UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2011

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2011 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2011 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2011

In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bio asphalt). What is the importance of this material?

1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bio asphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bio asphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use bio asphalt for surfacing of the roads.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Unlike traditional asphalt, which is derived from petroleum (a fossil fuel), bio-asphalt is produced from renewable resources such as plant-based oils, sugars, and organic waste.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Bio-asphalt is made from renewable resources, not non-renewable ones

Statement 3 is correct

• Bio-asphalt can be made from organic waste materials, including agricultural residues, algae, and other biodegradable sources.

Statement 4 is correct

• Bio-asphalt is considered eco-friendly as it reduces dependence on petroleum, lowers carbon emissions, and offers a sustainable alternative for road surfacing.

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emissions/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Thermal Power Plants (TPP): Processes involved: fossil fuels such as coil, oil, and natural gas are burnt to produce heat
  • Heat is used to produce high-pressure steam from water
  • High-pressure steam is used to drive a steam turbine
  • A generator attached to the steam turbine generates electricity.
  • In India, most TPPs use coal as fuel (coal contains many toxic elements). Their energy efficiency is very low (20-45%).
  • Most TPPs do not employ pollution-reducing techniques such as flue gas desulphurisation (FGD), electrostatic precipitation, etc.
• Pollution:
  • Fly ash (electrostatic precipitator ash, dry fly ash, pond ash and mound ash) is a byproduct of coal combustion. It is discharged into the air and ash ponds (fly ash + water). The collapse of ash ponds contaminates nearby farms, homes, surface water bodies and groundwater with toxic heavy metals and other elements.
  • Toxic heavy metals in fly ash: Mercury, cadmium, arsenic, lithium, zinc, iron, copper, nickel, boron, magnesium, lead, aluminium, etc., are widely detected in the air as well as water bodies around TPPs.
  • Other toxic elements in fly ash: Fluoride, sulphur, etc.
  • Gaseous Pollutants from TPP: Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx), Particulate Matter (PM), Methane (CH4), Carbon Monoxide (CO — from incomplete combustion), Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), etc.
  • Water Pollution: Heavy metal pollution due to acid mine drainage (AMD) from open-pit and underground coal mines and TPP effluents (cooling tower blow down, ash handling wastewater, wet FGD system discharges, etc.).

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:

1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.

Which the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• A geosynchronous orbit is positioned 35,786 km above Earth’s surface, aligning with Earth’s rotation period (23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4.09 seconds). Satellites in this orbit remain fixed over a specific longitude, making them ideal for telecommunications and remote sensing.
• Geostationary Orbit (GEO): A geostationary orbit is a subset of GSO, characterized by a circular path above the equator, moving in sync with Earth’s rotation. This allows the satellite to appear stationary from the ground. Such satellites are widely used for communication and weather monitoring.
• Medium Earth Orbit comprises a wide range of orbits anywhere between LEO and HEO (High Earth Orbit) — between 2,000 km and 35,786 km.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons?

1. Due to gradual switch over to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The statement that the area under food grain cultivation has decreased by about 30% in the last five years is exaggerated and factually incorrect. While there have been shifts toward commercial crops in some regions, such a drastic decline has not occurred at the national level.
• Rising incomes have led to changing dietary patterns, with increasing demand for protein-rich foods, fruits, and vegetables, contributing to food inflation.
• Structural constraints in the food supply chain, such as inadequate storage, transportation bottlenecks, and inefficient market mechanisms, contribute to supply-side inflation.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?

1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Scientists can now determine the arrangement of genes on a chromosome, offering significant benefits.
• This knowledge helps in tracing the pedigree of livestock, aiding in selective breeding for desirable traits. It also enables the development of disease-resistant animal breeds by identifying genetic markers linked to immunity. However, while genetic mapping helps understand many genetic disorders, not all human diseases have a purely genetic cause, as environmental and lifestyle factors also play a role.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Commonwealth Games in India amounted to

1. Export
2. Import
3. Production
4. Consumption

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In economic terms, when foreign nationals visit India and spend money on accommodation, food, travel, and other services, it leads to an inflow of foreign exchange. This is considered an export of services, as India is providing tourism-related services to non-residents, earning foreign currency in return.

Additional Information The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a comprehensive record of a country’s economic transactions with the rest of the world over a specified period, usually a year. It shows the flow of money coming in (positive) and going out (negative) of the country. It reflects the relative demand for rupees compared to foreign currencies and helps determine the exchange rate of the rupee. Components of the BoP: Current Account: Current account deals with transactions which do not alter Indian residents’ assets or liabilities outside India and foreign resident’s assets or liabilities inside India. It comprises of visible trade (export and import of goods), invisible trade (export and import of services), unilateral transfers (gifts, grants, remittance etc) and investment income (income earned from factors of production such as land, foreign shares, loans etc.). Capital Account: The capital account is a record of the inflows and outflows of capital that directly affects a country’s foreign assets and liabilities. Capital account transactions are transactions that alter Indian residents’ assets or liabilities outside India and foreign residents’ assets or liabilities inside India. It comprises of foreign investments like FDI and FPI, Loans by companies and governments and banking capital such as NRI deposits.

Answer: (a) Export | Difficulty Level: Easy

Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?

1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• A fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy. It uses hydrogen and oxygen gas as fuel to generate electricity. However, there is no combustion involved. Fuel cells can vary from tiny devices producing only a few watts of electricity, right up to large power plants producing megawatts.
• A microbial fuel cell (MFC) is a bio-electrochemical system that converts chemical energy to electrical energy through reactions catalysed by microorganisms under anaerobic conditions.
• MFCs harness the power of microorganisms (such as bacteria) to break down organic matter, releasing electrons that generate electricity.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• MFCs primarily use organic materials (e.g., wastewater, agricultural waste, and other biodegradable matter) as substrates. While some inorganic compounds can be involved, they are not the main energy source for MFCs.

Statement 3 is correct

• They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity (Correct) MFCs help in bioremediation by breaking down organic pollutants in wastewater while simultaneously generating electricity. This makes them highly useful for sustainable wastewater treatment and energy generation.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?

1. It is a massive investment by the Government in the manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.
2. It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country.
3. It is the Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation.
4. It is an extreme affirmative action by the government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• A fiscal stimulus refers to government measures, typically involving increased public spending and/or tax cuts, aimed at boosting economic activity during a slowdown or recession. It increases demand, creates jobs, and encourages investment. Common fiscal stimulus measures include infrastructure spending, direct cash transfers, tax reductions, and subsidies.
• While it can indirectly support financial inclusion, its primary goal is economic revival.

Answer: (b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country | Difficulty Level: Easy

The formation of ozone holes in the Antarctic Region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

1. Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
2. Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
3. Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
4. Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Ozonosphere lies between 20 km and 55 km from the earth’s surface and spans the stratosphere and lower mesosphere. But the highest concentration occurs between 20 km and 30 km.
• To destroy ozone, ozone-depleting substances (ODS) need to be carried up to the lower levels of the stratosphere. • The only weather phenomena that can reach this level are Polar Vortex and towering tropical cumulus clouds. But towering cumulus clouds do not occur at the poles.
• Question: The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for ozone depletion at poles?
• Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence: they do not reach the stratosphere.
• Presence of a prominent polar front: essential to keep the polar vortex in its place. Polar vortex gives rise to stratospheric Clouds.
• Presence of stratospheric Clouds: they have the necessary ingredients (nitric acid and sulfuric acid) to amplify ozone depletion.
• Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds: polar vortex slips into the temperate region.
• Inflow of methane: methane (CH4) is not in the list of ozone-depleting substances. It does not contain a halogen like chlorine, bromine, fluorine, etc. But it reacts with halogens to create reservoir compounds.
• Increased temperature in the polar region due to global warming: this does not have any direct impact on ozone depletion at the poles

Answer: (b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons | Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following action which the Government can take:

1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

Which of the following actions/actions can help in reducing the Current Account Deficit?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Only actions 1 and 3 are correct

• The Current Account Deficit (CAD) occurs when a country’s imports exceed exports, leading to more outflow of foreign exchange than inflow. The government can take various steps to reduce CAD:
• Devaluing the domestic currency (Helps reduce CAD)
  • A weaker domestic currency makes exports cheaper and imports costlier, boosting exports and reducing imports.
  • This helps in narrowing the trade deficit, a key component of CAD.
• Reduction in export subsidy (Does NOT help reduce CAD)
  • Export subsidies make domestic goods more competitive in international markets, boosting exports.
  • Reducing subsidies could discourage exports, which might worsen the CAD rather than improving it.
• Attracting greater FDI and FII inflows (Helps reduce CAD)
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) bring in foreign exchange, increasing foreign reserves.
  • This helps finance the CAD, thereby reducing its negative impact.

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992 was enacted to strengthen democratic decentralization and rural local governance in India by granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). The amendment inserted Part IX in the Constitution, titled “The Panchayats”, which includes Articles 243 to 243O.
• It also added the Eleventh Schedule, which contains 29 subjects that may be devolved to Panchayats under Article 243G. The amendment operationalizes the vision of Article 40 of the Directive Principles of State Policy, which directs the State to organize village panchayats and empower them to function as units of self-government. By constitutionalizing Panchayati Raj institutions, the amendment also places them within the constitutional and justiciable framework.
• The amendment provides for the constitution of District Planning Committees (DPCs) to consolidate development plans prepared by Panchayats and municipalities and to prepare a draft development plan for the district.

Statement 2 is correct

• The amendment introduced State Election Commissions under Article 243K, which are independent constitutional authorities responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Panchayats.

Statement 3 is correct

• The amendment mandates the establishment of State Finance Commissions under Article 243I. These commissions are to be constituted by state governments every five years to review the financial position of Panchayati Raj Institutions and recommend the distribution of financial resources between the state and local bodies.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Two important rivers – one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha- merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?

1. Bhitarkanika
2. Chandipur-on-sea
3. Gopalpur-on-sea
4. Simlipal

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Bhitarkanika National Park is located in the state of Odisha.
• Brahmani and Baitarani rivers merge at a place close to the coast of the Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This merging point is within the Bhitarkanika National Park.
• Bhitarkanika National Park, Wildlife Sanctuary, Ramsar Site:
  • It is the second Ramsar Site of Odisha after Chilika Lake. It is surrounded by Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary. Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary separates the National Park from the Bay of Bengal. It is inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani & Dhamra.
  • It hosts many mangrove species and is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
  • Major Fauna: Saltwater (Estuarine) Crocodile (LC).
  • Major Flora: Mangrove species.

Answer: (a) Bhitarkanika | Difficulty Level: Easy

A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?

1. It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops.
2. It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth.
3. It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate.
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• It occurs when price levels in the current year are compared to those of the previous year. E.g.,
  • If inflation was high in the previous year, part of the potential increase is already considered, resulting in relatively lower inflation rates for similar price increases in the current year.
  • Conversely, if inflation was low in the previous year, even a small rise in the price index will lead to a high current inflation rate.

Answer: (c) It is the impact of the price levels of the previous year on the calculation of the inflation rate | Difficulty Level: Easy

India is regarded as a country with a “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to

1. Its high population in the age group below 15 years.
2. Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years.
3. Its high population in the age group above 65 years.
4. Its high total population.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential resulting from changes in a population’s age structure. It occurs when the working-age population (typically 15-64 years) is larger than the dependent population (children and elderly). This shift can lead to increased productivity, higher savings, and more investment.
• India’s Demographic Status
  • Current Population: As of 2023, India’s population has reached 1.44 billion, surpassing China’s 1.42 billion, becoming the world’s most populous country (UNFPA, 2023).
  • Fertility Rate: India’s total fertility rate has sharply reduced from 5.9 births per woman in 1951 to 2.0 births per woman currently, as per NFHS-5. This is below the replacement-level fertility of 2.1 births per woman.
  • Population Projections: By 2050, India’s population is projected to reach 1.67 billion, peak at 1.7 billion by 2064, and stabilize at 1.53 billion by 2100 (UN Population Division).
  • Youthful Workforce: With two-thirds of its population aged between 15-64, India holds a significant demographic advantage, potentially driving economic growth if harnessed effectively (UNFPA, 2023).

Answer: (b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years | Difficulty Level: Easy

Regarding “carbon credits’’, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto protocol.
2. Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota.
3. The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission.
4. Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations environment programme.

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• A carbon credit (a carbon offset) is a tradable certificate or permit. One carbon credit is equal to one tonne of CO2. Carbon credits can be acquired through afforestation, renewable energy, CO2 sequestration, methane capture, buying from an exchange (carbon credits trading), etc.
• Carbon trading is the name given to the exchange of emission permits (carbon credits). This exchange may take place within the economy or may take the form of an international transaction.
• The Kyoto Protocol approved the introduction of these credits.
• Under the Carbon Credits Trading mechanism, countries that emit more carbon than the quota allotted to them buy carbon credits from those that emit less.

• In Carbon trading, one credit gives the country or a company the right to emit one tonne of CO2. A developing nation, such as India, turns out to be a seller of such credits.
• Carbon credits are traded at various exchanges (Carbon credit prices are traded on an exchange. So, their prices are never fixed) across the world. The Multi-Commodity Exchange of India launched futures trading in carbon credits in 2009.
• Types of Carbon Trading
  1. Emission trading
  2. Offset trading

• Emission Trading/Cap-and-Trade
  • Sell/purchase: emissions trading allows countries to sell unused emission units to countries that have exceeded their targets.
• Offset Trading/Carbon Project/’baseline-and credit’
  • Create: a country can earn a carbon credit by investing some amount of money in projects, known as carbon projects, which will emit a lesser amount of GHGs into the atmosphere.

Answer: (d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations environment pro-grams | Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?

1. It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation.
2. It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production distribution chain.
3. It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer.
4. It is basically a subject of the Central Government, and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation.

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Value Added Tax (VAT) is a multi-point, destination-based tax levied on the value addition at each stage of the production and distribution chain. VAT is ultimately borne by the consumer, as it is included in the final price of goods and services. VAT was not exclusively under state government jurisdiction; it was replaced by the Goods and Services Tax (GST), which unified taxation across both Central and State governments. Under GST, the previous taxes imposed on goods and services by both levels of government were merged into a single tax structure.
• Current Status of VAT in India: Still applicable on certain goods like petroleum products (petrol, diesel, aviation fuel), alcoholic beverages, which are outside the GST framework.

Answer: (d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government, and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation | Difficulty Level: Easy

A “closed economy” is an economy in which

1. the money supply is fully controlled
2. deficit financing takes place
3. only exports take place
4. neither exports nor imports take place

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• A closed economy is one that does not swap their trading with outside economies. The closed economy is independent, meaning no imports enter the country and no exports leave the country.
• A closed economy aims to provide all that domestic consumers need from within the boundaries of the country.

Answer: (d) neither exports nor imports take place | Difficulty Level: Easy

When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because?

1. Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.
2. Roots are starved of energy.
3. Tree is infected by soil microbes.
4. Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• This process is called girdling or ring-barking. When the bark is removed in a circular fashion around the trunk, the phloem (which transports food from leaves to roots) is also removed.
• As a result: The roots do not receive the sugars and nutrients synthesized in the leaves through photosynthesis. Without energy, the roots gradually die. Since roots absorb water and minerals from the soil, their death eventually causes the entire tree to dry up and die.

Answer: (b) Roots are starved of energy | Difficulty Level: Easy

The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?

1. It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation.
2. It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit.
3. It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for energy security cooperation.
4. It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• START stands for “Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty” and was the last remaining nuclear arms control pact between Russia and the US. The treaty, which caps the number of strategic nuclear warheads that the US and Russia can deploy, was signed by former US President Barack Obama and his Russian counterpart Dmitry Medvedev in 2010.
• It came into force in February 2011 and was extended in 2021 for five more years after US President Joe Biden took office. On 21 February 2023, Vladimir Putin announced the suspension of Russia’s participation in the New START treaty, saying that Russia would not allow the US and NATO to inspect its nuclear facilities.

Answer: (a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation | Difficulty Level: Easy

Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of western Ghats, Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:

1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

1. 1, 2 and 6 only
2. 2, 4 and 6 only
3. 1, 3 and 5 only
4. 3, 4 and 6 only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Biodiversity hotspots, as defined by British biologist Norman Myers, are biogeographic regions characterised by high species richness, a high degree of endemism, and sometimes severe levels of habitat loss. Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots, and in 1996, it undertook a reassessment of the hotspots concept.
  • Conservation International (CI) is an American non-profit environmental organisation working towards protecting nature for the benefit of people.
• According to CI, to qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria:
  1. It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics – which is to say that it must have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.
  2. It must have lost at least 70% of its original habitat. (It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation). In other words, it must be threatened.
  3. In 1999, CI identified 25 biodiversity hotspots. Currently, 36 areas qualify as hotspots representing just 2.5% of the earth’s land surface. They support more than half of the world’s plant species as endemics and nearly 43% of bird, mammal, reptile, and amphibian species as endemics.

• Himalaya: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region of India and of Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, China, & Myanmar.
• Indo-Burma: Includes entire North-Eastern India, Andaman Group of Islands and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and southern China.
• Sundalands: Includes Nicobar group of Islands, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, and the Philippines. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka.

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 5 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of

1. its escape into the outer stratosphere
2. the photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans
3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• Human activities have significantly increased the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the atmosphere; however, a considerable portion of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere primarily due to the absorption by phytoplankton (primary producers) in the oceans through the process of photosynthesis.
• Phytoplankton act as a major carbon sink, removing large amounts of CO₂ from the atmosphere.

Credit: LinkedIn

Answer: (b) 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase marine productivity by bringing the:

1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface
2. Nutrients to the surface
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• Winds blowing across the ocean surface push water away. Water then rises up from beneath the surface to replace the water that was pushed away. This process is known as “upwelling.”
• Upwelling occurs in the open ocean and along coastlines. The reverse process, called “downwelling,” also occurs when wind causes surface water to build up along a coastline and the surface water eventually sinks toward the bottom.
• Water that rises to the surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder and is rich in nutrients. These nutrients “fertilize” surface waters, meaning that these surface waters often have high biological productivity. Therefore, good fishing grounds typically are found where upwelling is common.

Credit: Oceanservice

• Marine upwelling zones are crucial for ecosystem productivty because they bring nutrient-rich waters from the deep ocean to the surface. These nutrients, support the rapid growth of phytoplankton, which forms the base of the marine food web and significantly enhances marine productivity.

Answer: (b) 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

1. The soil of the rainforest is deficient in nutrients.
2. Propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor viability.
3. The rain forest species are slow growing.
4. Exotic species invade the fertile soil of the rainforest.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The soil in rainforests is generally deficient in nutrients. This is because frequent and heavy rainfall constantly washes away the topsoil, leading to significant leaching of nutrients. As a result, the topsoil becomes less fertile, causing most seeds to fail in germination for years. This is why the natural regeneration of rainforests is very slow and can take decades. However, the subsoil layer beneath the topsoil tends to be more fertile. Once plant roots reach this nutrient-rich subsoil and get enough sunlight, they are able to grow and proliferate.
• In rainforests, propagules — detachable structures like buds, suckers, or spores that can give rise to new plants — usually have poor viability. Nonetheless, seed-bearing plants (spermatophytes) play a more dominant role in rainforest reproduction compared to other propagules. It is a misconception that rainforest species are slow-growing. In reality, plants in these ecosystems compete intensely for sunlight, driving them to grow as fast as possible to secure access to light.
• Another common misunderstanding is that exotic species invade fertile rainforest soils. In fact, the rainforest topsoil is not highly fertile due to continuous nutrient leaching. It is only the subsoil that holds more nutrients, but the poor condition of the topsoil itself does not favour easy invasion by exotic species.

Answer: (a) The soil of the rainforest is deficient in nutrients | Difficulty Level: Easy

The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

1. It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth.
2. It is a confluence of different biogeographical zones.
3. Exotic and invasive species have not been invasive species and have not been introduced in this region.
4. It has less human interference.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Himalayas is a globally recognized Biodiversity Hotspot straddles the transition zone between the Palearctic and Indo-Malayan bio-geographic realms serve as an abode for about 25% of flora and 30% of fauna.

Answer: (b) It is a confluence of different biogeographical zones | Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:

1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927

Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. None of the above Acts

Explanation

Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 is correct

• The Imports and Exports (Control) Act, 1947, is a key piece of legislation in India that regulates the import and export of goods, including those related to biodiversity conservation and was later replaced by the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992

Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957 is correct

• It empowers the GoI to set rules for mineral conservation, systematic development, and environmental protection in mining operations.
• Accordingly, Mineral Conservation and Development Rules (MCDR), 2017 which provides for:
  • Precaution against air pollution: License or leaseholders must minimise air pollution from fines, dust, smoke, or emissions within permissible limits during mining operations.
  • Permissible limits and standards: Adhere to standard and permissible limits for pollutants, toxins, and noise as notified by relevant authorities under current laws.

Customs Act, 1962 is correct

• International trade in all wild fauna and flora is regulated jointly through the provisions of the
  • Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972,
  • Foreign Trade (Development Regulation) Act 1992,
  • Foreign Trade Policy of the Government of India and
  • Customs Act, 1962.

Indian Forest Act, 1927 is correct

• The IFA 1927 was largely based on previous Indian Forest Acts implemented under the British. The most famous one was the IFA 1878.
• It provides the legal framework for the protection and management of forests and duty leviable on timber and other forest products. It provides for the procedure to be followed for declaring an area to be Reserve/Protected/Village Forest (Degree of protection: Reserved forests > Protected forests > Village forests)
• The Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 amended the definition of tree to remove the word bamboo. It means that bamboo grown outside forest areas can be felled or transported for economical use without needing permission.

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?

1. Empirical liberalism
2. Existentialism
3. Darwin’s theory of evolution
4. Dialectical materialism

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Karl Marx explained class struggle and the development of human society using the theory of Dialectical Materialism.
• This theory:
  • Combines dialectics (the idea that change happens through the conflict of opposites) with materialism (the belief that material conditions, especially economic factors, shape society).
  • Marx believed that history is driven by the conflict between oppressor and oppressed classes (like bourgeoisie vs. proletariat).
  • The contradictions within the economic structure (thesis vs. antithesis) lead to social change (synthesis).

Source: Reddit

Answer: (d) Dialectical materialism | Difficulty Level: Easy

A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called the ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?

1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Ionosphere facilitates long-distance radio communication because it contains a large number of ionized particles (free electrons and ions) created by the action of solar radiation. These charged particles reflect or refract radio waves back toward the Earth, allowing signals to travel beyond the horizon.
• The reflection of radio waves in the ionosphere is not due to the presence of ozone. Ozone is mainly concentrated in the Stratosphere, where it absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation. The ionosphere’s ability to reflect radio waves is due to ionization, not ozone.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

• Although many radio waves used for communication have long wavelengths, this is not the reason the ionosphere facilitates radio communication. The key factor is the interaction of radio waves with ionized particles, not merely their wavelength.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Medium

Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?

1. FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital.
2. FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.
3. FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets the primary market.
4. FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors. FII refers to investments made by foreign institutional investors into the stock markets and debt instruments of a country, thereby enhancing the overall availability of capital across the economy without focusing on any particular sector.
• On the other hand, FDI is directed towards specific sectors where foreign investors bring capital along with ownership, management, and sometimes technology, into industries like manufacturing, infrastructure, and services. Unlike FDI, which is sector-specific and long-term, FII is more general and mostly involves financial assets.

Answer: (b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors | Difficulty Level: Easy

A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-Brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is

1. To make it pest-resistant
2. To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
3. To make it drought-resistant
4. To make its shelf-life longer

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Bt Brinjal is a genetically engineered variety of brinjal developed to provide resistance against insect pests, particularly the Eggplant Fruit and Shoot Borer, which is a major pest affecting brinjal crops. In this variety, a gene from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is inserted into the brinjal plant. This gene produces a protein that is toxic to specific insect pests, thereby protecting the crop from damage

Answer: (a) To make it pest- resistant | Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”. Consider the following statements:

1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana was converged with Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) with effect from 01-06-2017.
• It was a social security scheme launched by the Ministry of Labour & Employment, Government of India, and implemented through LIC.
• It provided death and disability coverage to members of 48 specific occupational/vocational groups, rural landless households, and unorganized workers. Beneficiaries aged 18–59 years pay subsidized annual premiums of ₹200 for insurance coverage.
• Additionally, scholarships are granted for children studying in grades 9–12, ensuring holistic family welfare.
• Eligibility:
  • The applicant should be aged between 18 and 59 years.
  • The applicant should normally be the head of the family or an earning member.
  • The applicant’s family should be categorized as below the poverty line (BPL) or marginally above the poverty line.
  • The applicant should belong to an identified occupational or vocational group.
  • The applicant should be part of a rural landless household.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?

1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from the North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Oil benchmarks describe where the commodity originates, which determines its use and allows investors to track the price of a specific oil type. Brent Crude is the benchmark used for the light oil market in Europe, Africa, and the Middle East, originating from oil fields in the North Sea between the Shetland Islands and Norway. West Texas Intermediate is the benchmark for the U.S. light oil market and is sourced from U.S. oil fields. Both Brent Crude and WTI are light and sweet, making them ideal for refining into gasoline

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Brent has a sulphur content of 0.40%, well under the 0.50% benchmark, but it’s not as sweet as WTI.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Hard

The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to?

1. Slow down the speed of neutrons.
2. Increase the speed of neutrons.
3. Cooldown the reactor.
4. Stop the nuclear reaction.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Heavy Water (D2O) or deuterium oxide is made up of two atoms of deuterium and one atom of oxygen. Deuterium is a stable isotope of hydrogen with double the mass of hydrogen due to presence of an extra neutron in its nucleus.
• Deuterium is present in hydrogen and hydrogen bearing compounds like water, hydrocarbons, etc. and has a small natural occurrence (D/D+H) of about 140 to 160 ppm. The same is extracted and enriched to > 99.85 mass % IP used in Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWRs).
• Heavy Water displays similar physical and chemical properties but differs in nuclear properties when compared to ordinary water which makes it an extremely efficient material for use as moderator and coolant in Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWRs).
  • Moderator is required in a nuclear reactor to slow down the neutrons produced during the fission reaction so that the chain reaction can be sustained. Heavy Water is an excellent moderator due to its high moderating ratio and low absorption cross section for neutrons.

Answer: (a) Slow down the speed of neutrons | Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages is it entitled to?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In India, the term “minority” is dealt with under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
• According to Section 2(c) of this Act, a minority refers to a community that is notified as such by the Central Government. Although the Act itself does not provide a strict definition of the term minority, it empowers the Central Government to identify and notify communities that are to be treated as minorities.
• At present, six communities—Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis (Zoroastrians), and Jains—are officially recognized as minority communities in India.
• The Constitution of India provides special protection for minorities in the field of education. Article 30(1) grants religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This provision helps minority groups preserve their cultural identity and promote their educational development.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• There is no constitutional provision that provides automatic nomination of a representative from a minority community to the Lok Sabha. Earlier, the President had the authority to nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha, but this provision was removed through the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019. No similar nomination arrangement exists for other minority communities.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Government of India has introduced several welfare initiatives for minority communities. One important initiative is the Prime Minister’s New 15-Point Programme for the Welfare of Minorities, which is implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs. This programme serves as an overarching framework covering various schemes implemented by different ministries and departments.
• Its objective is to ensure that socially and economically disadvantaged sections of the six notified minority communities receive fair access to government welfare programmes and are able to participate in the country’s development process.
• The programme broadly focuses on four major goals:
  • Expanding educational opportunities for minority communities.
  • Ensuring a fair share in economic activities and employment, including support for self-employment and greater participation in government jobs.
  • Improving living conditions through better access to infrastructure and development schemes.
  • Promoting communal harmony by preventing and addressing communal tensions and violence.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?

1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for getting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• India provides a range of legal protections and welfare benefits for persons with disabilities (PwDs) through various laws and policy measures. A major framework in this regard is the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, along with several government welfare schemes that aim to promote equality, accessibility, and social inclusion.
• Reservation – Higher education (not less than 5%), government jobs (not less than 4 %), reservation in allocation of land, poverty alleviation schemes (5% allotment), etc. have been provided.
• This is in addition to the existing reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. It reserves specific seats in the local government bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) for persons with disabilities.
• Ex. – Chhattisgarh made the presence of PwDs mandatory in all panchayats across the state by amending the State Panchayati Raj Act, 1993.
• Inclusive Education: Government-funded/recognised educational institutions must provide inclusive education to children with disabilities.
• Free education: Every child with a benchmark disability between the ages of 6 and 18 has the right to free education.

Statement 3 is correct

• The RPwD Act, 2016 mandates that public buildings, including government offices, hospitals, and educational institutions, be made accessible by providing ramps, lifts, and other necessary modifications.

Accessible India Campaign (AIC) Accessible India Campaign (AIC) is the nationwide flagship campaign of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The Campaign aims to create a barrier-free and conducive environment for Divyangjans all over the country. It was launched on International Day of Persons with Disabilities on 3rd December 2015.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 | Difficulty Level: Easy

With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Ministry of Food Processing Industries has been implementing Mega Food Park Scheme (MFPS), a component scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY), to create modern infrastructure for the food processing sector along the value chain from farm to market. Under the scheme, the Ministry has approved 41 Mega Food Park (MFP) projects. Out of this, 24 MFP projects are operational and remaining 17 projects are under implementation.
• Mega Food Parks create state-of-the-art infrastructure for food processing units, including cold storage, warehouses, packaging units, and logistics. They help in value addition, better storage, and reducing wastage by providing integrated supply chains.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Medium

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

1. The President of India
2. The Parliament of India
3. The Prime Minister of India
4. The Union Finance Minister

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India requires approval of Parliament, which ensures legislative control over public expenditure and acts as a check on government spending.

Answer: (b) The Parliament of India | Difficulty Level: Easy

All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

1. Contingency Fund of India
2. Public Account
3. Consolidated Fund of India
4. Deposits and Advances Fund

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Consolidated Fund of India: It is the main government account to which all receipts are credited and from which all payments are made. It includes all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised through treasury bills or other borrowings, and all money received in repayment of loans. All legally authorised government expenditures are made from this fund, and no money can be withdrawn from it except in accordance with a law passed by Parliament.
• Public Account of India: This account contains all other public money received by or on behalf of the Government of India that does not belong to the Consolidated Fund. It includes items such as provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, judicial deposits, departmental deposits and remittances. Payments from this account are made through executive action and do not require parliamentary appropriation, as these are mainly banking-type transactions.
• Contingency Fund of India: The Constitution authorises Parliament to establish this fund to meet unforeseen expenditures. Parliament created it through the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950. The fund is placed at the disposal of the President, who can make advances to meet urgent expenses pending approval by Parliament. It is operated by the executive and held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President.
• Deposits and Advances Fund: This is not a constitutional category under government funds.

Answer: (c) Consolidated Fund of India | Difficulty Level: Easy

Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under microfinance is/are:

1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities

Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All are correct

• Microfinance provides a range of financial services to low-income individuals, including credit facilities through small, collateral-free loans, savings facilities to encourage financial security, insurance facilities such as microinsurance for health and life protection, and fund transfer services to facilitate remittances. These services collectively promote financial inclusion and economic empowerment.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of the global community over space and time as a geo strategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?

1. It was a hot theatre during the Second World War.
2. Its location between the Asian powers of China and India.
3. It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period.
4. Its location between the Pacific and Indian Oceans and its preeminent maritime character

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Southeast Asia holds immense geostrategic significance due to its location at the crossroads of major global trade routes, connecting the Pacific Ocean and the Indian Ocean. The region includes critical maritime chokepoints like the Strait of Malacca, through which a significant portion of global trade and energy supplies pass. Its maritime character makes it central to global commerce, security, and geopolitical competition, especially involving major powers like the U.S., China, India, and Japan.

Source: interpiddmc

Answer: (d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian Oceans and its preeminent maritime character | Difficulty Level: Easy

A company marketing food product advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?

1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Trans-fats are primarily formed during the partial hydrogenation of oils. So, if a product is advertised as free from trans-fats, it strongly implies that hydrogenated oils are not used.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Animal fats (like butter or lard) can contain naturally occurring trans-fats, but in small amounts. However, the absence of trans-fats in a product does not automatically mean that no animal fats/oils are used.

Statement 3 is correct

• Trans-fats are linked to increased risk of cardiovascular diseases. Therefore, a product free from trans-fats implies better cardiovascular health outcomes, assuming other dietary factors are also favourable.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Medium

Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

1. Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
2. Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
3. Adult members of households of all backward communities
4. Adult members of any household

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Any adult member of a rural household is eligible.

Answer: (d) Adult members of any household | Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:

1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of the Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct

• India’s Look East Policy, launched in the early 1990s (and later evolved into the Act East Policy), aimed at enhancing economic and strategic relations with the Southeast Asian and East Asian countries. A central goal of the policy is for India to play a proactive role in the East Asian region, economically and strategically, enhancing its regional influence.
• Re-establishing historical, cultural, and civilizational linkages with countries like Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, Vietnam, etc., is a key part of the Look East Policy.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While the end of the Cold War did change global alignments, the Look East Policy was not specifically designed to “plug a vacuum”. That’s more of a Cold War-era geopolitical framework. The policy is forward-looking, focusing on engagement rather than filling a void left by superpowers.

Act East policy It was announced 2014. It is a successor to the Look East policy. It focuses on the extended neighbourhood in the Asia-Pacific region. The objective is to promote economic cooperation and cultural ties and develop strategic relationships with countries in the Asia-Pacific region. It has emphasised India-ASEAN cooperation.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

1. the Budget is modified and presented again
2. the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
3. the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
4. the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Union Budget is treated as a Money Bill, and therefore it must be passed by the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha does not approve the budget, it indicates that the government no longer enjoys the confidence of the House. Such a situation is considered similar to the government losing a confidence vote. Since the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the loss of its confidence requires the Prime Minister to submit the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers to the President.
• In contrast, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills. It cannot amend or reject them; it may only offer recommendations. The final decision on accepting or rejecting these suggestions rests with the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers | Difficulty Level: Easy

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

1. To vote in public elections
2. To develop the scientific temper
3. To safeguard public property
4. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• Voting in public elections is not included among the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution. Although voting is considered an important democratic responsibility.

  

Answer: (a) To vote in public elections | Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

1. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
2. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
3. It ensures transparency in financial administration
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct in the context of the Finance Commission.

Answer: (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context | Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Right to education
2. Right to equal access to public service
3. Right to food

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10 December 1948 through Resolution 217, in the aftermath of World War II. It outlines 30 fundamental rights and freedoms that belong to every human being. Although the declaration itself is not legally binding, it laid the foundation for modern international human rights law and later influenced agreements such as the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, together forming the International Bill of Human Rights.
• Under the UDHR:
  • Right to Education: Covered under Article 26
  • Right to Equal Access to Public Service: Mentioned in Article 21(2).
  • Right to Food: Implied under Article 25, which guarantees an adequate standard of living, including food, clothing, and housing.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 | Difficulty Level: Easy

There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawater of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?

1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries – Estuaries act as transition zones between rivers and the sea and often receive large quantities of nutrients from upstream sources. These nutrients, primarily nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural runoff, sewage discharge, and industrial effluents, are carried into the sea. The influx of these nutrients into coastal waters fuels algal growth, especially when water movement is relatively slow and allows algae to accumulate.
• Run-off from land during the monsoon – During the monsoon season, heavy rains increase the surface runoff from agricultural fields, urban landscapes, and industrial zones. This runoff often contains high concentrations of fertilizers, pesticides, organic matter, and other pollutants, which eventually enter rivers and coastal waters. The sudden spike in nutrient availability in marine waters during the monsoon creates ideal conditions for algal blooms to develop and spread.
• Upwelling in the seas – Upwelling is a natural oceanographic process in which cold, nutrient-rich water from the deep sea rises to the surface. This process enhances nutrient concentrations in the photic zone (sunlit upper layer of the sea), where algae can photosynthesize and multiply rapidly. Although upwelling is a natural phenomenon, it can exacerbate algal blooms when combined with human-induced nutrient loading.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on earth?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 ,3 and 4

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Carbon is a minor constituent of the atmosphere as compared to oxygen and nitrogen. However, without carbon dioxide, life could not exist because it is vital for the production of carbohydrates (photosynthesis) by plants and phytoplankton.
• Carbon is the element that anchors all organic substances from coal and oil to DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid: the compound that carries genetic information).
• Steps in the Carbon Cycle
  • The carbon cycle involves a continuous exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms. This is usually a short-term cycle.
  • Carbon is present in the atmosphere, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2). Carbon from the atmosphere moves to green plants and phytoplankton through photosynthesis and then to animals.
  • Through the process of respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter, it returns to the atmosphere
    • The decomposition of decaying organic matter produces nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
    • Organic matter includes biomolecules (carbohydrates, proteins, etc.), which are made up of carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
  • Some carbon enters a long-term cycle. It accumulates as undecomposed organic matter in the peaty layers of marshy soil or as insoluble carbonates in the bottom sediments of aquatic systems, which take a long time to be released.
  • In deep oceans, insoluble carbon can remain buried for millions of years until geological movements lift these rocks above sea level. These rocks may then be exposed to erosion, releasing their carbon dioxide, carbonates, and bicarbonates into streams and rivers.
  • Fossil fuels such as coal, oil and natural gas are organic compounds that were buried before they could be decomposed and were subsequently transformed by time and geological processes into fossil fuels. When they are burned, the carbon stored in them is released back into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multilateral export control regimes called the “Australia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement”. What is the difference between them?

1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimise the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly Asian, African, and North American\countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Neither 1 nor 2

Feature	Australia Group (AG)	Wassenaar Arrangement
Type	Informal forum of countries	Voluntary export control regime
Objective	To ensure exports do not contribute to chemical or biological weapons development	To control the export of dual-use goods and technologies
Origin	Formed in 1985, prompted by Iraq’s use of chemical weapons in the Iran-Iraq War	Formally established in July 1996
Members	43 members (including the European Union)	42 member states, mostly NATO and EU states
Control Lists	Has a list of 54 compounds to be regulated in global trade	Has control lists documenting dual-use goods and technologies
India’s Membership	India joined on 19 January 2018	India became the 42nd member on 7 December 2017

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Hard

The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?

1. Ice is a bad conductor of heat.
2. Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost.
3. The density of water is maximum at 4°c.
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given is correct.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• During a severe winter, the surface of a lake may freeze, but the water underneath remains in liquid form. This occurs primarily due to the anomalous behaviour of water with respect to temperature and density.
• Water reaches its maximum density at 4°C. As water cools down from higher temperatures, it becomes denser and sinks. However, when the temperature falls below 4°C, water begins to expand and becomes less dense, so it stays on the surface. This colder, lighter water eventually freezes on top, forming a layer of ice. The denser 4°C water settles at the bottom, where it stays in a liquid state. This acts as a thermal buffer, protecting aquatic life during the winter.
• Although it is true that ice is a poor conductor of heat (as in option a), this is not the main reason for the bottom water staying liquid. Option (b) is incorrect because the surface of the lake can still lose heat to the air, even if their temperatures are close.

Answer: (c) The density of water is maximum at 4°c | Difficulty Level: Medium

A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area, but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

1. Indian wild buffalo
2. Indian wild ass
3. Indian wild boar
4. Indian gazelle

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Indian wild ass (or Khur) is a subspecies of the onager (Asiatic wild ass) native to South Asia.
• Distribution: Today, it is only found in the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary (Little Rann of Kutch) and its surrounding areas in Gujarat.
• Habitat: Semi-desert and grassland areas.
• Threats: Habitat loss (due to agriculture, development, and salt extraction), the invasive Prosopis juliflora shrub, and encroachment and grazing by the Maldhari tribe.
• IUCN:VU

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Indian Wild Buffalo is the state animal of Chhattisgarh and is a large species of bovine native to the Indian Sub-continent and South East Asia.
• Habitat: The wild buffalo is mainly found in the alluvial grasslands, marshes, swamps and river valleys. They are generally found in areas that have plenty of water holes and resources.
• Threats: Interbreeding with domestic buffalo, Poaching for horns, Habitat loss due to agriculture and hydel projects.
• IUCN: Endangered

Option (c) is incorrect

• The Indian boar (Sus scrofa cristatus), also known as the Moupin pig, is a subspecies of wild boar native to India, Nepal, Myanmar, western Thailand, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Chinkara is native to Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan and India. It is the smallest Asiatic antelope.
• There are six subspecies of Indian gazelle. Of these, Deccan chinkara, Gujarat chinkara and Salt Ranga Chinkara ( Delhi, Punjab, and Haryana) are found in India.
• Distribution: The Deccan chinkara ranges from the Ganges Valley (west of WB) to the Deccan Plateau. The Gujarat chinkara is found in the Thar Desert, Rann of Kutch, Kathiawar, and Saurashtra region. Salt Ranga Chinkara inhabits Delhi, Punjab, and Haryana.
• Habitat: Arid deserts, dry scrub, and light forests. It is a shy species that avoids human habitation.
• IUCN: LC

Answer: (b) Indian Wild ass | Difficulty Level: Hard

La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from EI Nino?

1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in the equatorial Indian ocean whereas EI Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. EI Nino has an adverse effect on the southwest monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• La Niña is not associated with cold temperatures in the equatorial Indian Ocean. Instead, it is characterised by cooler-than-normal sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean, while El Niño is marked by warmer-than-normal sea surface temperatures in the same Pacific region.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• El Niño generally weakens the southwest monsoon in India, often leading to below-normal rainfall. However, La Niña does influence the monsoon, usually strengthening it and increasing the chances of above-normal rainfall. Hence, it is incorrect to say that La Niña has no effect on the monsoon climate.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Hard

The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?

1. Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot
2. Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
3. Making judicial system more efficient
4. None of the (a), (b) and (c) above

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• While options (a), (b), and (c) describe actual features or goals of the Permanent Settlement, none of them were the specific “provision” that triggered the surge in court cases. Historically, the increase is attributed to:
  • Abolition of Court Fees: Cornwallis abolished court fees to make justice more accessible to the poor. This inadvertently encouraged people to file suits without financial restraint, leading to a massive backlog.
  • Separation of Executive and Judiciary: By depriving District Collectors of judicial powers and creating independent Diwani Adalats, the reforms allowed both the government and Zamindars to be sued in civil courts.
  • Undefined Ryot Rights: The settlement failed to clearly define the rights of the cultivators (ryots), leading to constant disputes over rent and evictions that were then brought to the new courts.

Answer: (d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above | Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?

1. It was a nonviolent movement
2. It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
3. It was a spontaneous movement
4. It did not attract the labour class in general

Explanation

Option (b) is the correct answer

• Immediately after the movement was launched, Gandhi and other top Congress leaders were arrested by the British authorities. As a result, the movement continued without central leadership and became largely spontaneous and decentralized, with people organizing protests, strikes, and acts of resistance across the country.

  

  

• Note: In the initial stages, the movement was based on non-violent lines. It was the repressive policy of the government which provoked the people to violence.

Answer: (b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi | Difficulty Level: Easy

Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?

1. Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation- of tribal products
2. Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
3. Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
4. The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities

Explanation

• Forests were of great significance for tribals all over India. They had customary rights to use minor forest products. They were engaged in jhum cultivation, hunting and gathering, animal rearing, settled cultivation (rarely), tea plantations, and mines. Hence, tribals’ lives were intimately connected to the forest. • Tribal groups saw forests as essential for survival. They only resorted to working as labourers when the supplies of forest produce diminished.
• The land was not just a source of livelihood but also a spiritual source. It was the basis of their identity and survival.

Option (d) is correct

• In the 19th century, several tribal uprisings occurred across India such as the Santhal Rebellion, the Kol Uprising, and the Munda Ulgulan led by Birsa Munda. Although the immediate causes differed from region to region, a common underlying factor behind these movements was the disruption of the traditional agrarian and social order of tribal communities. Under British rule, tribal areas experienced major changes such as the introduction of new land revenue systems, entry of moneylenders, traders and revenue farmers, and commercial exploitation of forests and land. These developments undermined the customary communal land ownership and traditional authority structures that had governed tribal societies for generations. As a result, tribal communities faced land alienation, indebtedness, and loss of control over their traditional resources, which collectively destroyed the old agrarian order. This disruption became the common factor that triggered many tribal insurrections in the 19th century.

Answer: (d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities | Difficulty Level: Medium

India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/explanations?

1. As compared to other countries, India had better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times.
2. The rulers of southern India always patronised traders, brahmin priests and Buddhist monks in this context.
3. Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages.
4. Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• India’s early maritime contact and trade with Southeast Asia were significantly aided by natural factors, the most important being the monsoon winds. These predictable seasonal winds allowed ancient sailors to plan voyages efficiently — sailing eastward with the summer monsoon and returning westward with the winter monsoon.

Answer: (c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages | Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?

1. Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band.
2. Bluetooth is used for wireless local area networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for wireless wide area networks (WWAN) only.
3. When information is transmitted between two devices using bluetooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other.
4. The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are wireless communication technologies that operate using radio waves, but they differ mainly in the frequency bands they use and their typical applications. Bluetooth primarily operates in the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band and is designed for short-range communication between devices such as mobile phones, wireless earphones, keyboards, and speakers. In contrast, Wi-Fi can operate in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands (and newer standards also use the 6 GHz band), enabling faster data transmission over relatively larger distances.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs), allowing devices within a limited area (such as homes or offices) to connect to the internet. Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWANs) refer to cellular networks such as 4G or 5G, not Wi-Fi.
• Statement 3 is also incorrect because neither Bluetooth nor Wi-Fi requires a line-of-sight connection. Both technologies use radio waves and can transmit signals through obstacles like walls, although the range of Bluetooth is generally shorter.

Answer: (a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band | Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Fertiliser/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of the groundwater table can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Micro-irrigation systems like drip and sprinkler irrigation deliver water and nutrients directly to the root zone of plants. This minimizes nutrient runoff and leaching, thereby reducing fertiliser loss.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While micro-irrigation is highly suitable for dryland agriculture due to its water-saving nature, it is not the only means. Other traditional methods like contour bunding, check dams, and even limited surface irrigation can be used in dryland areas.

Statement 3 is correct

• By reducing water usage, micro-irrigation helps in conserving groundwater.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of the drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?

1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only 1 and 2 are correct

• Dadabhai Naoroji and other economic nationalists gave several factors that caused external drain. These are:
  • “Home charges” or paying for the secretary of state and his establishment at the India Office in London, as well as pay, pension and training costs for the civilian and military personnel— or “the men who ruled India”.
  • Annuities on account of railway and irrigation works;
  • guaranteed interest on foreign investments in railways, irrigation, road transport and various other infrastructural facilities,
  • Indian office expenses including pensions to retired officials who had worked in India or England, pensions to army and Navals etc.
  • Remittances to England by Europeans to their families.
  • Remittances for purchase of British Goods for consumption of British employees in India.
  • the government purchase policy of importing all its stationery from England
  • interest on foreign debt incurred by the East India Company,
  • military expenditure,
  • Also, trade as well as Indian labour was deeply undervalued.
  • However, the funds used for waging wars outside India by the British were not part of the Home Charges.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organise a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?

1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

• In 1918, the peasants of Kheda were hit by a bad harvest and price rise. The peasants demanded the remission of revenue for the year to reduce their sufferings as the crops were less than one-fourth of normal yield. However, the colonial government paid no heed to their concerns.
• In response, local leaders like Mohanlal Pandya and Shankar Lal Parikh initiated the no-revenue movement in November 1917. The government retaliated by seizing the properties of the non-payers. The satyagrahis reached out to Gandhiji through the Gujarat Sabha to take up their leadership.
• Gandhi insisted that the cultivators were entitled to a suspension of revenue as a legal right and not as a concession by grace. On March 22, 1918, Gandhiji addressed the public meeting of 5000 peasants at Nadiad and advised them not to pay land revenue. He toured villages, gave moral support to the peasants in refusing to pay revenue, and expelled their fear of government authority.
• Gandhi began to realise that the peasantry was on the verge of exhaustion. He called off the agitation when the government instructed that revenue should be recovered from only those who could pay and that no pressure should be exerted on the genuinely poor peasants.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Permanent Settlement was mainly implemented in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, and there was no proposal to introduce this system in Gujarat during that period.

Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:

1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, and 3 only
2. 2, 3, and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

All are correct

• Biodiversity forms the foundation of human existence by supporting a wide range of essential ecological processes. It contributes to soil formation through the action of microorganisms and plant roots that break down organic matter and interact with geological materials. It helps in the prevention of soil erosion as plant cover stabilises the soil and reduces the impact of wind and water.
• Biodiversity is also crucial for the recycling of waste, with decomposers like bacteria and fungi breaking down organic materials and returning nutrients to the ecosystem. Furthermore, it enables the pollination of crops, a service provided by insects, birds, and other animals, which is vital for food production. Together, these processes highlight how biodiversity underpins life-supporting systems that humans rely on every day.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?

1. Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidised in the human body due to lack of requisite enzymes.
2. When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation.
3. Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories.
4. Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar; hence, food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Aspartame is used in low-calorie foods and drinks. It is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar, so only a small amount is needed to achieve the desired sweetness. When metabolised, aspartame breaks down into phenylalanine, aspartic acid, and methanol — all of which are naturally occurring and metabolised by the body like other dietary components. While these components do provide calories, the quantity of aspartame used is so small that it contributes negligible calories to the diet.

Answer: (d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation | Difficulty Level: Medium

What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W.S.Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?

1. To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
2. To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
3. To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament
4. To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Sir William Wedderburn was a British civil servant and politician who was a Liberal Party member of Parliament (MP). Wedderburn supported Lord Ripon’s administrative reforms to develop local self-government and equality for Indian judges. Due to his pro-India role, Wedderburn was denied a judge’s position in the Bombay HC, leading to his early retirement.
• Wedderburn was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress. He was also the president of the Congress at the Allahabad sessions in 1889 and 1910.
• Wedderburn was the Chairman of the British Committee of the Indian National Congress from July 1889 until his death. He entered the British Parliament in 1893 as a Liberal member and sought to voice India’s grievances in the House. He formed the Indian Parliamentary Committee, serving as its Chairman from 1893 to 1900. The Committee agitated for Indian political reform in the House of Commons.
• Wedderburn also represented India in the 1895 Welby Commission or the Royal Commission on Indian Expenditure. He welcomed the formal proclamation by the British Government on 20 August 1917 that the goal of British policy in India was the progressive establishment of self-government.

Answer: (a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons | Difficulty Level: Hard

What is the difference between a CFL and a LED lamp?

1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.
2. The average lifespan of a CFL is much longer than that of a LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy efficient as compared to an LED lamp.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• A fluorescent lamp is a low-pressure discharge lamp filled with a noble gas and a small amount of mercury. It operates by converting electrical power into UV radiation through the use of mercury atoms, which is then converted to visible light by a phosphor coating.
• In contrast, a Light Emitting Diode (LED) functions using a semiconductor material that emits light directly when an electric current passes through it—a phenomenon known as electroluminescence.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• LED lights can last for three times longer than most CFLs.

Statement 3 is correct

• LEDs use less power to produce the same amount of light and have less heat loss.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, “oilzapper’’ was in the news. What is it?

1. It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills.
2. It is the latest technology developed for undersea oil exploration.
3. It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety.
4. It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Oilzapper is a sustainable bioremediation technology developed by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) in India. It uses a blend of naturally occurring, non-harmful bacteria that can degrade hydrocarbons to treat oil spills and oily waste. These microbes break down toxic petroleum compounds into harmless substances such as carbon dioxide and water, ensuring an efficient and eco-friendly cleanup process.

Answer: (a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills | Difficulty Level: Easy

A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is?

1. O positive
2. A positive
3. B positive
4. Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• A couple with blood groups AB positive and O negative can biologically have children with either A or B blood groups, but not O, since the O group requires both parents to contribute an O allele, which is not possible from an AB parent. Among their three sons—A positive, B positive, and O positive—the child with O positive blood cannot be their biological child. Therefore, the adopted son is the one with O positive blood.

Answer: (a) O positive | Difficulty Level: Medium

Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

1. Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
2. The good of individual is contained in the good of all
3. The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
4. All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Gandhi received a copy of Ruskin’s “Unto This Last” from a British friend, Mr. Henry Polak, while working as a lawyer in South Africa in 1904. According to Gandhi, after reading this book, he could not sleep that night and decided to change his life in accordance with its ideals.
• According to M.K. Gandhi, the three important principles from Ruskin’s book are as follows:
  • The good of the individual is contained in the good of all.
  • A lawyer’s work has the same value as the barbers, as all have the same right to earn their livelihood
  • from their work.
  • A life of labour, such as that of the farmer and the craftsman, is a life worth living.

Answer: (b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all | Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for

1. Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
2. Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
3. Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
4. Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Usha Mehta (Ushaben) is well known for organising the Secret Congress Radio during the Quit India movement. The radio broadcasted recorded messages from Gandhiji, nationalistic songs, and stirring speeches by revolutionaries and other eminent leaders from across India.
• To avoid being detected by the authorities, the organisers kept shifting the station’s location almost daily. Though the underground radio station functioned only for three months, it raised awareness about the Quit India Movement by spreading uncensored news and other information banned by the British authorities.

Answer: (a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement | Difficulty Level: Hard

A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray disc is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?

1. DVD supports standard definition video while Blu-ray disc supports high-definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the Blu-ray disc format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of Blu-ray discs is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Blu-ray (Blu-ray Disc or BD) is a digital optical disc data storage format designed to supersede the DVD format. It was invented and developed in 2005 and released worldwide on June 20, 2006, capable of storing several hours of high-definition video (HDTV 720p and 1080p).

Statement 2 is correct

• A standard DVD holds about 4.7 GB, whereas a single-layer Blu-ray disc holds 25 GB, and a dual-layer Blu-ray can hold up to 50 GB, which is several times more.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Both Blu-ray and DVD discs have the same overall thickness of 1.2 mm.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the period of India freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru Report?

1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Nehru report was the first constitutional document prepared by the Indians for themselves.
• The Recommendations of the Nehru Report:
  • Dominion Status: Attainment of Dominion Status should be considered the next immediate step.
  • Joint electorates and Universal adult franchise: Elections should be held by joint electorates on the basis of adult suffrage, and there should be no separate electorate for any community.
  • Reservation for Muslims: Seats would be reserved for Muslims at the Centre and in provinces in which they were in the minority but not in those provinces where Muslims were in the majority, such as Punjab and Bengal.
  • Reservation for religious minorities: Seats in the legislature should be reserved for religious minorities for ten years.
  • Federal structure with a strong Centre: There should be a federal government with residuary powers vested in the centre (strong centre).
  • Parliament: India should have a parliamentary form of government.
  • Bi-cameral Legislature: There should be a bi-cameral legislature.
  • Responsible government: The executive should be fully responsible to the legislature.
  • Linguistic provinces: India should be a federation built on the basis of linguistic provinces and provincial autonomy.
  • Fundamental Rights: The report also recommended the nineteen fundamental rights, including equal rights for women, freedom to form unions and dissociation of the state from religion in any form.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Among the following states, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export-oriented industry in this field?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Arunachal Pradesh has also been termed as ‘Orchid Paradise of India’ because of the maximum concentration of orchid species (about 40% of the country) in the State. Arunachal Pradesh has a humid subtropical to temperate climate, abundant rainfall, and dense forest cover — ideal natural conditions for orchid cultivation.

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh | Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?

1. Biosphere Reserve
2. Botanical Garden
3. National Park
4. Wildlife Sanctuary

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Ex Situ Conservation: In this approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out of their natural habitat and placed in a unique setting where they can be protected and given special care. Zoological Parks, Botanical Gardens, Wildlife Safari Parks, and Seed Banks serve this purpose.
• In-situ conservation is the on-site conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species. In India, ecologically unique and biodiversity-rich regions are legally conserved on-site as biosphere reserves, national parks, sanctuaries, reserved forests, protected forests and nature reserves, each accorded a certain degree of protection.

Answer: (b) Botanical Garden | Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for the metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing government-sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC) is a constitutional body mandated under Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India, which was introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Statement 2 is correct

• According to Article 243ZE, the primary function of the MPC is to prepare a draft development plan for the metropolitan area as a whole. This plan takes into account the individual plans prepared by Municipalities and Panchayats in the region.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The MPC does not have the “sole responsibility” for implementing government-sponsored schemes. Its role is primarily focused on planning and coordination. The actual implementation of schemes is carried out by various other agencies, including municipal corporations, state government departments, and development authorities

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in the Government’s Budget while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

• A Vote-on-Account includes only the expenditure component of the government’s budget, whereas an Interim Budget presents a complete set of accounts, covering both receipts and expenditure.
• A Vote-on-Account is passed to allow the government to meet its immediate expenditure needs for a short period and can be used by both a regular government and a caretaker government. An Interim Budget, on the other hand, is presented when the government seeks Parliament’s approval to meet expenses until a new government assumes office and presents the full Budget. It provides a comprehensive financial statement similar to a full Budget, including estimates of both receipts and expenditure. Since it can be presented by any government—whether incumbent, regular, or caretaker

Answer: (b) 2 only | Difficulty Level: Medium

Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. It can grant loans to any country.
2. It can grant loans to only developed countries.
3. It grants loans to only member countries.
4. It can grant loans to the central bank of a country.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) provides financial assistance exclusively to its member countries.

Answer: (c) It grants loans to only member countries | Difficulty Level: Easy

The 2004 Tsunami made people realise that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

1. The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out.
2. The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster.
3. The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or Tsunami.
4. The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Importance of mangroves:
  • Mangroves (ecotone between land and sea) are highly productive ecosystems with rich biodiversity.
  • They have a complex root system that is very efficient in dissipating the sea wave energy, thus protecting the coastal areas from tsunamis, storm surges (produced by cyclones) and soil erosion
  • Mangroves slow down water flow and act as a zone of land accretion by enhancing sediment deposition.
  • They moderate monsoonal tidal floods and reduce the inundation of coastal lowlands.
  • They act as a riparian buffer and trap pollutants, including heavy metal contaminants. They enhance the natural recycling of nutrients.
  • Mangroves are an essential carbon sink.
  • They provide a safe and favourable environment for breeding, spawning, and rearing several fishes.
  • They act as an essential source of livelihood for the coastal communities dependent on the collection of honey, tannins, wax, firewood, medicinal plants, edible plants, and fishing.

Answer: (d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots | Difficulty Level: Easy

The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by

1. Universal Law
2. Universal Truth
3. Universal Faith
4. Universal Soul

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The world, for the. Jain is not created, maintained, or destroyed by any personal deity but functions only according to Universal Law. The central doctrine of Jainism is that all of nature is alive, everything from rocks to the minute. Insects have some form of a soul, called jiva.

Answer: (a) Universal Law | Difficulty Level: Easy

Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of Salinization on irrigated land?

1. It greatly increases the crop production
2. It makes some soils impermeable
3. It raises the water table
4. It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Soil salinization is a term that indicates the phenomenon or process of accumulation of water-soluble salt in the soil. When irrigation water evaporates, it leaves behind salts, which build up over time.
• Effect: High salt concentration can bind soil particles together, reducing soil porosity and permeability, thereby making the soil impermeable or less permeable.

Answer: (b) It makes some soils impermeable | Difficulty Level: Easy

The “Red Data Books’’ published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• IUCN is an international NGO working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. Its headquarters are in Gland, Switzerland.
• IUCN is involved in research, field projects, advocacy, lobbying and education. The organization is best known for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.
• IUCN Red List or Red Data List or Red Book:
  • The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official term “threatened” is a grouping of three categories: Critically Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable.
  • The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species. Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened. With time, the number of pink pages continue to increase.

Answer: (b) 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?

1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Teaser loans offer low initial interest rates that increase after a fixed period. This can lure borrowers who may later struggle to repay at higher rates, raising the risk of loan defaults — a concern similar to subprime lending seen in the 2008 global financial crisis.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Teaser loans in India have primarily been offered in the housing loan segment, not predominantly to entrepreneurs or for manufacturing/export activities. While such teaser products are not banned by the regulator, the standard asset provisioning requirement is higher for such loans. For normal home loans, the standard asset provisioning is 0.4% but for teaser loans it is 2%.

Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth

1. does not exist at such a distance.
2. is neutralised by the attraction of the moon.
3. provides the necessary speed for its steady motion.
4. provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• An artificial satellite stays in orbit because Earth’s gravity constantly pulls it towards the planet, causing a centripetal acceleration that keeps it moving along a curved path. The satellite is essentially in free fall, but because it has a high tangential speed, it keeps missing the Earth, thus staying in orbit without falling down. So, Earth’s gravitational attraction provides the necessary acceleration to keep the satellite moving in a steady orbit.

Answer: (d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion | Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• During the five-year period preceding the question (approximately 2005–06 to 2009–10), India’s GDP growth rate did not follow a steady upward trend. It fell significantly during the 2008–09 global financial crisis and later recovered, indicating year-to-year fluctuations rather than a consistent increase.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The growth rate of per capita income showed a similar trend, falling during the global financial crisis and recovering subsequently.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy

In India, which of the following have the highest share in disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

1. Commercial Banks
2. Cooperative Banks
3. Regional Rural Banks
4. Microfinance Institutions

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• According to the data for 2010–11, the total agricultural credit disbursed was ₹4,68,291 crore. Out of this:
  • Commercial Banks: ₹3,45,877 crore (73.86%)
  • Cooperative Banks: ₹78,121 crore (16.68%)
  • Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): ₹44,293 crore (9.46%)

Answer: (a) Commercial Banks | Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth?

1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Self-Help Groups (SHGs) empower marginalized communities, especially women, by promoting financial inclusion and entrepreneurship.
• Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) create jobs and support economic growth at the grassroots level.
• The Right to Education Act ensures access to education for all children, helping reduce inequality and promote social inclusion.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect

• The Government of India undertakes disinvestment in Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) mainly to raise resources for public expenditure, reduce fiscal deficit, and improve efficiency in public sector enterprises. The proceeds are generally used for developmental spending and budgetary needs, not specifically to repay external debt.
• Disinvestment does not necessarily mean transferring management control. In many cases, the government reduces only a part of its equity while retaining majority ownership and management control. Transfer of management occurs only in specific cases of strategic disinvestment, not in all disinvestment exercises.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy

What is the difference between asteroids and comets?

1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Asteroids are small rocky bodies (planetoids) composed mainly of rock and metal. In contrast, comets consist largely of frozen gases, dust, and rocky material, giving them an icy composition.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Most asteroids are concentrated in the asteroid belt located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. Comets, however, generally originate in the outer regions of the Solar System (such as the Kuiper Belt and Oort Cloud), not between Venus and Mercury.

Statement 3 is correct

• When comets approach the Sun, the heat causes their icy components to vaporise, producing a bright coma and a visible tail. Asteroids lack significant volatile material and therefore do not develop such glowing tails.

  

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Economic growth is usually coupled with

1. Deflation
2. Inflation
3. Stagflation
4. Hyperinflation

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Economic growth usually involves a rise in production and income, which boosts the demand for goods and services. This increased demand tends to push prices upward, causing moderate inflation. Although inflation often accompanies growth, central banks work to manage and control it through monetary policy.

Answer: (b) Inflation | Difficulty Level: Easy

The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to

1. More liquidity in the market
2. Less liquidity in the market
3. No change in the liquidity in the market
4. Mobilization of more deposits by commercial bank

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• A bank rate is the interest rate at which a nation’s central bank lends money to domestic banks. When the RBI lowers the Bank Rate, borrowing becomes cheaper for commercial banks. This encourages banks to borrow more from the RBI and lend more to businesses and consumers. As a result, more money flows into the economy, increasing liquidity.

Answer: (a) More liquidity in the market | Difficulty Level: Easy

Westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in the northern hemisphere. Why?

1. The Southern Hemisphere has less landmass as compared to the Northern Hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in the Southern Hemisphere as compared to the Northern Hemisphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The westerlies of the southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent due to the vast expanse of water, while those of the northern hemisphere are irregular because of uneven relief of vast land masses

Additional Information The westerlies are the winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belts towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts. They blow from southwest to northeast in the northern hemisphere and northwest to southeast in the southern hemisphere. They produce wet spells and variability in the weather. The westerlies are best developed between 40° and 65° S latitudes. These latitudes are often called Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties – dreaded terms for sailors. The poleward boundary of the westerlies is highly fluctuating.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• There is no inherent difference in Coriolis force between the two hemispheres.

Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?

1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra Isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Deepening it may allow larger ships to pass, but it does not reduce the navigation time or distance between India and East Asia.
• Strait of Malacca carries around 25% of the world’s traded goods.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Kra Isthmus in Thailand links the Gulf of Thailand with the Andaman Sea. A canal across it would let ships bypass the congested Malacca Strait, significantly shortening the route between India and East Asia.
  • Isthmus is a narrow strip of land that connects two larger landmasses. It is often bordered by bodies of water on two sides. E.g. Isthmus of Panama.

Answer: (b) 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?

1. They activate the enzyme necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency.
2. They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and protein in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy.
3. They neutralise the free radical produced in the body during metabolism.
4. They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Antioxidants—such as vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and flavonoids—neutralize free radicals by donating electrons, thereby protecting the body from oxidative stress and cellular damage.
• Free radicals are unstable molecules generated during normal metabolism and by environmental stressors such as pollution and UV radiation. These molecules can harm cells, proteins, and DNA, playing a role in ageing and the development of diseases such as cancer and heart disease.

Answer: (c) They neutralise the free radical produced in the body during metabolism | Difficulty Level: Easy

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilisation, consider the following statements:

1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• There is no overwhelming evidence of temples or religious structures dominating the cities, suggesting a predominantly secular character.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Indus people were one of the earliest to grow cotton, which they used to weave into clothes. Cotton was probably grown at Mehrgarh from around 5000 BCE (7000 years ago), making this the oldest evidence of cotton in the world.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy

The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by a humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

1. Paddy and cotton
2. Wheat and Jute
3. Paddy and Jute
4. Wheat and cotton

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Lower Gangetic Plain, located in the Ganga–Brahmaputra delta region, experiences a humid climate with high temperatures and heavy rainfall (around 1700 mm or more). The region frequently experiences flooding, and the rivers deposit fertile alluvial silt, making the soil extremely productive.
• These conditions are highly suitable for paddy cultivation, as rice requires abundant water, warm temperatures, and fertile alluvial soil. The region is also ideal for jute cultivation. Jute grows best in warm, humid climates with heavy rainfall and fertile alluvial soils. The annual deposition of fresh silt by floods in the delta region further enriches the soil, creating ideal conditions for producing high-quality jute.

Answer: (c) Paddy and Jute | Difficulty Level: Easy

What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belts?

1. It is located in the subtropical high-pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The major deserts forming the African and Eurasian desert belt (such as the Sahara, Arabian and Thar deserts) lie around 20°–30° latitude, which corresponds to the subtropical high-pressure belt. In this region, descending air associated with the Hadley Cell becomes warm and dry, inhibiting cloud formation and precipitation. This persistent subsidence creates arid conditions, leading to the development of deserts.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The warm ocean currents generally increase evaporation and moisture availability, which can promote rainfall rather than desert formation. Deserts are more commonly associated with the influence of cold ocean currents (e.g., the Benguela Current near the Namib Desert).

Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Easy

The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The lower stratosphere is relatively dry compared to the troposphere. Due to the absence of significant water vapour and clouds, flying conditions are clearer and more stable for jet aircraft.

Statement 2 is correct

• The stratosphere is characterised by a lack of vertical convection currents (vertical winds), unlike the troposphere. This creates smoother flying conditions, which is why jet aircraft often cruise at this altitude.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Tropical regions (lower latitudes) have more stable climates, higher solar energy, and greater productivity, which support a wide range of species. This is why regions near the equator, like the Amazon rainforest, have extremely high biodiversity.
• As altitude increases, temperatures decline, oxygen becomes scarcer, and environmental conditions grow more extreme, making it difficult for many species to thrive. Consequently, biodiversity tends to be richer at lower altitudes.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy

The Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy and Mekong Rivers originate in Tibet’s narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to

1. Uplift of folded Himalayan series
2. Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
3. Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
4. Both (a) and (b) above

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Himalayas stretch in an east-west direction from the Indus Gorge in the west to the Brahmaputra Gorge in the east. At these gorges, the Himalayan ranges sharply bend southward. These bends are referred to as the syntaxial bends of the Himalayas.
• The western syntaxial bend is situated near Nanga Parbat, the western tip of the Zanskar Range (where the Indus River has carved a deep gorge). The eastern syntaxial bend is located near Namche Barwa.

Answer: (b) It Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas | Difficulty Level: Easy

A state in India has the following characteristics:

1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka
4. Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Saurashtra constitutes about 70% of Gujarat’s cotton production, with farmers in Amreli, the state’s largest cotton district, playing a key role.
• Gujarat is one of the largest producers of major cash crops like cotton, groundnut, tobacco, cumin, sesamum, etc. in India.

Answer: (b) Gujarat | Difficulty Level: Hard

What is a “Virtual Private Network”?

1. It is a private computer network of an organisation where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organisation.
2. It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organisation’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted.
3. It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider.
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is the correct description of virtual private networks.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Virtual Private Network (VPN): It is a technology that allows users to create a secure and encrypted connection to the internet. When you connect to a VPN server, your internet traffic is routed through an encrypted tunnel, making it difficult for third parties, including internet service providers and potential hackers, to monitor or intercept your online activities.

Answer: (b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organisation’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted | Difficulty Level: Easy

The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilisation of India. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Dharma in Vedic thought referred to the moral and social order, emphasizing the proper performance of one’s duties towards oneself, family, society, and the cosmos. It denoted righteousness and ethical conduct based on one’s role in society.

Statement 2 is correct

• Rita (or Ṛta) was the Vedic concept of cosmic order, truth, and harmony. It was believed to be the principle that governed the universe, including the movements of celestial bodies and the moral order of human society.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy