UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2014

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2014 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2014 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2014

What are the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) is a resource-efficient method of cultivation that significantly reduces seed cost by using single-bud chips instead of conventional setts. It also promotes wider spacing between plants, which enables the effective use of drip irrigation. Further, this wider spacing increases the scope for intercropping, allowing farmers to cultivate additional crops alongside sugarcane, thereby enhancing overall productivity and income. It does not prohibit chemical fertilizers; rather, it promotes judicious and reduced use.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

1. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
2. The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland
3. The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
4. It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Ramsar Sites potentially at risk because of technological developments, pollution or other human interference may be placed on the Montreux Record of Ramsar Sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur.
• Currently, Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan and Loktak Lake in Manipur are the two Indian sites included in the Montreux Record. Chilika Lake was also added to this list in 1993 due to siltation issues but was later removed after the Government of India successfully addressed the problem.

Answer: (a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

1. Andaman and Nicobar
2. Nicobar and Sumatra
3. Maldives and Lakshadweep
4. Sumatra and Java

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands are situated in the southeastern part of the Bay of Bengal, forming a chain of islands that extends from north to south. The Ten Degree Channel acts as a natural maritime boundary between these two island groups. The channel is a narrow stretch of water approximately ten degrees latitude north of the equator, hence its name.

Option (b) is incorrect

• 6 deg. channel: Separates Nicobar & Sumatra (Indonesia).

Option (c) is incorrect

Option (d) is incorrect

• The Sunda Strait is the strait between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra.

Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Programme/Projects	Ministry
1) Drought-Prone Area Programme	Ministry of Agriculture
2) Desert Development Programme	Ministry of Environment and Forests
3) National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas	Ministry of Rural Development

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets. The National Committee on Development of Backward Areas reviewed the performance of this programme.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Desert Development Programme (DDP) by Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development aims to minimise the adverse effect of drought and control desertification through rejuvenation of natural resource base of the identified desert areas.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• The National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA), under the Ministry of Agriculture, emphasizes integrated watershed management and sustainable farming practices to boost productivity in rainfed regions.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

• BNHS, founded in 1883, is one of the largest NGOs in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research. It supports many research efforts through grants and publishes the Journal of the BNHS.
• Many prominent naturalists, including the ornithologists Sálim Ali & S. Dillon Ripley, have been associated with BNHS. It organizes nature trails, bird-watching camps, and educational programs to engage the general public and foster a connection with nature.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’
2. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
3. It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.
4. Both (a) and (b)

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct

• GEF was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit as an independently operating financial organisation. The GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, REDD+ (Sustainable Forest Management), climate change, land degradation, ozone layer, persistent organic pollutants, etc.
• The GEF Serves as Financial Mechanism for the Following Conventions:
  • Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
  • United Nations Framework Convention on CC (UNFCCC)
  • UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
  • Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
  • Minamata Convention on Mercury
• The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol, supports the implementation of the Protocol in countries with economies in transition.
• GEF is an independent financial organisation (not a research body). It may fund scientific research but is not directly involved in it.

Answer: (a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Frame-work Convention on Climate Change’; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements:

1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.
2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Photovoltaic (PV) technology converts sunlight directly into electricity using semiconductors such as silicon, representing a direct conversion of solar energy into electrical energy. In contrast, solar thermal technology concentrates sunlight using mirrors or lenses to generate heat, which is then used to drive turbines and produce electricity, making it an indirect process.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Photovoltaic systems produce Direct Current (DC), which is typically converted into Alternating Current (AC) using an inverter for practical and grid applications. Solar thermal systems, on the other hand, generate heat energy that is used to run turbines and produce AC electricity.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• India possesses a manufacturing base for both solar thermal technology and photovoltaic systems.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following languages:

1. Gujarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Government of India conferred the ‘Classical Language’ status to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali languages on October 03, 2024. As of October 2025, a total of 11 Indian languages hold the status of Classical Language.
• Six Indian languages —Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, and Odia—were earlier accorded the status of classical languages between 2004 and 2024.

  

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

1) Dampa Tiger Reserve	Mizoram
2) Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary	Sikkim
3) Saramati Peak	Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Dampa Tiger Reserve is located in the Lushai Hills (Mizo Hills). It has one of the highest clouded leopard (VU) populations in South & South East Asia.
• Major Fauna: Tiger, Indian leopard, clouded leopard.
• Major Avifauna: Great hornbill.
• Threats: Shifting cultivation, oil palm & teak plantations.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the southern part of Tripura.
• Gumti River is formed on the periphery of the Sanctuary by the confluence of Raima and Saima rivers originating in the watersheds within the Sanctuary.
• The Sanctuary is also bordered by the Khowai River, the Dhumbur Reservoir and the Bangladesh border on different sides.

Pair 3 is correct

• Mount Saramati, with a height of 12552 ft (3826 metres) in the Kiphire district in Nagaland is the tallest mountain in the state.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct

• Wetlands International is a global non-governmental organisation (NGO) that works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity.
• Its work ranges from research, advocacy, and engagement with governments, corporate, etc
• Headquarters: Wageningen, Netherlands.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and Statement 2 is correct

• The term BRIC was coined in 2001 by Jim O’Neill to refer to four emerging economies—Brazil, Russia, India, and China. The leaders of these countries first met in 2006 at St. Petersburg, marking the beginning of their cooperation. Later that year, in September 2006, the grouping was formally institutionalised as BRIC. The first official summit of BRIC was held in 2009 in Russia, giving the grouping a structured platform for dialogue. In 2010, South Africa joined the group, leading to its expansion and renaming as BRICS.
• The BRICS grouping has recently included five new members. The members are Iran, UAE, Ethiopia, Egypt and Indonesia.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following diseases

1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Diphtheria have not been eradicated.

• It is a bacterial disease; it affects children from newborns to 16 years of age. The bacteria most commonly infects the respiratory system.
• Transmission: Person to person, usually via respiratory droplets from sneezing or coughing. Some people may not develop disease manifestations but can transmit the bacteria to others.
• Symptoms: It can cause weakness, sore throat, mild fever and swollen glands in the neck. The bacteria produce a toxin that kills healthy tissues in the respiratory system and forms a thick, grey coating called “pseudomembrane.” If it enters the bloodstream, it can cause heart, nerve, and kidney damage.
• DPT Vaccine, part of the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) can prevent diphtheria.

Additional Information Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) is one of the largest public health programmes targeting newborns and pregnant women. Immunisation is the process of making a person immune to an infectious disease, typically by giving them a vaccine. Under UIP, immunisation is provided free of cost against 12 vaccine preventable diseases: Nationally against 9 diseases: Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles, Rubella, Childhood Tuberculosis, Hepatitis B and Meningitis and Pneumonia caused by Hemophilus Influenza type B Sub-nationally against 3 diseases: Rotavirus diarrhoea, Pneumococcal Pneumonia and Japanese Encephalitis A child is said to be fully immunised if the child receives all due vaccines as per the national immunisation schedule within 1st year of the child. Two significant milestones of UIP: Elimination of polio in 2014 Elimination of maternal and neonatal tetanus in 2015

Chickenpox have not been eradicated

• It is caused by a virus named varicella zoster virus.

• Transmission: Contagious in nature, Spread through respiratory droplets (coughing/sneezing) or direct contact with the rash.
• Symptoms: Fever: Mild to moderate. Rash: Red, itchy spots that turn into fluid-filled blisters and eventually scab over. Fatigue and loss of appetite.

Smallpox is correct

• Smallpox, caused by the variola virus, was a highly contagious and deadly infectious disease eradicated globally in 1980 through a successful worldwide vaccination campaign led by the World Health Organisation (WHO). India declared itself free of smallpox in 1979.

Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both phenomena are correct

• The movement of tectonic plates caused geographic isolation, speciation (e.g., distinct fauna in South America and Africa), and habitat changes, forcing species to adapt or migrate.
• Glacial Cycles: Ice ages caused climate fluctuations and habitat fragmentation, isolating populations for independent evolution. Glacial retreats allowed recolonisation, fostering adaptation and biodiversity.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Construction of dams and barrages on rivers: These structures fragment river habitats, obstruct dolphin movement, and alter the natural flow of rivers, significantly affecting their population.
• Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers: ‘Susu’ shares its habitat with crocodiles (gharials), turtles and wetland birds, many of which are fish eaters and are potential competitors with dolphins
• Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally: Dolphins often get entangled in fishing nets, leading to injuries or death.
• Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop fields near rivers: Agricultural runoff containing synthetic fertilizers and pesticides pollutes river water, degrading the dolphins’ habitat and affecting their prey availability.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

1. solve the problem of minorities in India
2. give effect to the Independence Bill
3. delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
4. enquire into the riots in East Bengal

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Radcliffe Line was the boundary between the Indian and Pakistani portions of the Punjab Province and Bengal Presidency of British India. It was named after Cyril Radcliffe, who served as the joint chairman of the boundary commissions for the Punjab and Bengal provinces.
• The demarcation line was published on 17 August 1947 upon the Partition of British India. Today, its western side is part of the India–Pakistan border, while its eastern side is the Bangladesh–India border.

  

Answer: (c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan; Difficulty Level: Easy

Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Brominated flame retardants (BFRs) are a group of man-made chemicals added to a wide range of products—especially plastics, textiles, and electrical/electronic equipment—to reduce flammability.
• They are highly resistant to degradation, which allows them to persist in the environment for long periods and contribute to pollution. Over time, BFR-treated products, whether in use or as waste, release these chemicals into the surroundings, contaminating air, soil, and water. From there, they enter the food chain, where they tend to accumulate in food of animal origin such as fish, meat, milk, and related products.
• This bioaccumulation raises serious health concerns, as exposure to BFRs has been associated with endocrine disruption, neurological effects, and potential carcinogenicity.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

Explanation

All animals are correct

• Hibernation is a state of reduced metabolic activity in animals that allows them to conserve energy and survive during periods of extreme cold or reduced food availability. During hibernation, an animal’s body temperature drops, heart rate slows down, and breathing becomes shallow.
• Bats: Many species of bats hibernate during the winter months when food (insects) is scarce. They seek out caves or similar sheltered locations for this purpose.
• Bears: While bears undergo a form of deep sleep called torpor, it is often classified as hibernation in broader terms. Their metabolic rate and body temperature drop, allowing them to conserve energy during winter.
• Rodents: Several rodents, such as ground squirrels and hamsters, are well-known hibernators. They enter a state of hibernation to survive harsh winter conditions.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

1. The Committee on Public Accounts
2. The Committee on Estimates
3. The Committee on Public Undertakings
4. The Committee on Petitions

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• It assesses potential economies, organisational improvements, and reforms.
• Number of Members: 30 (LS); Tenure: 1 year.
• Elected by Lok Sabha.
• A Minister is not eligible for election to this committee.
• Functions:
  • Propose alternative policies for efficiency and economy.
  • Review expenditures against policy limits.
  • Recommend presentation format for estimates.

Option (a) is incorrect

• It examines accounts related to the appropriation of funds and other financial statements.
• Number of Members: 22 (15LS+7RS); Tenure: 1 year.
• Elected by the two House(s).
• A Minister is not eligible for election to this committee.
• Functions:
  • The Committee’s primary responsibility is to determine if the funds allocated by Parliament have been utilised by the Government within the defined scope of the Demand.
  • The examination is primarily based on the Government of India’s Appropriation Accounts and Audit Reports from the CAG.
  • Review accounts of state corporations, autonomous bodies, and semi-autonomous entities.
  • The Committee does not address policy issues but focuses solely on the implementation and outcomes of policies set by Parliament.

Option (c) is incorrect

• It oversees the management and financial operations of Public Undertakings.
• Number of Members: 22 (15LS+7RS); Tenure: 1 year.
• Elected by the two House(s).
• A Minister is not eligible for election to this committee.
• Functions:
  • Review reports and accounts of Public Undertakings.
  • Scrutinise reports from the Comptroller and Auditor General.
  • Evaluate management practices.
  • Perform additional functions as assigned by the Speaker.
  • The Committee does not, however, examine matters of major Government policy and matters of day-to-day administration of the Undertakings.

Option (d) is incorrect

• No. of Members – 15
• Tenure: Not fixed. Can continue in office till reconstituted.
• The members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
• Review and report on petitions presented to the House. It also considers representations from individuals, associations, etc., that fall outside the rules for petitions and provides directions for their resolution.

Answer: (b) The Committee on Estimates; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Volcanic Action: Volcanic eruptions release large quantities of CO₂ into the atmosphere as part of the Earth’s geological processes.
• Respiration: Respiration by living organisms involves the breakdown of glucose, releasing CO₂ as a byproduct.
• Photosynthesis: This process involves plants, algae, and certain bacteria converting CO₂ and water into glucose and oxygen using sunlight. (Removes CO₂)
• Decay of Organic Matter: The decomposition of dead plants and animals by microorganisms releases CO₂ into the atmosphere.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Painted Stork is incorrect

• Painted stork is a large shorebird endemic to the Indian subcontinent and SE Asia.
• It is a wading bird that primarily feeds in shallow water on fish and aquatic organisms, not insects disturbed by cattle.
• Distribution: River plains of the Indian subcontinent and mainland SE Asia.
• Habitat: Freshwater marshes, lakes and reservoirs, flooded fields, river banks, etc.
• Threats: Hunting, pollution, invasive species.
• IUCN:LC

Common Myna is correct

• Common mynas (Acridotheres tristis) are native to south Asia.
• Ecological Role: Plays a role in pest control but can compete with native species for resources.
• Their natural breeding range is from Afghanistan through India and Sri Lanka to Bangladesh.
• This bird is frequently observed near cattle. It opportunistically feeds on insects flushed out by grazing animals, making the statement correct
• IUCN: LC

Black-necked Crane

• The Black-necked crane is the state bird of UT of Ladakh (it was the state bird of erstwhile J&K).
• Distribution: It is native to Ladakh, Sichuan (China) and Tibet. It migrates to Arunachal Pradesh and Bhutan during the winter.
• It inhabits wetlands and high-altitude regions, feeding mainly on plants, grains, and small animals; it is not associated with cattle-following behavior.
• Habitat: Inland grassy wetlands at high elevation.
• IUCN: NT | CITES: Appx I | CMS: Appx I | WPA: Sch I

Answer: (b)  2 only ; Difficulty Level: Easy

In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

1. military officers
2. village headmen
3. specialists in Vedic rituals
4. chiefs of craft guilds

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In medieval India, the terms ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were designations for village headmen. He has several official duties in the village & acts as a mediator in disputes relating to village or individuals.

Answer: (b) Village headmen; Difficulty Level: Hard

Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

1. algae and bacteria
2. algae and fungi
3. bacteria and fungi
4. fungi and mosses

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Lichens are plant-like organisms that consist of a symbiotic association of algae and fungi. Fungi provide shelter, water and minerals to the algae and, in return, the algae provide food. Lichens are very good pollution indicators – they do not grow in polluted areas.

Answer: (b) algae and fungi; Difficulty Level: Easy

If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Opiton (a) is correct

• Oak (Quercus spp.) forests represent the climax evergreen vegetation between 1000–3600 m in the Central Himalaya.
• In the Himalayas, the onset of spring is marked by the blooming of rhododendrons. The flowering trees — found at altitudes ranging from 1,500 m to over 5,000 m above sea level — are abundant in the Eastern Himalayan region, especially Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Sandalwood is a tropical tree that thrives in drier regions, predominantly in southern India (Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh).

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India?

1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All are correct

• The steel industry is a major source of air pollution due to processes like coke making, blast furnace operations, and fuel combustion. These activities release multiple pollutants, including oxides of sulphur (SOx), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon monoxide (CO) from incomplete combustion, and carbon dioxide (CO₂) as a greenhouse gas. Thus, all the given pollutants are released by the steel industry.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Kingdoms Kosala and Magadha are associated with the life of buddha

• Buddha was born in 563 BCE in Lumbini. His father, King Śuddhodana, was the leader of the Shakya clan, which was part of the Kosala kingdom.
  • Pasenadi (also known as Prasenajit) was an immensely popular ruler of Kosala, and a contemporary of the Buddha.
  • Kosala today can be identified with the areas of Lucknow, Gonda, Faizabad, Baharaich of Uttar Pradesh
• Magadha was a significant kingdom in the Buddha’s time. The Buddha attained enlightenment in Bodh Gaya (Magadha) and delivered many sermons in this region, including Rajgir.

Avanti and Gandhara are not associated with life of buddha

• Though Avanti was a contemporaneous kingdom, it was not directly associated with significant events in the Buddha’s life. Gandhara, located in present-day Pakistan and Afghanistan, was culturally important in later Buddhist history (especially during the spread of Mahayana Buddhism) but was not associated with Buddha’s life directly.

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Every year, a month-long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

1. Bhutia and Lepcha
2. Gond and Korku
3. lrula and Toda
4. Sahariya and Agariya

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Gond and Korku tribes organise month-long festivals to plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees, emphasising sustainable living and ecological conservation. Such practices highlight their deep cultural connection to nature and their role in promoting environmental awareness.

Answer: (b) Gond and Korku; Difficulty Level: Hard

The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

1. tax imposed by the Central Government
2. tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
3. tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
4. tax imposed and collected by the State Government

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Sales tax, before the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST), was a tax on the sale of goods imposed and collected by the respective State Governments. Each state had its own sales tax laws and rates.

Answer: (d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government; Difficulty Level: Easy

What does venture capital mean?

1. A short-term capital provided to industries
2. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
3. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
4. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Venture capital (VC) is a form of private equity and a type of financing for startup companies and small businesses with long-term growth potential. It generally comes from investors, investment banks, and financial institutions.

Answer: (b) A long- term start-up capital provided to a new entrepreneur; Difficulty Level: Easy

The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

1. inclusive growth and poverty reductions
2. inclusive and sustainable growth
3. sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment
4. faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012-2017) Major objective: Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.
• Broad Objectives of 12th Five Year Plan:
  • To reduce poverty
  • To improve regional equality across states and within states
  • To improve living conditions for SCs, STs, OBCs, Minorities
  • To generate attractive employment opportunities for Indian youth
  • To eliminate gender gaps

Answer: (d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitutes the Current Account?

1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Current Account of the Balance of Payments records transactions relating to goods, services, income, and transfers. It includes the balance of trade (exports and imports of goods) and the balance of invisibles (services, remittances, interest, etc.). In contrast, items such as NRI deposits, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and funds held in foreign countries are recorded under the capital account, as they involve financial assets and liabilities.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

1. banking operations
2. communication networking
3. military strategies
4. supply and demand of agricultural products

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Both terms are integral to banking operations.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate: It is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely.
• Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL): The amount of money available to the bank for providing loans is called its NDTL, which is basically the sum of all the deposits made to the bank by people like you, less the amount that the bank has invested in other banks.

Answer: (a) banking operations; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Business Correspondents (BCs), also known as Bank Saathis, are agents appointed by banks to provide essential banking services in branchless and remote areas. They enable beneficiaries to withdraw subsidies and social security benefits, such as pensions and MGNREGA wages, directly in their villages through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Additionally, BCs allow rural customers to make deposits and withdrawals, ensuring access to basic banking services without a physical bank branch.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• Statutory Reserve Requirements (like Cash Reserve Ratio – CRR and Statutory Liquidity Ratio – SLR) primarily serve the purpose of enabling the Central Bank (RBI) to regulate the credit creation capacity of commercial banks.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

1. Egypt
2. Lebanon
3. Syria
4. Tunisia

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Arab Spring was a series of pro-democracy uprisings that began in late 2010 and spread across the Arab world. It started in Tunisia following the self-immolation of Mohamed Bouazizi, a street vendor, on December 17, 2010. This act of protest against government corruption and economic hardship ignited widespread demonstrations, eventually leading to the ousting of President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali in January 2011. The Tunisian revolution inspired similar movements in countries like Egypt, Libya, Syria, and Yemen, making Tunisia the cradle of the Arab Spring.

Answer: (d) Tunisia; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following countries:

1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 4 and 5
4. 1, 3 and 5

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination, and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic Indigenous Peoples, and other Arctic inhabitants. It addresses concerns related to the Arctic region, including sustainable development and environmental protection.
• It was formally established in 1996 through the Ottawa Declaration. The establishment was preceded by the Arctic Environmental Protection Strategy (June 1991), a declaration on protecting the Arctic environment.
• The eight Arctic States (whose territories fall in the Arctic region) are members of the Arctic Council.
• These are Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the US.
• All Arctic Council decisions:
  • Require consensus of the eight Arctic States.
  • Happens in consultation with the permanent participants.
• India had been given observer status in 2013.

Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 5; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country in news
1) Chechnya	Russian Federation
2) Darfur	Mali
3) Swat Valley	Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Chechnya is a federal subject (republic) of the Russian Federation. It has been in the news due to conflicts involving separatist movements and terrorism.

Image Source: BBC

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Darfur is a region in western Sudan, not Mali. It has been in the news for a prolonged humanitarian crisis and conflict between government forces and local groups.

Image Source: BBC

Pair 3 is incorrect

• The Swat Valley is located in Pakistan, not Iraq.
• It gained international attention due to conflicts involving the Taliban and as the home region of Malala Yousafzai, a Nobel Peace Prize laureate.

Image source: Al Jazeera

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• The Agni-IV surface-to-surface missile is an Indian solid-fueled intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM) with a range of up to 4,000 km. The two-stage missile, previously named Agni-II Prime, is a derivative of the Agni-II MRBM with extended range.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following ‘statements:

1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Coal Bed Methane (CBM) is a natural gas that is extracted from coal seams.
• It is primarily composed of methane (CH4) with smaller amounts of other hydrocarbons such as ethane, propane, and butane, as well as carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and hydrogen sulphide.
• Coalbed methane is now becoming an important source of natural gas.
• Russia has the largest CBM reserves, followed by the USA, China, Canada, and Australia.
• Shale gas consists mainly of methane, with small amounts of ethane, propane, butane, & trace levels of carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and hydrogen sulfide.
• Shales are fine-grained sedimentary rocks formed of organic-rich mud at the bottom of ancient seas.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• In India, the sedimentary basins that hold prospects for shale oil and gas are Cambay Basin, Gondwana Basin, Krishna Godavari (KG) Basin, Cauvery Basin, Indo-Gangetic Basin, and Assam-Arakan Basin.
• ONGC predicts 187.5 TCF of shale gas in five basins (Cambay Onland, Ganga Valley, Assam & Assam-Arakan, KG Onland, & Cauvery Onland). India, with the world’s fifth-largest proven coal reserves, has significant prospects for CBM exploration and exploitation.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements:

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, but statements 2 and 3 are correct

• The Changpas, a nomadic tribe primarily resides in the Changtang plateau in Ladakh.
• The Changpa rear Pashmina goats, which produce high-quality Pashmina wool, renowned for its fineness and softness.
• In 1989, the Changpa were granted official status in India as a Scheduled Tribe.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

1. The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics
2. The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
3. The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of antihistamines
4. It is a source of high quality biodiesel

Explanation

Statement (b) is correct

• Guar gum, extracted from the seeds of the cluster bean (Guar), is widely used in hydraulic fracturing (fracking) for shale gas extraction. It acts as a viscosity enhancer in fracking fluids, facilitating the transport of sand particles into rock fractures.

Answer: (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following have coral reefs?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Coral reefs are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Gulf of Kachchh, and the Gulf of Mannar.
• Ideal Conditions for Coral Growth:
  • Stable climatic conditions: Corals are highly susceptible to quick changes. They grow in regions where the climate is significantly stable for an extended period (equatorial oceans with warm ocean currents).
  • Perpetually warm waters: Corals thrive in tropical waters (30°N to 30°S latitudes; temperature around 20°C) where diurnal and annual temperature ranges are very narrow. (Coral reefs are absent on the west coast of tropical continents because of Cold Ocean Currents.)
  • Shallow water: Corals require a relatively good amount of sunlight to survive. The ideal depths for coral growth are 45 m to 55 m below the sea surface, where enough sunlight is available.
  • Clear salt water: Clear salt water is suitable for growth, while freshwater and highly saline water are harmful.
  • Abundant Plankton: An adequate supply of oxygen and microscopic marine food (plankton) is essential for growth. As the plankton is more abundant on the seaward side, corals proliferate on the seaward side.
  • Little or no pollution: Corals are highly fragile and are vulnerable to climate change and pollution, and even a minute increase in marine pollution can be catastrophic

Image Source: incois.gov.in

• The Sunderbans is a mangrove ecosystem.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only option 2 is correct

• Soil erosion in India is closely linked to deforestation, which removes the protective vegetation cover, leaving the soil exposed to wind and water erosion.
• The widespread clearing of forests for agriculture, infrastructure, and industrial purposes significantly accelerates soil erosion.
• Terrace cultivation: This method is specifically designed to reduce soil erosion in hilly areas by controlling water runoff. Properly managed terrace cultivation prevents, rather than contributes to, soil erosion.
• Tropical climate: While tropical regions in India experience heavy rainfall, the climate itself does not inherently cause soil erosion. The issue arises only when deforestation leaves the soil unprotected, making it vulnerable to erosion during heavy rains.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

1. Equatorial climate
2. Mediterranean climate
3. Monsoon climate
4. All of the above climates

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The monsoon climate is characterised by distinct wet and dry seasons associated with seasonal reversal of winds. Usually, there are three seasons, namely summer, winter and the rainy season (seasons are the chief characteristic of monsoon climate).
• Equatorial climate: This climate is characterized by constant rainfall and warm temperatures throughout the year, but does not exhibit a seasonal wind reversal.
• Mediterranean climate: This climate is characterized by dry summers and wet winters, with the prevailing Trade Winds are off-shore and there is practically no rain.

Answer: (c) Monsoon climate; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to

1. an assembly of village elders
2. a religious sect
3. a style of temple construction
4. an administrative functionary

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In the Panchayatan style of temple making, there were four subsidiary shrines along with the temple of the principal deity.
• The main temple was square with an elongated mandap in front of it, giving it a rectangular shape.
• The subsidiary shrines were placed opposite to each other on either side of the mandap, giving the ground plan a crucified shape.
• Example: Dashavatar temple at Deogarh (U.P.), Durga temple at Aihole (Karnataka), etc.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (c) a style of temple construction; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following rivers:

1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flows through Arunachal Pradesh?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Barak is incorrect

• The Barak basin covers parts of India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. In India, the basin spreads over Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Assam, Tripura, and Nagaland, which is nearly 1.38% of the country’s total geographical area. The Barail range separates the Barak basin from the Brahmaputra basin.
• The Barak River rises from the Manipur hills. It flows then along the Nagaland-Manipur border and enters Assam. It further enters Bangladesh, where it is known as Surma and Kushiyara.
• Later, it is called the Meghna before receiving the combined flow of the Ganga (Padma in Bangladesh) and the Brahmaputra (Jamuna in Bangladesh).
• Right bank tributaries: Jiri, Chiri, Modhura, Jatinga, Harang, Kalain, and Gumra.
• Left bank tributaries: Dhaleswari, Singla, Longai, Sonai, and Katakhal.

Lohit is correct

• It originates in the Eastern Himalayas in Tibet, where it is known as the Zayu River.
• It enters India through Arunachal Pradesh, flows southward through the Lohit district, and merges with the Dibang River before joining the Brahmaputra River near Sadiya, Assam.

Subansiri is correct

• Subansiri (or Gold River) is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
• It is an antecedent river that rises in the mountains of Tibet.
• It enters India near the town of Taksing (Arunachal Pradesh) and flows east and southeast through Miri Hills, then south to the Assam Valley at Dulangmukh in Dhemaji district, where it joins the Brahmaputra River at Jamurighat in Lakhimpur district.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Wetlands	Confluence of rivers
1) Harike Wetlands	Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej
2) Keoladeo Ghana	Confluence of Banas National Park and Chambal
3) Kolleru Lake	Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• It is a shallow water reservoir at the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers. This site was accorded the wetland status in 1990 by the Ramsar Convention.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Keoladeo National Park is a 29 km2 area situated on the extreme western edge of the Gangetic basin that was once the confluence of Rivers Gambhir and Banganga in Bharatpur district of the state of Rajasthan.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Kolleru Lake is located between the deltas of Krishna and Godavari Rivers in Andhra Pradesh.
• The lake receives water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams, which are integral to its ecosystem.
• Kolleru Lake functions as a natural flood-balancing reservoir for the region, interconnected with numerous inflowing drains and channels from both the Krishna and Godavari systems

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

1. Mimamsa and Vedanta
2. Nyaya and Vaisheshika
3. Lokayata and Kapalika
4. Sankhya and Yoga

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Charvaka School or Lokayata Philosophy: The Charvaka (also known as Lokayata) is one of the earliest philosophical traditions, attributed to Brihaspati and mentioned in texts like the Vedas and Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. It propounded a materialistic worldview, rejecting the authority of religion, the existence of God, Brahman, or any supernatural agency. The Charvakas denied concepts like salvation and the afterlife, asserting that death marks the end of human existence. Emphasizing direct perception as the only valid source of knowledge, they believed that only what can be experienced through the senses is real. Being oriented towards common people, it came to be known as Lokayata, and it advocated a practical philosophy of life centred on enjoying worldly pleasures—often summed up as “eat, drink, and make merry.”
• Kapalika was a sect of Shaivism (worshippers of Bhairava, a manifestation of Shiva) and is also not included in the six systems. The Kapalika cult known for human sacrifice and immolation.

Answer: (c) Lokayata and Kapalika; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Hills	Region
1) Cardamom Hills	Coromandel Coast
2) Kaimur Hills	Konkan Coast
3) Mahadeo Hills	Central India
4) Mikir Hills	North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• The Cardamom Hills, also known as the Yela Mala, are part of the southern Western Ghats (not Coromandel coast (TN coast)) in the Indian states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The hills are characterised by rolling terrain covered with dense forests, primarily consisting of tropical evergreen and moist deciduous vegetation.
• The Cardamom Hills are famous for the cultivation of spices, particularly cardamom. Other spices such as black pepper, cloves, and cinnamon are also cultivated here.
• Several protected areas are located within the Cardamom Hills, including the Periyar Tiger Reserve and the Silent Valley National Park, which are important biodiversity hotspots.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Kaimur Range: Eastern portion of the Vindhya range (an extension of it), not the Konkan Coast.

Pair 3 is correct

• The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in the Madhya Pradesh state of central India. These are located in the northern part of the Satpura Range.

Pair 4 is correct

• Meghalaya Plateau is an eastward extension of the peninsular plateau beyond the Rajmahal Hills. The eastward extension of the Meghalaya Plateau is called the Karbi Anglong Plateau. Its western boundary roughly coincides with the Bangladesh border.
• The western, central, and eastern parts of the plateau are known as the Garo Hills (900 m), the Khasi-Jaintia Hills (1,500 m) and the Mikir Hills (700 m).

Answer: (c) 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

1. Second Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Eighth Schedule
4. Tenth Schedule

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection. It was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Second Schedule: –emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Fifth Schedule: Relates to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Eighth Schedule: Lists the languages recognized by the Constitution consists of 22 languages.

Answer: (d) Tenth Schedule; Difficulty Level: Easy

The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity, together with traditional human life, is the establishment of

1. biosphere reserves
2. botanical gardens
3. national parks
4. wildlife sanctuaries

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Biosphere Reserves are the most suitable strategy because they aim to conserve biodiversity along with traditional human lifestyles. They follow a zonal approach:
  • Core zone: Strictly protected (no human activity)
  • Buffer zone: Limited activities like research, education
  • Transition zone: Sustainable human settlements and traditional practices allowed
• This integrated model is promoted under the UNESCO Man and Biosphere Programme, balancing conservation with livelihood needs.

Answer: (a) biosphere reserves; Difficulty Level: Easy

 

Turkey is located between

1. Black Sea and Caspian Sea
2. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
3. Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
4. Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Turkey is geographically located between the Black Sea to the north and the Mediterranean Sea to the south. It serves as a bridge between Europe and Asia, with its territory straddling both continents.

  

Option (a) is incorrect

• Turkey does not border the Caspian Sea.

Option (c) is incorrect

• The Gulf of Suez is located near Egypt, not Turkey.

Option (d) is incorrect

• These are located near Jordan and Israel, not Turkey.

Answer: (b) Black Sea Mediterranean Sea; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 4-2-1-3
2. 3-2-4-1
3. 3-4-1-2
4. 4-3-2-1

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The correct sequence of occurrence of the cities in Southeast Asia, moving from south to north, is:
  • Jakarta (Indonesia) – Located in the southernmost part.
  • Singapore – North of Jakarta, situated on the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula.
  • Bangkok (Thailand) – Located to the north of Singapore.
  • Hanoi (Vietnam) – Located in the northernmost part of the list.

Answer: (c) 3-4-1-2; Difficulty Level: Medium

The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• With temperature rise beyond ~3°C, the terrestrial biosphere (forests, soils, vegetation) may shift from being a carbon sink to a carbon source due to increased respiration, forest dieback, and wildfires. This accelerates global warming through positive feedback.

Statement 2is correct

• At >3°C warming, widespread coral mortality is highly likely due to severe and frequent marine heatwaves, leading to mass coral bleaching and ecosystem collapse.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• It is too extreme to say all global wetlands will permanently disappear. While many wetlands may degrade or shrink due to sea-level rise and altered hydrology, complete global disappearance is not supported scientifically.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• Even under severe warming, cultivation of cereals will not completely stop worldwide. Agricultural zones may shift geographically, and yields may decline in many regions, but total global impossibility is unrealistic

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India, is taken from

1. Katha Upanishad
2. Chandogya Upanishad
3. Aitareya Upanishad
4. Mundaka Upanishad

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Lion Capital showing three lions mounted on the abacus with:
  • A Dharma Chakra in the centre
  • A bull on the right
  • A galloping horse on the left
  • Outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme right and left.
• It was adopted as the State Emblem of India on January 26, 1950.
• The motto Satyameva Jayate (Truth Alone Triumphs), written in Devanagari script below the Lion Capital, is part of the State Emblem of India.
• Satyameva Jayate is a part of the Mundaka Upanishad.
• The bell-shaped lotus is not a part of the State emblem.
• The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath.

Katha Upanishad: It is part of the Yajurveda, one of the four Vedas, the foundational scriptures of Hinduism. Focuses on the dialogue between Nachiketa, a young seeker, and Yama, the god of death, about the nature of the soul (Atman), life after death, and the ultimate truth. Chandogya Upanishad: Part of the Sama Veda, it explores meditation (Upasana), the significance of sound (Om), and the unity of the self (Atman) with the ultimate reality (Brahman). Aitareya Upanishad: Discusses the origin of the universe, the creation of beings, and the importance of the self (Atman).

Answer: (d) Mundaka Upanishad; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

1. Preamble to the Constitution
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Ninth Schedule

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The promotion of international peace and security is included in Article 51 of the Indian Constitution, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• It directs the State to:
  • promote international peace and security;
  • maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
  • foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peopleswith one another; and
  • encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

1. Prevention of soil runoff
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Integrated Watershed Management Program (IWMP), introduced as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in 2009, was later subsumed under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana (PMKSY) in 2015.
• Implementation: Managed by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development.
• Objective:
  • Conservation of degraded natural resources like water, soil, and vegetation within watersheds.
  • Prevention of soil erosion, rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge, and adoption of modern agricultural practices.
  • Promoting sustainable livelihoods for local communities.
• Recognized as the world’s second-largest watershed development program after China’s, according to a World Bank report (2014).
• Funding: Cost-sharing between the Central and State Governments in a 90:10 ratio.
• Integration into PMKSY: PMKSY 2.0 (2021 Onwards): A key innovation under PMKSY 2.0 is the introduction of Springshed Development, aimed at addressing water scarcity in Himalayan states during dry seasons.
• Linking perennial and seasonal rivers is not a focus of the IWDP. Such interlinking is undertaken under the National River Linking Project, which is a separate initiative.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Finance Commission: The Finance Commission deals with the distribution of financial resources between the Union and States, but is not directly involved in the planning process.
• National Development Council (NDC): The NDC was a key body for planning in India before the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog. It was responsible for endorsing Five-Year Plans and facilitating cooperative federalism in planning.
• Union Ministry of Rural Development: While it plays a role in implementing rural development programs, it is not directly associated with national-level planning.
• Union Ministry of Urban Development: Similar to the Rural Development Ministry, it is involved in urban development programs but not directly in the planning process.
• Parliament: The Parliament plays an important role in planning by approving budgets and plans for national development programs.

Answer: (c) 2 and 5 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Preparation of Agenda for Cabinet Meetings: The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for organizing Cabinet meetings and preparing their agenda. It ensures smooth coordination among ministries for effective decision-making.
• Secretarial Assistance to Cabinet Committees: It provides secretarial support to the Cabinet Committees by documenting their discussions, decisions, and follow-ups.
• Allocation of Financial Resources to Ministries: This is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat. The allocation of financial resources is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• A Constitutional Government operates within a legal framework to limit state authority and safeguard individual liberty.
• It ensures the rule of law and checks government power, prioritizing the protection of citizens’ rights over enhancing state control.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

1 and 3 are correct

• The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases:
  • Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
  • Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
  • While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
  • Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
  • Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.

2 and 4 are incorrect

• Appointing the Ministers: This is not a discretionary power. The Governor appoints ministers based on the advice of the Chief Minister.
• Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government: This is not a discretionary power. It is usually done on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

1. decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
2. increase the tax collection of the Government
3. increase the investment expenditure in the economy
4. increase the total savings in the economy

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• When the interest rate is decreased, borrowing becomes cheaper for businesses and individuals. This generally leads to an increase in investment expenditure because businesses are more likely to take loans for expansion, and consumers may also borrow more for large purchases like homes or cars.
• Lower interest rates stimulate economic activity, particularly in sectors dependent on credit, thus promoting investment.

Answer: (c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• Article 77 of the Indian Constitution governs the conduct of business for the Government of India, stating that:
  • All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
  • Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the President. Further, the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall not be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President.
  • The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Indian Constitution (IC) does not mention either a Confidence or a No-confidence Motion. However, Article 75 of the IC does specify that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct

• Key Points about No-confidence Motion:
  • No-confidence Motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
  • No prior reason needs to be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
  • The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
  • A no-confidence motion needs a majority vote (of the members present) to pass the House.
  • If individuals or parties abstain from voting, those numbers will be removed from the overall strength of the House, and then the majority will be considered.
  • If the motion is passed in the house, the Government is bound to vacate the office.
  • The time lapse between passing one no-confidence motion and the other one is at least six months.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Neem oil possesses insecticidal properties and can be used as a pesticide to manage the proliferation of certain insect and mite species. While neem seeds are utilised in various industries, including biofuel production, they are not commonly used in the manufacture of hospital detergents.
• Neem oil is highly valued in the pharmaceutical industry for its medicinal properties, being incorporated into products such as creams, lotions, and soaps to treat skin conditions like eczema, psoriasis, and acne.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

1. Potential energy is released to form free energy
2. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
3. Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
4. Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Photosynthesis is an anabolic process in which green plants capture solar energy (free energy) and convert it into chemical energy (potential energy) stored in glucose molecules. This stored energy can later be used by the plant (and other organisms) for various metabolic activities.

Answer: (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored; Difficulty Level: Easy

In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All options are correct

• Biometric identification is the process of recognising or verifying an individual’s identity based on their unique biological or behavioural characteristics.
• Iris scanning and retinal scanning use distinct patterns in the eye, which are highly unique and stable over time. Voice recognition is a behavioural biometric that identifies a person based on vocal characteristics such as pitch, tone, and speech patterns. Thus, all three, iris scanning, retinal scanning, and voice recognition, are valid biometric techniques used for identifying individuals.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction in plants, where new plants grow from vegetative parts such as roots, stems, leaves, or specialised structures, without the involvement of seeds.
• It results in clonal populations, meaning the new plants are genetically identical to the parent. This occurs because methods such as cuttings, layering, and grafting regenerate new plants from parts of the parent plant, bypassing seed production.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Vegetative propagation does not eliminate viruses. In fact, if the parent plant is infected with a virus, the virus is likely to be passed on to the offspring since it replicates asexually.

Statement 3 is correct

• Vegetative propagation can be practised for most of the year, depending on the method and environmental conditions. Unlike sexual reproduction, which is typically seasonal and reliant on factors like pollination, methods such as cuttings and grafting can be performed year-round if optimal growth conditions are provided.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Spacecraft	Purpose
1) Cassini-Huygens	Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2) Messenger	Mapping and investigating the Mercury
3) Voyager 1 and 2	Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Cassini-Huygens was a joint mission between NASA, the European Space Agency and the Italian Space Agency. It investigated Saturn, its rings and moons from 2004 to 2017.

Pair 2 is correct

• MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging (MESSENGER) of NASA was the first spacecraft to orbit Mercury.

Pair 3 is correct

• The Voyager spacecraft are twin robotic probes launched by NASA in 1977 to explore the outer planets and beyond. These missions have provided groundbreaking insights into our solar system and are now exploring interstellar space.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Region	Well-known for the production of
1) Kinnaur	Areca nut
2) Mewat	Mango
3) Coromandel	Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Kinnaur (Himachal) is a mountain region known for apples and dry fruits, not areca nut (which requires tropical conditions).

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Mewat is a historical and cultural region which encompasses parts of the modern-day states of Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh in northwestern India. It is not particularly famous for mango production.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• The Coromandel Coast is known for rice and coastal agriculture, whereas soybean is mainly grown in central India (e.g., Madhya Pradesh).

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Crystallization of sodium chloride: This is a physical change, as the process involves the transition of sodium chloride from its dissolved state to a solid crystalline form without altering its chemical composition.
• Melting of ice: This is also a physical change, as it involves the transformation of water from solid to liquid form, with no change in its chemical structure (H₂O remains the same).
• Souring of milk: This is a chemical change because the process involves the breakdown of lactose (a sugar) into lactic acid by bacteria, resulting in a new substance with different properties.

Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

1. advisory jurisdiction
2. appellate jurisdiction.
3. original jurisdiction
4. writ jurisdiction

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
  • Between the Centre and one or more states; or
  • Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
  • Between two or more states.
• In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:
  • On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise.
  • On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instruments.
• In the first case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the president.
• But, in the second case, the Supreme Court ‘must’ tender its opinion to the president.
• In both the cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the president; he may follow or may not follow the opinion. However, it facilitates the government to have an authoritative legal opinion on a matter to be decided by it

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgements of the lower courts.
• It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction which can be classified under four heads:
  • Appeals in constitutional matters.
  • Appeals in civil matters.
  • Appeals in criminal matters.
  • Appeals by special leave

Option (d) is incorrect

• The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.
• In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal.
• However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

Answer: (c) original jurisdiction; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Budding and grafting in fruit plants: These are traditional techniques used for vegetative propagation. They involve joining parts of two plants to grow as a single plant but do not involve genetic modification or the creation of transgenic crops.
• Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS): CMS is a condition where a plant is unable to produce viable pollen due to mutations in the mitochondrial genome. This is used extensively in hybrid seed production as it eliminates the need for manual or mechanical emasculation.
• Gene silencing: Gene silencing is a genetic engineering technique where specific genes are turned off or suppressed using methods such as RNA interference (RNAi). This is commonly used to create transgenic crops with desired traits like pest resistance (e.g., Bt cotton) or enhanced nutritional value.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Maize is a highly versatile crop with wide-ranging applications. It is a major source of starch, which is extracted from its endosperm and used extensively in food processing as well as in industries like paper, textiles, and pharmaceuticals. The oil obtained from maize (corn oil), primarily from the germ, can be processed into biodiesel, making it a useful renewable energy feedstock. Additionally, due to its high carbohydrate content, maize is widely used in fermentation processes for the production of alcoholic beverages such as whiskey and for industrial ethanol.

Additional Information Maize is a rainfed kharif crop grown in semi-arid regions where rice and wheat production are not possible. Rainfall: Not more than 100 cm of rainfall. Temperature: 21°C to 27°C. Ideal Soils: Old alluvial and well-drained fertile loams free from coarse materials and rich in nitrogen. Major producing states: Karnataka > Madhya Pradesh > Maharashtra Major producing countries: USA > China > Brazil India is the 5th largest producer of Maize.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

1. Crab
2. Mite
3. Scorpion
4. Spider

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• Crab: Crabs belong to the class Crustacea, which is a subgroup of the phylum Arthropoda. Crustaceans are characterized by having a hard exoskeleton, two pairs of antennae, and gills for respiration.
• Mite, Scorpion, and Spider: These organisms belong to the class Arachnida, which is also a subgroup of the phylum Arthropoda. Arachnids are characterized by:
  • Having four pairs of legs (eight legs).
  • Absence of antennae.
  • Bodies divided into two main segments: cephalothorax and abdomen.

Answer: (a) Crab; Difficulty Level: Medium

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

1. the President of India
2. the Parliament
3. the Chief Justice of India
4. the Law Commission

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Article 124 of the Constitution of India, 1950 establishes the Supreme Court of India and regulates the appointment of judges. The framers of the Constitution had fixed the strength of the Supreme Court to one Chief Justice and seven other judges. However, they left it to the future Parliaments to alter this composition.
• The Parliament enacted The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 (‘Act’) and has amended this Act in six instances to fix the maximum ceiling for the number of judges. In 1956 the number was raised to 11. It was further amended to 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978, 26 in 1986 and 31 in 2009.
• In August 2019, Parliament amended the Act further to increase the number of judges to 33 Judges in addition to a Chief Justice.

Answer: (b) the Parliament; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following towns of India:

1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Only 2 and 3 are correct

• Bhadrachalam: Bhadrachalam in Telangana, located on the Godavari River is well-known as a pilgrimage destination. It is not particularly known for traditional sarees or fabric.
• Chanderi: Chanderi in Madhya Pradesh is renowned for its Chanderi sarees, which are made from fine silk and cotton with zari work, known for their lightweight and glossy finish.
• Kancheepuram: Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu is world-famous for Kanchipuram silk sarees, characterized by their intricate designs and vibrant colors.
• Karnal: Karnal in Haryana is primarily known for its agricultural significance and research institutions but is not associated with saree or fabric production.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

National Highway	Cities Connected
1) NH4	Chennai and Hyderabad
2) NH6	Mumbai and Kolkata
3) NH16	Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• NH4: The highway connects Mayabandar Port Blair, Chiriyatapu in Andaman Nicobar Islands.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• NH6: The highway starts from its junction with NH-27 near Jorabat in the State of Assam and terminates at Zokhawthar in the State of Mizoram.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• NH15: NH15 starts from its junction with NH-27 near Baihata-Charali in Assam and terminates at its junction with NH-13 near Wakro in Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following international agreements:

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on biodiversity?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only,
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture is correct

• PGRFA is popularly known as the International Seed Treaty. It is an international agreement in harmony with the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
• It aims at guaranteeing food security through the conservation, exchange, and sustainable use of the world’s plant genetic resources for food and agriculture, as well as the fair and equitable benefit sharing arising from its use.

The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification is correct

• The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), along with the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the UNFCCC, emerged from the 1992 Rio Earth Summit and was formally established in 1994 in Paris. It has been ratified by 196 countries and the European Union, with India ratifying the Convention in 1996.
• The UNCCD seeks to promote coordinated global action to combat land degradation and is the only legally binding international agreement that links environmental concerns with development through sustainable land management.
• It requires member countries to prepare National Action Programmes (NAPs) using a bottom-up approach that involves local communities in efforts to restore degraded land. Additionally, the Global Mechanism (GM) under the Convention assists countries in mobilising financial resources for its effective implementation.

The World Heritage Convention is correct

• UNESCO adopted the World Heritage Convention, an international treaty, in 1972. It provides a framework for international cooperation in preserving and protecting cultural treasures and natural areas (including those of exceptional biodiversity).
• World Heritage Sites means “Sites any of various areas or objects inscribed on the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage List”. The sites are designated as having outstanding universal value concerning the Protection of the World’s Cultural (ancient monuments, museums) and Natural Heritage (biodiversity, geological heritage).

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Earth Hour is a worldwide movement organized by the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF) since 2007.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct

• It encourages people to switch off the lights from 8.30 pm to 9.30 pm as per their local time every year on the last Saturday of March. The idea is to refrain from the use of non-essential lighting to save energy in a symbolic call for environmental protection.
• Earth Hour has been successful in pursuing legislative changes by harnessing the power of the people and collective action. For example, it helped create a 3.5-million-hectare marine-protected area in Argentina and ban all plastics in the Galapagos in 2014, etc.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

1. Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
2. Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
3. Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
4. Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The food chain starts with producers and ends with top consumers.
• Phytoplankton are the primary producers in the oceans. They include:
  • diatoms (unicellular algae),
  • coccolithophores (unicellular, eukaryotic protist),
  • Cyanobacteria (Bluegreen algae) — Synechococcus, Prochlorococcus, Nostoc, spirogyra, etc., and
  • Dinoflagellates (flagellated protists).
• Crustaceans form a large group of arthropods, including crabs, lobsters, shrimp, krill, etc.
• Herrings are fish, and they eat crustaceans.

Answer: (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

1. the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.
2. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911
3. Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
4. the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Durbar of 1911 marked the succession of King George V. The 1911 Durbar was the only one that a sovereign, George V (King of the United Kingdom), attended.
• Two significant decisions taken at this Durbar were:
  • The shifting of the Imperial Capital from Calcutta to Delhi was announced.
  • The annulment of the partition of Bengal was announced.

Answer: (b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911; Difficulty Level: Easy

The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

1. attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
2. attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress
3. Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
4. decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The 44th Session of the INC convened in Lahore from December 29th, 1929, to January 1st, 1930. It was presided over by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
• It took the following important decisions:
  • It passed a resolution declaring Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence) to be the Congress’s objective.
  • It declared that the entire Nehru Committee’s Report scheme had become invalid. This was declared because the government had not acted towards establishing a Dominion Self-Government.
  • It decided to boycott the Round Table Conference.
  • It authorised the Working Committee to launch a Civil Disobedience program, including nonpayment of taxes, whenever deemed appropriate.
  • It asked all members of the legislature to resign their seats.
  • January 26, 1930, was designated as the first Independence Day to be celebrated annually thereafter.
• At midnight on December 31st, 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the newly adopted tri-colour flag on the banks of the river Ravi.

Option (a) is incorrect

• The objective of Self-Government was declared earlier in the 1906 Calcutta session under Dadabhai Naoroji.
  • Due to the pressure of extremist leaders, self-government (swaraj) within the British Empire (based on the model of colonies like the United Kingdom, Australia, and Canada) was declared the goal of Congress.

Option (c) is incorrect

• During 1920-21, the Indian National Movement entered a new phase, i.e. a phase of mass politics and mass mobilisation. British rule was opposed by two mass movements, Khilafat and Non-Cooperation.
• The Khilafat Committee launched a non-cooperation movement on 31 August 1920. Gandhi was the first to join it. In December 1920, the Nagpur Session of Congress, presided over by C. Vijayaraghavachariar, approved the non-cooperation resolution.

Option (d) is incorrect

• After signing the Gandhi-Irwin Pact on March 5, 1931, Congress suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement and agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

Answer: (b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:

1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Sattriya originated in Sattra, a monastery, as a part of the neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam. It includes Nritta, Nritya and Natya components. Sattriya dances differ from other dance forms in their basic stance. For males, it is known as Purush Pak, while for females, Prakriti Pak.
• Traditionally, Sattriya was performed only by bhokots (male monks) in monasteries as a part of their daily rituals.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The dance is based on mythological themes. Primarily based on Krishna-Radha relations or sometimes on the stories of Ram-Sita. While devotional in character, Sattriya dance is rooted in compositions of Sankardeva and other Assamese saints, rather than Tulsidas, Kabir, or Mirabai, who belonged to different Bhakti traditions.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

1. 22 March (or 21st March)
2. 15th May (or 16th May)
3. 31st March (or 30th March)
4. 21st April (or 20th April

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Saka Samvat: This calendar form was initiated by King Shalivahan in 78 AD. It was also known as the Saka era, as it is to this tribe that Shalivahan belonged. Historians do have a confusion of whether Shalivahan was Saka himself or conquered Sakas.
• Like Vikram Samvat, the Saka Calendar is also both solar and lunar with lunar months and solar year and has the same number of months as the Vikram era has. The Saka Calendar begins on 22nd March every year except in Gregorian leap years when it starts on 21st March.
• The Saka calendar starts with Chaitra, followed by Vaisakha, Jyeshtha, Ashadha, Shravana, Bhadrapada, Ashwina, Kartika, Margashirsha, Pausha, Magha and Phalguna. The number of days in a saka year is 365.
• The calendar was adopted as the National Calendar in the year 1957 by the Calendar Reforms Committee set up by the Government of India. It came into use from 22 March 1957 according to the Gregorian calendar, which was actually Chaitra 1, 1879 according to the Saka Samvat.

Answer: (a) 22 March (or 21^st March); Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

Famous work of sculpture	Site
1) A grand image of Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below	Ajanta
2) A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters,sculpted on rock	Mount Abu
3) “Arjuna’s Penance”/”Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge boulders	Mamallapuram

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only,
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• The grand image of Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana, with celestial musicians above and sorrowful followers below, is located in the Ajanta Caves, renowned for their Buddhist rock-cut temples and monasteries.

Image Source: Wiki

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Udayagiri caves (not to be confused with Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves in Odisha) located in Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh. It is famous for having numerous sculptures on the hill walls. The sculpture of Varaha or Boar incarnation of the Vishnu is notable. The caves have one of the earliest Hindu sculptures.
• It also has caves dedicated to Shiva, Narasimha (half-lion, halfman), Narayana (resting Vishnu) and Skanda.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Pair 3 is correct

• This is a famous rock relief found in Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram), Tamil Nadu.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

1. revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.
2. nationalist organization operating from Singapore
3. militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
4. communist movement for India’s freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In 1913, Indian revolutionaries living in the United States of America and Canada formed the Ghadar (Rebellion) Party. The majority of the party’s members were Punjabi Sikh peasants and ex-soldiers who had come to North America in search of employment but experienced severe discrimination based on their race and economic status.
• The Association set up a headquarters called Yugantar Ashram in San Francisco and start a weekly paper, the Ghadar, for free circulation.
• Aim: The Ghadar Party was pledged to wage a revolutionary war against the British in India.
• Ideology: Though most of the party’s members were Punjabi Sikh peasants and ex-soldiers, the party’s ideology was strongly secular. In the words of Sohan Singh Bhakna, who later became a major peasant leader of Punjab: “We were not Sikhs or Punjabis. Our religion was patriotism”.
• Presence: In addition to North America, particularly Canada and the United States of America, the party had active members in other countries such as Mexico, Japan, China, the Philippines, Malaya, Singapore, Thailand, Indo-China, and East and South Africa.
• Leaders: Lala Har Dayal, Mohammed Barkatullah, Bhagwan Singh, Ram Chandra and Sohan Singh Bhakna were some of the prominent leaders of the Ghadar Party.

Answer: (a) evolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

1. It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India
2. It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area
3. It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar
4. It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Kalaripayattu is one of the oldest martial art forms in the world, originating in Kerala. It involves physical conditioning, weapon training, strikes, kicks, grappling, and healing techniques. The primary aim is the ultimate coordination between mind and body. Another focus of Kalaripayattu is the specialisation in indigenous medicinal practices. Kalaris are also important centres of religious worship.

Answer: (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

1) Garba	Gujarat
2) Mohiniattam	Odisha
3) Yakshagana	Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Garba is a popular folk dance of Gujarat, held at the time of Navratra. Garba actually refers to “Garbha deep” – an earthen pot with holes, in which a lamp is lit and women dance around it in circular movements with rhythmic clapping.
• Garba of Gujarat has been inscribed in the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) of Humanity by UNESCO.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Mohiniyattam is a traditional Indian dance form from Kerala. It is named after Mohini, the female avatar of Lord Vishnu. Like most other classical Indian dances, Mohiniyattam’s roots can be traced back to Bharata Muni’s Natya Shastra. It was initially performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in Kerala during the reign of the Chera kings (9th to 12th centuries CE).
• Mohiniyattam is primarily a solo dance performed by female artists, characterised by graceful, gentle, and feminine movements known as Lasya. It combines dancing and singing, often featuring Manipravala songs blending Sanskrit and Malayalam. Music for Mohiniyattam is typically Carnatic, with dancers or vocalists performing the recitation.
• The dance is known for its smooth and fluid body movements, avoiding abrupt jerks or leaps. It emphasizes hand gestures and subtle facial expressions (Mukhabhinaya) over footwork, with 24 hand gestures derived from the ‘Hastha Lakshana Deepika’.

Pair 3 is correct

• Yakshagana is a traditional theatre that emerged between the 11th and 16th centuries in coastal Karnataka and some parts of Kerala. It is a unique combination of dance, music, dialogues, colorful costumes, and heavy facial make-up. It was inspired by the Vaishnava Bhakti movement, which began in the 11th century. It took the format of dance drama under the Vijayanagara Empire.
• Theme: Stories of Lord Krishna and Vishnu, Hindu tales of Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• Accompanied by percussion instruments like chenda, maddalam, jagatta or chengila (cymbals) and chakratala or elathalam (small cymbals). Men have traditionally played all parts, including female characters, while women are now included in Yakshagana troupes.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs:

Famous shrine	Location
1) Tabo monastery and temple complex	Spiti Valley
2) Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako	Zanskar Valley
3) Alchi temple complex	Ladakh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• It is located in the Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh. Known as the “Ajanta of the Himalayas,” Tabo Monastery is one of the oldest Buddhist monasteries in India.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• It is located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh, not in the Zanskar Valley.

Pair 3 is correct

• It is located in Ladakh. The Alchi monastery is a historic Buddhist site known for its ancient murals and is part of the Himalayan Buddhist tradition.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Bijak is not a composition of Saint Dadu Dayal. It is a collection of the teachings of Saint Kabir.
  • Kabir was a disciple of Ramananda. He is one of the greatest Bhakti saints and his ideas percolated to every section of the society.
  • He was a Nirguna saint and openly criticised the orthodox ideas of major religions like Hinduism and Islam.
  • His poems are called Banis (utterances). He wrote in Hindi and borrowed words from Avadhi, Braj and Bhojpuri. His works are also included in the sacred Sikh scripture, Guru Granth Sahib.
• Dadu Dayal was a follower of Kabir, and he believed that God does not belong to any particular religion or sect. He was a contemporary of the Mughal emperor, Akbar and it is said that Akbar respected him.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Vallabhacharya (1479-1531 AD) was the founder of Suddhadvaita (Pure Non dualism) and his philosophy is known as ‘Pushti Marg’. This sect was Krishna-centred, especially his child manifestation, and is enriched with the use of traditions, music and festivals.
• He also founded a school called Rudra Sampradaya. He identified Brahman with Sri Krishna, characterised by Sat (Being), Chit (consciousness) and Ananda (bliss). According to him, salvation is possible through Sneha (deep-rooted love for God).
• He was the author of a number of scholarly works in Sanskrit and Braj bhasa, the important ones being Subodhini and Siddhant Rahasya
• Madhvacharya (1238-1317 AD) is the founder of Dvaitavada (ie dualism) school of Vedanta.
• He was a critic of Adi Shankaracharya’s philosophy of Advaitavada and said that the Atman (individual soul) and Brahman (ultimate reality, i.e., Lord Vishnu) are fundamentally different, and the individual soul is dependent on the Brahman and can never be identical. According to him, salvation can be achieved only through the grace of God. His philosophy of ‘dualism’ had a profound influence on the Bhakti movement

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

1. martial arts in North-East India
2. musical tradition in North-West India
3. classical vocal music in South India
4. pietra dura tradition in Central India

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Manganiyars are a community of musicians celebrated for their vibrant musical heritage in North-West India, particularly in Rajasthan and Gujarat. They are known for performing traditional folk music, including Sufi songs, bhajans (devotional songs), and other folk compositions.

Answer: (b) musical tradition in North-West India; Difficulty Level: Hard

What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The various changes introduced by the Act of 1858 were formally announced by a proclamation of Queen Victoria on November 1, 1858. Lord Canning, at Allahabad, announced Queen Victoria’s proclamation to “the Princes, Chiefs and Peoples of India.”
• The Queen’s proclamation, known as the Magna Carta of the Indian people, disclaimed territorial extensions, promised religious toleration, guaranteed the rights of Indian princes, and pledged equal treatment to Indians and Europeans. The proclamation declared that:
  • Those who laid down arms by 2 January 1859 would be pardoned except those directly involved in the murder of British subjects
  • Official service would be open to all
  • Due regard would be given to the ancient usages and customs of India.
• It transferred the power to govern India from the East India Company to the British Crown and declared Queen Victoria as the sovereign of British India.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Proclamation was about governance and political administration, not trade regulation.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

1. the mosque for the use of Royal Family
2. Akbar’s private chamber prayer
3. the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.
4. the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In c.1575 CE, Akbar constructed the Ibadat Khana (Hall of prayers) at his new capital Fatehpur Sikri wherein Akbar invited learned scholars from all religions like Hinduism, Jainism, Christianity, and Zoroastrianism and used to conduct religious discussions with them.
• Some of the scholars were:
  • Pursottam Das – Hindu Dastur
  • Maharji Rana – Parsi (of Navsari)
  • Hira Vijaya Suri – Jain saint of Kathiawar
  • Aquaviva and Monserrate – Christian (sent by the Portuguese on Akbar’s request)

• In c.1582 CE, he promulgated a new religion called Din-i-Ilahi/Tauhindi-Ilahi (Divine Monotheism), which believes in one God and in Sul-iKul/peace to all. It contained the good points of all religions and the basics were rational. However, his new faith proved to be a failure. It fizzled out after his death. Even during his lifetime, it had only followers including Birbal, Abul Fazl, and Abul Faizi.

Answer: (c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?

1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• India has a National Seeds Policy (2002).
  • The main features of the National Seeds Policy, 2002 include development of new and improved varieties of plants, timely availability of quality seeds, compulsory registration of seeds, creation of infrastructure facilities, quality assurance, promotion of seed industry, abolition of licensing for seed dealers, facility for import of best quality seeds, encouragement for export of seeds and creation of Seed Banks and National Seed Grid.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The private sector actively participates in the seed industry in India, particularly in the supply of quality seeds for vegetables and planting materials for horticultural crops.

Statement 3 is correct

• A demand-supply gap for quality seeds, especially for low-value, high-volume crops like wheat and rice, compels farmers to depend on their own preserved seeds.

Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Eco-Sensitive Zones are declared under the Environmental (Protection) Act of 1986.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Eco-Sensitive Zones areas are based on the core (all kinds of human activity are prohibited) and buffer (grazing, collection of minor forest produce, subsistence agriculture, etc. are allowed on a sustainable basis) model of management.

PMF Concept Hack Watch for extreme phrases like “prohibit all kinds of human activities”—UPSC rarely frames such absolute statements correctly. ESZs follow a regulated activity approach (core-buffer model) where certain activities are allowed sustainably, not completely banned. Hence, Statement 2 is also incorrect

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is a statutory advisory body advising the government on animal welfare laws & promotes animal welfare in India. It was established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MFAHD – Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying).
  • The subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred from MoEF to MFAHD in 2019.
• Well-known humanitarian Rukmini Devi Arundale (1904-1986), an eminent Bharatanatyam dancer, was instrumental in setting up the board. It oversees Animal Welfare Organizations (AWOs) by granting recognition to them. It also provides financial assistance to recognised AWOs.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006, provides for creating the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA – a statutory body under MoEF) and
• NTCA administers Project Tiger. Tiger reserves in India are administered by field directors in accordance with the guidelines of NTCA. No alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made except on a recommendation of the NTCA and the approval of the National Board for Wildlife. No State Government shall de-notify a tiger reserve, except in public interest, with the approval of the NTCA and the National Board for Wildlife.
• Chairmanship: Minister for Environment and Forests.

Statement 3 is correct

• The National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of the River Ganga (National Ganga Council) was established by the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management) Authorities Order, 2016. It replaced the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
• NGC has the overall responsibility of preventing pollution and rejuvenating the Ganga River Basin. National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG – registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act 1860) is the implementation wing of NGC, which is implementing the Namami Gange Programme.
• Members of the National Ganga Council:
  • Prime Minister – Chairperson.
  • Union Minister for Jal Shakti – Vice-Chairperson.
  • Union Minister for Environment, Finance, Power, Housing, Science and Technology, State for Tourism and Shipping.
  • CMs of States through which Ganga or its tributaries flow.
  • Vice Chairperson, Niti Aayog

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Vitamin Deficiency	Disease
1) Vitamin C	Scurvy
2) Vitamin D	Rickets
3) Vitamin E	Night Blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 and 2 are correct and Pair 3 is incorrect

• Vitamin A: Night blindness
• Vitamin B1: Beriberi
• Vitamin B2: Ariboflavinosis
• Vitamin B3: Pellagra
• Vitamin B5: Paresthesia
• Vitamin B6: Anemia
• Vitamin B7: Dermatitis, enteritis
• Vitamin B9 & Vitamin B12: Megaloblastic anemia
• Vitamin C: Scurvy, Swelling of Gums
• Vitamin D: Rickets & Osteomalacia
• Vitamin E: Less Fertility
• Vitamin K: Non-Clotting of Blood.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All concerns are correct

• Accumulation in the environment: Nanoparticles can persist in soil and water, leading to long-term contamination. Their small size allows them to interact with environmental components in unique and potentially harmful ways.
• Entry into food chains: Due to their small size and mobility, nanoparticles can enter aquatic systems or be absorbed by plants. This makes their entry into food chains possible, posing risks to both animals and humans.
• Triggering free radicals: Nanoparticles can induce oxidative stress by generating free radicals. This may lead to cellular damage in living organisms, contributing to health issues like inflammation or even carcinogenesis.
  • A free radical is defined as a molecule with at least one unpaired valence electron, making it chemically reactive and unstable. In the context of neuroscience, free radicals are oxygen-containing species that can lead to oxidative stress and damage important molecules in the body.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

1. The International Monetary Fund
2. The United Nations Development Programme
3. The World Economic Forum
4. The World Bank

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The World Economic Outlook is published by the IMF twice a year. It provides the IMF’s estimates and projections for global output growth, inflation, real GDP growth, consumer prices, current account balances, and unemployment across the IMF’s member countries, categorised by region and development status.

Answer: (a) The International Monetary Fund; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Union Budget, which of the following, is/are covered under Non- Plan Expenditure?

1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. None

Explanation

All options are correct

• Budget documents classified total expenditure into plan and non-plan expenditure. According to this classification, plan revenue expenditure relates to central Plans (the Five-Year Plans) and central assistance for State and Union Territory plans. Non-plan expenditure, the more important component of revenue expenditure, covers a vast range of general, economic and social services of the government. The main items of non-plan expenditure are interest payments, defence services, subsidies, salaries and pensions.
• Note: In 2016, the Government of India announced the abolition of the classification of plan and non-plan expenditure. From 2017-18 onwards, government expenditures have been reclassified into Capital and Revenue expenditure.

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy