    • CPI for Industrial Workers (IW).
    • CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL).
    • CPI for Rural Labourer (RL).
    • CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined).
  • Of these, the first three are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment, fourth is compiled by the Central Statistical Organization (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Answer: (c) The Labour Bureau; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news:

  1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
  2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
  3. It is buried deep in the ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct
  • IceCube is a state-of-the-art neutrino telescope at the geographical South Pole (located near the Amundsen-Scott South Pole Station), buried deep under the surface of the Antarctic ice cap.
  • With more than five thousand optical sensors distributed over a cubic kilometer of ice, IceCube is the biggest particle detector world-wide.
  • IceCube is also a multipurpose research facility with outstanding precision measurements in neutrino physics and exceptional contributions to cosmic ray physics, dark matter searches, and glaciology.

Diagram illustrating IceCube neutrino observatory structure and data flow, showing 86 strings of Digital Optical Modules (DOMs) spaced 125 meters apart, deployed between 1450 and 2450 meters deep in Antarctic ice. Key components include IceCube Laboratory for data processing, DOMs spaced 17 meters apart on each string, and location at Amundsen-Scott South Pole Station, highlighting detector's scale and setup for neutrino detection.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the

  1. Food and Agriculture Organization
  2. United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
  3. World Trade Organization
  4. United Nations Environment Programme

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’, and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news in the context of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
  • Agreement on Agriculture:
    • The AoA aims to promote fair competition, reduce trade-distorting subsidies, and ensure market access for agricultural products. To achieve this, the AoA includes explicit commitments to decrease support and protection in domestic support, export subsidies, and increased market access.

Diagram outlining "Three Pillars" of Agreement on Agriculture, highlighting Market Access, Domestic Support, and Export Subsidies. Each pillar lists key components such as tariff reduction and special safeguard under Market Access, AMS reduction and Green Box under Domestic Support, and reduction plus prohibition of new subsidies under Export Subsidies.

  • Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures:
    • The SPS Agreement explicitly permits governments to choose not to use international standards.
    • They should not arbitrarily discriminate between countries with identical or similar conditions.
    • Harmonisation: The SPS Agreement encourages governments to establish national SPS measures that are consistent with international standards, guidelines, and recommendations.
    • The WTO itself does not and will not develop such standards.
  • Peace Clause:
    • Introduced under the AoA, it provides a temporary shield for certain agricultural subsidies from being challenged under WTO dispute mechanisms.
    • It was established during the WTO’s Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013.
Answer: (c) World Trade Organization; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
  2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other.
  3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect
  • Near Field Communication (NFC) is a set of short-range wireless technologies, typically requiring a distance of 4 cm or less to initiate a connection. It creates a magnetic field induction to enable communication between devices when they’re touched together or brought within a few centimetres of each other. It builds on and extends the work of existing ecosystems and standards around radio frequency ID tags (RFID).
  • NFC can use encryption to secure the transmission of sensitive information, such as during contactless payments or secure data sharing.

Near Field Communication (NFC) is a set of short-range wireless technologies, typically requiring a dis-tance of 4 cm or less to initiate a connection. It creates a magnetic field induction to enable communica-tion between devices when they're touched together or brought within a few centimetres of each other.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
  1. Central Asia
  2. Middle East
  3. South-East Asia
  4. Central Africa

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Golan Heights is a strategically significant region located in the Middle East. It is a plateau bordering Israel, Syria, Lebanon, and Jordan. The region frequently appears in the news due to its geopolitical significance and the conflict between Israel and Syria over its control.
  • Israel captured the Golan Heights from Syria during the Six-Day War in 1967 and later annexed it in 1981, a move not recognized internationally.

Map showing geographical and political features of Israel, Palestine, and surrounding regions including Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon, and Syria. Key elements include cities labeled in different colors to distinguish areas (e.g., West Bank and Gaza Strip in green and purple), bodies of water like Dead Sea and Red Sea, and notable landmarks such as Golan Heights and Sinai Peninsula.

Answer: (b) Middle East; Difficulty Level: Easy

Convertibility of rupee implies

  1. being able to convert rupee notes into gold
  2. allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces
  3. freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa
  4. developing an international market for currencies in India

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Convertibility of currency means when currency of a country can be freely converted into foreign exchange at market determined rate of exchange that is, exchange rate as determined by demand for and supply of a currency. For example, convertibility of rupee means that those who have foreign exchange (e.g. US dollars, Pound Sterlings etc.) can get them converted into rupees and vice-versa at the market determined rate of exchange.
  • Rupee is both convertible on capital account and current account.
  • Current account: It means all exports and imports of merchandise and invisible (like services etc).
  • Capital account: By capital account convertibility we mean that in respect of capital flows (that is, flows of portfolio capital, direct investment flows, flows of borrowed funds and dividends and interest payable on them) a currency is freely convertible into foreign exchange and vice-versa at market determined exchange rate.
  • As of 2024, the Indian rupee is current account convertible but not capital account convertible.
Answer: (c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following Pairs:

Medieval Indian State Present Region
1) Champaka Central India
2) Durgara Jammu
3) Kuluta Malabar
Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Only pair 2 is correct
  • Pair 1 is incorrect as Champaka (Chamba) was a medieval state in the Western Himalayas, corresponding to present-day Himachal Pradesh, not Central India. Pair 2 is correct since Durgara refers to the Jammu region, associated with the origins of the Dogra people. Pair 3 is incorrect because Kuluta was located in the Kullu Valley of Himachal Pradesh, whereas Malabar denotes the southwestern coastal region of present-day Kerala. Therefore, only pair 2 is correctly matched.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following rivers:

  1. Vamsadhara
  2. Indravati
  3. Pranahita
  4. Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Indravati and Pranhita are tributaries of Godavari
  • The Godavari basin extends over Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha, in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, and Puducherry.
  • The Godavari basin is the second-largest basin in India.
  • Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. It is the largest peninsular Indian river that drains into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river divides into two main streams, the Gautami Godavari on the east and the Vashishta Godavari on the west and forms a large delta before it pours into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The delta of the Godavari is of the lobate type with a round bulge and many distributaries.
  • Important cities: Nashik, Paithan, Nizamabad, Rajahmundry, etc.,
  • Right bank tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, and Maner.
  • Left bank tributaries: Purna, Pranhita, Indravathi, and Sabari
  • Indravati River: It flows through the states of Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh in India. It originates in the Eastern Ghats in the Kalahandi district of Odisha and flows for a distance of 535 kilometres before joining the Godavari River at Bhadrachalam in Telangana.
  • Pranhita: It flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh in India. It joins the Godavari River at Khammam in Telangana.

Map of Godavari River Basin showing river network, reservoirs, dams, and irrigation projects across Maharashtra, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Key features include Pench Dam, Polavaram Irrigation Project, Godavari Barrage, and multiple reservoirs like Bhimgarh, Singur, and Maner, with a color-coded terrain and labeled water bodies.

Vamsadhara is incorrect
  • Vamsadhara River flows through the states of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It originates in the Eastern Ghats in the Kalahandi district of Odisha and drains into the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam in Andhra Pradesh.
Pennar is incorrect
  • The Pennar River is a river that flows through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh in India. It originates in the Nandi Hills in the Chikkaballapur district of Karnataka. It empties into the Bay of Bengal at Nellore in Andhra Pradesh.

