UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2013

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2013 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2013 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2013

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

1. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
2. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
3. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
4. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• After a money bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration.
• The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding a money bill. It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can only make recommendations. It must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, whether with or without recommendations.
• The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the modified form. If the Lok Sabha does not accept any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have passed by both the Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha without any change.

Answer: (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
2. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
3. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
4. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support

Explanation

Statement (c) is correct

• The Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date he/she enters office. However, the Governor can continue to hold office beyond five years until the successor assumes charge, ensuring that there is no interregnum in the office of the Governor. At the same time, the five-year term is not secure because the Governor serves at the President’s pleasure. Therefore, the President can remove the Governor at any time. The Governor may also resign from office by addressing a resignation letter to the President. Importantly, the Constitution of India does not prescribe any procedure or grounds for the removal of a Governor. The Supreme Court has also observed that the President’s pleasure in this matter is not subject to judicial justification regarding the grounds of removal

Statement (a) is incorrect

• Usually, there is a governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.

Statement (b) is incorrect

• The appointment of Judges for the High Courts of states is done by the President of India.

Statement (d) is incorrect

• According to Section 45 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, the Chief Minister is appointed by the President.

Answer: (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Geographical Feature	Region
a) Abyssinian Plateau	Arabia
b) Atlas Mountains	North-Western Africa
c) Guiana Highlands	South-Western Africa
d) Okavango Basin	Patagonia

Explanation

Pair (b) is correct

• Atlas Mountains: Mountain range across the north-western stretch of Africa extending about 2,500 km (1,600 mi) through Algeria, Morocco and Tunisia.
  • The highest peak is Toubkal (4,165 metres) in southwestern Morocco.
  • These mountains were formed when Africa and Europe collided.

Pair (a) is incorrect

• Abyssinian Plateau is situated in Ethiopia (Africa).

Pair (c) is incorrect

• The Guiana Highlands are in northern and eastern South America and extend through parts of Columbia, Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana, and Brazil.

Pair (d) is incorrect

• The Okavango Basin is in Southern Africa, particularly Botswana, and is known for the Okavango Delta.
  • It is formed by the Okavango river, which originates in the highlands of Angola.
  • It is one of the very few large inland delta systems without an outlet to the sea, known as an endorheic delta; its waters drain instead into the desert sands of the Kalahari Basin.
• Patagonia is in South America.

Answer: (b) Atlas Mountains: North-Western Africa; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:

1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock cut caves in India.
2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The caves at Badami in Karnataka were constructed during the 6th–7th centuries CE under the Chalukyas, but they are not the earliest examples of rock-cut architecture in India. The oldest surviving rock-cut caves are the Barabar Caves in Bihar, dating to the 3rd century BCE during the Mauryan period.

Additional Information Badami Caves (6th-7th century CE): Badami (Vatapi, located in present-day Bagalkot District of Karnataka), the capital of early Chalukyas, has four inimitable rock-cut temples. Cave 1: Dedicated to Lord Shiva, this cave features an 18-armed dancing Nataraja, depicting 81 dance poses, showcasing both artistic and religious themes. Cave 2: Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, it houses intricate carvings of Varaha (the boar incarnation) and Vamana (the dwarf incarnation). Cave 3: The largest cave, also dedicated to Vishnu, features his Trivikrama (conqueror of three worlds) form. It has detailed sculptures and a carved ceiling with mythological themes. Cave 4: A Jain cave depicting figures of Tirthankaras, reflecting the religious tolerance of the Chalukyas. Architectural Features: The cave temples feature monolithic columns, a ‘mukha mandapam’ leading to the artha mandapam, and intricate cell-like carvings on the rear walls of the mandapas. Significance of Location: Located on the banks of Agastiya Tirtha, the temples showcase an early example of rainwater harvesting, with water sourced from rain flowing through rocks and surrounded by a wall with stone steps.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Barabar and Nagarjuni caves in Bihar were excavated during the reign of Ashoka and his grandson Dasharatha. These caves were primarily used by ascetics of the Ajivika sect. Notable among them are the Sudama Cave, Lomas Rishi Cave, and Karan Chaupar Cave.

Statement 3 correct

• Ellora is located nearly 100 Kms away from the Ajanta caves. It is a group of 34 caves – 17 Brahmanical, 12 Buddhist and 5 Jain.
• This set of caves was developed during the period between the 5th and 11th centuries AD (newer as compared to Ajanta Caves) by various guilds from Vidarbha, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
• Some of the prominent caves in Ellora are:
  • Cave No. 10 is a Buddhist Chaitya cave known as Visvakarma Cave or Carpenter’s Cave. Buddha is seated in Dharmachakra Mudra here with the Bodhi tree carved at his back.
  • Cave No. 14 is themed “Raavan ki Khai”.
  • Cave No. 15 is Dashavatar Temple.
  • Cave No. 16 is the Kailasha Temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. It was developed under the patronage of Rashtrakuta king Krishna I and was carved out of a monolith, and it even has a courtyard. In Cave No. 16, there is also a sculpture on the wall of Kailasha temple depicting Ravana shaking Mount Kailasha.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred across different

1. species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Recombinant DNA technology (genetic engineering) involves the artificial manipulation and transfer of genes from one organism to another, even across natural species barriers.
• This technology enables the transfer of genes across:
  • Different species of plants: For example, genes from one plant species can be introduced into another to enhance traits like pest resistance or drought tolerance.
  • From animals to plants: Animal genes can be inserted into plants for various purposes, such as creating pharmaceutical-producing plants.
  • From microorganisms to higher organisms: Microbial genes can be introduced into higher organisms to provide new functionalities.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The roads and river routes were completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Hiuen Tsang mentions that while law and order were maintained in general, certain areas were prone to robbery, especially in regions with dense forests or less governance.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Ordeals were common in ancient India as a method to determine guilt or innocence, and they included trials by fire, water, and poison, which Hiuen Tsang observed and recorded in his accounts.
• Hiuen Tsang noted that traders were subject to various duties, including those collected at ferries and barrier stations, as part of the administrative and revenue system of the time.

Additional Information Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese traveller, Buddhist scholar monk and translator. He came to India through the Silk Route between 629 and 644 AD during the reign of Harshavardhana. He was also known as Xuanzang and the Prince of Pilgrims. From his famous book Si-Yu-Ki: Buddhist Record of the Western World”, many details of administrative, political, religious, economic and social conditions during those days in India can be found. However, the descriptions were biased so as to glorify Buddhism and praise King Harshavardhana.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following

1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Star tortoise is correct

• They are native to India, particularly in the arid and semi-arid regions of northwest and southern India and parts of Sri Lanka.

Monitor lizard is correct

• India is home to four Monitor lizards – the Bengal Monitor (Varanus bengalensis), the Asian Water monitor (Varanus salvator), the Yellow monitor (Varanus flavescens) and the Desert monitor (Varanus griseus). These reptiles are mostly solitary and spend their days on the go, often venturing into urban areas for food and water.

Pygmy hog

• Pygmy Hog is the world’s smallest wild pig. It is one of the indicator species of grassland habitats.
  • Indicator species: An organism whose presence, absence or abundance reflects a specific environmental condition.
• It is found only in Manas WLS (Assam). Earlier, it was found across north India. Pygmy hog-sucking Louse is a critically endangered parasite that feeds only on Pygmy Hogs.
• It lives in sociable family groups of up to 20, led by a matriarch.

Spider monkey is incorrect

• Spider monkeys are New World monkeys. They are found in Mexico, Central America, and South America, while Old World monkeys are found in Africa, central to southern Asia, and Japan.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?

1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The most straightforward options are Fluoride, Arsenic and Uranium. The knowledge of either “Sorbitol” or “Formaldehyde” will give us the answer.
• We are more familiar with formaldehyde (a carcinogen) since it is a volatile organic compound
• (VOC), an air pollutant. Sorbitol (glucitol) is a sugar alcohol. It contains about one-third fewer calories than sugar and is 60 per cent as sweet. It occurs naturally in berries and fruits.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 5 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

1. directly elected by the people of those Provinces
2. nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
3. elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
4. selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Constitution was made by the Constituent Assembly. Its members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies that had been established under the Government of India Act of 1935. Provincial elections were held in January 1946 in British India to elect members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.

Answer: (c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following animals:

1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse
3. Sea lion

Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Sea Cow is correct

• The dugong, often called the “sea cow,” is the only marine mammal that exclusively feeds on plants.
• Dugongidae Family: It is the only surviving species in the Dugongidae family. Their close relative, Steller’s Sea Cow, was hunted to extinction in the 18th century.
• Physical Adaptation: Its cylindrical body, paddle-like flippers, rounded snout, and muscular upper lip are adapted for grazing on seagrass beds.
• Demographic Vulnerability: Dugongs can live up to 70 years but reproduce very slowly. Calves are born only every 3 to 7 years.
• Preferred Habitat: They thrive in warm, shallow, sheltered coastal waters less than ten meters deep. Dense seagrass beds provide food and shelter.
• Dietary Impact: An adult dugong consumes 30 to 40 kilograms of seagrass daily, which helps keep seagrass meadows healthy and prevents sediment overgrowth.
• Global Distribution: Dugongs inhabit warm waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans, with a major population in northern Australia and the Arabian Gulf.
• Indian Range: A small population is found in Palk Bay, Gulf of Mannar, Andaman Nicobar Islands, and Gulf of Kutch. They are extinct in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
• Ecosystem Role: By grazing continuously, dugongs act as “ecosystem engineers.” They support seagrass health, help fish nurseries, and maintain the coastal food web.
• Primary Threats: Gillnet entanglement, vessel collisions, habitat loss, and illegal hunting.
• Conservation Status: IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES: Appendix I; WPA: Schedule I.

Sea horse is incorrect

• The sea horse is a type of fish, not a mammal. It belongs to the genus Hippocampus. There are 46 species of seahorses reported worldwide. The coastal ecosystems of India house nine out of 12 species found in the Indo-Pacific, one of the hotspots of seahorse populations that are distributed across diverse ecosystems such as seagrass, mangroves, macroalgal beds, and coral reefs. These nine species are distributed along the coasts of eight States and five Union Territories from Gujarat to Odisha, apart from Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Sea lion is correct

• The sea lion is a marine mammal belonging to the family Otariidae. They are part of the pinniped group that also includes seals and walruses.
• They live both on land and sea. Diet: Carnivorous.
• Physical properties: Streamlined body with brown or tan coat, large head, and long, flexible neck.
• Sea lion got its name because most males have manes. They roar to defend the females in their groups.
• They have external ear flaps, long foreflippers, the ability to walk on all fours, short and thick hair, and a big chest and belly.
• Habitat: Western coast and islands of North America, from southeast Alaska to central Mexico, on rocky shorelines, islands, and sandy beaches.
• The average life is 20-30 years. They can be as heavy as 1200 pounds.
• There are five species of sea lion: California, northern, southern, Australian, and New Zealand.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting. After being duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return it to Parliament for reconsideration.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India

1. can take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Only Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is /are correct?

1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

• The sugar industry produces several valuable by-products. Bagasse, the fibrous residue left after extracting juice, is widely used as a biomass fuel in sugar mills and also in paper manufacturing. Molasses, a thick liquid by-product, serves as a key raw material for ethanol production through fermentation and distillation. However, molasses is not used in the manufacture of synthetic chemical fertilizers such as urea or DAP, which are derived from inorganic sources like natural gas (for ammonia) and rock phosphate.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to

1. the earth’s rotation on its axis
2. the earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner
3. latitudinal position of the place
4. revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Revolution of the Earth on a tilted axis causes seasons or variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season.

Answer: (d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Narmada River flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Narmada River flows through a linear rift valley. This valley is a long, narrow depression in the Earth’s crust formed by tectonic plate movements. The formation of the rift valley created a slope in the land, tilting westward.

Additional Information The Narmada basin extends over MP, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh, which is nearly 3% of the country’s total geographical area. The basin is bounded by Vindhyas on the north, by the Maikala range on the east, by Satpuras on the south, and by the Arabian Sea on the west. Narmada, with a length of 1,312 km, is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India. It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. It originates from the Amarkantak plateau of MP. It flows westwards in a rift valley between the Satpura in the south and the Vindhyan range in the north. It forms a picturesque gorge in marble rocks and Dhuandhar waterfall near Jabalpur. It drains into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat. Left bank tributaries: Burhner, Banjar, Sher, Shakkar, Dudhi, Tawa, Ganjal, Kundi, Goi, and Karjan. Right bank tributaries: Hiran, Tendoni, Barna, Kolar, Man, Uri, Hatni, and Orsang.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While the mountain ranges do flank the Narmada River, they are not the direct cause of its westward flow. The presence of these mountain ranges is a consequence of the same geological processes that created the Rift Valley.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• While the land does have a slight westward tilt from central India, it’s not the main factor determining the Narmada River’s direction.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

On the planet Earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

1. is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
2. is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
3. exists as groundwater
4. exists as soil moisture

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• According to the U.S. Geological Survey, more than 68% of Earth’s freshwater is stored in ice caps and glaciers, while a little over 30% exists as groundwater. In contrast, only about 0.3% of freshwater is available as surface water in lakes, rivers, and swamps.

Answer: (c) exists as groundwater; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

1) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve	Garo Hills
2) Loktak Lake	Barail Range
3) Namdapha National Park	Dafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Nokrek Biosphere Reserve: It is located in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau (average altitude: 600 metres).
  • The entire area is mountainous and Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo hills, rising up 1,412 metres.
  • Vegetation: Evergreen, semi-evergreen & deciduous.
  • Key Fauna: Red Panda (EN), Hoolock Gibbons (EN), Red Giant Flying Squirrel (LC), etc.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Loktak Lake is a freshwater lake in Manipur. It is the largest freshwater lake in the north-eastern region.
• Keibul Lamjao, the only floating national park in the world, floats over it. Thick, floating mats of weeds covered with soil (phumids) are a characteristic feature.
• It is not located in the Barail Range. The Barail Range is the highest hill range in Assam and serves as the watershed separating the Brahmaputra and Barak river systems.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• It is located in Arunachal Pradesh between the Dapha bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range. It is crossed by the Noa Dihing River (a tributary of the Brahmaputra River) that originates at Chaukan Pass. It is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot.
• Vegetation: Evergreen to temperate broadleaf forest.
• It is the only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat, namely: Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard and Clouded Leopard.
• It is famous for the critically endangered Namdapha flying squirrel which is endemic to the park.
• Major Fauna: Asian wild dog (dhole), Malayan sun bear, Indian wolf, Asiatic black bear, red panda, red fox, Asian golden cat, Indian elephant, wild boar, musk deer, hog deer, sambar, gaur, takin, bharal (blue sheep).
• Primates: Stump-tailed macaque, slow loris, Western Hoolock gibbon (the only ‘ape’ species found in India), capped langur, Assamese macaque and rhesus macaque.
• Daphla (or Dafla) Hills is a tract of hilly country on the border of western Arunachal and Assam.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation

All are correct

• Electromagnetic Radiation: Electromagnetic radiation, such as light, radio waves, and X-rays, is energy emitted by charged particles. It drives temperature changes, water evaporation (causing precipitation), and the formation of metamorphic rocks
• Geothermal Energy: Originates from the Earth’s interior and drives volcanic activity, tectonic movements, and other subsurface processes.
• Gravitational Force: Affects tides (interaction with the Moon) and plays a role in maintaining the Earth’s structure and dynamics.
• Plate Movements: Cause earthquakes, mountain formation, and sea-floor spreading.
• Rotation of the Earth: Influences wind patterns, ocean currents, and the Coriolis effect, impacting Earth’s surface.
• Revolution of the Earth: Affects seasons and climatic variations, indirectly impacting Earth’s surface processes.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

National Development Council is correct

• The National Development Council (NDC) was established in August 1952 by an executive resolution of the Government of India on the recommendation of the First Five-Year Plan (draft outline). Like the erstwhile Planning Commission, it is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

Planning Commission is correct

• The erstwhile Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India.

Zonal Councils is correct

• The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for

1. the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
2. the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
3. the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
4. writing off all peasant debts

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Tebhaga Peasant Movement (1946–47) in Bengal was a major agrarian struggle led by sharecroppers, known as bargadars or adhiars, against the exploitative practices of jotedars. Its central demand was the implementation of the Floud Commission’s recommendations, which proposed that sharecroppers should receive two-thirds of the produce, reducing the landlord’s share from one-half to one-third.

Answer: (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

1. with the consent of all the States
2. with the consent of the majority of States
3. with the consent of the States concerned
4. without the consent of any State

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power to make any law for the whole or any part of India to implement international treaties, agreements, or conventions. This can be done without requiring the consent of the States, even if the subject matter of the treaty falls within the State List of the Seventh Schedule.

Answer: (d) without the consent of any state; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

1. insects and fungi
2. limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
3. water limits and fire
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Grasses have one good trick to monopolise a place. In the dry season, the grasses dry up and cause fires, which destroy other plant species and their seeds (autogenic succession). Also, grasslands develop in regions with scanty rainfall where plant growth cannot be achieved. Though forests form the climax community in most ecosystems, in the grassland ecosystem, grasses form the climax community. This is primarily due to the influence of fire and water scarcity. Grasslands are almost irreversible once deforestation in water-scarce areas gives way to grasslands.

