UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2012

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2012 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2012 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2012

In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth Schedule areas. To address this gap, the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 was enacted by Parliament. Popularly known as the PESA Act, it extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution of India to the Scheduled Areas, with certain modifications to safeguard the customs, traditions, and rights of tribal communities.
• The following powers & functions have been provided to the Gram Sabhas under the Act:
  • Right to mandatory consultation in land acquisition, resettlement and rehabilitation of displaced persons.
  • Protection of traditional beliefs and the culture of the tribal communities
  • Ownership of minor forest products
  • Resolution of the local disputes
  • Prevention of land alienation
  • Management of village markets
  • Right to control production, distillation, and prohibition of liquor
  • Exercise of control over money-lending
  • Any other rights involving the Scheduled Tribes.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals (not all minerals) in the Scheduled Areas.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an Adjournment Motion is:

1. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
2. to let opposition members, collect information from the ministers
3. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
4. to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• An Adjournment Motion is a parliamentary device used in the Lok Sabha to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. For the motion to be admitted, it must be supported by at least 50 members.
• Since it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is considered an extraordinary parliamentary device. The motion also carries an element of censure against the government, which is why it is not permitted in the Rajya Sabha. The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.
• The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following restrictions:
  • It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance;
  • It should not cover more than one matter;
  • It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed in general terms;
  • It should not raise a question of privilege;
  • It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session;
  • It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court; and
  • It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.

Answer: (a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance; Difficulty Level: Easy

How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop .
3. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
4. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to resources genetic/biological cannot be made without approval of the NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct

• NBA is an autonomous statutory body established under the provisions of BDA, 2002. It enjoys the power of a civil court. It is headquartered in Chennai.
• Objective of NBA: It combats biopiracy by regulating access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge for research, commercial utilisation, and other purposes.
• Functions of NBA: The NBA establishes mechanisms to ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits from using biological resources and traditional knowledge.
  • Approval of the NBA (regulator) is a must to carry out biodiversity-related activities

Biological Activity	Requires Prior Approval	Exempted
Obtaining biological resources and associated knowledge for any use	All foreign nationals or organisations	Indian citizens/entities/local people (including AYUSH practitioners)
Transferring research results of biological resources to foreign nationals/organisations	Most Indian individuals/entities require approval from the NBA	Collaborative research projects and exchange of knowledge and resources (conducted according to the policy guidelines of the GoI)
Applying for Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) (in or outside India) for an invention based on research on an Indian biological resource	Everyone	None

Statement 2 is incorrect

• This is incorrect because the responsibility for monitoring and supervising scientific research on the genetic modification of crop plants lies with the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, and not with the National Biodiversity Authority.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1).
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only provision 1 is correct

• The NGT Act 2010 enables the creation of the National Green Tribunal to handle the expeditious disposal of cases pertaining to environmental issues. It was enacted under Article 21 of the Indian constitution, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy environment.

Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect

• Article 275 (1): Article 275(1) relates to grants provided by the Union government to states for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. This is unrelated to the National Green Tribunal Act.
• Article 243(A): Article 243(A) deals with the powers and functions of Gram Sabhas, which are local bodies for rural governance. This is not connected to the NGT Act.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

If the National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste water.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The National Water Mission aimed at addressing the impact of climate change on water resources. The mission promotes recycling of wastewater to meet part of the water demand in urban areas and encourages the use of ocean water through suitable technologies for coastal cities facing water scarcity.
• However, it does not include interlinking Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers, nor does it provide reimbursement to farmers for digging bore-wells or installing pump sets, as the focus is on efficient water use and conservation rather than subsidizing groundwater extraction.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organising village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Principles 2 and 3 are correct

• In order to fulfil the dreams of Mahatma Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles. They require the State:
  • To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
  • To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article 43).
  • To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies 8a (Article 43B).
  • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).
  • To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).
  • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).

Principles 1 and 4 are incorrect

• To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country (Article 44).
  • This principle included in this category of liberalism.
• To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
  • This is included in this category of Socialistic Principle.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Out of the Eight union territories, three (Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir) have representation in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other union territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Election Commission of India, headed by the Chief Election Commissioner, conducts and supervises elections but does not adjudicate election disputes. Election disputes related to Members of Parliament and State Legislatures are decided by the High Courts of India, while disputes regarding the election of the President of India are decided by the Supreme Court of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Rajya Sabha, and the Lok Sabha. While the President is not a member of either house, their approval is essential for a bill to become law, making them an integral part of the legislative process.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to consumer’s rights/privileges under the provision of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumer are empowered to take samples for food testing
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Under the Consumer Protection Act, consumers have the right to take samples of food products for testing in case of any suspicion about their quality or safety

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The fee depends on the value of the compensation being claimed, and a schedule of fees is provided under the Consumer Protection Act.

Statement 3 is correct

• If a consumer dies, the legal heir or representative can file a complaint on behalf of the deceased consumer, ensuring that the deceased’s rights are protected under the law.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Regarding the Office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct

• The Speaker’s office is not dependent on the pleasure of the President.
• The speaker has to vacate his office:
  • If he ceases to be a member of the LS
  • If he resigns by providing written notice to the Deputy Speaker
  • If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the LS.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of their election.
  • Unlike Ministers, the Constitution does not allow a non-member to be elected as the Speaker and then obtain membership within six months.

Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Only options 1 and 4 are correct

• Article 131 of the Constitution of India confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court to adjudicate disputes: (a) between the Government of India on one side and one or more States on the other side, (b) between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other side, (c) between two or more States.
• The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be invoked only when the question either of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a “legal right” depends. This provision has been borrowed, with few modifications from the Government of India Act, 1935 which provided original jurisdiction to the Federal court. No private party can invoke the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131.
• Disputes regarding elections to Parliament or State Legislatures are not part of the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. Such election petitions are filed in High Courts. Further, the original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution of India does not extend to disputes involving Union Territories.

Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Biopesticides are natural or biologically-derived agents used to control pests. They include a variety of organisms, such as bacteria, fungi, and even flowering plants. Let’s analyze each of the given organisms:
• Bacteria: Certain species of bacteria, such as Bacillus thuringiensis, are commonly used as biopesticides. These bacteria produce toxins that are harmful to insect pests but safe for humans, animals, and other non-target species.
• Fungi: Fungi are also used as biopesticides. For example, Beauveria bassiana is a fungus that targets a variety of insect pests. It is used as a biological control agent for pest management.
• Flowering plants: Some flowering plants, like neem (Azadirachta indica), have pesticidal properties. Neem extracts contain compounds like azadirachtin, which act as natural insect repellents and growth inhibitors for pests.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Biomass gasification is an important thermal chemical process that converts any carbonaceous biomass to gaseous products. Compared with traditional coal gasification, biomass gasification takes place at a lower temperature (~ 900 °C) due to the essential nature of biomass. Agricultural residues such as coconut shells, groundnut shells, rice husk, wood chips, and bagasse are commonly used as feedstock in biomass gasifiers.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The product of gasification, syngas, mainly contains H2, CO, CO2, CH4, and some C2 + hydrocarbons.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The syngas (synthetic gas) generated from biomass gasification can be used in internal combustion engines after proper cleaning and conditioning, apart from being used for direct heat generation or electricity production.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• An ultraviolet (UV) water treatment is a disinfection method that uses UV light to target harmful microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, and parasites like Cryptosporidium and Giardia. The UV light emits a germicidal wavelength that penetrates the microorganisms’ DNA, rendering them unable to reproduce or cause illness. With enough energy, UV radiation at the 254 nm wavelength disrupts the DNA in pathogenic microorganisms so they cannot reproduce.

Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect

• UV radiation does not have any chemical effect to remove undesirable odours. It also does not contribute to the sedimentation of solid particles or turbidity removal. These functions are usually achieved through coagulation, sedimentation, and filtration processes

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Graphene is frequently in the news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect

• Graphene is a single layer (monolayer) of pure carbon, tightly bound in a hexagonal honeycomb lattice.
• It is an allotrope of carbon.
• It is extracted from graphite. Graphite is arranged in a 3D crystalline manner, whereas, graphene is a 2D crystal, only an atom thick.
• Properties:
  • Graphene is the thinnest (one atom thick) compound known.
  • It is the lightest material known and the strongest compound discovered (between 100-300 times stronger than steel, and harder than diamond).
  • It is an excellent conductor of electricity and has high thermal conductivity.
  • It is flexible, transparent, and has a large surface area.
• Applications:
  • Electronics industry: Due to its high electrical conductivity, optical transparency and flexibility, graphene is an ideal for conducting electrodes in touch screens, LCDs, and organic LEDs (OLEDs).
  • Biomedical industry: It can be used for targeted drug delivery, ‘smart’ implants, etc.
  • Automobile industry: Graphene is highly inert and so can act as a corrosion barrier between oxygen and water diffusion.
  • Potential alternative to lithium-ion batteries: It can be used to develop smaller, slimmer batteries with higher capacity, faster charging, and increased longevity than traditional batteries.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Smelting units: Lead smelting units release lead particles into the air, posing a significant health risk through inhalation and environmental contamination.
• Pens and pencils: Modern pens and pencils do not contain lead. The term “lead pencil” refers to the graphite (a form of carbon) used in pencils, which is not toxic.
• Paints: Lead-based paints are still a source of lead poisoning, especially in older buildings where such paints were used.
• Hair oils and cosmetics: Although some traditional or unregulated cosmetics may contain lead (e.g., certain types of kohl or sindoor), regulated products are largely lead-free, making this an uncommon source.

Additional Information Lead is a bluish-white lustrous metal naturally found in the Earth’s crust. It is also found in small amounts in air, soil and water. It is very soft, highly malleable, ductile, and a relatively poor conductor of electricity compared to copper, gold, etc. Native lead is rare in nature. Currently, lead is usually found in ore with zinc, silver and copper and it is extracted together with these metals. It has a relatively low melting point compared to most metals. It has good resistance to corrosion, especially in non-acidic environments.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Stem cells are unique human cells with the ability to transform into various types of cells within the body, ranging from muscle cells to brain cells. They are not exclusive to mammals; they can also be derived from other organisms, including plants and non-mammalian animals.

Statement 2 is correct

• Stem cells, especially induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), are widely used in drug development and testing. They allow researchers to study the effects of drugs on specific cell types.

Statement 3 is correct

• Stem cells have significant potential in regenerative medicine, including treatments for conditions like leukaemia (through bone marrow transplants), spinal cord injuries, and other degenerative diseases.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone depleting substances, are used

1. In the production of plastic foams
2. In the production of tubeless tyres
3. In cleaning certain electronic components
4. As pressurising agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), known as ozone-depleting substances, have been used in various applications. They are employed in the production of plastic foams as blowing agents and in cleaning certain electronic components due to their non-flammable nature. Additionally, CFCs were commonly used as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans. However, they are not used in the production of tubeless tyres.
• CFCs were phased out via the Montreal Protocol due to their part in ozone depletion.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Hard

A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest antimatter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of antimatter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of antimatter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Antimatter does not directly contribute to making mineral prospecting or oil exploration easier or cheaper. This process primarily relies on techniques like seismic surveys, satellite imaging, or geological studies, none of which directly involve antimatter.

Statement 2 is correct

• Antimatter research, including the creation of anti-helium nuclei, helps scientists probe the asymmetry between matter and antimatter in the universe. If stars or galaxies made entirely of antimatter exist, studying heavy antimatter nuclei could provide clues to their existence.

Statement 3 is correct

• Studying antimatter is vital for understanding the evolution of the universe, as it significantly influences cosmological models and theories.

Additional information Antimatter comprises antiparticles with the same mass but opposite charges and quantum properties as their corresponding particles. It is rare in the observable universe but can be created in particle accelerators or observed in cosmic rays. For example, the antimatter equivalent of an electron is a positron (positively charged), and that of a proton is an antiproton (negatively charged).

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of the universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. None of the above can be cited as evidence

Explanation

Detection of microwaves in space is correct

• With a traditional optical telescope, the space between stars and galaxies is completely dark. However, a sensitive radio telescope shows a faint background glow. This glow is strongest in the microwave region of the radio spectrum, and hence it is called a Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB).
• CMD, also known as relic radiation (thermal radiation left over from the “Big Bang”), is fundamental to observational cosmology because it is the oldest light in the Universe and can be found in all directions. Its discovery is considered a landmark proof for the concept of “accelerating expansion of the universe” and the Big Bang Theory.

Observation of the redshift phenomenon in space is correct

• Redshift and Blueshift describe how light changes as objects in space (such as stars or galaxies) move closer or farther away from us. American astronomer Edwin Hubble was the first to describe the redshift phenomenon (galactic redshift) and tie it to an expanding universe (galaxies are drifting apart).
  • Hubble’s law: the farther away galaxies are, the faster they are moving away from Earth ― also known as accelerating the expansion of the universe.

Movement of asteroids in space is incorrect

• The movement of asteroids is governed by local gravitational forces within the solar system and is unrelated to the universe’s large-scale expansion.

Occurrence of supernova explosions in space is incorrect

• While supernovae are important for studying cosmic distances and verifying the accelerated expansion of the universe, their mere occurrence is not direct evidence of expansion. This statement is incorrect in this context.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

1. The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
2. Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
3. Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Electrically charged particles coming from space—mainly from the Solar Wind emitted by the Sun—travel at very high speeds and can be harmful to living organisms. The Earth’s Magnetic Field acts as a protective shield around the planet. This magnetic field forms the Magnetosphere, which deflects most of the charged particles away from Earth and directs some of them toward the polar regions. When these particles interact with atmospheric gases near the poles, they produce phenomena such as Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis.

Answer: (a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Different kinds of specialised surgical instruments were in common use by the 1^st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3^rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5^th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in the 7^th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Sushruta Samhita, composed around 600 BCE and later revised in the early centuries AD, describes over 120 specialized surgical instruments and about 300 surgical procedures, indicating that these medical practices were already in use by the 1st century AD.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Although ancient texts describe advanced procedures such as rhinoplasty, there is no historical evidence that internal organ transplants were practiced by the 3rd century AD in the modern medical sense.

Statements 3 and 4 are correct

• In mathematics, the 5th-century text Aryabhatiya by Aryabhata introduced the concept of the sine (jya) of an angle. Later, the 7th-century mathematician Brahmagupta, in his work Brahmasphutasiddhanta, formulated the rule for calculating the area of a cyclic quadrilateral and explained its properties.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct

Similarities (Buddhism & Jainism)	Differences
Both Mahavira and Buddha hailed from royal families	Buddhism	Jainism
Rejected the authority of the Vedas. (Statement 2 is correct)	Followed the Middle Path.	Followed the extreme path (severe asceticism). (Statement 1 is incorrect)
Opposed the cruelties of animal sacrifice.	Did not recognise the existence of God and soul.	Recognised the existence of God and soul
No caste and varna system.	Condemned the Varna system.	Did not condemn the Varna system.
Absence of worship of gods.	Received more state patronage than Jainism.	Received less state patronage compared to Buddhism.
Monasteries for monks and nuns.	Spread very fast in the early period.	Did not spread as rapidly in the early period.
Emphasis on human effort to attain liberation (moksha) rather than rituals and ceremonies. (Statement 3 is correct)	Spread to many parts of the world.	Remained largely confined to India.
	Virtually disappeared from the Indian subcontinent.	Still retains its hold in areas where it spread.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Inclusive Governance aims at creating a governance system that promotes equal access to opportunities, resources, and services for all sections of society, especially marginalized and vulnerable groups.
• Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking: While this is related to financial inclusion, it is not directly linked to the concept of inclusive governance. Inclusive governance focuses more on service delivery and social welfare than on financial regulation alone.
• Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts: This directly supports inclusive governance by enabling decentralized planning and decision-making, ensuring that local needs and priorities are addressed effectively.
• Increasing the government spending on public health: This is a key element of inclusive governance as it ensures equitable access to healthcare services for all sections of society, particularly the disadvantaged.
• Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme: This is an inclusive governance initiative aimed at improving the health and education outcomes of children, especially those from low-income families, by providing nutritious meals at school.

Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

1. three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
2. three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of Indian can be classified
3. three main styles of Indian temple architecture
4. three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Nagara, Dravida, and Vesara are the three primary styles of temple architecture in India, developed during ancient and medieval periods.

Answer: (c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

1. the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces.
2. emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible.
3. there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces.
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Congress Ministries resigned office in October and November 1939 on the grounds that the Viceroy had made India a participant in the war without consulting the Congress. The nationalists stood behind the Congress while on December 2, the Muslim League under Jinnah declared December 22nd, 1939, as the “Day of Deliverance” and thanksgiving to celebrate the resignation of Congress Ministries.

Answer: (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA”, trained community health workers?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care check-up
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunisation
4. Conducting the delivery of a baby.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) is a trained female community health activist.
• ASHA worker act as an interface between the community and the public health system
• Under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) are trained community health workers with specific roles and responsibilities, including:
• Accompanying women to health facilities for antenatal care check-ups: ASHAs play a crucial role in ensuring that pregnant women receive proper antenatal care.
• Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy: ASHAs are trained to use pregnancy test kits to facilitate early detection of pregnancy, enabling timely antenatal care.
• Providing information on nutrition and immunisation: They educate families about the importance of nutrition, breastfeeding, and immunisation to improve maternal and child health outcomes.
• Conducting the delivery of a baby: Not a responsibility of ASHAs. ASHAs are not trained to conduct deliveries. Instead, they encourage institutional deliveries and assist women in accessing skilled birth attendants at health facilities.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced the dyarchy (Diarchy) at the provincial level, i.e. dual government in the provinces.
• Under this, the provincial administration was divided between reserved and transferred subjects.
  • Reserved List: The councillors nominated by the Governor controlled reserved subjects and were not responsible to the provincial legislature. It included subjects such as Police, justice, control over printing presses, irrigation, land revenue, factories, etc.
  • Transferred List: Transferred subjects were controlled by the ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. It included agriculture, supervision of local government, health, and education.
• Under the Act, the partially responsible government was introduced in the provinces. The minister was responsible to the legislature, whereas the governor was exempt from such responsibility.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley–Minto Reforms) introduced for the first time the principle of communal representation in India and provided a separate electorate for Muslims; that is, Muslims were to be elected by the electorates consisting of Muslims only.
• Under the Government of India Act of 1919: Other than Muslims, the minorities, including Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians and Europeans, were given the right of a separate electorate.

Statement 3 is correct

• Under the Government of India Act of 1919, the central and provincial legislatures were given the authority to make laws on their respective subjects.
  • Central List: Foreign and political relations, public debt, tariffs and customs, patents, currency, communications, etc.
  • Provincial List: Local self-government, health, sanitation, education, public works. agriculture, forests, law and order, etc.
    • Transferred Subjects: Local self-government, health, education and some departments relating to agriculture.
    • Reserved Subjects: Police, justice, control over printing presses, irrigation, land revenue, factories etc.
• The residual powers were vested in the Governor-General in Council.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

During the Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

1. Different social reform groups or organisations of the Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/ representations to the government.
2. Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.
3. Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organisation.
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The National Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao.
  • In the 1886 Calcutta Session, Dadabhai declared that the Congress would take up only national questions and not deal with religious and social matters.
  • Hence, Ranade established the National Social Conference, a separate body for social reforms, in 1887, during INC’s third session.
  • Ranade called the National Social Conference the younger sister of Congress.

Mahadev Govind Ranade Mahadev Govind Ranade, popularly known as Justice Ranade, was an Indian scholar, social reformer, judge, economist, educationist and historian. He was a professor at Elphinstone College, Bombay and finally became the Judge of the Bombay High Court. M. G. Ranade was a leading member of Prarthana Samaj (1867), Pune Sarvajanik Sabha (1870), the Indian National Congress (1885), and the Indian Social Conference (1887). Ranade’s work inspired other Indian social reformers, including Gopal Krishna Gokhale, who continued his efforts after his death. Philosophy of Theism: Ranade believed in the existence of one God and was, therefore, a monotheist. In his book, Philosophy of Indian Theism, he expounded the theistic interpretation of the Universe. Ranade did not believe in the Advaita philosophy (non-dualism) of Adi Shankaracharya because he held that God and man were not the same thing. Social Reforms: He worked for widow remarriage, inter-caste marriage, and the education of women and backward communities. Ranade established the Vidhva Vivaha Uttejak Mandal (Widows Remarriage Association) in 1865. He strongly believed in taking steps to encourage industrialization in India. Ranade founded the Institution ‘Industrial Association of Western India’ in 1889 to promote the Industrial development of India. In 1890, he organized the ‘Industrial Conference’. The conference was held annually during the monsoons in Poona. Behramji Malabari He was an Indian poet, author, publicist, and social reformer. He was best known for his intense advocacy for the protection of the rights of women and his activities against child marriage. His efforts led to the passage of the Age of Consent Act of 1891, which raised the age of consent for all girls, married or unmarried, from ten to twelve. It made sexual intercourse illegal with a girl below the age of twelve and also forbade child marriage below the age of twelve. Shri Behramji Malabari and his friend Diwan Dayaram Gidumal established the Seva Sadan Society in 1908 in Mumbai. The organization aimed to offer shelter to impoverished and oppressed women from all communities. Additionally, it provided education, medical, and welfare services to them.

Answer: (b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Peasants and Workers Party of India is incorrect

• The Peasants and Workers Party of India is a Marxist political party in Maharashtra. The party was founded in 1948, having its roots from the pre-Independence period. The party was founded in Maharashtra by Keshavrao Jedhe , Shankarrao More, Bhausaheb Raut, Nana Patil , Tulshidas Jadhav and others.

All India Scheduled Castes Federation and The Independent Labour Party are correct

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

1. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.
2. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.
3. To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.
4. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Rajya Sabha has been given four exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:
  1. The Rajya Sabha can empower Parliament of India to legislate on a matter listed in the State List (Article 249 of the Constitution of India).
  2. It can authorize Parliament to establish new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States (Article 312).
  3. Only the Rajya Sabha can initiate the process for removing the Vice-President of India; the resolution for removal can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67).
  4. If the President of India issues a proclamation of National Emergency, President’s Rule, or Financial Emergency when the Lok Sabha is dissolved (or dissolves before approving it), the proclamation can continue to remain in force if it is approved by the Rajya Sabha alone (Articles 352, 356, and 360 of the Constitution).

Option (a) is incorrect

• Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
  • form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
  • increase the area of any state;
  • diminish the area of any state;
  • alter the boundaries of any state; and
  • alter the name of any state.
• However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period (views not binding).

Option (c) is incorrect

• Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
• If one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, it does not matter; the moment half of the states give their consent, the formality is completed.
• There is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.
• The following provisions can be amended in this way:
  1. Election of the President and its manner.
  2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
  3. Supreme Court and high courts.
  4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
  5. Goods and Services Tax Council.
  6. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
  7. Representation of states in Parliament.
  8. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

Option (d) is incorrect

• Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the composition of election commission:
  • The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix.
  • The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president.
  • When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission.
  • The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission.
  • The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.

Answer: (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services; Difficulty Level: Easy

How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening ‘Self-Help Groups’ and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilisers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 2 is correct

• National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) was launched in 2010 as a mission-mode scheme by restructuring the erstwhile Swarnajayanti Grameen Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY). In 2016, the program was renamed Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAYNRLM).
• The central and state governments jointly fund this centrally sponsored scheme. It is a flagship poverty alleviation program implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
• It Promotes self-employment and income generation activities for rural women through SHGs (As of 2022, it covered over 4.6 crore rural women across India).
  • It provides financial services to SHGs and CBOs, such as loans, savings, and insurance.
  • It gives skill training to SHG members in entrepreneurship, business management, life skills, etc.
  • It helps SHG members to access markets for their products.

Statement 1 and 3 are incorrect

• The Mission does not focus on establishing large industries; instead, it promotes community-based institutions, micro-enterprises, and self-employment through Self-Help Groups (SHGs). It also does not provide agricultural inputs such as seeds, fertilisers, or pump sets free of cost, as such support is typically covered under other agricultural schemes.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only option 1 is correct

• Global Multidimensional Poverty Index is a measure of multidimensional poverty covering 107 developing countries. It was first developed in 2010 by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for UNDP’s Human Development Reports.
• Global MPI uses three dimensions and ten indicators. All indicators are equally weighted within each dimension. The MPI ranges from 0 to 1, and higher values imply higher poverty.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) complements rather than including national-level Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) income measures and the MPI does not measure macroeconomic indicators such as budget deficits or GDP growth, focusing instead on household-level deprivations in health, education, and living standards.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design.
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend.
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Features 1 and 3 are correct

• The 13th Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. Vijay Kelkar, covered the period from 2010 to 2015.
• It made key recommendations including a framework for the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST). It proposed a design for GST along with a compensation package for states adhering to the suggested model. Additionally, the commission emphasized strengthening local bodies by recommending a specified share of central taxes as grants to these institutions.
• There was no specific recommendation or framework aimed at creating “lakhs of jobs” based on the demographic dividend.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of the manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) play a vital role in the National Manufacturing Policy by providing developed land and essential infrastructure to promote world-class manufacturing.
• A single-window clearance mechanism simplifies the approval process for new manufacturing units, consolidating multiple agency clearances into a single authority for quicker approvals.
• The Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF) aids MSMEs in adopting clean technologies, applicable to both existing and new enterprises, including those within NIMZs, for investments made after the Scheme’s notification.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programmes of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.
5. Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Parliament exercises control over public finance in India through several established methods:
• Placing the Annual Financial Statement (Budget): The Constitution mandates that the government place the Annual Financial Statement before Parliament, detailing expected revenues and expenditures for the financial year.
• Appropriation Bill: Withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India requires approval via the Appropriation Bill.
• Supplementary Grants and Vote-on-Account: Supplementary grants provide additional funding for unforeseen expenditures, while a vote-on-account allows the government to meet essential expenditures before the full budget is passed.
• Periodic/Mid-Year Review by Parliamentary Budget Office: This is not an established method in India. While some countries have Parliamentary Budget Offices for regular reviews, India does not have such a system in place.
• Introducing the Finance Bill: The Finance Bill, introduced in Parliament, contains provisions related to taxation and government revenue, which require parliamentary approval.

Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

1. Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
2. Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
3. Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• On 16 August 1932, British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald introduced the Communal Award. The Award declared the Depressed Classes as a minority and thus extended a separate electorate to them. On 18 August 1932, Gandhiji wrote a letter to Ramsay Macdonald declaring his intentions to fast unto death against the Communal Award.
• Ambedkar’s response to Gandhi’s decision to fast was different, and he said, ‘I do not care for these political stunts. To convince Ambedkar to accept his view, Gandhi resorted to a fast unto death on September 20, 1932, while he was in Yerwada Jail.
• As pressure mounted on Ambedkar, he agreed to consider Gandhi’s proposal, provided that the scheme guaranteed better than the Communal Award. On September 24, Hindu and depressed class leaders signed the Poona Pact in the presence of Gandhiji. Gandhi’s trusted emissary, C Rajagopalachari, exchanged his fountain pen with Ambedkar at the end of the talks. Gandhiji broke fast on September 26 in the presence of Rabindranath Tagore.

Answer: (c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the government.
2. The government gave the Pattas to the Ryots.
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None of the above

Explanation

All are correct

• Under the Ryotwari Settlement (Munro System):
  • The cultivator (ryot) was recognised as the owner of his land, subject to paying land revenue.
  • The cultivators were registered and issued pattas. They were permitted to sell, lease, mortgage or transfer the right over land.
  • Revenue settlement was directly made with ryot.
  • The land was surveyed carefully and separately before determining the revenue assessment.
  • The settlement was revised periodically after 20 to 30 years when the revenue demand was usually raised after considering the changes in grain prices, marketing opportunities, irrigation facilities, etc.
• Ryotwari Settlement was introduced in parts of the Madras and Bombay Presidencies, Assam, and Burma.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:

1. Low birth rate with low death rate
2. High birth rate with high death rate
3. High birth rate with low death rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 2, 1, 3
3. 2, 3, 1
4. 3, 2, 1

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Demographic transition theory can be used to predict the future population of any area. The theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society.
• These changes occur in stages, which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.
  1. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. Population growth is slow, and most people are engaged in agriculture.
  2. Fertility remains high at the beginning of the second stage, but it declines with time. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to a decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to the population is high.
  3. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly.

Answer: (c) 2, 3, 1; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement
2. Fertilisers
3. Natural Gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 5 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production/output of eight core industries. The Office of Economic Advisor (Ministry of Commerce and Industries) releases ICI.
• The objective is to provide an advance indication of the production performance of core industries before the release of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) by the Central Statistics Office (Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation).
• The core sectors account for about 40.3% of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
• Core Industries Weightage (In percentage):
  • Petroleum & Refinery production – 28.04
  • Electricity generation – 19.85
  • Steel production – 17.92
  • Coal production – 10.33
  • Crude Oil production – 8.98
  • Natural Gas production – 6.88
  • Cement production – 5.37
  • Fertilisers production – 2.63
• Index of industrial production (IIP)
  • IIP measures sectoral growth in India’s economy, including mining, electricity, and manufacturing.
  • IIP is compiled monthly by the NSO, Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
  • The IIP represents changes in production volume compared to a chosen base period (base value=100), with the current base year being 2011-2012.

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

All are correct

• Directive Principles of State Policy: Article 45 directs the state to provide for early childhood care and education for children below the age of six.
• Rural and Urban Local Bodies: The Eleventh Schedule includes education, including primary and secondary schools, among the responsibilities entrusted to Panchayats.
• Fifth Schedule: The provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • PESA,1996 was enacted for tribal self-rule in India’s scheduled areas. The Act has contributed to the improvement of access to basic services, such as education, healthcare, and drinking water, in the Scheduled Areas.
• Sixth Schedule: It contains special provisions for the tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. There are 10 such ‘tribal areas’ at present in these four States.
  • Under this, the district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It can also make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals. But, such regulations require the assent of the governor.
• Seventh Schedule: Initially, education was under the State List, but the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved it to the Concurrent List, shared between the Centre and states.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn ‘. What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Importance 1 and 3 are correct

• Sea Buckthorn (Hippophae rhamnoides): Sea buckthorn is a deciduous shrub native to Europe and Asia.
  • It is known for its small, orange-yellow berries that are packed with nutrients.
  • In India, it is found in HP, Ladakh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • In HP, it is locally called chharma.
• Medicinal Benefits:
  • Sea buckthorn is a rich source of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants.
  • It is particularly high in vitamins C and omega fatty acids.
  • It can reduce inflammation, boost immune system, treat heart and skin problems, etc.
• Ecological Benefits:
  • Sea buckthorn is a soil-binding plant which prevents soil-erosion and checks siltation in rivers.
  • It is a pest resistant shrub and so is a good alternative for protecting the local ecology.
  • It grows well in dry regions.
• Economic Benefits:
  • Sea buckthorn is used in making juices, jams, nutritional capsules etc.
  • It is also an important source of fuelwood and fodder.
• Recently, Ladakh secured its 4^th Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Sea Buckthorn.

Statement 2 and 4 are incorrect

• The plant is mainly valued for its nutrient-rich berries and ecological benefits, rather than for biodiesel production. The oil extracted from its berries and seeds is widely used in nutraceutical, cosmetic, and medicinal products due to its high content of vitamins and antioxidants. Moreover, Sea Buckthorn is a small shrub, not a timber-producing tree; therefore, its wood does not have significant commercial timber value.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

1. Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
2. Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
3. Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mixed farming involves mixed crops along with livestock operations. It has several advantages:
  • Optimum diversity may be obtained by integrating crops and livestock in the same farming operation.
  • Growing crops only on more level land and pastures or forages on steeper slopes will reduce soil erosion.
  • Pasture and leguminous forage crops in rotation enhance soil quality and reduce erosion; livestock manure, in turn, contributes to soil fertility.
  • Livestock can buffer the negative impacts of low rainfall periods by consuming crop residue, which in “plant only” systems would have been considered crop failure.
  • Feeding and marketing are flexible in animal production systems. This can help cushion farmers against price fluctuations and make more efficient use of farm labour

Answer: (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together; Difficulty Level: Easy

A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Assam
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Uttarakhand

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Arunachal Pradesh is located in northeastern India and lies roughly on the same latitude as northern Rajasthan. The state has over 80% forest cover (as per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2011), one of the highest in the country. Out of total forest cover, it has a Protected Area Network (PAN) of an area of 9,779 Sq. km. which is around 11.90% of the geographical area of the State (19.37 % of the Forest area of State) against a national average of around 4% geographical area

Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following crops of India:

1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Cowpea is correct and Green gram is correct

• Cowpea and Green gram are multi-purpose leguminous crops in India that are used as pulse for human consumption, fodder for livestock, and green manure because they fix atmospheric nitrogen and improve soil fertility.

Pigeon pea is incorrect

• Pigeon pea (Cajanus cajan) is mainly cultivated as a pulse crop. While its residues may sometimes be used as fodder, it is not commonly used as a green manure crop.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following factors

1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Rotation of the Earth is correct

• The Coriolis force, caused by Earth’s rotation, influences the direction of water flow and contributes to the formation of ocean currents.

Air pressure and wind is correct

• Surface winds, such as trade winds and westerlies, drive the movement of ocean currents by pushing water across the surface.

Density of ocean water is correct

• Differences in water density due to variations in temperature and salinity create thermohaline circulation, which drives deep ocean currents.

Revolution of the Earth is incorrect

• Revolution causes seasons and seasons are responsible for the poleward and equatorward migration of the pressure systems and ocean currents. Thus, they have an indirect effect on ocean currents.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Gujarat has 34,99,429 hectares of wetlands, which is the highest compared to other states.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Inland wetlands (69.23% of total wetlands) cover a much larger area than coastal wetlands.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following crops of India:

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is / are predominantly rainfed crop/s?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are predominantly rainfed crops

• Groundnut:
  • Groundnut is the most important oilseed of India.
  • It accounts for nearly half of the major oilseeds produced in India.
  • Groundnut kernels are rich in proteins and vitamins and have high calorific value.
  • It contains 40-50% oil which is used as edible oil or hydrogenated vanaspati.
  • It is often a rotation crop because of its atmospheric nitrogen fixing abilities.
• Conditions for Growth:
  • It is a tropical crop that requires 20°-30°C temperature and 50-75 cm rainfall.
  • Isohyet of 100 cm marks the upper limit for groundnut cultivation.
  • It is largely a rainfed kharif crop of drylands.
  • But in southern India, it is cultivated during rabi season as well.
  • It is highly susceptible to frost, prolonged drought,
• Sesamum:
  • India accounts for around one-third of the world production and is the largest producer.
  • Since it is a rainfed kharif crop the production fluctuates greatly with time.
  • Sesamum is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India.
  • Sesamum is produced in almost all parts of the country.
  • West Bengal is the largest producing state (one-third of the total production of India).
  • The other major producers are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, etc.
• Pearl millet:
  • Bajra is the second most important millet. Just like jowar, it is also used as food and fodder in drier parts of the country.
  • It is a rainfed Kharif crop of dry and warm north-western and western parts of the country. It is a hardy crop which resists frequent dry spells and drought in this region.
  • Bajra can be grown on poor light sandy soils, black and red soils. It requires 40-50 cm of annual rainfall. The upper limit is 100 cm. It is sown either as a pure or mixed crop with cotton, jowar and ragi.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All are correct

• Deep Gorges: Young fold mountains are constantly being uplifted due to ongoing tectonic forces. This rapid upliftment doesn’t allow rivers enough time to widen their valleys through erosion. As a result, they carve deep, narrow gorges like the ones seen in the Himalayas. The gorges are characterised by steep, rocky cliffs and narrow channels. During their early stages, glaciers flow down gorges and valleys and reshape them into U-shaped valleys.
• U-Turn Rivers: Young fold mountains, like the Himalayas, often show evidence of past glaciation in the form of these U-shaped valleys and the U-turn River courses.
• Parallel Ranges: The parallel ranges we see in the Himalayas are formed by the folding and compression of rock layers due to tectonic plate movement. This is a characteristic feature of young fold mountains, where the parallel ridges and valleys haven’t had enough time to be eroded.
• Landslides: As young fold mountains are still rising, they tend to have steep slopes and unstable terrain. This makes them prone to landslides, which further contribute to their rugged and young appearance.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because:

1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface.
2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere.
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The atmosphere is primarily heated from below, i.e., from the Earth’s surface. The surface absorbs solar radiation and then transfers heat to the lower layers of the atmosphere through conduction, convection, and terrestrial radiation. As altitude increases, this heating effect decreases, leading to a fall in temperature.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The upper atmosphere generally contains less moisture, not more. Most water vapour is concentrated in the lower troposphere near the Earth’s surface. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement 3 is correct

• As altitude increases, air becomes less dense and pressure decreases. The expansion of rising air leads to adiabatic cooling, which contributes to the decrease in temperature with height.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which among the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Ocean acidification has been called the “evil twin of global warming” and “the other CO2 problem”.
• It occurs when excess atmospheric CO₂ dissolves in seawater, forming carbonic acid and lowering the ocean’s pH. This reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which are essential for organisms such as Calcareous phytoplankton (e.g., coccolithophores) to build calcium carbonate shells. As a result, their growth and survival are adversely affected.

Statement 2 is correct

• Coral reefs depend on calcium carbonate to form their skeletons. Ocean acidification reduces the rate of calcification, weakening coral structures and affecting reef growth and survival.

Statement 3 is correct

• Many marine animals have phytoplankton-based food chains and planktonic larval stages. If phytoplankton populations decline due to acidification, it can disrupt marine food webs, negatively affecting the survival of animals with phytoplanktonic larvae.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• Ocean acidification mainly affects marine chemistry and biological organisms. It does not directly influence cloud seeding or cloud formation, which are primarily related to atmospheric processes.

  

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The CAG does not exercise exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament during a national emergency or financial emergency.

Statement 2 is correct

• CAG reports are submitted to the President (or Governor in the case of states) and are later presented to the Parliament or State Legislatures. These reports are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), which scrutinizes the findings related to expenditures, projects, or programs executed by ministries.

Statement 3 is correct

• The findings of CAG reports often highlight irregularities, mismanagement, or violations of law in managing public funds. These reports can provide critical information for investigating agencies, such as the CBI or ED, to press charges against individuals or entities responsible for misusing public finances.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• The CAG does not have judicial powers to prosecute.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The endeavour of Janani Suraksha yojana programme is

1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission.
• It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
• JSY is a centrally sponsored scheme, which integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care.
• The Yojana has identified Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) as an effective link between the government and pregnant women.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana aims to provide compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentives so that the woman can take adequate rest before and after delivery of the first living child.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

1. Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
2. Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
3. Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
4. Must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• If he is not a member of either House of the Parliament then he has to become a member to either House within six months of his appointment.

Answer: (a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Constitution declares that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court. Consequently, the orders issued by the Delimitation Commission become final and cannot be challenged in any court.

Statement 2 is correct

• When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot affect any modification in the orders.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under the Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All are correct

• The ESI scheme is a self-financed integrated measure of Social Insurance embodied in the Employee State Insurance Act. The scheme is administered by the Employee State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), an autonomous corporation under the Ministry of Labour and Employment (MoLE).
• Coverage: The ESI Scheme applies to factories and other establishment’s viz. Road Transport, Hotels, Restaurants, Cinemas, Newspaper, Shops, and Educational/Medical Institutions wherein 10 or more persons are employed.
  • However, the threshold limit for coverage of establishments is still 20 employees in some states.
• Eligibility:
  • The scheme covers all factory or establishment employees with a salary of up to Rs. 21,000 per month.
  • This limit is Rs. 25,000 per month for persons with disabilities.
  • Contributions: Employees contribute 0.75% of the wages, whereas employers contribute 3.25% of the wages payable to their employees.
  • The contributions are made monthly at a fixed percentage of wages.
  • Employees earning < Rs. 176/- a day are exempted from payment of their share of contribution.
  • The scheme is implemented on a district-wise basis.
  • Benefits to the employees include medical, sickness, disablement (temporary and permanent), maternity, funeral expenses, and other benefits as provided by the Act.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Medium

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

1 is correct

• Under the Constitution, the President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament.

2 is incorrect and 3 is correct

• The Public Accounts Committee is a committee of Parliament.
• Its reports are tabled in Parliament by the committee itself, not by the President.
• The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
• The CAG submits three audit reports to the President, namely, audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings

4 is correct

• The commission presents an annual report to the president. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary.
• The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by the Commission.
• The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.
• The President also forwards any report of the Commission pertaining to a state government to the state governor.
• The governor places it before the state legislature, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations of the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only option 1 is correct

• Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill.
• A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:
  • if the bill is rejected by the other House;
  • if the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or
  • if more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it.
• In the above three situations, the president can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill.
• It must be noted here that the provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
• In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each House separately.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilisation of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) is a registered society established to implement and monitor anti-poverty programmes of the Ministry of Rural Development. However, it cannot perform the functions of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). DRDAs only coordinate and work with PRIs, not replace them.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• DRDAs mainly focus on the implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of rural development and anti-poverty programmes. They may conduct action research or evaluation studies initiated by the government, but they do not undertake independent, area-specific scientific studies on malnutrition.

Statement 3 is correct

• An important role of DRDAs is to ensure coordination and cooperation among different sectors and departments. They facilitate convergence among line departments, banks, and NGOs to improve the effectiveness of poverty alleviation programmes.

Statement 4 is correct

• DRDAs are also responsible for monitoring the proper and effective utilization of funds allocated for anti-poverty schemes. In this process, they act as a catalyst and facilitator for rural development programmes.

Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
  • to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
  • to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
  • to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
  • These are all part of the 11 Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution
• Protecting the weaker sections from social injustice is not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Duty.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary. The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems necessary.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The judges of the Supreme Court are provided with the Security of Tenure. They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution.
• This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the President, though they are appointed by him. This is obvious from the fact that no judge of the Supreme Court has been removed (or impeached) so far.

Statement 3 is correct

• The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Thus, they are non-votable by the Parliament (though they can be discussed by it).

Statement 4 is incorrect

• The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court without any interference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Thorium is three to four times more abundant than uranium in the Earth’s crust.

Additional Information Thorium is weakly radioactive and all its known isotopes are unstable, including the seven naturally occurring ones (thorium-227, 228, 229, 230, 231, 232, and 234). Thorium-232 is the most stable isotope of thorium and accounts for nearly all natural thorium. Its most common source is the rare earth mineral monazite (monazite contains 2.5% thorium). Other important sources are minerals such as thorite and thorianite India has the world’s largest Thorium resource of around 1 million tonnes, followed by Brazil, Australia, the USA, and Egypt. Because of this resource position, India has chalked out a Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme where thorium plays a significant role.

Statement 2 is correct

• In terms of energy yield, thorium can produce more energy per unit mass of mined mineral than natural uranium. This is because natural uranium contains only about 0.7% fissile U-235, whereas thorium-232 is a fertile material that can be converted into fissile U-233, enabling more efficient fuel use and higher burn-up.

Statement 3 is correct

Thorium reactors produce far less waste than present-day reactors. Thorium produces 10 to 10,000 times less long-lived radioactive waste The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

1. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat.
2. the UV part of the solar radiation.
3. all the solar radiations.
4. the infrared part of the solar radiation.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Carbon dioxide is a meteorologically important gas as it is transparent to incoming solar radiation but opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation. Being an efficient absorber of infrared radiation (heat), it absorbs a part of terrestrial radiation and reflects some of it towards the earth’s surface. It is mainly responsible for the greenhouse effect and heat energy budget. Among GHGs, only water vapour can absorb both incoming (UV) and outgoing (infrared) radiation.

Answer: (d) the infrared part of the solar radiation; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

1. Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
2. Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
3. Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
4. Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The origin of life on Earth is primarily attributed to the presence of essential elements like Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), Nitrogen (N), and Oxygen (O), which form the building blocks of life. Carbon forms the backbone of organic molecules like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.
• Hydrogen is a key component of water and organic compounds, while Nitrogen is crucial for amino acids, proteins, and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). This combination allowed for the formation of simple organic molecules and, eventually, complex life forms.

Answer: (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen; Difficulty Level: Medium

What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of BT brinjal in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of BT brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Brinjal is the second most consumed vegetable in India after potatoes. Bt brinjal is made by adding a gene from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt). This makes the brinjal resistant to the Brinjal Fruit and Shoot Borer (FSB)

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Bt brinjal seeds are not terminator seeds. Terminator technology is the genetic modification of plants to make them produce sterile seeds. They are also known as suicide seeds. Terminator’s official name – used by the UN and scientists – is Genetic Use Restriction Technologies (GURTs). It involves genetically modifying seeds to produce sterile seeds, preventing their reuse by farmers. This forces farmers to purchase new seeds each season, protecting seed companies’ intellectual property.

Statement 3 is correct

• Civil society groups have raised concerns about the possible allergenic and toxic effects on human health.

Statement 4 is correct

• Genetically engineered Bt brinjal does have implications for plant biodiversity and ecological system.

Additional Information Genome: A genome is a complete set of genetic instructions (like a recipe book for the body) that are present in the DNA of humans. Each genome contains the information needed to build an organism and allow it to grow and develop. Gene: A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. Genes are made up of DNA. A chromosome consists of a long strand of DNA containing many genes. Genome Editing: It is a part of genetic engineering that seeks modification in DNA (through addition, deletion, or replacement) in the genome of an organism. Genome editing vs. genetic engineering: the former (genetic editing) does not involve introducing foreign genetic material, the latter (genetic engineering) does.

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Genetically engineered plants are the plants used in agriculture, whose DNA has been modified to induce a desired new trait.
• A New trait might help in:
  • Controlling certain pests, diseases, or environmental conditions,
  • reduction of spoilage,
  • inducing resistance to chemical treatments (e.g. resistance to an herbicide),
  • improving the nutrient profile of the crop,
  • atmospheric nitrogen fixation by cereal crops,
  • inducing tolerance to high salt soils and to flooding in crops,
  • inducing drought resistance in crops,
  • prolonging shelf life and commercial value of fruits and vegetables.

• While the idea of enabling plants to grow and perform photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations is a futuristic concept, it is not presently an application of genetically engineered plants.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians.
3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Dadabhai was India’s first economic thinker. He is best known for his theory of the “Drain of Wealth,” which exposed the economic exploitation of India under British rule. This became a cornerstone of the Indian National Movement and highlighted how wealth was systematically drained from India to Britain.
• At its Calcutta Session of 1896, the Indian National Congress officially adopted the drain theory, which thereafter became a main plank in the organised nationalist agitation.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Dadabhai Naoroji primarily focused on economic and political issues.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Stressing the eradication of social evils before political goals was more aligned with social reformers like Mahatma Gandhi. Naoroji’s work primarily revolved around economic and political aspects rather than social reform.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None of the above is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Dhrupad claims the distinction of being the oldest form of Indian Classical music heard today, its origin can be traced back to the chanting of vedic hymns and mantras. It is said to be a form of the Gandharva Veda, the Vedic science of music, which is a branch of Sama Veda. Although it later flourished during the reign of Akbar and in Rajput courts such as that of Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior, it did not originate in the Mughal period.

Statement 2 is correct

• Dhrupad is deeply devotional and spiritual in nature. Traditionally performed in temples, it continues to serve as a medium for spiritual reflection and devotion.

Statement 3 is correct

• The ‘Nom Tom’ alap in Dhrupad uses syllables such as ‘Ri’, ‘Na’, and ‘Num’, which are believed to be derived from Sanskrit devotional phrases or mantras, such as Hari Om Ananta Narayan.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In a Kuchipudi recital, the dancer may combine the role of a singer into himself/ herself as well. Hence, it becomes a drance-drama performance. Both Lasya and Tandava elements are important in the Kuchipudi dance form
• Bharatanatyam, focuses more on expressions and mudras (hand gestures) to convey the meaning.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The practice of dancing on a brass plate is a well-known feature of Kuchipudi. In this tradition, the dancer balances on the edges of a brass plate while performing intricate footwork. Bharatanatyam does not include this particular movement.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Meditation and control of breath: Sufi mystics emphasized internal purification and self-awareness, often practicing meditation and breath control as part of their spiritual discipline. These practices were adapted to focus on the remembrance of God (Zikr) and achieving a state of divine connection.
• Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place: Many Sufi saints engaged in ascetic practices, often withdrawing to isolated places for meditation and contemplation. This detachment from worldly pleasures was aimed at focusing entirely on God.
• Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience: Sufis are well-known for their practice of Sama, which involved the recitation or singing of devotional songs and poetry. This was done to invoke a state of spiritual ecstasy and divine love, both for themselves and their followers.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Rowlatt Act aimed at:

1. Compulsory economic support to war efforts.
2. Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial.
3. Suppression of the Khilafat Movement.
4. Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Based on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee headed by Justice Sydney Rowlatt, the Government of India enacted the Rowlatt Act. It essentially sought to criminalize dissent, empowered the government to suppress political activities, and allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial or judicial review for two years.

Answer: (b) Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because

1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence.
2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session.
3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. None of the above

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The 44th Session of the INC convened in Lahore from December 29th, 1929, to January 1st, 1930. It was presided over by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The Lahore session of the Congress gave voice to the new, militant spirit. It took the following important decisions:
  • It passed a resolution declaring Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence) to be the Congress’s objective.
  • It declared that the entire Nehru Committee’s Report scheme had become invalid. This was declared because the government had not acted towards establishing a Dominion Self-Government.
  • It decided to boycott the Round Table Conference.
  • It authorised the Working Committee to launch a Civil Disobedience program, including nonpayment of taxes, whenever deemed appropriate.
  • It asked all members of the legislature to resign their seats.
  • January 26, 1930, was designated as the first Independence Day to be celebrated annually thereafter.
• At midnight on December 31st, 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the newly adopted tri-colour flag on the banks of the river Ravi. Various areas followed suit.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• In the Lucknow session of the Congress in 1916, presided over by A. C. Mazumdar, extremists reunited with the moderates. It was the first Congress session Gandhiji attended after his return to India from South Africa in 1915.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• It became a significant issue much later during the 1940s.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolises

1. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation.
2. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
3. Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory.
4. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Bhumisparsha Mudra is one of the most common Mudras found in statues of Buddha. It depicts the Buddha sitting in meditation with his left hand, palm upright, in his lap, and his right hand touching the earth. This mudra is commonly associated with blue Buddha known as Akshobya.
• Significance: ‘Calling the Earth to Witness the Truth’ and it represents the moment of Buddha attaining enlightenment.

Image Source: Map Academy

Answer: (b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara; Difficulty Level: Hard

The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

1. Bhakti
2. image worship and Yajnas
3. worship of nature and Yajnas
4. worship of nature and Bhakti

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The early Vedic Aryans primarily practised a religion centred on:
  • Worship of Nature: Natural elements like the sun (Surya), fire (Agni), wind (Vayu), and rain (Indra) were considered divine and worshipped. These deities represented the forces of nature that influenced their agrarian lifestyle.
  • Yajnas (Sacrifices): Yajnas (ritual sacrifices) were central to their religious practices, performed to appease the gods and ensure prosperity, rains, and well-being.

Answer: (c) worship of nature and Yajnas; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularised the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The Brahmo Samaj was founded on 20 August 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy (initially as the Brahma Sabha) with the aim of reforming Hinduism and promoting monotheism. The movement opposed idolatry and ritualistic practices, advocating the worship of one formless God. It was based on the twin pillars of reason and the teachings of the Vedas and Upanishads, and it rejected the authority of a priestly class, encouraging individuals to understand religious texts themselves and develop a direct relationship with God.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Brahmo Samaj attempted to reform the Hindu religion by eliminating wrong practices and establishing it on the worship of one God and the teachings of the Vedas and Upanishads. However, it rejected the doctrine of the infallibility of the Vedas.
• The movement suffered a setback after Roy’s death in 1833. However, Debendranath Tagore (1817-1905), the son of Dwarkanath Tagore (1794-1846), took on the unfinished work in 1843. Under his leadership, the Brahma Samaj movement assumed a new height and character. The tradition was carried forward after 1866 by Keshub Chandra Sen.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI: Commercial banks are required to maintain a portion of their deposits as reserves with the RBI (known as the Cash Reserve Ratio, or CRR) to ensure financial stability and liquidity management.
• The RBI lends funds to commercial banks in times of need: The RBI acts as the lender of last resort for commercial banks, providing them with funds through mechanisms like the repo rate and marginal standing facility (MSF) during liquidity crises.
• The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters: The RBI guides and regulates commercial banks on monetary and credit policies to align with its broader goals of economic stability, inflation control, and growth.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• An increase in the sales of a product is related to business income or revenue and does not constitute ‘capital gains.’ Capital gains refer to the profit made from the sale of a capital asset and not regular income from business operations.

Statement 2 is correct

• A natural increase in the value of property owned, such as real estate, may lead to capital gains when the property is sold, and the profit (difference between the sale price and purchase price) is realized.

Statement 3 is correct

• Purchasing a painting and experiencing a rise in its value due to increased popularity is an example of a capital gain, provided the painting is sold, and the profit is realized.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Measure 1 is correct

• When the Central Bank purchases government securities, it injects money into the economy, increasing the money supply.

Measure 2 is incorrect

• When the public deposits currency in banks, there is no net increase in the money supply, as currency is merely transferred from the public to banks.
• However, it may enable banks to extend credit, but this is not a direct increase in money supply.

Measure 3 is correct

• Borrowing by the government from the central bank increases the money supply by injecting money into the market.

Measure 4 is incorrect

• When the Central Bank sells government securities, money is taken out of circulation as the public pays for these securities.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Subsidiaries of companies in India: If a foreign company establishes a subsidiary in India, it qualifies as FDI because it involves direct investment in the Indian economy. This is included in FDI.
• Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies: When foreign investors own a majority stake (more than 50%) in Indian companies, it constitutes FDI, as they gain significant control over the operations. This is included in FDI.
• Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies: Companies in India fully financed by foreign companies are a clear example of FDI, as they represent direct investment in Indian businesses. This is included in FDI.
• Portfolio investment: Portfolio investment refers to foreign investments in financial instruments like stocks, bonds, and other securities without gaining control or a significant influence over the entity.
• It is considered Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), not FDI.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank
2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. stability of the government of the concerned country
4. economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The World Bank does not set the price of a currency. Currency values are primarily determined by market forces such as supply and demand in the foreign exchange markets.

Statement 2 is correct

• The demand for a country’s goods and services influences its currency value. Higher demand for exports can lead to higher demand for the country’s currency, which can increase its value.

Statement 3 is correct

• Political stability and confidence in the government play a significant role in determining currency value. A stable government generally attracts investment and strengthens the currency.

Statement 4 is incorrect

• The economic strength of a country, including its GDP, industrial output, and trade balance, influences its currency. But it is more relevant to statement 3, as the economic potential is reflected in the stability and outlook of the country’s government and market conditions.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

1. big banks should try to open offices in each district
2. there should be stiff competition among the various nationalised banks
3. individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
4. all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilise deposits

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced in 1969. Under this scheme, specific banks were assigned as lead banks for designated districts, with the responsibility of providing banking services to residents. The lead bank acts as a leader for coordinating the efforts of all credit institutions in the allotted districts to increase the flow of credit to agriculture, MSE and other economic activities, with the district being the basic unit in terms of geographical area.

Answer: (c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops.
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare.
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies.

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• An elaborate mechanism of land revenue administration gradually developed due to efforts of medieval rulers like Alauddin Khalji, Sher Shah Suri and Akbar.
• In its developed form, the land revenue administration involved well formulated policies. These were:
  • actual measurement of cultivable land for the purpose of assessment of land revenue
  • classification of land on the basis of the fertility of soil
  • fixation of rate of the land revenue demand
  • establishment of elaborate mechanism for its collection, and
  • working out modalities for assessment and collection of land revenue in cash.

Additional Information During the medieval period, different methods of revenue assessment and collection were used. The simplest and most basic method was crop sharing or batai. The state fixed a certain ratio of produce as the state’s share. In this method, out of the total produce the state share was collected by a designated official. Here, the measurement of land had no bearing on revenue collection. The actual produce was the main focus of attention. In the second method, known as Kankut the measurement was important. In this method land was first measured. After measurement, the productivity of land was estimated to fix the revenue demand per unit of measured area. Sher Shah improved the method of assessment. For estimating the productivity, a sample cutting from three types of land i.e. good, middling and bad lands, was taken and an average yield was obtained. The State demand was fixed at 1/3rd of the average yield. Revenue demand per bigha for every crop was declared and was known as rai of Sher Shah. During the initial years of Akbar these rates were adopted for the whole empire. Here the state demand was expressed in kind but could be collected/paid in cash after applying prevalent prices on them. This Third method was called Zabt since the assessment was done on the basis of measurement. Based on yields the share of the state was decided. Under Akbar the method was further refined. All the territories were divided into the revenue circles or dasturs. For each dastur circle per bigha revenue rates for different crops in cash based on productivity and prices were worked out.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Babur effectively used cannons for the first time in India during the First Battle of Panipat (1526) against Ibrahim Lodhi. Early cannons in India were made of bronze. Europeans introduced wrought iron and cast iron cannons in the 18th century.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• It is said that tobacco smoking was introduced in some parts of the American continent. Columbus was the first person who introduced it to European countries. However, it was the Portuguese merchants who introduced it in the Indian subcontinent during the reign of Akbar. Chilies are not native to India. They were introduced to us by the Portuguese colonisers.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Both artisans (craft persons) and merchants were organised and formed associations known as guilds or shrenis under their respective headmen. While guilds (Shrenis) in ancient India were influential economic entities, they were generally autonomous and not necessarily registered with a central state authority. The king did recognize and sometimes protect guilds, but he was not the chief administrative authority over them. Guilds functioned as self-regulating organizations.

Statement 2 is correct

• The shrenis of crafts persons provided training, procured raw materials, and distributed the finished product. The shrenis of merchants organised the trade. These shrenis regulated crafts, and their heads would interact with the rulers on behalf of each industry.
• They also served as banks, where rich men and women deposited money. This was invested, and part of the interest was returned or used to support religious institutions such as monasteries.

Statement 3 is correct

• Guilds had their own judicial authority over their members. They resolved disputes internally, including trade-related issues, contract enforcement, and disciplinary actions.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

1. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
2. Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
3. Government of India Act, 1935
4. Indian Independence Act, 1947

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is primarily based on the Government of India Act, 1935.

Answer: (c) Government of India Act, 1935; Difficulty Level: Easy

Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for the future and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• There is no official policy to conserve domestic coal reserves for the future while relying on imports for present use. The primary reasons for coal imports are supply constraints and quality requirements.

Statement 2 is correct

• Many power plants in India face coal shortages due to issues such as inadequate domestic production, transportation bottlenecks, and inefficiencies in coal supply chains.

Statement 3 is correct

• Steel companies require large quantities of coking coal, and India’s domestic reserves are insufficient to meet the needs of its steel industry. As a result, a significant portion of coking coal has to be imported.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction, but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the:

1. direction facing the polestar
2. direction opposite to the polestar
3. direction keeping the polestar to his left
4. direction keeping the polestar to his right

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• A pole star is a star or a star system situated in the direction of the earth’s axis. At present, Polaris or North Star (a system of 3 stars) is the earth’s pole star. It is visible only from the northern hemisphere, and when looked at from earth, it does not appear to move.

• If a person wants to go east, they should move perpendicular to the north-south direction. To move eastward, the north (Polestar) should be on the left, and the south should be on the right. Thus, the person should walk keeping the Polestar to their left to reach the village.

Answer: (c) direction keeping the polestar to his left; Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called rare earth metals. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada, and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items, and there is growing demand for these elements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In past years, China has imposed export restrictions and quotas on these elements, citing national security and environmental concerns, leading to significant disruptions and supply uncertainties in global markets

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Rare earth elements occur in many countries, including India, the United States, Brazil, Russia, and Vietnam. The issue is not their absence but the limited economically viable extraction and processing capacity.

Statement 3 is correct

• REEs are widely used in electronics, magnets, batteries, wind turbines, electric vehicles, and defence technologies, leading to rising demand.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following protected areas;

1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Bandipur is correct

• Bandipur National Park, Tiger Reserve: Together with Nagarhole National Park, Mudumalai National Park (TN) and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala), it is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
  • Kabini River (a tributary of the Cauvery River) separates the National Park from Nagarhole National Park.
  • Vegetation: Dry & moist deciduous forests, and shrubs.
  • Major Flora: Teak, rosewood, sandalwood, clumping bamboo, Indian laurel and kadam tree.
  • Major Fauna: Indian elephants, gaurs, tigers, sloth bears, chausinghas, dholes, chital, sambar, gray langurs.
  • Threats: Wildlife fatalities by speeding vehicles, cattle grazing, transmission of diseases from cattle to wildlife, deforestation and habitat fragmentation, and invasive species (e.g, Lantana and Parthenium).
  • There is a ban on traffic from 9 pm to 6 am of dusk to dawn to help bing down the death rate of wildlife.

Bhitarkanika is incorrect

• Bhitarkanika National Park, Wildlife Sanctuary, Ramsar Site (not listed as Tiger Reserve): Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary separates the National Park from the Bay of Bengal. It is inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani & Dhamra.
  • It hosts many mangrove species and is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
  • Major Fauna: Saltwater (Estuarine) Crocodile (LC).
  • Major Flora: Mangrove species.

Manas is correct

• Manas Biosphere Reserve, National Park, Tiger Reserve, ER: It is a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site located on the Himalayan Foothills. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park (Bhutan). Manas river (a tributary of Brahmaputra) passes through the heart of the National Park.
  • The bhabar-terai region with riverine succession makes it one of the richest areas of biodiversity.
  • Vegetation: Semi-evergreen forests, moist and dry deciduous forests, savanna woodland, and grasslands.
  • Major Fauna: Hispid hare, pygmy hog, wild water buffalo (EN), rhinoceros (reintroduced in 2007), elephants, sambar, Chinese pangolin, clouded leopards.
  • Major Avifauna: It has the world’s largest population of the endangered Bengal florican. Other major bird species include great hornbills, pelicans, eagles, and herons.

Sunderbans is correct

• Sunderban Biosphere Reserve, National Park, Tiger Reserve, Ramsar Site: Sunderban is the largest delta and mangrove forest in the world. Sundarbans National Park is a part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta and is adjacent to the Sundarban Reserve Forest in Bangladesh.
  • It is bound on the west by river Muriganga and on the east by rivers Harinbhahga and Raimangal.
  • It is also a BR, Tiger Reserve, Ramsar Site and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • Eco-geography of this area is dependent on the tidal effect. The tidal action deposits silts back on the channels, raising the bed and forming new islands and creeks.
  • Vegetation: Mangrove forests (Sundarbans has achieved its name from the Sundari mangrove tree).
  • Major Fauna: Royal Bengal Tiger, saltwater crocodile, river terrapin, olive ridley turtle, Ganges River dolphin, hawksbill turtle, mangrove horseshoe crab.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The duration of the monsoon season decreases gradually from southern to northern India. This is because the monsoon season begins in southern India (Kerala) around June and extends northward, covering the entire country by mid-July. The retreat of the monsoon begins first in the north and gradually progresses towards the south.

Statement 2 is correct

• The northern plains receive most rainfall from south-west monsoon winds carrying moisture from the Indian Ocean. As the monsoon progresses inland in the northern plains, it loses moisture, resulting in a decrease in rainfall from east to west across the northern plains. States like West Bengal and Bihar in the eastern part of the northern plains receive higher rainfall compared to states like Haryana and Punjab in the western part.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

1. Rainfall throughout the year
2. Rainfall in winter only
3. An extremely short dry season
4. A definite dry and wet season

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Tropical Savanna climate (also called the Sudan) is marked by a clear alternation between wet and dry seasons. Unlike the tropical rainforest climate, which receives rainfall throughout the year, the savanna has a distinct dry season, usually in winter when the sun shifts away from the region.

Answer: (d) A definite dry and wet season; Difficulty Level: Easy

In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use biomass?

1. Biosphere Reserves
2. National Parks
3. Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
4. Wildlife Sanctuaries

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In Biosphere Reserves, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and wetlands designated under the Ramsar Convention, local communities may collect and use biomass, subject to certain regulations and sustainable-use practices.
• In contrast, National Parks in India have stricter protection norms. They are established primarily for the conservation of wildlife and their habitats, and local people are generally not permitted to collect or use biomass.

Answer: (b) National Parks; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Bats, bees, and birds all act as pollinating agents. Bats are nocturnal pollinators and help in pollinating night-blooming flowers, particularly in tropical and desert ecosystems. Bees are among the most efficient pollinators as they transfer pollen while collecting nectar. Birds, such as hummingbirds and sunbirds, also contribute to pollination by feeding on nectar from brightly colored, tubular flowers.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

1. Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
2. Kashmir Stag, Cheetai, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
3. Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
4. Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

Great Indian Bustard	The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is one of the heaviest flying birds. It is an omnivorous flagship grassland species and is the state bird of Rajasthan. Distribution: It is native to the Indian subcontinent (a few pockets in India and Pakistan). In India, it is mainly confined to Rajasthan and Gujarat. A small population also occurs in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Its largest population (95%) is found in Rajasthan (Jaisalmer). Habitat: Dry grassland and steppe region. Threats: Habitat loss (mainly due to agricultural expansion), hunting, and mortality due to collisions with power lines and windmills (they have poor frontal vision). IUCN: CR | CITES: Appx I | CMS: Appx I | WPA: Sch I
Musk Deer	Himalayan musk deer (or White-bellied musk deer) is a musk deer species occurring in the Himalayas. The Musk deer family differs from true deer (cervids) in that it lacks antlers. Male musk deer secretes a scented substance called musk, which is used in the perfume industry. Distribution: Himalayas of Bhutan, India, Nepal, and China. Habitat: High alpine environments. Threats: Hunting (for musk) and habitat loss. IUCN: EN | CITES: Appx I | WPA: Sch I
Red Panda	Red panda (or Lesser panda) is an arboreal mammal native to the eastern Himalayas and SW China. It is an indicator species and an umbrella species for the Himalayan Ecosystem. It is not related to the giant panda. Though red panda is carnivorous, it rarely eats meat, and bamboo constitutes its main diet. It is both nocturnal and crepuscular (active during twilight and dawn). Distribution: Bhutan, India, Nepal, Myanmar and China. In India, it occurs in the states of Sikkim, WB, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya. It is the state animal of Sikkim. Habitat: Temperate montane forests with dense bamboo-thicket understorey. ‘ Threats: Inbreeding depression. IUCN: EN | CITES: Appx I
Asiatic Wild Ass	The Asiatic wild ass (Equus hemionus) is found throughout Central Asia ranging from Mongolia and China to Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, India and Israel. The only large population is found in Mongolia and the other populations are fragmented and relatively small. IUCN: NT
Cheetal	The chital or cheetal (Axis axis), also known as the spotted deer, chital deer, and axis deer, is an attractive deer species native to the Indian subcontinent. They are a moderate-sized deer ranging from golden to rufous in colour. Physical description: They are strongly sexually dimorphic: males are much larger than females and grow large, lyre-shaped antlers. Distribution: The chital ranges over 8–30°N in India, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka. Conservation Status: IUCN: Least Concern
Blue Bull	Nilgai (or blue bull) is the largest antelope in Asia. Distribution: Found in India, Nepal, and Pakistan. Indravati NP (Chhattisgarh), Pench TR (MP), Ranthambhore and Keoladeo NPs of Rajasthan are famous for it. Habitat: Arid areas, grassy plains, dry deciduous forests and farmlands. Avoids dense forests and deserts. IUCN: LC
Snow Leopard	Snow leopard (or Ghost of the Mountains) is a keystone and indicator species of high-altitude habitat. It is a flagship species for the high-altitude Himalayan ecosystem. Distribution: Native to mountains of Central and South Asia. It occurs in the Himalayan region. Habitat: Alpine and subalpine zones. Threats: Habitat loss, poaching, climate change, tourism, and competition with livestock. IUCN: VU
Swamp Deer	Barasingha (Swamp deer) is native to the Indian subcontinent. It is the state animal of MP and UP. Distribution: Isolated localities in north and central India and Nepal. Kanha TR (MP) is famous for it. Habitat: Open forests, tall grasslands and mangroves. IUCN: VU
Rhesus Monkey	Rhesus monkey has the widest geographic range of all non-human primates. It is diurnal, omnivorous, and alternatively arboreal and terrestrial. Distribution: South, Central, and SE Asia. Habitat: A variety of habitats, including human habitations. IUCN: LC | CITES: Appx II
Saras (Crane)	Sarus crane, a large nonmigratory crane, is the tallest flying bird in the world (4ft average height). Distribution: Indian subcontinent, SE Asia, and Australia. In India, it is seen in the Himalayan foothills, Northwest India (except the Thar desert), and Central India. Habitat: Open wet and dry grasslands and agricultural fields. IUCN: VU
Lion-tailed Macaque	Lion-tailed macaque is an Old World monkey endemic to the Western Ghats. Unlike other macaques, this arboreal species avoids humans. Distribution: Karnataka, Kerala, and TN. Habitat: Prefers tropical evergreen rainforests but is also found in monsoon forests. Threats: Habitat loss, hunting, and wood harvesting. IUCN: EN
Hanuman Langur	Hanuman langur (Gray langur) is distributed throughout India except NE India, while Rhesus macaque occurs in all habitats of India north of Godavari. In southern Indian states (south of Godavari), it is replaced by Bonnet macaque. IUCN: LC
Kashmir Stag	Kashmir stag (or Hangul) is the only Asiatic sub-species of the Elk (the largest subspecies of Red deer, found in high mountains of Central Asia). It is the state animal of J&K. Distribution: It is endemic to Kashmir and is now restricted to Dachigam NP. Earlier, it was widely distributed in the mountains of Kashmir and Chamba district of HP. Habitat: Mountainous areas, where it spends summers in alpine meadows and winters in valleys. Threats: Over-grazing by domestic livestock and poaching. IUCN: CR
Additional Information The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official term “threatened” is a grouping of three categories: Critically Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable. The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species. Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened. With time, the number of pink pages continue to increase.

Answer: (a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. the blotting paper would paper would fail to function
4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the earth

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Only statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct

• Capillarity is the ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces without external force, due to adhesion, cohesion, and surface tension. If capillarity did not exist, kerosene would not rise in a lamp wick, blotting paper would not absorb ink and water would not travel up through the xylem in tall trees, preventing their growth. However, drinking through a straw primarily relies on atmospheric pressure rather than capillarity, so it would still be possible.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

1. Production of food and water
2. Control of climate and disease
3. Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
4. Maintenance of diversity

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) was called for by the former United Nations Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2000. Initiated in 2001, the objective of the MA was to assess the consequences of ecosystem change for human well-being and the scientific basis for action needed to enhance the conservation and sustainable use of those systems and their contribution to human well-being.
• Supporting services are the fundamental ecological processes that sustain other ecosystem services.

Answer: (c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

1. Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.
2. Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk.
3. Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-cast India only.
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Chiru is a medium-sized bovid (mammal with cloven hoof and unbranched hollow horns).
  • Distribution: It is native to the Tibetan plateau. A small number occur in Ladakh. Karakoram (Nubra Shyok) WLS and Changthang Cold Desert WLS of Ladakh are famous for it.
  • Habitat: High-altitude plains, hills, plateaus, and valleys consisting of alpine, desert steppe, and meadows.
  • Threats: Hunting for its fine wool called shahtoosh.
  • IUCN: NT
• The Oryx genus includes four large antelope species, distinguished by their pale fur with dark markings and long, straight horns. These antelopes are well adapted to desert environments and can endure long periods without water.

Answer: (a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Biodiversity faces multiple threats, including:
• Global warming: Alters habitats, affects species distribution, and increases extinction risks.
• Fragmentation of habitat: Breaks ecosystems into smaller patches, disrupting wildlife movement and genetic diversity.
• Invasion of alien species: Non-native species can outcompete, prey on, or spread diseases to native species, reducing biodiversity.
• However, promotion of vegetarianism is not a direct threat to biodiversity. While agricultural expansion can impact ecosystems, dietary choices alone do not inherently threaten biodiversity.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Black-necked crane is correct

• The Black-necked crane is the state bird of UT of Ladakh (it was the state bird of erstwhile J&K).
• Distribution: It is native to Ladakh, Sichuan (China) and Tibet. It migrates to Arunachal Pradesh and Bhutan during the winter.

Cheetah is incorrect

• Cheetahs were previously naturally found in India. They were declared extinct in India in 1952. Overhunting and habitat loss were the primary reasons. African cheetahs have been recently reintroduced in India, but they are not regarded as naturally occurring native populations in the wild.

Flying squirrel is correct

• In India we have around 17 species of flying squirrels of which 14 are in the Northeast.
• Flying Squirrels don’t actually fly, but glide from one tree to the other.

Snow leopard is correct

• Snow leopard (or Ghost of the Mountains) is a keystone and indicator species of high-altitude habitat. It is a flagship species for the high-altitude Himalayan ecosystem.
• Distribution: Native to mountains of Central and South Asia. It occurs in the Himalayan region.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/ storage in the soil?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None of them

Explanation

Only zero tillage is correct

• Carbon sequestration in agriculture mainly involves practices that enhance soil organic carbon storage by minimizing soil disturbance and promoting organic matter buildup.
• Contour bunding: While it helps in soil conservation and moisture retention, it does not significantly contribute to carbon sequestration.
• Relay cropping: Improves soil fertility and reduces erosion but does not directly enhance long-term carbon storage in the soil.
• Zero tillage: A key method for carbon sequestration, as it reduces soil disturbance, decreases carbon release, and increases soil organic matter over time.

Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reasons?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Phytoplankton are the primary producers in the oceans. They include: diatoms (unicellular algae), coccolithophores (unicellular, eukaryotic protists), Cyanobacteria (Bluegreen algae) — Synechococcus, Prochlorococcus, Nostoc, Spirogyra, etc., and Dinoflagellates (flagellated protists).
• Ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected: Phytoplankton perform photosynthesis, absorbing CO₂ from the atmosphere. Their destruction would reduce the ocean’s ability to act as a carbon sink, leading to increased atmospheric CO₂ levels.
• Food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected: Phytoplankton form the base of the marine food chain. Their disappearance would disrupt food sources for zooplankton, small fish, and ultimately larger marine predators.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Density of ocean water would drastically decrease: The density of seawater is primarily influenced by temperature and salinity, not the presence of phytoplankton. While phytoplankton contribute organic matter, their absence would not cause a drastic change in ocean water density.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Vultures, which used to be very common in the Indian countryside some years ago, are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to:

1. the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
2. a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
3. scarcity of food available to them
4. a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The drastic decline in vulture populations in India is primarily due to the use of Diclofenac. It is a common nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID – works like steroids, but without as many side effects) administered to livestock and is used to treat the symptoms of inflammation, fevers and/or pain associated with disease or wounds. It leads to renal failure in vultures, damaging their excretory system (direct inhibition of uric acid secretion in vultures).

Answer: (b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle; Difficulty Level: Easy