Map showing Penner River Basin across Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka, highlighting major rivers Penner, Chitravati, Papagni, and Cheyyeru in blue. Key locations such as Somasila Reservoir, Dharmavaram, Anantapur, Kadapa, Nellore, and Hindupur are labeled, with a small inset map indicating basin's location in India near Bay of Bengal.

Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

  1. a simple majority of members present and voting
  2. three-fourths majority of members present and voting
  3. two-thirds majority of the Houses
  4. absolute majority of the Houses

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is provided under Article 108 of the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. In such a sitting, the bill is passed by a simple majority of members present and voting, not by any special majority. Since members of both Houses sit and vote together, the decision is based on the majority of those present and voting at that time.
  • The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
Answer: (a) a simple majority of members present and voting; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

  1. North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
  2. South-West Bengal
  3. Southern Saurashtra
  4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands exhibit diversity in forest types due to their unique climatic and geographical conditions.
  • North Andamans: Dominated by wet evergreen forests with an abundance of woody climbers.
  • Middle Andamans: Primarily features moist deciduous forests.
  • South Andamans: Known for epiphytic vegetation such as ferns and orchids, along with a mix of other forest types.
  • Nicobar Islands: Central and southern Nicobars are rich in evergreen forests, while the northern Nicobars lack evergreen forests. Grasslands and brackish water mixed forests are found exclusively in the Nicobar group.
Answer: (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

  1. Avanti
  2. Gandhara
  3. Kosala
  4. Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Kingdoms Kosala and Magadha are associated with the life of buddha
  • Buddha was born in 563 BCE in Lumbini. His father, King Śuddhodana, was the leader of the Shakya clan, which was part of the Kosala kingdom.
    • Pasenadi (also known as Prasenajit) was an immensely popular ruler of Kosala, and a contemporary of the Buddha.
    • Kosala today can be identified with the areas of Lucknow, Gonda, Faizabad, and Baharaich of Uttar Pradesh
  • Magadha was a significant kingdom in the Buddha’s time. The Buddha attained enlightenment in Bodh Gaya (Magadha) and delivered many sermons in this region, including Rajgir.

Some important Buddhist sites:

  • Sarnath (near Varanasi): Buddha is believed to have delivered his first sermon after he attained enlightenment under a Bodhi tree in Bodh Gaya. His first teachings is known as Dharmachakrapravartana Sutra.
  • Rajgir: It was the capital of Magadh Kingdom. It was here that Gautama Buddha spent several months meditating, and preaching at Gridhra-kuta, (Vulture peak). He initiated king Bimbisara of Magadha and countless others to Buddhism. It was here that Budhha delivered his famous Atanatiya Sutra.
  • Sravasti: It was the capital of Kosala kingdom. The Buddha passed the greater part of his monastic life in Sravasti.
  • Vaishali: It is said that the Buddha visited this place thrice and spent quite a long time here. The Buddha announced his Nirvana here.
  • Kushinagar: It is one of the four sacred places of Lord Buddha. Buddha delivered his last sermon, attained Mahaparinirvana (salvation) in 483 BC and was cremated at Rambhar Stupa.
Avanti and Gandhara are not associated with life of buddha
  • Though Avanti was a contemporaneous kingdom, it was not directly associated with significant events in the Buddha’s life. Gandhara, located in present-day Pakistan and Afghanistan, was culturally important in later Buddhist history (especially during the spread of Mahayana Buddhism) but was not associated with Buddha’s life directly.
Answer: (d) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?

  1. Bretton Woods Conference
  2. Montreal Protocol
  3. Kyoto Protocol
  4. Nagoya Protocol

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Montreal Protocol, under the Vienna Convention, was agreed upon in 1987.
  • It facilitates global cooperation in reversing the rapid decline in atmospheric concentrations of stratospheric ozone (good ozone).
  • Under the protocol, countries agreed to phase out the production and consumption of certain chemicals that deplete ozone. Phase out of these substances is required by specific deadlines.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Bretton Woods Conference established the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
Option (c) is incorrect
  • The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in 1997 and came into force in 2005.
  • It is the only global treaty with binding limits on GHG emissions. There are currently 192 Parties to the Kyoto Protocol.
  • India ratified it in 2002.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Nagoya Protocol is about “Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization”, one of the three objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
Answer: (b) Montreal Protocol; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following: The arrival of Babur into India led to the

  1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
  2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s architecture
  3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Although gunpowder was used earlier too in India, it is Babur who popularised its use. The new war tactics introduced by Babur were the tulughma and the araba (First Battle of Panipat (1526).
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The arch and dome were introduced much earlier in Indian architecture during the Delhi Sultanate period (12th-13th century).
Statement 3 is correct
  • Babur established the Timurid (Mughal) dynasty in India after his victory at Panipat. He was the descendant of Timur, the Turk (father’s side), and Genghis Khan (mother’s side).
Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

  1. Human Rights Commission
  2. Finance Commission
  3. Law Commission
  4. Planning Commission

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • It replaced the Planning Commission in January 2015.

Infographic diagram outlines NITI Aayog's structure, objectives, and key initiatives, highlighting its role as a policy think tank established in 2015 to replace Planning Commission. It features composition details with icons for roles like Chairperson and CEO, seven pillars such as Pro-People and Transparency, objectives focused on cooperative federalism and strategic policy design, and a numbered list of nine initiatives including Digital India and Atal Innovation Mission.

Answer: (d) Planning Commission; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

  1. It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
  2. It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
  3. It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
  4. It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Rio+20, or Earth Summit 2012, was a 20-year follow-up to the Earth Summit 1992 and a 10-year follow-up to the Earth Summit 2002. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at Rio+20. Since 2015, the SDGs have been included in the Agenda 2030.
  • Earth Summit 1992 (Rio de Janeiro): UN Conference on Environment and Development
  • Earth Summit 2002 (Rio+10) (Johannesburg): World Summit on Sustainable Development
  • Earth Summit 2012 (Rio+20) (Rio de Janeiro): UN Conference on Sustainable Development
Answer: (a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
  2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Executive power of the Union is vested in the President, and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary, who is also the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of

  1. the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth
  2. region inside the Earth where shale gas is available
  3. search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
  4. search for meteorites containing precious metals

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Goldilocks Zone, also known as the habitable zone, refers to the region around a star where the conditions are just right (“not too hot, not too cold“) for liquid water to exist on a planet’s surface.
  • This is a key criterion for the potential habitability of a planet and the possibility of supporting life as we know it. This concept is critical in the search for Earth-like planets, as those in the Goldilocks Zone are prime candidates for further exploration in the quest for extraterrestrial life.

Diagram illustrating the Goldilocks Zone concept, showing a blue ring labeled as the habitable zone around a yellow sun. The ring is divided into areas marked "Too Hot" and "Too Cold," with a "Just Right" label indicating the optimal zone for habitability.

Answer: (c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who of the following organised a March on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

  1. V. O. Chidambaram Pillai
  2. C. Rajagopalachari
  3. K. Kamaraj
  4. Annie Besant

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • In April 1930, C. Rajagopalachari started a march from Trichinopoly (Tiruchirappalli) to Vedaranyam on the Tanjore coast to break the salt law.

A map of India titled "Parallel Salt Marches and Civil Disobedience" highlights key locations and leaders involved in the Salt March and related civil disobedience movements, marked with portraits and labels. Notable sites include Dharasana, Sholapur, North Malabar, Orissa, North Eastern India, and North-West Frontier Province, with leaders such as Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, Sarojini Naidu, and Rani Gaidinliu indicated.

  • C. Rajagopalachari was an ardent Gandhian and a freedom fighter from Madras. He was influenced by the Lokmanya Tilak and accepted Tilak as his mentor.
  • During the non-cooperation, Rajaji gave up his legal practice.
  • In 1929, Rajaji became the secretary of the All-India Prohibition Sangh.
  • Rajagopalachari’s perspective on most of the national issues was his own. He had his own views on the Quit India Movement and did not participate.
  • In 1947, when the term of Lord Mountbatten, the first Governor-General of Independent India, ended, Rajagopalachari was chosen to take his place. With this, he became the first Indian GovernorGeneral and last Governor-General of India. He continued until India became a Republic in January 1950.
  • After the death of Sardar Patel in December 1950, Rajaji was appointed the Home Minister. He piloted the Preventive Detention Act in Parliament, which invited critical comments from the opposition.
  • Rajaji was the second Chief Minister of Madras state from 1952 to 1954.
  • Rajaji was among the first recipients of the Bharat Ratna in 1954.
  • In August 1959, the Nagpur resolution of the Congress called for land ceilings, take-over of food grain trade by the state and adoption of cooperative farming.
  • In response, in 1959, Rajaji formed the Swatantra Party. It was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed cooperative farming and state trading.
  • The party was critical of the development strategy of state intervention in the economy, centralised planning, nationalisation and the public sector. Instead, it favoured the expansion of a free private sector.
Answer: (b) C. Rajagopalachari; Difficulty Level: Medium

Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?

  1. Amoghavarsha I
  2. Ballala II
  3. Harihara I
  4. Prataparudra II

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Harihara I, along with his brother Bukka, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336 CE. He established a new city on the south bank of the Tungabhadra River (a tributary of the Krishna River) and named it Vijayanagara.
  • The decline of the Hoysala kingdom enabled Harihara and Bukka to expand their newly founded kingdom. By c. 1346 CE, they brought the whole of the Hoysala kingdom under their control. Bukka succeeded his brother in c.1356 and ruled till 1377 CE. During his reign, the Sultanate of Madurai was eliminated.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Amoghavarsha I (c.814−878 CE) was one of the most famous of the Rashtrakutas, who built a new capital city, that of Manyakheta (modern Malkhed). He was a patron of literature and was an accomplished scholar in Kannada and Sanskrit himself.
  • He wrote the Kavirajamarga – the earliest Kannada work on poetics and the Prashnottara Ratnamalika in Sanskrit, which is considered as a writing of high merit and was later translated into the Tibetan language. Because of his religious temperament, his interest in the arts and literature and his peace-loving nature, he is often compared to emperor Ashoka and called “Ashoka of the South”, and is also compared to Gupta king Vikramaditya in giving patronage to men of letters.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • The Hoysalas ruled over parts of the present Karnataka and most of the Tamil region. The first independent ruler of the kingdom was Ballala II (1173-1220).
  • He caused the demise of the Kalyani Chalukya dynasty. His period also saw prolific literary activity in Kannada. He patronised Ranna and Rudrabhatta. The Kedareshwara temple at Halebidu and Amritheswara temple in Chikmagalur were some important temples built by him.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Prataparudra II, also known as Rudradeva II, was the last significant ruler of the Kakatiya dynasty of southern India. He ruled from 1289 CE to 1323 CE and is known for his resistance against the Delhi Sultanate’s invasions.
Answer: (c) Harihara I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
  2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct
Year Session President Highlights
1885 Bombay Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee First session of the Congress
1886 Calcutta

Dadabhai Naoroji

 First Parsi President
1887 Madras

Badruddin Tyabji

First Muslim President
1888 Allahabad

George Yule

 First non-Indian (foreigner) to be the President of INC
1917 Calcutta

Annie Besant

 First Woman president of Congress.
1925 Cawnpore (Kanpur)

Mrs. Sarojini Na idu

 Sarojini Naidu became the second woman (the first Indian woman) to preside over the Congress after Annie Besant
1933 Calcutta (Banned)

Mrs. Nellie Sengupta

 Became the third woman (first British woman) to preside over Congress session.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

  1. It is intended to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
  2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Green Climate Fund (GCF) has been designated as an operating entity of the financial mechanism under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. The decision to establish the fund was taken at COP 16 Cancun, and it was subsequently operationalised at COP 17 Durban. The GCF is headquartered in Songdo Incheon.
  • It functions as a key mechanism to channel financial resources from developed to developing countries, supporting them in both mitigation and adaptation efforts to address climate change. The GCF is also envisaged as the central pillar in mobilising climate finance, with the broader goal of raising $100 billion annually to assist developing nations.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the following?

  1. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
  2. Indian Institute of Science
  3. Indian Space Research Organization
  4. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was presented to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The award is given annually to a person or organisation, without regard to nationality, race, or religion, in recognition of creative efforts to expand the scope of freedom and enrich the human spirit. It consists of an award of Rs. 2.5 million and a trophy with a citation. It has been conferred every year since 1986 by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • BARC is a premier nuclear research facility conducting research in atomic energy and related fields. It operates under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
Option (b) is incorrect
  • The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is a premier public research university located in Bengaluru, Karnataka, India.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • TIFR is a National Centre of the Government of India, under the umbrella of the Department of Atomic Energy, as well as a deemed University awarding degrees for master’s and doctoral programs.
Answer: (c) Indian Space Research Organisation; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It recommended a federal government.
  2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
  3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. None

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct
  • In March 1946, the British Cabinet sent a three-member mission, Sir Pethick Lawrence (Chairman), Stafford Cripps, and A. V. Alexander, to negotiate with Indian leaders to transfer power to the Indians.
  • The Cabinet Mission and the Viceroy, Lord Wavell, announced the Cabinet Mission plan (May 16 Plan) on May 16, 1946. It proposed a federal plan expected to maintain national unity while conceding the largest measure of regional autonomy.
  • It proposed a loose three-tier federation:
    • Federal Union at the top tier
    • Groups of provinces as a middle-tier
    • Individual provinces at the bottom tie
  • The Cabinet Mission held that the constitutional structure should be federal.
  • Under the Mission plan, India was to have a weak central government controlling only foreign affairs, defence, and communications, leaving all other subjects to the existing provincial legislature.
  • The residuary power would also be vested in the provincial legislature.
  • The States (princely states) would retain all subjects and powers other than those ceded to the Union.
  • The Mission did not suggest any changes to the powers of Indian courts, as its primary objective was to design a constitutional framework for the transfer of power rather than to undertake judicial reforms. It did not make any recommendations concerning the Indian Civil Services (ICS) or the enhancement of Indian participation within.

Map of India titled Cabinet Mission Plan showing territorial divisions based on religious majorities in 1941. Areas marked in red indicate Hindu majority (Section A), green areas indicate Muslim majority (Sections B and C), and beige areas represent princely states not specified in the proposal, with current state and international boundaries outlined.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical subtropical, temperate and arctic?

  1. Khangchendzonga National Park
  2. Nanda Devi National Park
  3. Neora Valley National Park
  4. Namdapha National Park

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • It is located between the Dapha bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range. It is crossed by the Noa Dihing River (a tributary of the Brahmaputra River) that originates at Chaukan Pass.
  • It is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot.
  • Vegetation: It encompasses a wide variety of vegetation, including evergreen, moist deciduous, subtropical, temperate, and alpine forests, owing to its diverse altitudes and climatic zones.
  • It is the only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat, namely: Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard and Clouded Leopard.
  • It is famous for the critically endangered Namdapha flying squirrel which is endemic to the park.
  • Major Fauna: Asian wild dog (dhole), Malayan sun bear, Indian wolf, Asiatic black bear, red panda, red fox, Asian golden cat, Indian elephant, wild boar, musk deer, hog deer, sambar, gaur, takin, bharal (blue sheep).
  • Primates: Stump-tailed macaque, slow loris, Western Hoolock gibbon (the only ‘ape’ species found in India), capped langur, Assamese macaque and rhesus macaque.

Map showing northeastern India and parts of Bhutan with national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and tiger reserves labeled, including Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, and Namdapha TR-NP. Key rivers like Brahmaputra and Lohit River are marked in blue, highlighting protected areas and major natural landmarks across Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, and Nagaland regions.

Option (a) is incorrect
  • The park gets its name from the mountain Kangchenjunga, the third-highest peak in the world.
  • It is a BR and a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is the first “Mixed Heritage” site of India. It is also included in the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme.
  • Vegetation: Temperate broadleaf and mixed forests.
  • Major Fauna: Musk deer, snow leopard, Himalayan tahr, Himalayan black bear, red panda, Tibetan wild ass, Himalayan blue sheep, serow, goral, takin.

Map showing protected areas across Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Sikkim, highlighting national parks (NP) in purple labels, wildlife sanctuaries (WLS) in green, and tiger reserves (TR) in orange. Key locations include Sundarbans NP-TR in the southeast, Valmiki NP-TR in the northwest, and Singalila NP in the north, with heatmap markers indicating zones of significant wildlife presence or activity.

Option (b) is incorrect
  • It is India’s second Biosphere Reserve, and it is under UNESCO’s Man & Biosphere Programme. It’s core area is formed by Nanda Devi National Park and Valley of Flowers National Park.
  • The Nanda Devi National Park is situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7816 m). It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Within the National Park lies the Nanda Devi Sanctuary, a glacial basin surrounded by a ring of peaks.
  • Major Flora: Fir, birch, rhododendron and juniper.
  • Major Fauna: Himalayan musk deer, mainland serow, Himalayan tahr, Himalayan black bear.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • It is located on the Himalayas in Kalimpong. It is the land of Red Panda (EN).
  • Vegetation: Himalayan Broadleaf forests.
  • Major Flora: Rhododendron, bamboo, oak, ferns, sal.
  • Major Fauna: Indian leopard, black bear, sloth bear, golden cat, barking dee, Himalayan flying squirrel, thar.
Answer: (d) Namdapha National Park; Difficulty Level: Hard

Amnesty International is

  1. an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars
  2. a global Human Rights Movement
  3. a non-governmental voluntary organisation to help very poor people
  4. an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged regions

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Amnesty International (London based) is a globally recognized non-governmental organization (NGO) focused on protecting and promoting human rights.
  • Established in 1961, it advocates for justice, freedom, and equality worldwide. The organization works to:
    • Campaign against human rights abuses.
    • Advocate for the release of political prisoners and those detained unjustly.
    • Fight against issues like torture, discrimination, and the death penalty.
    • Promote freedom of expression, association, and belief.
  • The organization was awarded the 1977 Nobel Peace Prize for its “defence of human dignity against torture”.
Answer: (b) a global Human Rights Movement; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?

  1. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
  2. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
  3. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
  4. Varaha Image at Udayagiri

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Rock cut Elephant at Dhauli (in Odisha) was made earliest among other three and they were made during the Mauryan phase (272-231 B.C).

Photograph of an ancient stone sculpture carved into a rock, depicting an elephant head with detailed ears and trunk. Surrounded by natural greenery, the sculpture shows weathering and erosion, indicating historical significance and age.

Option (a) is incorrect
  • Built in the 11th century AD, the temple is a prime example of Kalinga School of Temple Architecture.
  • The deity Lingaraj is referred to as “Swayambhu“, meaning self-originated Shivling.
  • Built by King Jajati Keshari of Soma Vansh.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Rockcut monuments at Mahabalipuram were made during 7th century AD by the Pallavas.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Varaha Image at Udayagiri is located in Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh (not to be confused with Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves in Odisha). Created in early 5th century AD under the patronage of Chandragupta II, it is famous for having numerous sculptures on the hill walls.
  • The sculpture of Varaha or Boar incarnation of the Vishnu is notable. The caves have one of the earliest Hindu sculptures.
  • It also has caves dedicated to Shiva, Narasimha (half-lion, halfman), Narayana (resting Vishnu) and Skanda.

A photograph of an ancient rock carving depicting a large, muscular figure with an elephant head, likely representing the Hindu deity Ganesha, surrounded by smaller human and animal figures. The carving features detailed rows of miniature figures above and around the central figure, showcasing intricate craftsmanship and religious symbolism.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/ elements of the feudal system?

  1. A very strong centralised political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority.
  2. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land.
  3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • A feudal system is characterized by a decentralized political structure, where power is fragmented and local lords exercise authority over their regions, often bypassing a weak central authority.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  • Indian Feudalism became prominent from the 7th century onward, with a shift to land grants as a primary means of economic and administrative organization.
  • It created a lord-vassal relationship. Feudal lords (samantas) acknowledged the authority of an overlord (king) and provided military support, tribute, and loyalty in return for land and autonomy.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

  1. Asian Development Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. United Nations Environment Programme
  4. World Bank

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. It seeks to promote reduced GHG emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter landuse planning, policies, etc.
  • It promotes reducing GHG emission from the land sector, including efforts to reduce deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
Answer: (d) World Bank; Difficulty Level: Hard

India is a member of which among the following?

  1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
  2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
  3. East Asia Summit.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. India is a member of none of them

Explanation

1 is incorrect
  • The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.
  • APEC’s 21 members (India is not a member) aim to promote balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative and secure growth and by accelerating regional economic integration.

World map highlighting countries in the Pacific Rim region in dark blue, including the United States, Canada, China, Japan, Australia, and several others. The map visually represents nations bordering the Pacific Ocean, emphasizing their geographic distribution across North America, Asia, and Oceania.

Image Source:Dfat.gov

2 is incorrect
  • India is not a member of ASEAN.

Infographic detailing ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) with member countries, core aims, key agreements, challenges, and institutional mechanisms. Features a color-coded map highlighting 10 member states, timeline of formation, and key organizational bodies such as ASEAN Charter, Summit, Coordinating Council, Regional Forum, Secretariat, and Decision Making process.

3 is correct
  • India is a member of the East Asia Summit, which is a regional forum for strategic dialogue and cooperation on political, economic, and security issues in East Asia.
Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

  1. saltpetre
  2. rock phosphate
  3. coking coal
  4. All of the above

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • India’s competitive advantage in steel production is driven, to a large extent, from the indigenous availability of high grade iron ore and non-coking coal – the two critical inputs of steel production.
  • However, the Indian steel sector is disadvantaged due to limited availability of some of the essential raw material such as high grade lumpy Manganese ore & Chromite, coking coal, steel grade limestone, refractory raw material, Nickel, Ferrous Scrap etc. Due to shortage of domestic coking coal, both in terms of quantity and quality, pig iron producers/ BF operators in India have to significantly depend on import of coking coal.
Answer: (c) coking coal; Difficulty Level: Easy

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

  1. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
  2. determine the boundaries between States
  3. determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
  4. protect the interests of all the border States

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Constitution of India provides special provisions under the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule to safeguard the interests of Scheduled Tribes.
  • The provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution includes provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram in northeast India. It establishes autonomous councils that have legislative, judicial, executive and financial powers to independently govern these areas.

    Infographic explaining Sixth Schedule's application to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura, highlighting protection of indigenous culture and tribal interests through autonomous districts and councils. Key elements include a map showing ten tribal areas across four states, roles of Autonomous District Councils with member counts, and powers granted such as lawmaking, managing schools, dispensaries, roads, and tax collection.

Answer: (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
  2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
  3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Union Budget is prepared by the Budget Division under the Department of Economic Affairs, which operates under the Union Ministry of Finance.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Constitution of India provides for the following three kinds of funds for the Central government:
    • Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266)
    • Public Account of India (Article 266)
    • Contingency Fund of India (Article 267)
  • Consolidated Fund of India:
    • It is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited. In other words, (a) all revenues received by the Government of India; (b) all loans raised by the Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means of advances; and (c) all money received by the government in repayment of loans forms the Consolidated Fund of India.
    • All the legally authorised payments on behalf of the Government of India are made out of this fund.
    • No money out of this fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except in accordance with a parliamentary law.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Public Account of India:
    • All other public money (other than those which are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India) received by or on behalf of the Government of India shall be credited to the Public Account of India.
    • This includes provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so on.
    • This account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can by made without parliamentary appropriation.
    • Such payments are mostly in the nature of banking transactions.
  • Contingency Fund of India:
    • The Constitution authorised the Parliament to establish a ‘Contingency Fund of India’, into which amounts determined by law are paid from time to time.
    • Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the contingency fund of India Act in 1950. This fund is placed at the disposal of the president, and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorisation by the Parliament.
    • The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the president. Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action.
Answer: (c) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

  1. The President of India
  2. The Prime Minister of India
  3. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
  4. The Supreme Court of India

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the custodian of the Constitution. It is responsible for upholding and interpreting the Constitution, ensuring that laws and actions conform to constitutional principles. This is reflected in its power of judicial review, which allows it to strike down laws or executive actions that violate constitutional provisions.
  • Article 32 of the Constitution guarantees the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies,’ enabling citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the rights provided in Part III of the Constitution.
Answer: (d) The Supreme Court of India; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
  2. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Program (AIBP) was launched by Government of India during 1996-97 to provide financial assistance to State Governments with the aim of speeding up the implementation of on-going irrigation projects. Further, during the year 2015-16, Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) was launched, and Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) was coopted in it
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Command Area Development & Water Management (CADWM) Program was started as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in the year 1974-75 with the objective to bridge the gap between irrigation potential created and utilized. The main objective of taking up CAD works is to enhance utilization of irrigation potential created, and improve agriculture production on a sustainable basis through Participatory Irrigation Management (PIM).
  • The Program has been brought under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna (PMKSY) from 2015-16 onwards.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

  1. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
  2. Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
  3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  4. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
  • It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It is the apex body that allows for the commercial release of GM crops, including field trials.
  • It evaluates activities that use hazardous microorganisms and recombinants on a large scale, focusing on their environmental impact.
  • It is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEFCC and co-chaired by a Department of Biotechnology (DBT) representative.
Answer: (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/ are not a participant/participants?

  1. Bangladesh
  2. Cambodia
  3. China
  4. Myanmar
  5. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 5

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications. It was launched in November 2000 in Vientiane, Lao PDR with the signing of the Vientiane Declaration. The grouping was initially called Ganga Suvarnabhumi Programme (GMSP).
  • The four foundational areas of cooperation under MGC include tourism, culture, education, and transport & communication. It has further expanded to include new areas like health and traditional medicine, agriculture and allied sectors, small and medium enterprises, water resources management, science and technology, skill development, and capacity building.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to

  1. develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
  2. improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
  3. reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
  4. transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Basel III Accord is an international regulatory framework developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. It aims to strengthen the regulation, supervision, and risk management of the banking sector.
  • Basel III was introduced to address the weaknesses in financial regulation exposed during the global financial crisis of 2007-2008. It focuses on improving the banking sector’s ability to withstand financial and economic stress, enhance risk management, and ensure that banks maintain sufficient capital buffers to cover potential losses.

Additional Information

  • Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) was formed by the central bank Governors of G10 countries in late 1974. It comprises 45 institutions, including central banks and bank supervisors (with the RBI as a member).
  • It aims to strengthen financial stability by enhancing the quality of global banking supervision.
  • The committee’s decisions are non-binding and lack legal enforceability.
Answer: (b) improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes through-out the year are known as westerlies.
  2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Westerlies are prevailing winds that occur between 30° and 60° latitudes in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. These winds blow from the subtropical high-pressure belts toward the subpolar low-pressure belts, moving from southwest to northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and from northwest to southeast in the Southern Hemisphere. The westerlies are associated with frequent weather changes and often bring wet spells.
  • They are most strongly developed between 40° and 65° south latitudes, where they blow with great intensity over vast stretches of open ocean. These latitudes are famously known as the “Roaring Forties,” “Furious Fifties,” and “Shrieking Sixties,” terms historically used by sailors to describe the strong winds and rough seas. The poleward boundary of the westerlies is highly variable. The westerlies in the Southern Hemisphere are stronger and more persistent due to the large expanse of oceans, whereas in the Northern Hemisphere they are comparatively irregular because of the uneven relief and extensive landmasses.

Diagram of Earth's general atmospheric circulation showing three main cells per hemisphere: Polar, Ferrel, and Hadley cells. Arrows indicate wind patterns including westerlies, trade winds, and jet streams, with labeled pressure belts and key latitudinal markers at 30° and 60°.

Statement 2 is correct
  • Western Disturbance refers to an extratropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that impacts India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Nepal. It brings unexpected winter rain and snowfall to the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent. This precipitation pattern, distinct from the monsoons, is driven by the Westerly winds.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IORARC)’, consider the following statements:

  1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
  2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect
  • The Indian Ocean Rim Association was established in 1997 as an intergovernmental organisation of States on the rim of the Indian Ocean.
  • Its apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers, which meets annually.
  • The secretariat is in Ebène Mauritius and is overseen by a secretary-general appointed for three years.
  • A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics to implement policies and projects to improve people’s lives within the Indian Ocean Member States.
  • Troika: TROIKA is an institutional mechanism consisting of the current Chair, Vice-Chair, which is the future chair, and past Chair of the IORA.
  • The Association’s membership has expanded to 23 member states and 11 dialogue partners.
  • The IORA has six critical areas of focus:
    • Maritime security
    • Trade and investment facilitation
    • Fisheries management
    • Disaster risk reduction
    • Academic and scientific cooperation
    • Tourism promotion and cultural exchanges
  • IORA has identified Blue Economy and Women’s Economic Empowerment as two areas of interest.
  • The member countries are from various regions:
    • Asia: India, Bangladesh, Indonesia, Iran, Malaysia, Maldives, Oman, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, United Arab Emirates and Yemen
    • Africa: Kenya, Madagascar, Mozambique, Somalia, South Africa, Tanzania, Comoros, Mauritius, Seychelles
    • Oceania: Australia
    • Europe: France

    A colorful infographic map illustrates Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) member states around the Indian Ocean, highlighting key countries with flags and marking Secretariat in Mauritius. It explains IORA's structure, including Council of Foreign Ministers, Chair and Vice Chair roles for 2023-2025 and 2025-2027, and promotes Indian Ocean Dialogue as a platform for strategic cooperation among member states.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?

  1. Swadeshi Movement
  2. Quit India Movement
  3. Non-Cooperation Movement
  4. Civil Disobedience Movement

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Swadeshi Movement, launched to oppose the Partition of Bengal, played a key role in splitting the Indian National Congress into Moderates and Extremists. The Extremists, led by leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Aurobindo Ghosh, wanted to expand the Swadeshi and boycott movements beyond Bengal and extend the boycott to all forms of association with the colonial government. On the other hand, Moderates, led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Dadabhai Naoroji, preferred to confine the movements to Bengal and limit the boycott to foreign goods. The ideological differences culminated in a leadership tussle and tensions escalated, leading to the formal split at the Surat Session of 1907.
Answer: (a) Swadeshi Movement; Difficulty Level: Easy

In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in

  1. Meghalaya
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Meghalaya is known for its dense forests and living root bridges (Locally known as Jingkieng Jri) that are believed to be built by the tribes of Khasi (a tribe living in the eastern parts of Meghalaya). The structure of the bridge is entirely made from tree branches, trunks, and roots. The process begins with placing young pliable aerial roots Ficus Elastica trees in hollowed-out trunks of the Areca Catechu tree (type of palm tree).
  • These trunks provide essential nutrition and protection from the weather to the young roots and also serve as a root guidance system. This is supported by a bamboo framework along with the entire structure. Over time (15 to 30 years), the root structure becomes strong enough to support substantial weight without the bamboo framework. Unlike the concrete bridges, Living Root bridges become stronger and more resistant with time and use.

Meghalaya is known for its dense forests and living root bridges (Locally known as Jingkieng Jri) that are believed to be built by the tribes of Khasi (a tribe living in the eastern parts of Meghalaya).

Answer: (a) Meghalaya; Difficulty Level: Medium

Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?

  1. Gravitational force of the Sun
  2. Gravitational force of the Moon
  3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All Options are correct
  • Tides in oceans and seas are caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun, along with the centrifugal force produced by the Earth–Moon system. The Moon’s gravitational pull is the primary factor responsible for tides due to its proximity to Earth, while the Sun’s gravitational force also contributes, leading to spring and neap tides.
  • Additionally, the centrifugal force generated by the rotation of the Earth–Moon system creates a second tidal bulge on the opposite side of the Earth.

Diagram illustrating high tide and low tide caused by gravitational pulls of the sun and moon and centrifugal force. It shows Earth with labeled tidal bulges, arrows indicating gravitational forces, and highlights combined gravitational pull on one side and separate pulls on the other, explaining tidal variations.

Diagram illustrating tidal bulge formation on Earth caused by gravitational forces from the Moon and Sun, along with centrifugal forces due to Earth's rotation. Key elements include labeled arrows showing tidal bulges on opposite sides of Earth, explanations of gravitational pull variations, and a legend highlighting four major forces: Earth's gravity, Moon's gravity, Sun's gravity, and centrifugal force.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?

  1. Assessment of crop productivity
  2. Locating groundwater resources
  3. Mineral exploration
  4. Telecommunications
  5. Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 4 and 5 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites are primarily used for earth observation and play a critical role in various developmental and research activities. Their applications include:
  • Assessment of crop productivity: IRS satellites monitor agricultural areas, providing data on crop health, yield estimates, and acreage.
  • Locating groundwater resources: IRS data is used for identifying potential groundwater zones by analyzing soil and terrain characteristics.
  • Mineral exploration: Remote sensing aids in detecting mineral-rich areas through spectral signatures and terrain mapping.
  • Example: Resourcesat -1, 2, 2A, Cartosat-1, 2, 2A, 2B, RISAT and 2, Oceansat-2, Megha- Tropiques, SARAL and SCATSAT-1.

Infographic detailing Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) Programme, highlighting its establishment in 1988, key features, and major satellite series for earth observation. It includes four satellite series—IRS-1 for foundational phase, Cartosat for mapping, Resourcesat for resource monitoring, and Oceansat for ocean observation—each with sensor types, applications, and notable capabilities, emphasizing IRS’s role in indigenous, high-revisit earth observation.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following States:

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Tropical Wet Evergreen forests are primarily found in the following regions of India:
    • Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    • Western Ghats (along the western coast of India)
    • North-eastern states (including Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh)
  • Climatic Conditions:
    • Annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm.
    • The annual temperature is about 25-27 °C.
    • The dry season is distinctly short.
  • Characteristics:
    • Evergreen Trees: Due to high heat and high humidity, the trees of these forests do not shed their leaves together.
    • Vegetation is mesophytic: Plants are adapted to neither too dry nor too wet type climate or soil.
    • Lofty: The trees often reach 45-60 metres in height.
    • Thick Canopy: From the air, the tropical rainforest appears like a thick canopy of foliage. All plants struggle upwards for sunlight, resulting in a peculiar layer arrangement.
    • Less undergrowth: The sunlight cannot reach the ground due to thick canopy. The undergrowth is formed mainly of bamboo, ferns, climbers, orchids, etc.
    • The timber of these forests is fine-grained, hard, and durable but is hard to exploit. The important species of these forests are mahogany, mesua, white cedar, jamun, canes, bamboo, etc.
  • Himachal Pradesh is situated in the northern Himalayan region of India. Owing to its high altitude, the state experiences a temperate to alpine climate, which is not suitable for the growth of Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests.

Vegetation map of India showing various vegetation types with distinct color-coded regions and corresponding labels, such as Tropical Dry Deciduous in red and Montane Wet Temperate in purple. The map highlights climatic zones like Cold Desert and Hot Desert, illustrating distribution patterns of vegetation across different geographic areas.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of

  1. an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defense
  2. India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of Indian Ocean Rim
  3. a scientific establishment set up by India in Antarctic region
  4. India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • IndARC is an underwater moored observatory deployed by India in the Arctic region. It was deployed in 2014 at Kongsfjorden fjord, Svalbard, Norway which is midway between Norway and North Pole.

Additional Information

  • India’s Arctic Policy: Launched by the Ministry of Earth Science in 2022.
  • 6 pillars of India’s Arctic Policy:
    • Science and Research,
    • Climate and Environmental Protection,
    • Economic and Human development,
    • Transportation and Connectivity,
    • Governance and International Cooperation,
    • National Capacity Building.
  • India’s interests in the Arctic region are scientific, environmental, commercial as well as strategic.
  • Nodal agency for the Indian Arctic & Antarctic Programmes: National Centre for Policy and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Timeline chart illustrating key milestones in India's Arctic research from 1920 to 2016. It features five labeled points with dates and brief descriptions, highlighting events like signing the Svalbard Treaty in 1920, first scientific expedition in 2007, establishment of Himadri Research Base in 2008, deployment of IndArc observatory in 2014, and setup of Gruvebadet Laboratory in 2016.
Answer: (d) India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

  1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
  2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
  3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from activities commonly referred to as REDD+.
  • The World Bank assumes the functions of trustee and secretariat. The World Bank, the Inter-American Development Bank and UNDP are delivery partners under the Readiness Fund and are responsible for providing REDD+ readiness support.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • FCPF is designed to support developing countries in implementing REDD initiatives, rather than funding individual scientific research projects.
Statement 3 is correct
  • Objectives:
    • To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
    • To pilot a performance-based payment system for REDD+.
    • To test ways to sustain or enhance the livelihoods of local communities and to conserve biodiversity.
    • To disseminate broadly the knowledge gained in Emission Reductions Programs (ERPs).
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?

  1. Odia
  2. Konkani
  3. Bhojpuri
  4. Assamese

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • At the time this question was asked, Odia was the most recent language to be granted Classical status, having been notified in February 2014. It became the sixth language to receive this recognition.

Infographic explaining classical languages in India, featuring a colorful map highlighting regions with classical languages and a timeline of languages recognized from 2004 to 2024. It includes criteria for declaring a language classical, benefits from the Ministry of Education, and images of cultural symbols and texts associated with each language.

Answer: (a) Odia; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to an organisation known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
  2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
  3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct
  • BirdLife International (BI) is the world’s largest nature conservation partnership comprising 120 national nature conservation organizations worldwide. BI strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources.
  • It is the official Red List authority for birds for the IUCN. It identifies the sites known as Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs), which hold significant numbers of one or more

    threatened bird species or have exceptionally large numbers of migratory birds.

  • There are 13,000+ IBAs worldwide. The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS is BirdLife International partner from India) and BI have identified 554 IBAs in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • BirdLife International has nothing to do with the concept of “biodiversity hotspots”. Biodiversity hotspots, as defined by British biologist Norman Myers, are biogeographic regions characterised by high species richness, a high degree of endemism, and sometimes severe levels of habitat loss.
  • Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots, and in 1996, it undertook a reassessment of the hotspots concept.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

  1. Syria
  2. Jordan
  3. Lebanon
  4. Israel

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Jordan has no access to the Mediterranean Sea.

Map showing Middle East region highlighting countries including Turkey, Syria, Iraq, Jordan, and Egypt with major cities like Baghdad, Damascus, and Cairo labeled. Key water bodies such as Levantine Sea, Dead Sea, Sea of Galilee, and rivers Euphrates and Tigris are marked, with Jordan outlined in red to emphasize its location.

Answer: (b) Jordan; Difficulty Level: Medium

In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?

  1. Tropical moist deciduous forest
  2. Tropical rainforest
  3. Tropical thorn scrub forest
  4. Temperate forest with grasslands

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Teak thrives in warm and humid climates with distinct wet and dry seasons. Tropical moist deciduous forests receive heavy rainfall during the monsoon season, followed by a distinct dry season. This seasonal variation aligns perfectly with the growth requirements of teak
Answer: (a) Tropical moist deciduous forest; Difficulty Level: Medium

‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’, often seen in the news, is

  1. a strategy to tackle, the regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
  2. a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of the deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum
  3. an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations
  4. a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action was adopted at the Fourth World Conference on Women held in Beijing in 1995, organized by the United Nations. It serves as a comprehensive global agenda for women’s empowerment, focusing on areas such as gender equality, women’s rights, education, health, and participation in decision-making.
Answer: (c) an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations; Difficulty Level: Hard

“Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain is soon over.”

Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
  1. Savannah
  2. Equatorial
  3. Monsoon
  4. Mediterranean

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The passage describes the typical climatic conditions of the equatorial region.
  • Temperature:
    • Temperature is uniform throughout the year.
    • The mean monthly temperatures are always around 27° C with very little variation.

There is no winter. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The growth rate of Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has fluctuated significantly over the decade from 2004 to 2014, with a notable decline in 2008-09 due to the global financial crisis.
Statement 2 is correct
  • GDP at market prices, measured in nominal terms, has steadily increased over the 2004-2014 due to inflation, population growth, and overall economic expansion, even during periods of slower real GDP growth
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
  2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Chairman is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

  1. Preamble of the Constitution
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Fundamental Duties

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The phrase “to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India” is specifically included in the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A(c) of the Indian Constitution. These duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, and are meant to promote a sense of responsibility among citizens toward the nation.
Answer: (d) Fundamental Duties; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?

  1. A community of organisms interacting with one another
  2. That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
  3. A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
  4. The flora and fauna of a geographical area

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • A community of organisms interacting with one another → Ecological community.
  • Earth inhabited by living organisms → Biosphere.
  • A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live → Ecosystem.
  • The flora and fauna of a geographical area → Biodiversity.
Answer: (c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live; Difficulty Level: Easy

The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

  1. People’s participation in development
  2. Political accountability
  3. Democratic decentralization
  4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Opitons 1 and 3 are correct
  • The Panchayati Raj system in India was established to promote grassroots democracy and ensure effective local governance.
  • People’s participation in development: The Panchayati Raj system allows people to actively participate in decision-making and planning for their socio-economic development
  • Democratic decentralization: It ensures the devolution of power from central and state governments to local bodies, enabling local self-governance.
  • While political accountability is an essential feature of democratic governance, it is not the primary object of the Panchayati Raj system. Similarly, financial mobilization (raising funds) is a secondary function and not a fundamental objective.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Indian economy, consider the following:

  1. Bank rate
  2. Open market operations
  3. Public debt
  4. Public revenue
Which of the above is/are a component/components of Monetary Policy?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Components 1 and 2 are correct
  • Monetary policy refers to the measures taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate the supply of money, availability of credit, and interest rates in the economy.
  • Its main tools include:
  • Bank rate: This is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks. Adjusting the bank rate helps control credit flow in the economy.
  • Open market operations: These involve the buying and selling of government securities by the RBI to regulate liquidity in the economy.
Components 3 and 4 are incorrect
  • Public debt: This refers to the borrowing by the government, which falls under fiscal policy, not monetary policy.
  • Public revenue: This involves tax collection and other income sources for the government, which are also part of fiscal policy.
Answer: (c) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
  2. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
  3. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
  4. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation

Explanation

Statement (c) is correct
  • Reducing the money supply in the economy curtails the purchasing power of individuals and businesses, thereby helping to control demand-driven inflation. This can be achieved through measures such as raising the bank rate, conducting open market operations by selling government securities, or increasing the cash reserve ratio (CRR).
Answer: (c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following countries:

  1. China
  2. France
  3. India
  4. Israel
  5. Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
  3. 2, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

China and France are correct
  • The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty formally recognizes five Nuclear Weapon States (NWS), defined as those countries that had developed and tested nuclear weapons before 1 January 1967. These states also coincide with the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council. The recognized NWS are the United States, Russia (formerly the Soviet Union), the United Kingdom, France, and China.
  • Although India, Israel, and Pakistan possess nuclear weapons, they are not recognised as NWS under the treaty framework and are regarded as de facto nuclear-armed states outside the NPT.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Seventh Schedule

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India.
  • However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Yet, the Constitution itself declares that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’.
  • Hence, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application.
  • For example:
    • To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice–social, economic and politi-cal–and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
    • To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
    • To secure a living wage , a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
    • To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47)
Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of

  1. labor-augmenting technological progress
  2. capital-augmenting technological progress
  3. capital-reducing technological progress
  4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Capital-augmenting technological progress improves the efficiency of capital goods, such as machinery, by enhancing their productivity—for instance, replacing wooden ploughs with steel ones. In contrast, labour-augmenting progress boosts worker productivity, increasing output without necessarily increasing the quantity of capital goods used.
Answer: (b) capital-augmenting technological progress; Difficulty Level: Easy

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

  1. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
  2. Parliament can amend the Constitution
  3. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
  4. Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The parliamentary government is also known as ‘responsible government’ as the cabinet (the real executive) is accountable to the Lok Sabha and stays in office so long as it enjoys the latter’s confidence.
Answer: (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha; Difficulty Level: Easy

H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?

  1. AIDS
  2. Bird flu
  3. Dengue
  4. Swine flu

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Swine flu (H1N1) is a type of influenza infection caused by the H1N1 virus. It is termed “swine flu” because the virus is similar to influenza viruses that commonly affect pigs, where it causes a respiratory (lung) disease. In humans, this virus also leads to a respiratory infection, affecting the lungs and causing flu-like symptoms.
Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
  • The H1N1 virus is not associated with AIDS, which is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). It is also distinct from bird flu, which is caused by avian influenza viruses like H5N1. Additionally, H1N1 is unrelated to dengue, a Vector-Borne Disease (VBD) caused by the dengue virus.
Answer: (d) Swine flu; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:

  1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by fungal inoculums.
  2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect
  • Anaerobic bacteria carry out the decomposition of human waste in bio-toilets.
  • The decomposition process produces gases like methane and carbon dioxide, along with water. The treated effluent (liquid) is discharged after disinfection. Hence, ammonia and water vapour are not the only end products.

Diagram illustrating bio-toilets and anaerobic biodegradation process, showing conversion of human waste into water, gases, and methane. Key components include bio-toilet, bio-tank with bacteria sheets, methane gas outlet, and water outlet, alongside a flowchart detailing breakdown of organic materials through hydrolysis, acidogenesis, acetogenesis, and methanogenesis stages.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
  1. goods and services
  2. gold and silver
  3. dollars and other hard currencies
  4. exportable surplus

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The problem of international liquidity is associated with the problem of international payments.
  • It refers to the difficulty countries face in obtaining the necessary foreign exchange (like dollars and other hard currencies) to finance imports, settle debts, or stabilize their currencies in the global economy.
  • International liquidity is essential for maintaining smooth trade and financial transactions across borders.
Answer: (c) dollars and other hard currencies; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements:

  1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
  2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
  3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct
  • A fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy. It uses hydrogen and oxygen gas as fuel to generate electricity. However, there is no combustion involved.
  • Fuel cells can vary from tiny devices producing only a few watts of electricity, right up to large power plants producing megawatts.
  • Fuel Cell working mechanism:
    • A fuel cell consists of a cathode, an anode, and an electrolyte.
    • The electrolyte enables the movement of the ions between the electrodes.
    • At the anode, catalyst causes the fuel to undergo oxidation & generates +ve charged ions & electrons.
    • The ions move from the anode to the cathode and the same time, the electrons flow from the anode to the cathode through an external circuit, producing direct current electricity.
    • At the cathode, another catalyst causes ions, electrons, & oxygen to react, forming water as by-product.
    • The reaction rate of this electrochemical reaction is quite low.
    • Catalysts such as platinum or palladium or gold are used to speed up the reaction.

Diagram comparing lithium-ion battery electric vehicles (BEVs) and hydrogen fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) with labeled components such as battery, electric motor, onboard charger for BEVs, and fuel tank, fuel cell stack, and exhaust for FCEVs. Includes detailed illustrations of battery charging and discharging processes, fuel cell chemical reactions, and notes on longest-range models with mileage, highlighting key differences in energy storage and conversion methods.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Kalamkari painting refers to

  1. a hand-painted cotton textile in South India
  2. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
  3. a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India
  4. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Kalamkari is a traditional art form of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textiles originating from Isfahan, Iran, and the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It uses only natural dyes and follows a meticulous 23-step process.
  • In India, Kalamkari art is distinguished by two unique styles:
    • Srikalahasti style
    • Machilipatnam style
  • This art form historically flourished in temples, where it was used for creating scrolls, temple hangings, chariot banners, and depictions of deities and scenes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and the Puranas.
  • Its revival and popularity in modern times are attributed to Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, the first chairperson of the All India Handicrafts Board, who played a significant role in promoting it.

A traditional Indian painting depicting a mythological scene with two central figures on a chariot drawn by four white horses. The artwork features intricate patterns, rich earthy colors like red, brown, and blue, and detailed ornamentation highlighting cultural and religious symbolism.

Image Source: Utsavpedia

Answer: (a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’?

  1. Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others
  2. Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
  3. Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
  4. Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Seed Village Concept is a government initiative aimed at ensuring the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers at an affordable cost and at the right time. The concept involves:
    • Training farmers in the production of quality seeds.
    • Encouraging decentralized seed production within villages.
Answer: (b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost ; Difficulty Level: Hard

There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?

  1. Reducing revenue expenditure
  2. Introducing new welfare schemes
  3. Rationalising subsidies
  4. Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • To reduce a persistent deficit budget, the government needs to focus on reducing expenditure or increasing revenue.
  • Reducing revenue expenditure: Revenue expenditure includes day-to-day expenses such as salaries, subsidies, and interest payments. Cutting unnecessary or non-productive revenue expenditure can directly help reduce the deficit.
  • Introducing new welfare schemes: New welfare schemes typically increase revenue expenditure, leading to a higher deficit unless additional revenue is generated.
  • Rationalising subsidies: Rationalising or targeting subsidies can reduce non-essential or wasteful spending, which helps in reducing the fiscal deficit.
  • Expanding industries: While expanding industries can increase revenue in the long term, it requires initial investments, which may worsen the deficit in the short term.
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?

  1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
  2. Rajasthani Dal-Bati-Churma
  3. Tirupati Laddu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only options 1 and 3 are correct
  • In 2009, weaver associations in Uttar Pradesh, secured Geographical Indication (GI) rights for the ‘Banaras Brocades and saris’.
    • Their special characteristics are Mughal-inspired designs/elements such as intricate floral and foliate motifs, such as kalga and bel.
  • Tirupati laddu received the geographical indication (GI) tag in 2009.
  • Rajasthani Dal-Bati Churma has not been granted a GI Tag

Infographic explaining Geographical Indication (GI) Tag, a type of Intellectual Property Right protecting products linked to specific geographic locations. It highlights GI tag significance, GI tag enactment in India, registration process for food, agricultural, handicrafts, and manufactured goods, and validity of ten years with renewal option.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
  2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) is a ‘Navratna‘ Government of India Enterprise under the administrative control of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
  • It is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987, engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial assistance for setting up projects relating to new and renewable sources of energy and energy efficiency/conservation, with the motto: “Energy For Ever”.
  • Objectives:
    • To give financial support to specific projects and schemes for generating electricity and / or energy through new and renewable sources and conserving energy through energy efficiency.
    • To increase IREDA’s share in the renewable energy sector by way of innovative financing.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard
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