Answer: (c) water limits and fire; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

1. Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
2. Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
3. Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
4. Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Productivity = production/unit area/unit time. It depends on the number and diversity of producers.
• Ecotones (Mangroves, estuaries, and grasslands) have greater productivity than the surrounding ecosystems.
• Tropical Rainforests and coral reefs are an exception, as they have productivity comparable to wetlands because of their rich diversity of primary producers.
• Note: Grasslands are not transitional all the time. E.g., Steppe and Savanna grasslands, which are very vast, are non-transitional and have very low productivity because of the minimal diversity of primary producers. (Grasslands become transitional only when they are narrow). So, the order of decreasing productivity will be like Mangroves, ……, ……, …….. .
• Oceans are very deep, and hence productivity is limited to the surface only (deep below in the aphotic zone, productivity is negligible. The Aphotic zone in oceans is a few kilometres thick!).
• Also, ocean surface water is abysmal (very poor) in nutrients (except near the shoreline).
• Nutrient-rich cold water flows as a sub-surface flow in the aphotic zone. Sunlight and nutrients are far apart, so primary productivity is very low except in regions with an upwelling of nutrient-rich cold water (cold and warm ocean current mixing zones).
• So, among the options, the open ocean ecosystem has the least productivity. (Desert ecosystem also has very low productivity, lesser than the oceans). • So, the answer will look like Mangroves, ………., ………, Oceans. The only such option is c). Lakes, just like oceans, have low productivity. However, due to some plants in the photic zone, lakes have productivity slightly greater than that of oceans.

Answer: (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans; Difficulty Level: Hard

Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

1. desert margins, liable to strong wind action
2. low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
3. scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation that is primarily used in hilly and sloping terrains, where runoff water can cause significant soil erosion. In this technique, small embankments are constructed along contour lines to slow down the flow of water, thereby reducing soil loss and improving moisture retention. It is not suitable for desert margins, where wind erosion is dominant; nor for low, flat plains prone to flooding, where drainage measures are more relevant; nor for scrublands dealing with weed spread. Since none of the given options correctly describe the areas where contour bunding is used, the correct answer is (d) None of the above.

Answer: (d) None of the above; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

1. To provide self-governance
2. To recognize traditional rights
3. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
4. To free tribal people from exploitation

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• PESA aims to strengthen decentralised democracy by incorporating traditional tribal governance systems into the existing Panchayati Raj framework, rather than establishing separate autonomous administrative regions.

Answer: (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas; Difficulty Level: Easy

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

1. State Forest Department
2. District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
3. Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer
4. Gram Sabha

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• As per the Act, the Gram Sabha has been designated as the competent authority for initiating the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights. The decision of the Gram Sabha to reject or allow a claim can be appealed before the court.

Answer: (d) Gram Sabha; Difficulty Level: Easy

Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by

1. bacteria
2. protozoa
3. moulds
4. viruses

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Aflatoxins are toxic compounds produced primarily by certain species of moulds, such as Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus. These moulds grow on improperly stored cereal grains, oilseeds, and other food products, particularly in warm and humid conditions.
  • Moulds are multicellular fungi that grow as branching filaments called hyphae, playing roles in decomposition, food production, and causing health issues such as allergies and respiratory problems.

Answer: (c) moulds; Difficulty Level: Hard

‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in

1. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
2. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions “Justice — social, economic, and political”
• The DPSPs (Part IV of the Constitution) contain provisions aimed at achieving economic justice, such as:
  • Article 38: Direct the state to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice–social, economic and political–and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities
  • Article 39: The State shall ensure that the ownership and control of resources are distributed to serve the common good and that citizens have an adequate means of livelihood.
  • Article 41, 42, 43, etc., promote workers’ rights, equal pay, and equitable distribution of resources.

Answer: (b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?

1. Beryllium
2. Cadmium
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Lead
7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
2. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
3. 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Beryllium, Cadmium, Chromium, Mercury, and Lead are heavy metals widely used in electronic components such as circuit boards, batteries, and monitors. When e-waste is improperly disposed of, these toxic substances can leach into soil and water, posing serious environmental and health hazards. Heptachlor is an organic compound that was historically used as an insecticide. Although it may have been present in some older equipment, it is not a typical component of modern electronics and is not a major concern in e-waste. Plutonium is a radioactive element mainly used in nuclear weapons and reactors. It is not used in electronic devices and, therefore, is not found in e-waste

Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 7 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

1. carbon dioxide and nitrogen
2. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
3. ozone and carbon dioxide
4. nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). These gases are released mainly from the burning of fossil fuels in industries, thermal power plants, and vehicles. Once in the atmosphere, they react with water vapour, oxygen, and other chemicals to form sulphuric acid and nitric acid, which then fall to the ground as acid rain.

Answer: (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Transfer of energy from producers through a series of organisms at each tropic level with repeated eating and being eaten is called a food chain. For example, Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle constitute a food chain.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Food chains involve interactions between different species across trophic levels, such as producers, consumers, and decomposers. It does not occur within a single species’ population.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• A food chain shows the flow of energy and the feeding relationships, but it does not quantify the numbers of organisms at each trophic level.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

National Park	River flowing through the Park
1) Corbett National Park	Ganga
2) Kaziranga National Park	Manas
3) Silent Valley National	Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Corbett National Park is the oldest National Park in India and is located in the Nainital. In 1936, it was established to protect the Bengal tiger. It was named after Jim Corbett, a well-known hunter and naturalist. The park was the first National Park to come under the Project Tiger initiative.
• Corbett Tiger Reserve’s core area is formed by Jim Corbett National Park, while the buffer contains Sonanadi Wildlife Sanctuary. Ramganga, Sonanadi and Kosi are the major rivers flowing through the National Park and Ramganga Reservoir is located within the National Park.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Kaziranga National Park lies in the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot and the Brahmaputra River flows through the park. This park, which hosts 2/3rd of the world’s one-horned rhinoceroses, is a World Heritage Site. It is recognised as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.
• Manas River (a tributary of Brahmaputra) passes through the heart of the Manas National Park.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Silent Valley National Park is located in the Nilgiri Hills in the Malappuram district, Kerala, and Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu. The park lies within the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• Bhavani River (a tributary of the Kaveri River) and Kunthipuzha River (a tributary of the Bharathappuzha River) originate in the vicinity of the park. The Kadalundi River also originates in this park.
• It is home to the largest population of lion-tailed macaques (EN).

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following organisms

1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra

Which of the above is / are used as biofertilizer / biofertilizers?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Only option 2 is correct

• Biofertilizers are a carrier medium rich in live microorganisms. When applied to seed, soil or living plants, it increases soil nutrients or makes them biologically available.
• Biofertilizers contain different types of fungi, root bacteria or other microorganisms. They form a mutually beneficial or symbiotic relationship with host plants as they grow in the soil.
• Nostoc is a genus of cyanobacteria (blue-green algae), that can fix atmospheric nitrogen. It is used as a biofertilizer for rice and other crops.
• Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms that are not used as biofertilizers, but as edible fungi or decomposers.
• Spirogyra is a genus of green algae that are not used as biofertilizers, but as indicators of water quality or sources of biofuel.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?

1. Excretion of urea by animals
2. Burning of coal by man
3. Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Animals excrete urea, which is converted by soil microorganisms into ammonia and then nitrates through processes like ammonification and nitrification. This adds nitrogen to the soil.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Burning coal releases nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) into the atmosphere rather than directly into the soil. These gases mainly contribute to air pollution and acid rain, and do not directly enhance soil nitrogen levels.

Statement 3 is correct

• When plants die, their organic matter decomposes through the action of bacteria and fungi. This process releases nitrogen compounds back into the soil, naturally replenishing its nutrient content

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

In which of the following States is the lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Lion-tailed macaque (or wanderoo), sometimes called bearded monkey, is an Old World monkey endemic to the Western Ghats.
• Distribution: Found in three states, namely, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

1. Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
2. Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
3. Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it
4. There is no material difference between the two

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Chaitya is a place of worship in the form of an assembly hall inside the cave whereas Viharas are the resident places for monks.

Image Source: Wikipedia (Chaiyta)

Image Source: Wikipedia (Vihara)

Answer: (b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following best describes the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

1. The extinction of the flame of desire
2. The complete annihilation of self
3. A state of bliss and rest
4. A mental stage beyond all comprehension

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In Buddhism, Nirvana refers to the ultimate goal of spiritual practice, which is the cessation of suffering (dukkha) and liberation from the cycle of birth, death, and rebirth (samsara). This state is achieved by extinguishing desires, attachments, and ignorance, which are the root causes of suffering.
• Nirvana is the Summum Bonumm of Buddhism and the person who has attained the ultimate goal is called Arhat. What is Mokşa to the Hindu, the Tao is to the Chinese mystic, Fana to the Sufi, Eternal Life to the followers of Jesus, that is Nirvāna to the Buddhist.
• The word Nirvāna literally means, ‘blowing out’ or ‘becoming cool’. It is the blowing out of the fire of lust (rāga), of resentment (dosa), of glamour (moha). It is thus becoming cool, reaching perfect calm, to be reached within the four corners of the present life. An Arhat, after the dissolution of his body and mind, reaches the state of Pari-Nirvāna. Thus, “blowing-out” and “cooling” is not complete annihilation but the extinction or dying out of hot passion.

Answer: (a) The extinction of the flame of desire; Difficulty Level: Easy

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), as outlined in Part IV of the Constitution of India, are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• While they are not justiciable (i.e., they cannot be enforced by the courts), they serve as guidelines to the government in formulating policies and laws aimed at promoting social justice and welfare.

Answer: (c) Directive Principles of State Policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because

1. Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
2. Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
3. there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
4. the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Simon Commission had seven members, who were representatives of the three major parties in Britain – Conservative, Liberal, and Labour. However, there was no Indian representative.
• According to the British government, Indians were excluded because:
  • The committee was required to report its proceedings to the British Parliament.
  • There was no unanimity of Indian opinion on the problem of constitutional development. •
• In reality, the Indians were excluded because Birkenhead was afraid that in a mixed commission, there could be an alliance between the Indian and British Labour representatives (who were sympathetic to Indians).

• It recommended:
  • The abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) and the establishment of responsible unitary government in the provinces.
  • The retention of separate electorates.
  • The reservation of seats for depressed classes.
  • The federal structure of the Government.
  • It stated that in order to cope with the diversity of the country, the ultimate character of the Indian government had to be federal.
  • Separation of Burma from India and Sindh from Bombay.
  • The Report did not recommend the establishment of either a responsible government or a dyarchy at the centre.
  • It declared that the responsible government at the centre would be established in future, i.e. wait indefinitely.

Answer: (c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission; Difficulty Level: Easy

Quit India Movement was launched in response to

1. Cabinet Mission Plan
2. Cripps Proposals
3. Simon Commission Report
4. Wavell Plan

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8th August 1942 during the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee. It was a response to the Cripps Proposals (March 1942), which were viewed as inadequate by Indian leaders. The proposals, brought by Sir Stafford Cripps, offered limited dominion status and post-war constitutional reforms, failing to address the immediate demand for complete independence. Mahatma Gandhi called the proposal a post-dated cheque on a tottering bank.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Proposed in 1946, it aimed to discuss the framework for India’s independence, which occurred after the Quit India Movement.

Option (c) is incorrect

• The Simon Commission Report, formed in 1927 to review India’s constitutional system, lacked Indian representation and faced widespread opposition, leading to demands for self-governance.

Option (d) is incorrect

• At the end of the war, there was tremendous pressure on the British government to break the Indian deadlock (Congress- League disagreement) and present a formula for the future government of India which would be acceptable to both the INC and the All-India Muslim League (AIML).
• In June 1945, the British government, led by Conservative PM Winston Churchill and the Viceroy, Lord Wavell, simultaneously announced a new offer (Wavell Plan) to work out an interim political agreement under which Indians would be responsible for running the country.

Answer: (b) Cripps Proposals; Difficulty Level: Easy

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

1. all import and transactions of a during a given period normally a year
2. goods exported from a country during a year
3. economic transaction between the government of one country to another
4. capital movements from one country to another

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a comprehensive and systematic record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period, usually one year. It includes not only imports and exports of goods (visible trade), but also services, income flows, transfers, and capital transactions. While options (b), (c), and (d) refer to specific components of external transactions, they do not capture the full scope of the BoP

Answer: (a) all import and transactions of a during a given period normally a year; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of

1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All options are correct

• Liquidity of assets: The RBI sets the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), which are aimed at ensuring the liquidity and stability of commercial banks.
• Branch expansion: The RBI regulates the expansion of commercial bank branches by approving applications for new branches, especially in areas where banks are not adequately represented.
• Merger of banks: The RBI monitors and oversees the merger and acquisition of banks to ensure they are in line with financial stability goals and other regulations.
• Winding-up of banks: The RBI has the authority to take action on the closure or winding-up of a bank if it is deemed insolvent or fails to meet regulatory standards.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the

1. market rate of interest is likely to fall
2. Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
3. Central Bank is following an easy money policy
4. Central Bank is following a tight money policy

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Bank rate is the rate charged by the central bank for lending funds to commercial banks. When the Bank Rate is increased, it becomes more expensive for commercial banks to borrow from the central bank.
• This discourages borrowing and reduces the money supply in the economy, which is a characteristic of a tight money policy. A tight money policy is typically used to control inflation and reduce excessive lending or borrowing in the economy.

Answer: (d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

1. economic development
2. redemption of public debt
3. adjusting the balance of payments
4. reducing the foreign debt

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Deficit financing refers to the method of raising resources by the government to meet its expenditure when its income (revenues) falls short. The government borrows or prints additional money to finance the gap between its revenue and expenditure. This is mainly used for economic development by funding various government programs, infrastructure projects, and social welfare schemes.

Answer: (a) economic development; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?

1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None of the statements given above is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Indus Valley Civilization, unlike some other ancient civilizations, did not have grand palaces or temples. Their cities, such as Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa, were well-planned, but there is no evidence of large palaces or grand temples, which were typical in civilizations like Mesopotamia or Egypt.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Indus people are believed to have worshipped both male and female deities, as evidenced by figurines such as the “Pashupati Seal” and the Mother Goddess figurines.

Image Source: Harappa.com

Statement 3 is incorrect

• There is not much archaeological evidence to support the use of horses or horse-drawn chariots in warfare. The use of horses for chariots became prominent later, particularly during the Vedic period.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?

1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Chikungunya is incorrect

• Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne viral disease caused by the chikungunya virus, an RNA virus. It is not transmitted through tattooing.
• Vectors: Asian tiger mosquito and yellow fever mosquito, which can also transmit dengue and Zika viruses. These mosquitoes bite primarily during daylight hours.
• Incubation Period: 4 to 8 days.
• Symptoms: Severe joint and muscle pain, high fever, and skin rashes.
• Treatment: There is no specific antiviral therapy.
• Fatality rate: Low.
• Impact of CC: Chikungunya virus is currently only common in countries with tropical climates south of the equator. However, climate change is driving disease-carrying mosquitos closer to the poles.

Hepatitis B and HIV-AIDS are correct

• Hepatitis B – This is a blood-borne infection that can be transmitted through contaminated needles or tattoo equipment if not properly sanitised.
  • Safe and effective vaccines are available to prevent HBV.
• HIV-AIDS – HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a blood-borne virus that can also be transmitted through contaminated needles or tattooing equipment.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2. Every object, even the smallest particle, has a soul.
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• As per Jain doctrine, the annihilation (nirjara) of karma comes through penance, and the prevention (samvara) of the influx (asrava) and fixation (bandha) of karma in the soul is ensured by carefully disciplined conduct, as a result of which it does not enter in dangerous quantities and is dispersed immediately.

Statement 2 is correct

• According to Jain philosophy, every entity, even the smallest particle (like water, air, fire, and earth), possesses a soul (jiva).

Statement 3 is correct

• Jainism teaches that karma is the cause of bondage and suffering. It must be removed through right faith, right knowledge, and right conduct to attain liberation.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

1. Ecotone
2. Ecological niche
3. Habitat
4. Home range

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Niche refers to the unique functional role and position of a species in its habitat or ecosystem.
• In nature, many species occupy the same habitat, but they perform different functions:
  • habitat niche — where it lives,
  • food niche — what it eats or decomposes and what species it competes with,
  • reproductive niche — how and when it reproduces,
  • physical and chemical niche — temperature, land shape, land slope, humidity and other requirements.
• Niche plays an essential role in the conservation of organisms. If we must conserve species in their native habitat, we should know their niche requirements.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Zone of transition between two ecosystems. E.g., grasslands, mangroves etc

Option (c) is incorrect

• The habitat of a species is like its ‘address’. In contrast, niche can be considered its “lifestyle and profession” (i.e., activities and responses specific to the species).
• A niche is unique for a species, while many species share the habitat. No two species in a habitat can have the same niche.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Home range can be defined as the area within which an animal normally lives and finds what it needs for survival. Basically, the home range is the area that an animal travels for its normal daily activities.

Answer: (b) Ecological niche; Difficulty Level: Easy

Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among

1. NO2, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
2. CO, 02 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
3. CO, CO2 and N02 at low temperature
4. High concentration of N02, O3 and CO in the evening

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Photochemical smog is also known as summer smog or Los Angeles smog.
  It occurs most prominently in urban areas with high vehicular emissions.
• It forms when nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds react together in the presence of sunlight to form ozone (a secondary pollutant).
• The resulting smog causes a light brownish colouration of the atmosphere, reduced visibility, plant damage, irritation of the eyes, and respiratory distress.

Answer: (a) NO2, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following minerals

1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Calcium, iron, and sodium are all essential for muscle contraction. Calcium directly facilitates the interaction between actin and myosin filaments, enabling the contraction process.
• Iron is critical as a component of haemoglobin and myoglobin, which deliver oxygen to muscles for energy production needed for contraction.
• Sodium plays a key role in generating and transmitting nerve impulses that initiate muscle contraction and in maintaining electrolyte balance. Therefore, all three minerals are vital for proper muscle function

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• It examines accounts related to the appropriation of funds and other financial statements.
• Number of Members: 22 (15LS+7RS); Tenure: 1 year.
• Elected by the two House(s).
• A Minister is not eligible for election to this committee.
• Functions:
  • The Committee’s primary responsibility is to determine if the funds allocated by Parliament have been utilised by the Government within the defined scope of the Demand.
  • The examination is primarily based on the Government of India’s Appropriation Accounts and Audit Reports from the CAG.
  • Review accounts of state corporations, autonomous bodies, and semi-autonomous entities.
  • The Committee does not address policy issues but focuses solely on the implementation and outcomes of policies set by Parliament.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following Bhakti Saints:

1. Dadu Dayal
2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 2

Explanation

Guru Nanak is correct

• Guru Nanak (1469-1539 AD): He was the founder of Sikhism and was active during the late 15th and early 16th centuries. He was preaching during the time when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over (in 1526).

Dadu Dayal is incorrect

• Dadu Dayal (1544-1603 AD): He rejected the authority of vedas, caste system and external forms of worship such as visits to temples and pilgrimages. Instead, he concentrated on japa (repeating the name of God). His followers are called Dadupanthis.

Tyagaraja is incorrect

• Tyagaraja, a renowned composer and musician, lived in South India during the 18th and early 19th centuries. He is widely regarded as one of three major composers – known as the Trinity – of Carnatic Music who flourished at Tanjore or Thanjavur in the early 19th century, the others being Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is / are known as decomposer organism/organisms?

1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Fungi and Bacteria are correct

• Decomposers are organisms that break down dead organic material and recycle nutrients back into the ecosystem. They play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of ecosystems by decomposing complex organic substances into simpler compounds.
• Virus: Viruses are not considered decomposers. They are non-living outside a host and do not directly break down organic matter.
• Fungi: They break down organic material such as dead plants, animals, and waste products, converting them into simpler substances.
• Bacteria: They decompose dead organisms and waste products into simpler inorganic compounds.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where

1. warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
2. rivers drain out large amounts of fresh water into the sea
3. warm and cold oceanic currents meet
4. continental shelf is undulating

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Fishing grounds are most productive in regions where warm and cold oceanic currents meet. These areas are rich in nutrients due to:
  • Upwelling: Cold currents bring nutrients from the deep sea to the surface.
  • Mixing: The convergence of warm and cold currents enhances the availability of nutrients, supporting the growth of phytoplankton, which forms the base of the marine food chain.
• Examples of such regions include:
  • The Grand Banks off Newfoundland (meeting of the Gulf Stream and Labrador Current).
  • The zone where the Peru cold current meets the warm equatorial ocean waters is an important fishing zone.
  • The continental shelves around the islands of Japan are rich in plankton, due to the meeting of the warm Kuroshio and the cold Oyashio currents and provide excellent breeding grounds for all kinds of fish.

Answer: (c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?

1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy:
  • This is a distinctive feature of equatorial forests. The trees in these forests grow tall and densely, creating a continuous layer of foliage (a canopy) that shades the forest floor.
  • All plants struggle upwards (most ephiphytes) for sunlight resulting in a peculiar layer arrangement.
• Coexistence of a large number of species:
  • Equatorial forests are known for their high levels of biodiversity. They provide suitable conditions for a wide range of plant and animal species, including a large number of endemic (native) species.
  • The warm climate, ample rainfall, and consistent year-round growing season contribute to the coexistence of numerous species.
• Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes:
  • Epiphytes, or plants that grow on other plants without harming them, are commonly found in equatorial forests. These forests have a high abundance of epiphytes, such as orchids, ferns, and mosses, which thrive in the humid, shaded environment provided by the canopy.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following constitute a Capital Account?

1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Foreign Loans are part of the Capital Account as they involve borrowing from foreign entities, such as sovereign loans or corporate borrowings. Similarly, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), which includes long-term investments like establishing businesses or acquiring stakes in foreign companies, is a key component of the Capital Account.
• Portfolio Investment, which involves transactions in stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments without significant ownership, is also recorded in the Capital Account. However, Private Remittances, which refer to money sent by individuals working abroad to their home country, are part of the Current Account under transfer payments and not the Capital Account.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following historical places:

1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Ajanta caves is correct

• Ajanta is a series of rock-cut caves in the Sahyadri ranges on the Waghora River near Aurangabad in Maharashtra. There are a total of 29 caves there of which 25 were used as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or prayer halls.
• The figures in these caves were made using the fresco painting technique and demonstrate considerable naturalism. The colours were obtained from local vegetation and minerals.
  • FRESCO: A technique of mural painting executed upon freshly laid or wet lime plaster.
• The outlines of the paintings were done in red colour and then the inside was painted. One of the striking features is the absence of blue colour in the paintings.
• Cave No. 16 is one of the most elegant specimens of cave architecture.
• The paintings are generally themed around Buddhism – the life of Buddha and Jataka stories. Of the 29 caves, five were developed during the Hinayana phase while the remaining 24 were developed during the Mahayana phase of Buddhism.

Lepakshi Temple is correct

• Located in the Anantapur district of Andhra Pradesh, mural paintings were executed on Veerabhadra temple walls at Lepakshi in 16th century. Made during the Vijayanagara period, they follow a religious theme based on Ramayana, Mahabharata and incarnations of Vishnu.
• The paintings show a complete absence of primary colours, especially blue. They depict a decline in painting in terms of quality. The forms, figures and details of their costumes are outlined with black colour.

Sanchi Stupa is incorrect

• Sanchi is known for sculptures, not murals.
• Built by Ashoka and expanded by the Sungas, featuring Jataka story carvings on its gateways and a symbolic triple umbrella representing the Buddha, Dharma, and Sangha.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:

1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Sankhya is one of the six orthodox (astika) schools of Indian philosophy. Sankhya explicitly accepts the doctrine of rebirth and the transmigration of the soul. It posits that liberation (Moksha) involves the cessation of the cycle of rebirths.

Statement 2 is correct

• Sankhya holds that liberation is achieved through ‘discriminative knowledge’ (viveka-jnana). This involves the realization of the fundamental distinction between Purusha (pure consciousness) and Prakriti (matter). According to this school, it is the self-knowledge of the true nature of Purusha as an eternal observer, separate from the material world, that leads to freedom from suffering and the cycle of birth and death. This process is internal and rational, emphasizing systematic analysis rather than external divine intervention.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
• This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament.
• The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.

Statement 2 is correct

• This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government.
• The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together.
• The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive).
• Thus, the President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government.
• Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the President1

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is / are the reason / reasons?

1. Thermal difference between land and water
2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Only option 1 is correct

• Thermal difference between land and water: This is the primary reason for the higher annual range of temperature in the interior of continents compared to coastal areas. Land heats up and cools down faster than water due to its lower specific heat capacity, causing more extreme temperature fluctuations in inland areas.
• Variation in altitude between continents and oceans: While altitude can affect temperature, it is not a significant factor in the higher temperature range between continental interiors and coastal areas.
• Presence of strong winds in the interior: Strong winds typically occur near the coasts due to pressure differences, but they are not responsible for the high temperature variation in the interior of continents.
• Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts: Coastal areas generally receive more rainfall due to their proximity to oceans, where moisture is abundant. Therefore, this statement is not accurate.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is / are the characteristics/ characteristics of Indian coal?

1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Indian coal, compared to coal from other parts of the world, generally has a higher percentage of ash content, ranging from 35% to 45%.
• Indian coal is typically low in sulphur content compared to coal found in other countries. Lower sulphur content translates to less air pollution during combustion, particularly sulphur oxides.
• Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature, which is around 1500°C. Ash fusion temperature refers to the temperature at which coal ash starts to melt and agglomerate.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

1 is correct

• Laterite soils are characteristically reddish-brown due to the presence of iron oxides, particularly hematite. These soils are mostly the end products of weathering. They are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods.

2 is incorrect

• Heavy rainfall promotes leaching (nutrients get washed away by water) of soil whereby lime and silica are leached away, and soil rich in oxides of iron and aluminium compounds is left behind.
• Laterite soils are rich in bauxite or ferric oxides.
• They are very poor in lime, magnesia, potash, and nitrogen.
• Sometimes, the phosphate content may be high in the form of iron phosphate

3 is incorrect

• Laterite soils cover an area of 2.48 lakh sq km.
• The continuous stretch of laterite soil is found on the summits of Western Ghats at 1000 to 1500m, Eastern Ghats, the Rajmahal Hills, Vindhyan, Satpuras, and Malwa Plateau.
• They are well developed in south Maharashtra, parts of Karnataka, etc., and are widely scattered in other regions.

4 is correct

• Crops such as Tapioca and cashew nuts are relatively tolerant of acidic and low-nutrient soils like laterite. Also, their deep roots allow them to access moisture stored deeper in the soil.

Answer: (c) 1 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Gondwana beds are known for coal deposits and Natural gas is typically found in marine sedimentary rocks.

Additional Information Around 98% of India’s coal reserves and 99% of coal production are from Gondwana fields. Because of its much younger age, the carbon content in Gondwana coal (250 million years old) is less than that of carboniferous coal (350 million years old—almost absent in India). Gondwana coal is free from moisture, but it contains sulphur and phosphorus. Coking, as well as non-coking coal and bituminous coal, are obtained from Gondwana coal fields. EG-MR – 20 Anthracite is generally not found in the Gondwana coal fields. The Damuda series (i.e. Lower Gondwana) hosts the most productive coalfields (80% of India’s total coal production.

Statement 2 is correct

• Kodarma, in Jharkhand, has rich mica deposits. It’s a major source of mica, particularly muscovite.
• Major mica-bearing pegmatites occur in states including Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Dharwar craton in Karnataka, India, is known for its mineral resources like iron ore and gold, not petroleum.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following crops

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

1. 1 and 4
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Cropping pattern refers to the distribution of different crops within specific areas at times. These patterns have traditionally been shaped by the monsoons, which determine the country’s agricultural calendar – Kharif (monsoon), Rabi (winter), and Zaid (summer).
• Kharif Season (July – Sept/Oct):
  • Relies on monsoon rains.
  • Major crops: Rice, maize, cotton, sorghum, millet, pulses (arhar, moong), and oilseeds (groundnut, soybean).
• Rabi Season (Oct-Mar/Apr):
  • Crucial for food security.
  • Major crops: Wheat, barley, mustard, gram, lentils.
• Zaid Season (Mar – June):
  • The short season between Kharif and Rabi.
  • Major Crops: Watermelon, cucumber, fodder crops, pumpkin, etc.
  • Thrive in warm, dry weather; grown using residual moisture or irrigation.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

1. African Savannah
2. Central Asian Steppe
3. North American Prairie
4. Siberian Tundra

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• This region is characterized by extreme climatic conditions, with hot summers and cold winters.
• Rainfall is scanty, making it suitable for grassland vegetation.
• Historically, the people in this region were primarily nomadic herders. The herders were wandering tribes e.g. the Kirghiz, and the Kazakhs.

Temperate Grassland	Region
Steppe	From the shores of the Black Sea to the foothills of the Altai Mountains
Pustaz	Hungary and the surrounding regions
Prairies	North America (between the foothills of the Rockies and the Great Lakes)
Pampas	Argentina and Uruguay (Rain-shadow effect)
Bush-veld (more tropical)	Northern South Africa
High Veld (more temperate)	Southern South Africa
Downs	Murray-Darling basin of southern Australia
Canterbury	New Zealand (rain shadow effect of Southern Alps)

Option (a) is incorrect

• The African Savanna includes West African Sudan, and then curves southwards into East Africa and southern Africa north of the Tropic of Capricorn.

Option (c) is incorrect

• The North American Prairie region is a temperate grassland with more stable climatic conditions compared to the Central Asian Steppe.

Option (d) is incorrect

• The Siberian Tundra is an extreme cold climate, not conducive to nomadic herding.

Answer: (b) Central Asian Steppe; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• When inflation rises, the value of money decreases over time. For a debtor (someone who owes money), this means the real value of the amount they need to repay diminishes.
• Example:
  • X borrowed ₹1,00,000 at a fixed interest rate of 5% per year.
  • If inflation rises to 10%, X repays the loan with money that has less purchasing power, effectively reducing the real burden of his debt. Thus, inflation benefits him.

• Lenders lose as price rise erodes the purchasing power of the money they are repaid, thus discouraging lending.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Bondholders receive fixed interest payments. With inflation, the purchasing power of these payments decreases, meaning bondholders lose value in real terms.
• Example:
• X holds a bond that pays ₹10,000 annually as interest. With inflation rising from 2% to 8%, the ₹10,000 X receives can now buy fewer goods and services. This means X loses value in real terms.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Disguised unemployment generally means

1. large number of people remain unemployed
2. alternative employment is not available
3. marginal productivity of labour is zero
4. productivity of workers is low

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are employed in a task than necessary. If some workers are removed, the total output does not decrease. This implies their marginal productivity is zero. It is common in agriculture and informal sectors where surplus labor is used but does not contribute to additional productivity
• Imagine family runs a small farm requiring 5 workers to cultivate the land efficiently. However, 8 family members are working on the farm. The extra 3 members, do not add to the farm’s output. If 3 leave the farm to take up another job, the total farm output remains unchanged, illustrating that their marginal productivity is zero.

Answer: (c) marginal productivity of labour is zero; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

• Article 75 of the Indian Constituiton: The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, and the other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister;
  • The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the president; and
  • The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Statement 3 is correct

• Article 78 of the Indian Constitution: It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister:
  • to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation;
  • to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for; and
  • if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the council of ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The National Development Council (NDC) was established in August 1952 by an executive resolution of the Government of India on the recommendation of the First Five Year Plan (draft outline).
• It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
• The NDC was not an organ of the Planning Commission.

Statement 2 is correct

• According to the Constitution of India, “Economic and Social Planning” is listed under Entry 20 of the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. This means both the Union and State governments can legislate on matters related to economic and social planning.

Statement 3 is correct

• Panchayat, being “Local Government” is a State subject and part of State list of Seventh Schedule of Constitution of India. Mandate for setting up of Panchayats is provided by Article 243 in Part IX of the Constitution of India.
• In terms of Article 243 G, the state legislatures, by law, may provide for devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats, at the appropriate level, subject to specified conditions with respect to the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice and implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to matters included in the eleventh schedule.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Vice-President is the ex officio chairperson (not a member of the House) of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Deputy Chairman, who is elected from amongst the house’s members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of the house in the absence of the Chairman.

Statement 2 is correct

• Nominated members of the Parliament do not have voting rights in the Presidential election because they are not part of the Electoral College for this purpose.
• However, they do have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President, as this election involves the entire Parliament (both elected and nominated members).

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA): It is a statutory body established in 1995.
  • It was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987.
  • The objective is the speedy disposal of cases and reducing the judiciary’s burden.
• Its purpose is:
  • To provide free legal services to the weaker sections of society
  • To organise Lok Adalats for the settlement of disputes
  • To organise legal awareness camps in rural areas
  • To establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society.
• NALSA plays a pivotal role in guiding and coordinating the work of State Legal Services Authorities by issuing guidelines and directions for the implementation of various legal programs and schemes across the country.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by

1. the meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. None of the above produces the thunder

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Thunder is the sound caused by the discharge of atmospheric electrical charge (plasma ― ionised gas medium ― 30,000 °C) by lightning. The channel pressure of the electric charge greatly exceeds the ambient (surrounding) pressure, and the channel expands at a supersonic rate (speed of sound).
• The resultant shock wave decays rapidly with distance and is eventually heard as thunder once it slows to the speed of sound. Thunderbolt is a flash of lightning accompanied by a crash of thunder.
• Here’s why the options are incorrect:
• The meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky: While cumulonimbus clouds are associated with thunderstorms, their meeting doesn’t directly cause thunder.
• Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds: Lightning can occur in thunderstorms, but it doesn’t separate the clouds. Lightning creates a rapid expansion of air, which causes the sound of thunder.
• Violent upward movement of air and water particles: This contributes to the formation of thunderstorms and lightning but doesn’t directly produce thunder.

Answer: (d) None of the above produces the thunder; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Tribe	State
1) Limboo (Limbu)	Sikkim
2) Karbi	Himachal Pradesh
3) Dongaria	Odisha
4) Bonda	Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Limboo (or Limbu) is a recognised Scheduled Tribe primarily residing in Sikkim, Darjeeling hills of West Bengal, and parts of Bhutan and Nepal.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Karbi is a major tribe predominantly found in Assam, with some populations also residing in Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland.

Pair 3 is correct

• Dongaria Kondh is a Scheduled Tribe indigenous to the Niyamgiri hills in Odisha

Pair 4 is incorrect

• It’s a tribal community residing in the hill ranges of Malkangiri district in Odisha.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following liquid assets:

1. Demand deposits with the banks
2. Time deposits with the banks
3. Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency

The correct sequence of these in decreasing order of Liquidity is

1. 1-4-3-2
2. 4-3-2-1
3. 2-3-1-4
4. 4-1-3-2

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Liquidity refers to how easily and quickly an asset can be converted into cash without significant loss in value.
• Currency is the most liquid asset as it is already in the form of cash and can be used immediately for transactions.
• Demand deposits with the banks are also highly liquid as they can be withdrawn on demand, typically without any limitations or penalties.
• Savings deposits with the banks are slightly less liquid than demand deposits. While they can generally be withdrawn without penalties, there might be some restrictions or limits on the number or amount of transactions.
• Time deposits with the banks are the least liquid among the options. These deposits, like fixed deposits, have a set maturity date, and withdrawing funds before this date often results in penalties or loss of accrued interest.
• Therefore, the sequence in decreasing order of liquidity is:
  • Currency
  • Demand deposits with the banks
  • Savings deposits with the banks
  • Time deposits with the banks

Answer: (d) 4-1-3-2; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of the Indian economy, Open Market Operations’ refers to

1. borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
2. lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
3. purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• OMO is a monetary policy tool central banks use to control money supply and interest rates. It involves the purchasing and selling of government securities (G-Sec) in the open market.
• When a central bank buys G-Secs, it injects money/liquidity into the economy.
• When the central bank sells G-Secs, it drains money/liquidity from the economy.

Answer: (c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI; Difficulty Level: Easy

Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to

1. agriculture
2. micro and small enterprises
3. weaker sections
4. All of the above

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Priority Sector means those sectors which the Government of India and Reserve Bank of India consider as important for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority over other sectors. The banks are mandated to encourage the growth of such sectors with adequate and timely credit. The categories of priority sector are as follows:
  • Agriculture
  • Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • Export Credit
  • Education
  • Housing
  • Social Infrastructure
  • Renewable Energy
  • Others
• Priority sector loans to the following borrowers are considered as lending under Weaker Sections category:
  • Small and Marginal Farmers
  • Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed Rs 1 lakh
  • Beneficiaries under Government Sponsored Schemes such as National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM) and Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
  • Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
  • Beneficiaries of Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) scheme
  • Self Help Groups
  • Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders
  • Distressed persons other than farmers, with loan amount not exceeding Rs 1 lakh per borrower to prepay their debt to non-institutional lenders
  • Individual women beneficiaries up to Rs 1 lakh per borrower
  • Persons with disabilities
  • Minority communities as may be notified by Government of India from time to time

Answer: (d) All of the above; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

1. Engineering
2. Paper and pulp
3. Textiles
4. Thermal power

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• About 88% of the annual industrial water consumption is accounted for by one sector, while Engineering contributes roughly 5%, Paper & Pulp about 2.3%, and Textiles around 2%.

Answer: (d) Thermal Power; Difficulty Level: Easy

To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

1. Promoting skill development
2. Introducing more social security schemes
3. Reducing infant mortality rate
4. Privatization of higher education

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• To utilize this potential, it is essential to ensure that the working-age population is skilled, employable, and productive. Promoting skill development enhances the workforce’s ability to contribute effectively to economic growth.

Additional Information Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential resulting from changes in a population’s age structure. It occurs when the working-age population (typically 15-64 years) is larger than the dependent population (children and elderly). This shift can lead to increased productivity, higher savings, and more investment. India’s Demographic Status: Current Population: As of 2023, India’s population has reached 1.44 billion, surpassing China’s 1.42 billion, becoming the world’s most populous country (UNFPA, 2023). Fertility Rate: India’s total fertility rate has sharply reduced from 5.9 births per woman in 1951 to 2.0 births per woman currently, as per NFHS-5. This is below the replacement-level fertility of 2.1 births per woman. Population Projections: By 2050, India’s population is projected to reach 1.67 billion, peak at 1.7 billion by 2064, and stabilize at 1.53 billion by 2100 (UN Population Division). Youthful Workforce: With two-thirds of its population aged between 15-64, India holds a significant demographic advantage, potentially driving economic growth if harnessed effectively (UNFPA, 2023).

Answer: (a) Promoting skill development; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

1. One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
2. Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
3. Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
4. A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Tribhanga, meaning “three bends” in Sanskrit, is a graceful and iconic pose in Indian dance and sculpture. In this one leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck.

Image Source: zhurnaly

• It is frequently seen in Odissi dance and in depictions of Indian deities like Lord Krishna and female divinities in classical art and sculptures.

Answer: (a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck; Difficulty Level: Medium

Annie Besant was

1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2. the founder of the Theosophical Society
3. once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Annie Besant, an Irish lady, was a theosophist, educationist, home rule activist, champion of human freedom and Indian nationalism. She was an ardent supporter of both Irish and Indian self-rule.
• The Home Rule League was started by her on 1 September 1916. In June 1917, she was detained by the Government of Madras along with G. S. Arundale and B. P. Wadia, two of her principal workers.
• Upon her release, she was elected President of the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress (1917) due to a surge in popularity. This made her the first female president of the Indian National Congress in 1917.

2 is incorrect

• The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in November 1875 by Madam H. P. Blavatsky, a Russian, and H. S. Olcott, an American colonel. They came to India in 1879 and set up the society’s headquarters at Adyar, near Madras.
• Later, Annie Besant joined the society in 1889 after renouncing Christianity and arrived in India in 1893, where the movement gained significant popularity under her leadership. She eventually became the President of the Theosophical Society and continued in that role until her death on 21 September 1933.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

1. imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms by Indians
2. imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
3. removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
4. removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In 1883, Ripon tried to pass a law to enable Indian district magistrates and session judges to try Europeans in criminal cases. It was a very meagre effort to remove a glaring instance of racial discrimination.
• The Europeans in India organised a vehement agitation against this Bill. They declared that even the most highly educated among the Indians were unfit to try a European. Ultimately, the Government of India bowed before the Europeans and amended the Bill to meet their criticism.
• Indians organised an all-India campaign in favour of the Bill. They learned that to get their demands accepted by the government, they must organise themselves on a national scale and agitate continuously and unitedly

Answer: (c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Euro-peans; Difficulty Level: Easy

A rise in general level of prices may be caused by

1. an increase in the money supply
2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3. an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All options are correct

• An increase in the money supply: When there is more money in the economy, people have more money to spend. This increased demand can push up prices.
• A decrease in the aggregate level of output: If the total output of goods and services in the economy falls (due to factors like reduced production or supply chain disruptions), but demand remains the same, there will be upward pressure on prices due to scarcity of goods and services.
• An increase in effective demand: When aggregate demand (the total demand for goods and services in the economy) rises without a corresponding increase in supply, it leads to higher prices. This is known as demand-pull inflation.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

1. Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
2. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
3. Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
4. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• India’s foreign exchange reserves refer to assets held by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in foreign currencies. These reserves act as a cushion and provide liquidity, ensuring our country can meet its external obligations. The Indian forex reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, special drawing rights, and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) reserve position.

PMF Concept Hack Any option containing loans (from foreign countries or institutions like the World Bank) can be eliminated because loans are liabilities, not reserves. This allows you to quickly eliminate options (a), (c), and (d).

Answer: (b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

1. Repayment of public debt
2. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
3. Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
4. Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Creating new money to finance a budget deficit (also known as monetization of the deficit) is the most inflationary method. When new money is created and pumped into the economy without a corresponding increase in goods and services, it leads to a rise in overall demand. This results in demand-pull inflation, where too much money chases too few goods.

Answer: (d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit; Difficulty Level: Easy

Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be

1. a fall in the level of prices
2. an increase in the rate of interest
3. a decrease in the rate of interest
4. an increase in the level of income and employment

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• When the demand for money increases while the supply of money remains constant, there is a shortage of liquidity in the economy. People prefer to hold more cash (for transactions, precaution, or speculation), which reduces the availability of money for lending. As a result, to balance this higher demand with the unchanged supply, the rate of interest rises. Higher interest rates discourage borrowing and encourage saving, thereby restoring equilibrium in the money market. Thus, the immediate effect is an increase in the rate of interest, making option (b) correct.

Answer: (b) an increase in the rate of interest; Difficulty Level: Easy

Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because

1. exposure to sunlight is prevented
2. concentration dioxide in the is increased of carbon environment
3. rate of respiration is decreased
4. there is an increase in humidity

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Cold storage slows down the metabolic processes of fruits, particularly respiration. Reduced respiration delays the ripening and aging process, extending the storage life of fruits.

Answer: (c) rate of respiration is decreased; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following fauna of India:

1. Gharial
2. Leather back turtle
3. Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Gharial is correct

• Gharial: Conservation Status: IUCN: Critically Endangered | WPA, 1972: Schedule-I

Leatherback turtle is correct

• It is the largest of the living sea turtles (250-700 kg).
• Distribution: Tropical and temperate seas and oceans.
• Threats: Artificial lighting disorients hatchlings and causes them to migrate inland.
• IUCN: VU | CITES: Appx I | CMS: Appx I | WPA: Sch I

Swampdeer is correct

• Barasingha (Swamp deer) is native to the Indian subcontinent. It is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• Distribution: Isolated localities in north and central India and Nepal. Kanha TR (MP) is famous for it.
• Habitat: Open forests, tall grasslands and mangroves.
• IUCN: VU | CITES: Appx I | WPA: Sch I

• Note: Under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, all three animals fall within the “threatened” category, which comprises Vulnerable, Endangered, and Critically Endangered statuses—often loosely referred to as “endangered” in a broader sense.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

1. the actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
2. the effective of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
3. the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced
4. None of the above statements is correct

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Ball bearings are used to reduce friction between moving parts like the wheel and axle. Instead of direct surface contact (sliding friction), the balls introduce rolling motion, which has much less friction. More importantly, the contact between the balls and the surfaces occurs at very small points, not across a large surface. This significantly reduces the effective area of contact, thereby lowering resistance to motion. Thus, by converting sliding friction into rolling friction and minimizing the contact area, ball bearings make movement smoother and more efficient.

Answer: (c) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following phenomena:

1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colour of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3, 4 and 5
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 5

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Size of the sun at dusk: The sun appears larger near the horizon due to atmospheric refraction, an optical illusion.
• Colour of the sun at dawn: The sun appears red or orange at dawn because of the scattering of shorter wavelengths of light (blue and violet) by the atmosphere, creating an illusion of color.
• Moon being visible at dawn: This is not an optical illusion; the moon is visible depending on its position relative to the Earth and the Sun.
• Twinkle of stars in the sky: This is an optical illusion caused by the Earth’s atmosphere, which causes the light from stars to refract and appear to twinkle.
• Polestar being visible in the sky: The polestar’s visibility is not an illusion; it remains relatively fixed in the sky.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?

1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• A rainbow is a natural optical phenomenon resulting from the interaction of sunlight with water droplets in the atmosphere. It is caused by refraction, internal reflection, and dispersion of light within the droplets, producing a spectrum of collars in the form of a circular arc.
• The rainbow consists of seven colours arranged in the following order: red (outermost), orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet (innermost).
• Formation of a Rainbow:
  • Refraction: When sunlight enters a water droplet, it slows down and bends due to a change in medium (air to water).
  • Dispersion: The light separates into its constituent colours (spectrum) because each colour has a different wavelength and refracts at a slightly different angle.
  • Internal Reflection: The light reflects off the inside surface of the water droplet.
  • Refraction Again: As the light exits the droplet, it refracts again, bending further and enhancing the separation of colours.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because

1. the new soil does not contain favourable minerals
2. most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
3. most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
4. leaves get damaged during transplantation

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Root hairs play a vital role in absorbing water and nutrients from the soil. During transplantation, these fragile structures are often damaged or lost, disrupting the plant’s ability to uptake essential resources.
• This stress hampers the growth and survival of transplanted seedlings, making it a critical factor in their failure to grow

Answer: (c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation; Difficulty Level: Easy

Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if

1. there is technical progress in the world economy
2. there is population growth in X
3. there is capital formation in X
4. the volume of trade grows in the world economy

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Economic growth in a country is closely linked to capital formation, which involves building physical assets like infrastructure, factories, and machinery. This increases production capacity and efficiency, directly contributing to economic growth. While technical progress, population growth, and global trade can influence growth, they do not guarantee it unless supported by capital formation.

Answer: (c) there is capital formation in X; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Viruses lack enzymes necessary for energy generation, as they rely on host cells for metabolic functions.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Viruses cannot be cultured in synthetic media; they require living host cells to replicate.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Viruses can be transmitted through various means, including biological vectors (e.g., mosquitoes) and non-biological methods (e.g., contact with infected surfaces or droplets).

PMF Concept Hack If a statement uses extreme words like “only”, be cautious. Statement 3 says viruses are transmitted only by biological vectors, which is incorrect because viruses spread through air (droplets), direct contact, contaminated water/food, and vectors. So, Statement 3 is definitely wrong. In the options, eliminate all choices containing 3 (b, c, d) → you are left with 1 only.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All options are correct

• In desert areas, plants adapt to minimise water loss through modifications like hard, waxy leaves with a thick cuticle, tiny or no leaves to reduce transpiration, and thorns that replace leaves, conserving water and offering protection.

  

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Gravity is the strongest of the four
2. Electromagnetism act only on particles with an electric charge
3. Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
4. Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom.

Explanation

Statement (a) is the correct answer

• Actually, gravity is the weakest of the four fundamental forces. Ordered from strongest to weakest, the forces are 1) the strong nuclear force, 2) the electromagnetic force, 3) the weak nuclear force, and 4) gravity.

Gravity is so weak that the hydrogen bonding in a single drop of water, which is one of the weakest forms of the electromagnetic force, can overpower the gravity of an entire planet.

Answer: (a) Gravity is the strongest of the four; Difficulty Level: Easy

The efforts to detect the existence of the Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is /are the importance/importances of discovering this particle?

1. It will enable us to understand why elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology to transfer matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• Peter Higgs and five other theorists proposed the Higgs boson in 1964 to explain why certain particles have mass. It is the b associated with the Higgs field, a field that gives mass to other fundamental particles such as electrons and quarks. Without it, atoms wouldn’t stick together, and there would be no stars, planets or us.
• According to the Standard Model of particle physics, particles gain their mass by interacting with a field called the Higgs field. The Higgs field is hypothesised to exist everywhere in space, even in a vacuum, and has a non-zero value.
• Particles like photons, which make up light, interact weakly with the Higgs field and have no mass. Particles like electrons and quarks, which make up protons and neutrons, interact strongly with the Higgs field and acquire mass. Experiments conducted at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN in 2012 confirmed the existence of the Higgs boson.

PMF Concept Hack The Higgs boson belongs to fundamental particle physics, whose role is limited to explaining mass generation. Any statement that jumps to futuristic tech like teleportation (Statement 2) can be eliminated as a clear sci-fi exaggeration. Similarly, Statement 3 can be ruled out because nuclear fission fuels fall under nuclear chemistry/energy, which has no direct conceptual linkage with the Higgs boson. Thus, both 2 and 3 can be eliminated, leaving Statement 1 only.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to

1. resist drought and increase absorptive area
2. tolerate extremes of PH
3. Resist disease infestation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Mycorrhizal biotechnology is used in rehabilitating degraded sites due to the beneficial interactions between mycorrhizal fungi and plant roots. The fungi form symbiotic relationships with plants and enhance their ability to survive in difficult conditions. Here’s why all three statements are correct:
• Resist drought and increase absorptive area: Mycorrhizal fungi increase the surface area of plant roots, which helps in better absorption of water and nutrients, aiding drought resistance.
• Tolerate extremes of pH: Mycorrhizal fungi help plants tolerate extreme soil pH by modifying the rhizosphere environment, allowing plants to grow in acidic or alkaline soils.
• Resist disease infestation: The fungi provide a protective barrier against soil-borne pathogens, thus helping plants resist disease infestations.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The National Development Council (NDC) was set up in 1952 under the aegis of the erstwhile Planning Commission, to prescribe guidelines for the formulation of the National Plan.
• The NDC is composed of the following members:
  • The Prime Minister of India (as its chairman/head).
  • Union Cabinet Ministers.
  • The Chief Ministers of all the states.
  • The Chief Ministers/administrators of all union territories.
  • Members of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
• The secretary of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) acts as the secretary to the NDC.
• Note: Although the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved; however, most of its functions have effectively been taken over by the Governing Council of the NITI Aayog.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the

1. total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
2. sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
3. sum of personal income of all individuals
4. money value of final goods and services produced

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• National income represents the total monetary value of final goods and services produced within a country during a given period. It avoids double-counting by including only final goods and services, not intermediate ones.
• Option (a) is incorrect as it refers to output produced by nationals, which aligns more with the concept of GNP rather than national income in this context. Option (b) is also incorrect because it represents the expenditure method but is incomplete, as it excludes components like government expenditure and net exports. Option (c) is incorrect because personal income is derived from national income after adjustments for taxes and transfer payments, and thus is not equivalent to national income.

Answer: (d) money value of final goods and services produced; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households?

1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option 1 is correct

• Regional Rural Banks were established to directly provide credit to rural households, especially small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and weaker sections.

Option 2 is incorrect

• NABARD provides indirect credit assistance to rural households by refinancing and providing credit facilities to other institutions operating in rural areas, such as cooperative banks and regional rural banks.

Additional Information NABARD was established in 1982 under an Act of Parliament as a wholly owned entity of the government of India on the recommendation of the B. Sivaraman committee. RBI’s agricultural credit functions and the refinance functions of the then-Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) were transferred to NABARD. Its mission is to promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development through participative financial and non-financial interventions, innovations, technology and institutional development.

Option 3 is correct

• Land Development Banks (cooperative institutions) extend long-term loans directly to farmers for activities such as land improvement, irrigation, and agricultural development, thus providing direct credit assistance.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy