UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2010

Practicing UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2010 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyze the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2010 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2010

If a potato is placed on a paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up, but the paper plate does not. This is because:

1. Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
2. Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
3. Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
4. Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Microwave ovens heat substances by exciting water molecules. Potato has a high water content, so it absorbs microwave energy and heats up. Paper plate (dry, unprinted) has negligible water content; therefore, it does not absorb microwaves and remains cool. Composition (starch/cellulose) or organic nature is irrelevant to microwave heating.

Answer: (c) Potato contains water, whereas paper does not contain water

Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason:

1. It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought
2. It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant
3. It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop
4. It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• MON 863 is a genetically modified maize variety developed by Monsanto. It was engineered to express the Cry3Bb1 protein derived from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. This protein is toxic to specific insect pests, particularly the corn rootworm, which is one of the most destructive pests affecting maize crops globally. The Cry proteins act by binding to receptors in the gut lining of the insect larvae, leading to disruption of gut integrity and eventual death of the pest.

Answer: (b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant

Genetically modified ‘golden rice’ has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?

1. The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties
2. Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body
3. Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids
4. Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Golden rice is a genetically engineered variety of rice developed to combat vitamin A deficiency, a major public health problem in many developing countries. In conventional rice, the edible endosperm does not produce beta-carotene, which is a precursor of vitamin A. Through genetic modification, genes responsible for beta-carotene synthesis were introduced into the rice genome. As a result, the rice grains produce beta-carotene, which gives them a golden colour. When consumed, beta-carotene is converted by the human body into vitamin A. Golden rice does not enhance yield, does not synthesise essential amino acids, and does not provide vitamin D; its sole nutritional objective is vitamin A supplementation.

Answer: (b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A, which, upon ingestion, is converted to vitamin A in the human body

Consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact:

1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. only if he seeks such advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution of India. According to this provision, the President may refer any question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its opinion. The Supreme Court does not act on its own initiative. It can give advice only when the President formally seeks it. The matters referred are not restricted to Fundamental Rights and may involve any constitutional or legal issue of national importance. The advisory opinion is not legally binding, but it carries significant constitutional authority and has been respected historically.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to:

1. The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water
2. The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water
3. The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water
4. The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• When chlorine is added to water, it reacts with water molecules to form hypochlorous acid and hydrochloric acid. Hypochlorous acid is a weak acid but a very strong oxidising agent. It penetrates the cell walls of microorganisms and disrupts vital cellular functions by oxidising enzymes and structural proteins. According to World Health Organisation guidelines on drinking water quality, hypochlorous acid is the principal disinfecting agent responsible for killing bacteria, viruses and protozoa. The germicidal effectiveness of chlorine is directly related to the concentration of hypochlorous acid present in water, which is influenced by pH. The disinfecting action is not due to hydrochloric acid, nascent oxygen or hydrogen formation.

Answer: (b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water

With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court
2. Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
3. Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.
4. None of the statements given above is correct

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect

• They have jurisdiction to settle disputes both at the pre-litigation stage and those pending before courts.

Referral Process:

• Court-Pending Cases: A case can be referred if both parties agree, if one party applies and the court sees a chance for settlement, or if the court itself finds the matter appropriate for Lok Adalat.
• Pre-litigation stage: A dispute can be brought before a Lok Adalat on receipt of an application from either party involved in the dispute, even before any formal litigation begins.

Statement (b) is incorrect

• Jurisdiction of Lok Adalats:
  • Civil Matters: Disputes involving property, money recovery, labor, and public utility services (e.g., electricity or water bills).
  • Criminal Matters: Only compoundable offenses—minor crimes that can be legally settled through mutual agreement between the victim and the accused (e.g., simple assault, theft under a certain value, and defamation).
  • Matrimonial and Family Disputes: Issues such as maintenance and family disagreements, though divorce cases are typically excluded from their direct settlement jurisdiction.

Statement (c) is incorrect

• According to Section 19(2) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, every Lok Adalat consists of:
  • Judicial Officers: Serving or retired judicial officers (who usually act as the Chairman).
  • Other Persons: Individuals with specified experience and qualifications as determined by the organising authority (State, District, or Taluk Legal Services Committees).
• In practice, a standard Lok Adalat bench typically includes:
  • A sitting or retired judge (as the presiding officer).
  • A member of the legal profession (usually an advocate).
  • A social worker (often one engaged in the upliftment of weaker sections or experienced in social issues)

Answer: (d) None of the statements given above is correct

Consider the following:

1. Bluetooth device
2. Cordless phone
3. Microwave oven
4. Wi-Fi device

Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The frequency band from 2.4 to 2.5 GHz is part of the Industrial, Scientific and Medical radio band. This band is licence-free and widely used for short-range wireless communication and heating applications. Bluetooth devices operate in the 2.4 GHz band as defined by IEEE 802.15 standards. Cordless phones commonly operate in the same frequency range. Microwave ovens use electromagnetic waves at approximately 2.45 GHz to heat food by exciting water molecules. Wi-Fi devices based on the IEEE 802.11b, g, and n standards also operate in the 2.4 GHz band. The lower 2.4 GHz band offers longer range at lower data rates. Therefore, all four listed devices can operate within this frequency range.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Coffee requires a warm and humid climate with temperatures typically between 15 and 28 degrees Celsius and is grown in tropical regions with well-distributed rainfall. Tea, although also preferring humid conditions, can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical regions, including higher latitudes with cooler temperatures.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Propagation: Coffee is generally propagated by seeds. It is also widely propagated through vegetative means, including stem cuttings, grafting, budding, and tissue culture (somatic embryogenesis). These methods are often preferred for specific hybrid varieties to ensure they inherit identical traits from the parent plant. Tea, however, can be propagated both by seeds and vegetative methods such as stem cuttings and clonal propagation.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government?

1. Cash Credit Ratio
2. Debt Service Obligation
3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility
4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio is a mandatory requirement under which commercial banks must maintain a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid assets such as government securities, cash and gold. By investing in government securities to meet the statutory liquidity ratio requirement, banks provide the government with credit.

Answer: (d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

In order to comply with the TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. The difference or differences between a Trade Mark and a Geographical Indication is/are:

1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods or products and handicrafts only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 was enacted by India to comply with its obligations under the TRIPS Agreement of the World Trade Organisation. A trade mark is a private intellectual property right held by an individual, firm or company, for example, Tata, Bajaj, Haldiram’s, etc. It identifies the commercial source of goods or services. In contrast, a geographical indication (GI) is a collective right held by a community of producers originating from a specific geographical area, example, Darjeeling Tea, Banarasi Sarees, Basmati Rice, etc. While a trademark grants exclusive use to a single owner, a GI allows any producer in the designated geographic region to use the name, provided they follow the prescribed production methods.

Statement 2 is correct

• A trade mark can be licensed to others for commercial use under agreed conditions. A geographical indication cannot be licensed because it is inseparably linked to the geographical origin and collective reputation of the product.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Geographical indications are not restricted only to agricultural goods and handicrafts. They can also apply to manufactured goods such as Channapatna toys and Mysore silk.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?

1. It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
2. It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of the economy
3. It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
4. It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Deflation is defined in standard economics texts as a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services over a period of time. It reflects negative inflation and is associated with reduced consumer spending, falling demand and economic slowdown. A sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies refers to depreciation, not deflation. A persistent recession refers to a decline in economic activity, not prices. A fall in the rate of inflation means disinflation, not deflation.

Answer: (c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services

Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots, i.e. Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Biodiversity hotspots are not restricted only to tropical regions. Some hotspots exist in Mediterranean and temperate regions.
  • Mediterranean Basin: The largest of the world’s five Mediterranean-climate regions, covering over 2 million square kilometres from Portugal to Jordan. It supports approximately 25,000 plant species, of which nearly 60% are endemic.
  • Chilean Winter Rainfall-Valdivian Forests: This hotspot in South America is a rare example of a temperate rainforest ecosystem with high levels of endemism
  • Southwest Australia: One of the oldest hotspots globally, it features specialised eucalyptus woodlands and kwongan heathlands.

Statement 2 is correct

• India is part of four global biodiversity hotspots, namely the Himalayas, Indo-Burma region, which includes parts of the Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats & Sri Lanka hotspot and Sundaland, which includes the Nicobar Islands.
  • Himalaya: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar).
  • Indo-Burma: Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of Islands (and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and southern China)
  • Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka).
  • Sundalands: Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines).

  

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?

1. Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
2. Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection
3. Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
4. Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Malaria in humans is caused by multiple species of the protozoan parasite Plasmodium, including Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae and Plasmodium ovale. Each species has different antigenic characteristics and life cycle stages. This diversity makes it difficult to develop a single vaccine that provides effective and long-lasting immunity against all forms of malaria.

Answer: (a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium

A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop → Rat → Snake → Hawk

In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?

1. Food crop
2. Rat
3. Snake
4. Hawk

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Chlorinated hydrocarbons such as DDT are persistent organic pollutants. They are not easily metabolised or excreted and therefore accumulate in the fatty tissues of organisms. As these substances move along a food chain, their concentration increases at each successive trophic level. This process is known as biomagnification. In the given food chain, the hawk occupies the highest trophic level. Consequently, it accumulates the maximum concentration of the pesticide.

Answer: (d) Hawk

Consider the following statements:

1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 correct

• The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, boundaries are established via government notification.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve representative ecosystems and landscapes in their entirety, rather than just a few specific species of flora and fauna. Its goal is to balance biodiversity conservation with sustainable human development across its core, buffer, and transition zones.

Statement 3 is correct

• In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference (human activities) is permitted. While human activities are strictly prohibited in the core areas of National Parks, certain rights, such as livestock grazing, collection of minor forest produce, and private land ownership, may be regulated or permitted in a Sanctuary by the Chief Wildlife Warden.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices:

1. Crop rotation
2. Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Crop rotation helps maintain soil fertility and reduces erosion by alternating crops with different nutrient demands and root structures.
• Sand fences are used in arid and semi-arid regions to reduce wind velocity and prevent wind erosion of topsoil.
• Terracing is a widely used method in hilly and sloping regions. It reduces surface runoff and soil erosion by breaking slopes into steps.
• Wind breaks, consisting of rows of trees or shrubs, reduce wind speed and protect soil from erosion.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:

1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• NBFCs are explicitly defined under the RBI Act, 1934, as companies engaged in the business of acquisition of shares, stocks, bonds, debentures, or securities issued by the government or local authority, among other activities. They can, and do, invest in government securities as part of their business and portfolio management activities.

Statement 2 is correct

• A key distinction between banks and NBFCs is that NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits (such as Savings Accounts or Current Accounts). They are allowed to accept only term deposits (e.g., fixed deposits) for a minimum period of 12 months, and these do not form part of the payment and settlement system, so they cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.

Answer: (b) 2 only

In the parlance of financial investments, the “bear” denotes:

1. An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
2. An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise
3. A shareholder or a bondholder who has an interest in a company, financial or otherwise
4. Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In financial markets, a bear refers to an investor who expects prices of securities to decline. Such investors typically sell securities anticipating that they can buy them back later at lower prices. This terminology is well established in financial literature and contrasts with a bull, who expects prices to rise. The term does not denote ownership, lending, or general financial interest.

Answer: (a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall

The following are the characteristics of an area in India:

1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall of 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C

Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above?

1. Mustard
2. Cotton
3. Pepper
4. Virginia tobacco

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Pepper requires a hot and humid climate with high rainfall, usually above 150 centimetres annually. It grows well on hill slopes up to about 1000 to 1200 metres, especially in the Western Ghats region. The temperature range of 15 to 30 degrees Celsius is ideal for pepper cultivation.
• Thrives in well-drained, deep loamy soils rich in organic matter (humus). It also grows in red laterite, red loam, and sandy loam soils. Prefers slightly acidic soil with a pH range of 5.5 to 6.5.

Answer: (c) Pepper

India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass.
4. Trillions of neutrinos pass through the human body every second.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Neutrinos are fundamental elementary particles that carry no electric charge and interact very weakly with matter. They travel at speeds close to that of light. They are produced in large numbers during nuclear reactions, particularly beta decay processes occurring in the Sun, nuclear reactors and cosmic events. Experimental evidence has established that neutrinos possess a very small but non-zero mass, which was a major discovery in particle physics. Due to their extremely weak interaction with matter, trillions of neutrinos pass through the human body every second without causing harm. The flux of solar neutrinos alone results in approximately 60 to 100 trillion neutrinos passing through a person’s body every second.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India (1950) as:

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Extent of executive power of State
4. Conduct of business of the Government of India

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The “Instrument of Instructions” from the Government of India Act, 1935, was incorporated into the Constitution of India in 1950 as the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”:

1. NH₃
2. CH₄
3. H₂O
4. H₂O₂

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles generate electricity through an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen. The only by-product of this reaction is water. No greenhouse gases or toxic pollutants are produced during this process.

Answer: (c) H₂O

Consider the following:

1. Oxides of Hydrogen
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above cause or causes acid rain?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Acid rain is mainly caused by the presence of oxides of nitrogen (NOₓ) and oxides of sulphur (SO₂, SO₃) in the atmosphere. These gases react with water vapour, oxygen, and other chemicals in the atmosphere to form acids such as nitric acid and sulphuric acid, which then fall as acid rain.Oxides of Hydrogen (such as water vapour) do not cause acid rain.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Which one of the following is not related to the United Nations?

1. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
2. International Finance Corporation
3. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
4. Bank for International Settlements

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, International Finance Corporation and International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes are all institutions that form part of the World Bank Group, which operates within the United Nations system.The Bank for International Settlements is an international financial institution that serves central banks and is headquartered in Basel, Switzerland. It is not part of the United Nations system.

Answer: (d) Bank for International Settlements

With reference to mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs:

Mineral	90% Natural sources in
1) Copper	Jharkhand
2) Nickel	Orissa
3) Tungsten	Kerala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Copper reserves in India are primarily found in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand, but Jharkhand alone does not account for ninety percent of India’s copper resources.

Pair 2 is correct

• Nickel deposits in India are largely associated with laterite soils and are found predominantly in Odisha.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Tungsten deposits in India are mainly found in Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh, not Kerala.

Answer: (b) 2 only

As regards the use of international food safety standards as a reference point for dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?

1. Codex Alimentarius Commission
2. International Federation of Standards Users
3. International Organisation for Standardisation
4. World Standards Cooperation

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The World Trade Organisation uses international food safety standards as reference points under the Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures. For this purpose, it recognises standards developed by the Codex Alimentarius Commission. The Codex Alimentarius Commission is a joint body of the Food and Agriculture Organisation and the World Health Organisation, established in 1963. It develops food standards, guidelines and codes of practice to protect consumer health and ensure fair practices in food trade.

Answer: (a) Codex Alimentarius Commission

In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalised commercial banks is fixed by?

1. Union Ministry of Finance
2. Union Finance Commission
3. Indian Banks’ Association
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Prior to 2011, the interest rate on savings bank accounts in nationalised commercial banks was regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) deregulated savings bank deposit interest rates on October 25, 2011. Since then, individual banks have the freedom to determine their own rates with the following conditions:
• Uniformity: A bank must offer a uniform interest rate on savings account balances up to ₹1 lakh, regardless of which branch the account is held in.
• Differential Rates: For balances above ₹1 lakh, banks are permitted to offer differential interest rates based on the amount in the account.
• Approval: Rates must be determined with the approval of the bank’s Board of Directors or its Asset-Liability Management Committee.
• It was not fixed by the Ministry of Finance, the Finance Commission or the Indian Banks’ Association.

Answer: (d) None of the above

With reference to Simon Commission’srecommendations, which one of the following statement is correct?

1. It recommended the replacement of dyarchy with responsible government in the provinces
2. It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department
3. It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
4. It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service, with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 to review the working of the Government of India Act, 1919.
• One of its major recommendations was the abolition of dyarchy at the provincial level and its replacement with responsible government in the provinces.

Answer: (a) It recommended the replacement of dyarchy with responsible government in the provinces

Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held at Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?

1. Annulment of partition of Bengal
2. Boycott
3. National education
4. Swadeshi

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• The 1906 Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) was a pivotal event in the Indian freedom struggle, marking the official shift from purely constitutional petitions to a more assertive nationalist agenda.

Key Highlights

• President: The session was presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the “Grand Old Man of India“. He was chosen as a compromise candidate to bridge the growing rift between the Moderate and Extremist factions of the Congress.
• Adoption of ‘Swaraj’: For the first time, the word Swaraj (Self-government) was used from the Congress platform as the ultimate goal of the Indian people. Naoroji declared that Swaraj on the lines of self-governing British colonies (like Canada or Australia) was the “only and chief remedy” for India’s problems.
• The Four Resolutions: The session is most famous for passing four historic resolutions that defined the Swadeshi movement:
• Swaraj: Demand for self-rule.
• Swadeshi: Promotion of indigenous goods and industries.
• Boycott: Refusal to use British goods as a political tool.
• National Education: Establishment of an educational system under national control, free from colonial influence.

Answer: (a) Annulment of partition of Bengal

After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?

1. The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States
2. Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor-General and the Commander-in-Chief, should be Indian leaders
3. Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution-making body to be convened as soon as possible
4. A solution for the constitutional deadlock

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• After the Quit India Movement in 1942, India faced a significant political and constitutional deadlock between the British government, the Indian National Congress, and the Muslim League, primarily over the issue of Indian independence and the demand for Pakistan.
• C. Rajagopalachari (CR) issued his pamphlet “The Way Out” in 1944 to propose a formula (known as the C.R. Formula) to resolve this impasse and facilitate Congress-League cooperation. The C.R. Formula outlined specific steps for a potential partition of India based on a plebiscite in Muslim-majority areas, contingent on the Muslim League first supporting the demand for immediate independence.

Answer: (d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock

There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is the paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?

1. Bagh caves
2. Ellora caves
3. Lomas Rishi cave
4. Nasik caves

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The art of painting reached its height of glory and splendour in this age. The most important examples of Gupta paintings are found in the wall frescoes of the Ajanta (Maharashtra) and Bagh caves (Madhya Pradesh). Gupta painters also depicted incidents from the life of the Buddha during the Gupta period. Cave No. XVI at Ajanta has the scene known as “Dying Princess”. Cave No. XVII has been called a picture gallery. At Ajanta, other prominent cave paintings are cave no. XIX, I and II.

Answer: (a) Bagh Caves

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at:

1. United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
2. UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
3. World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
4. UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen, 2009

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was drawn and opened for signature at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from June 3 to 14, 1992.

Answer: (b) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992

Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills?

1. Agrobacterium
2. Clostridium
3. Nitrosomonas
4. Pseudomonas

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Certain species of Pseudomonas possess the natural ability to degrade hydrocarbons present in crude oil and petroleum products. Through genetic manipulation, strains of Pseudomonas have been developed that can efficiently metabolise a wide range of hydrocarbons. These bacteria use hydrocarbons as a source of carbon and energy, breaking them down into less harmful substances.

Answer: (d) Pseudomonas

Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilizers?

1. They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb readily
2. They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates
3. They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily
4. They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Blue-green algae, also known as cyanobacteria, such as Anabaena and Nostoc, have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen. They possess specialised cells called heterocysts which convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and other nitrogenous compounds. These nitrogen compounds enrich soil fertility and are readily available for absorption by crop plants.

Answer: (c) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily

India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should maintain these sites in the context of this Convention?

1. Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be exploited
2. Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation only
3. Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach for a period without any exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of them by future generations
4. Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands promotes the concept of wise use of wetlands. Wise use refers to the maintenance of wetlands through ecosystem-based approaches while allowing sustainable utilisation for the benefit of present and future generations. The Convention does not advocate complete isolation of wetlands from human use, nor does it permit unrestricted exploitation. Instead, it emphasises conservation integrated with sustainable use, including regulated tourism, livelihoods and ecological services.

Answer: (d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use

Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

1. The President of India
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. The Prime Minister of India
4. The Union Finance Minister

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Article 281 of the Constitution of India mandates that the President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission, along with an explanatory memorandum, to be laid before each House of Parliament.

Answer: (a) The President of India

Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of the Union Budget to the Parliament?

1. Department of Revenue
2. Department of Economic Affairs
3. Department of Financial Services
4. Department of Expenditure

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Union Budget is prepared under the Ministry of Finance. Within the Ministry, the Department of Economic Affairs is responsible for budget formulation, fiscal policy, and presentation of the Budget to Parliament.

Answer: (b) Department of Economic Affairs

Consider the following actions by the Government:

1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies

In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered as part of the fiscal stimulus package?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Fiscal stimulus refers to expansionary fiscal policy used during economic recessions to boost aggregate demand. Cutting tax rates increases disposable income and consumption. Increasing government spending directly injects demand into the economy. Abolishing subsidies is a contractionary measure. Removing subsidies reduces financial support, potentially increasing costs for consumers and businesses, which can further dampen demand during a recession.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?

1. The commercial banks will have less money to lend
2. The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend
3. The Union Government will have less money to lend
4. The commercial banks will have more money to lend

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Cash Reserve Ratio is the proportion of a bank’s deposits that must be kept with the Reserve Bank of India. When the RBI increases CRR, commercial banks must park a larger share of their deposits with the RBI. This reduces the funds banks have available to lend to businesses and consumers. For ex, if CRR is 4% and a bank has ₹1000 in deposits, it must keep ₹40 with the central bank, leaving ₹960 for lending.

Answer: (a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend

What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi Movement?

1. The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
2. A sentence of eighteen months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak.
3. The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh, and passing of the Punjab Colonisation Bill.
4. Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Swadeshi Movement was launched in 1905 as a direct response to the Partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon. The partition was perceived as a deliberate attempt to divide Bengal on communal lines and weaken the nationalist movement. The movement promoted self-reliance (Swadeshi) by boycotting foreign goods and using Indian products, uniting diverse groups in a nationwide movement for self-rule, and leading to a significant cultural and political awakening.

Answer: (a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon

In the context of governance, consider the following:

1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling or offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings

Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• FDI flows primarily into the private sector, not directly into government accounts. Does not automatically increase government revenue or reduce expenditure. Hence, not a direct fiscal deficit control measure.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Privatization of higher educational institutions is a structural reform, not a budgetary or fiscal instrument. It may reduce future public spending marginally, but not treated as a direct fiscal deficit control tool.

Statement 3 is correct

• Down-sizing of bureaucracy reduces recurring expenditure such as salaries and pensions. Lower recurring expenditure leads to reduction in fiscal deficit.

Statement 4 is correct

• Selling or offloading shares of Public Sector Undertakings generates non-debt capital receipts, directly lowering the fiscal deficit, without increasing government liabilities.

Answer: (d) 3 and 4 only

In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?

1. Montane Wet Temperate Forest
2. Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
3. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
4. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Among the given options, Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests occupy the largest forest area in India. They are found extensively in central India, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, the foothills of the Himalayas, and in states such as Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and parts of the northeastern states.

Answer: (c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest

Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following?

1. Reduction of poverty
2. Extension of employment opportunities
3. Strengthening of capital market
4. Reduction of gender inequality

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The key monitorable targets and objectives for inclusive growth as outlined in the Plan documents focused on:
• Poverty Reduction: A target to reduce the headcount ratio of poverty by 10 percentage points.
• Employment Generation: The creation of 70 million new work opportunities and a reduction in unemployment among the educated.
• Reducing Inequality: Specific goals for reducing the gender gap in literacy to 10 percentage points and generally bridging disparities across regions and communities.
• Access to Essential Services: Significant public spending and targets in areas like health, education, clean drinking water, and sanitation.
• Strengthening of capital markets is an economic reform objective, but it is not a defining component of inclusive growth, which emphasizes equitable access to opportunities and social justice.

Answer: (c) Strengthening of capital market

Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?

1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• About 39.34 per cent of Tamil Nadu is occupied by the Red soil, 37.89 per cent by brown soils,16.38 per cent by Black soils, 3.51 per cent by Grey soils, 2.03 per cent by Mixed soils and 0.86 per cent by Alluvial soils. The red soils, with the proper use of fertilisers and irrigation techniques, give a good yield of cotton, wheat, rice, pulses, millets, tobacco, oilseeds, potatoes, and fruits.

Statement 2 is correct

• Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn primarily because of the availability of a rich pool of skilled labour, supported by early industrialisation and strong textile infrastructure.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to the other three?

1. Sand desert
2. Paddy crop land
3. Land covered with fresh snow
4. Prairie land

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Fresh snow has the highest albedo among natural surfaces and reflects the maximum amount of incoming solar radiation. Albedo is the measure of reflectivity of a surface, representing the fraction of solar radiation reflected back into space, with higher values (like snow at 70–90%) indicating more reflection and lower values (like forests or cities) indicating more heat absorption

Answer: (c) Land covered with fresh snow

Rivers that pass-through Himachal Pradesh are:

1. Beas and Chenab only
2. Beas and Ravi only
3. Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only
4. Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The five main rivers that flow through Himachal Pradesh are the Beas, Satluj, Ravi, Chenab, and Yamuna.

Answer: (d) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna

Consider the following statements:

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
2. Acharya J. B. Kripalani was one of Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.

Which of the statements given is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• It was Raj Kumar Shukla, a peasant from Champaran, who persistently persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to visit Champaran and look into the grievances of indigo cultivators. Dr Rajendra Prasad joined Gandhi later, but was not the person who brought him to Champaran.

Statement 2 is correct

• Gandhiji was accompanied by Babu Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Huq, J. B. Kripalani, Narhari Parikh and Mahadev Desai.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?

1. Conduction only
2. Convection
3. Radiation only
4. Both conduction and radiation

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In a motor car radiator, heat from the engine is transferred to the coolant. The heated coolant rises and circulates, while cooler fluid descends, establishing convection currents. Heat is then dissipated to the surrounding air. While conduction occurs at the metal surfaces, the primary mechanism responsible for heat removal in the radiator system is convection.

Answer: (b) Convection

When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?

1. Abundance of magnesium
2. Accumulated humus
3. Presence of ferric oxides
4. Abundance of phosphates

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Red soil derives its colour from the presence of iron oxides, particularly ferric oxide. When iron compounds are oxidized under well-drained conditions, they impart a red or reddish-brown colour to the soil.

Answer: (c) Presence of ferric oxides

Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?

1. More than 90 percent of limestone reserves of India are found in them
2. More than 90 percent of India’s coal reserves are found in them
3. More than 90 percent of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
4. None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Gondwana coal makes up to 98 per cent of the total reserves and 99 per cent of the production of coal in India.

Answer: (b) More than 90 percent of India’s coal reserves are found in them

Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?

1. Bali
2. Brunei
3. Java
4. Singapore

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Strait of Malacca lies between the Malay Peninsula and the island of Sumatra. Singapore is located at the southern end of the Malay Peninsula and directly borders the Strait.

Answer: (d) Singapore

With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. It flows into the Gulf of Khambhat.
2. It flows into the Gulf of Kuchchh.
3. It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of the Indus.
4. It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh.

Explanation

• Luni originates from the Aravalli ranges near Ajmer in Rajasthan, where it is called Sagarmati. It is primarily endorheic, and it does not drain into the sea. It dissipates into the Rann of Kachchh.
• It is the largest river in the Thar Desert of northwest India.
• Left bank tributaries: Jawai, Sukri, Guhiya, Bandi, Liladi River.
• Right bank tributaries: Jojari.

Answer: (d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh

In the context of India’s Five-Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure, begins in which one of the following plans?

1. Fourth Plan
2. Sixth Plan
3. Eighth Plan
4. Tenth Plan

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• While the early Five-Year Plans (specifically the Second and Third) were heavily influenced by the Mahalanobis model, which prioritized heavy, basic industries like steel and machine-making—the Sixth Plan marked a strategic turning point.

Why the Sixth Plan?

• Shift in Focus: This plan began to move away from the rigid “heavy industry first” approach. It placed a significantly higher emphasis on infrastructure, particularly energy (power), transport, and communication, to support overall economic growth.
• Economic Liberalisation: It marked the beginning of “economic liberalisation” in India. The government started relaxing price controls and focused on increasing the efficiency of existing industries rather than just building new heavy industrial plants.
• Poverty Alleviation: This plan was also notable for launching direct attacks on poverty (e.g., the IRDP program), shifting the industrial narrative toward supporting employment and rural infrastructure.

Answer: (b) Sixth Plan

Consider the following:

Dam /Lake	River
1) Govind Sagar	Satluj
2) Kolleru Lake	Krishna
3) Ukai Reservoir	Tapi

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are not correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. None of the above

Explanation

Pair 2 is incorrect

• Kolleru Lake is a large freshwater lake located between the Krishna and Godavari river deltas in Andhra Pradesh. It is not formed by the Krishna River, nor is it a reservoir on the Krishna.

Pair 1 and 3 are correct

• Govind Sagar is a reservoir created by the Bhakra Nangal Project on the Sutlej River.
• Ukai Reservoir is constructed on the Tapi River.

Answer: (b) 2 only

A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:

1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen oak trees

The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?

1. Mediterranean
2. Eastern China
3. Central Asia
4. Atlantic coast of North America

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Mediterranean climate is characterized by warm and dry summers, mild and wet winters, and vegetation dominated by evergreen oak trees, olive trees and shrubs. Eastern China has a monsoonal climate with humid summers and cold winters. Central Asia is marked by extreme continental conditions and sparse vegetation. The Atlantic coast of North America has a humid temperate climate without evergreen oak dominance.

Answer: (a) Mediterranean

With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:

1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation

Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, adopted in 1989, recognizes a comprehensive set of civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of children.
• The Right to Development is explicitly recognised, ensuring the child’s physical, mental, spiritual, moral and social development.
• The Right to Expression is guaranteed under the Convention, allowing children to express their views freely in matters affecting them.
• The Right to Recreation is also included, recognising the child’s right to rest, leisure, play and participation in cultural and artistic activities.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?

1. It is a snake-eater and the nest helps attract other snakes
2. It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring
3. It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched
4. It is a large, cold-blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

The King Cobra is unique among snakes because it builds a nest for its eggs. It is an oviparous snake, meaning it lays eggs rather than giving birth to live young. The female King Cobra constructs a nest using leaves and vegetation, lays the eggs in it, and actively guards the nest until the eggs hatch. This behaviour is rare among reptiles and distinguishes the King Cobra from other snake species.

Answer: (c) It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched

Consider the following statements:

1. The Taxus tree is naturally found in the Himalayas.
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
3. A drug called “taxol” is obtained from Taxus tree and is effective against Parkinson’s disease.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Taxus tree, commonly known as Himalayan yew, is naturally found in the Himalayan region.

Statement 2 is correct

• Due to excessive extraction for medicinal purposes, Taxus wallichiana has been placed in the Red Data Book as an Endangered species.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Taxol, a drug derived from Taxus, is used in the treatment of certain cancers, particularly ovarian and breast cancer. It is not used to treat Parkinson’s disease.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

What causes wind to deflect towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere?

1. Temperature
2. Magnetic field
3. Rotation of the earth
4. Pressure

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The deflection of winds is caused by the Coriolis force, which arises due to the rotation of the Earth. In the Southern Hemisphere, this force deflects moving air to the left, while in the Northern Hemisphere, it deflects winds to the right. Temperature, pressure and magnetic field do not directly cause the directional deflection of winds.

Answer: (c) Rotation of the Earth

Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufacture of these lamps?

1. A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white
2. When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultraviolet radiations
3. When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultraviolet energy into visible light
4. None of the statements given above is correct about the use of mercury in the manufacture of fluorescent lamps

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In fluorescent lamps, mercury vapour emits ultraviolet radiation when electric current passes through it. This ultraviolet radiation strikes the phosphor coating on the inner surface of the tube, which then fluoresces and produces visible light. Mercury does not directly convert ultraviolet radiation into visible light; the phosphor coating performs this function.

Answer: (b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultraviolet radiations

If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?

1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Himalayan ranges act as a climatic barrier, preventing cold Siberian winds from entering India. Without them, northern India would experience severe cold waves. The Himalayas are the source of major rivers whose deposition over millions of years created the Indo-Gangetic alluvial plains. Without them, such extensive alluvial soils would not exist. The Himalayas also deflect and trap the southwest monsoon winds, causing widespread rainfall. Without the mountain barrier, the monsoon pattern would be fundamentally different.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news?

1. A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting distance education in India
2. The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe for Chandrayaan-II
3. A geoportal of ISRO with 3-D imaging capabilities of India
4. A space telescope developed by India

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

Bhuvan is a web-based geoportal developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. It provides satellite imagery, 3-D visualization, terrain data and thematic layers related to India. It is comparable to global platforms like Google Earth but focuses specifically on Indian data. ISRO officially launched Bhuvan as part of its geospatial information dissemination initiative.

Answer: (c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3-D imaging capabilities of India

The latitudes that pass-through Sikkim also pass through?

1. Rajasthan
2. Punjab
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Sikkim lies approximately between 27° and 28° North latitude. These latitudes extend westward across northern India. When traced longitudinally across India:
• Rajasthan lies further south.
• Punjab lies slightly south of these latitudes.
• Himachal Pradesh spans latitudes from about 30°N to just below 32°N, but its southern parts intersect the 31°N–30°N belt, overlapping with the latitude band passing through Sikkim when projected on a globe.
• Jammu and Kashmir lies further north.

Answer: (c) Himachal Pradesh

Consider the following statements:

1. The “Bombay Manifesto” signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Bombay Manifesto of 1936 was issued by prominent Indian industrialists such as G. D. Birla, Purshottamdas Thakurdas and others. It was a direct response to the growing influence of socialist ideas within the Indian National Congress, particularly under Jawaharlal Nehru. The manifesto explicitly opposed state socialism, nationalisation of industries and excessive state control over private enterprise. It sought to defend private capital and free enterprise.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Manifesto did not receive broad-based support from the entire Indian business community.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?

1. Nagarjuna
2. Tukaram
3. Tyagaraja
4. Vallabhacharya

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Nagarjuna was a Buddhist philosopher, associated with the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism, not the Bhakti movement. Tukaram, Tyagaraja and Vallabhacharya were prominent Bhakti saints associated with devotional worship.

Answer: (a) Nagarjuna

For the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?

1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

The Karachi Resolution of 1931, adopted under the presidentship of Sardar Patel, laid down the vision of Fundamental Rights and socio-economic justice. The resolution was drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru, reflecting his ideological influence on economic planning, civil liberties and social justice

Answer: (b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with the Cripps Mission?

1. Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
2. Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
3. Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• During the Cripps Mission of 1942, the official negotiators on behalf of the Indian National Congress were Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. They represented Congress in discussions with Sir Stafford Cripps on constitutional proposals.

Answer: (c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad

Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process?

1. Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
2. Breakdown of glucose into CO₂ and H₂O
3. Conversion of glucose into glycogen
4. Conversion of amino acids into proteins

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Digestion involves breaking complex food substances into simpler, absorbable forms. Protein digestion involves converting proteins into amino acids through enzymes such as pepsin and trypsin.

Answer: (a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids

From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?

1. Otter – Tortoise – Shark
2. Shark – Tortoise – Otter
3. Tortoise – Shark – Otter
4. Shark – Otter – Tortoise

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Evolutionary progression follows:
• Fish (Shark) appeared first
• Reptiles (Tortoise) evolved later
• Mammals (Otter) evolved last

Answer: (b) Shark – Tortoise – Otter

Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?

1. When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO₂
2. The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
3. The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
4. The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Carbon monoxide binds with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. CO has about 200–250 times higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen, thereby displacing oxygen and causing tissue hypoxia.

Answer: (b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen

With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female
2. The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections
3. An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy, at childbirth and by breast feeding
4. The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than exposure to contaminated needle

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• In heterosexual transmission of Human Immunodeficiency Virus, the risk of transmission is generally higher from male to female than from female to male due to greater exposure of mucosal surfaces. Hence, the statement reverses the actual trend.

Answer: (a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female

Consider the following statements:

1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British Empire automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Commonwealth is not based on any formal agreement and has no constitution of its own. Its functioning is guided by declarations such as the Singapore Declaration and Harare Declaration.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Membership is not automatic. Countries must apply and be accepted. Several former British territories never joined.

Answer: (a) 1 only

In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?

1. Currency Futures Trading
2. Commodities Futures Trading
3. Equity Futures Trading
4. Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The FMC is the regulatory body of the forwards and futures market in India and is now merged with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Before its merger, the Forward Markets Commission in India played a key role in regulating the commodities derivatives market. In this blog, we will take a close look at the FMC, its function, and its roles.

Answer: (b) Commodities Futures Trading

With reference to India, consider the following:

1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches

Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All options are correct

• All three measures expanded access to banking services:
• Bank nationalization widened credit access to priority sectors.
• Regional Rural Banks targeted rural and agrarian populations.
• Village adoption schemes brought banking services to unbanked areas.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?

1. He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore
2. The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab
3. He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal
4. He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his kingdom

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The immediate cause was the expulsion of Abdali’s son Timur Shah from Lahore by the Marathas.
• This was perceived as a direct challenge to Afghan authority and triggered Abdali’s decisive invasion, culminating in the Third Battle of Panipat (1761).

Answer: (a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by the Marathas of his viceroy, Timur Shah, from Lahore

The functions of commercial banks in India include

1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Commercial banks perform agency functions, including:
• Buying/selling securities for customers
• Acting as trustees, executors, and administrators of estates
• These are non-core but recognised banking services.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and

Which one of the following authorities makes a recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

1. District Planning Committees
2. State Finance Commission
3. Finance Ministry of that State
4. Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State is required to constitute a State Finance Commission (SFC) every five years. The primary role of this commission is to review the financial position of the Panchayats and make recommendations.

Answer: (b) State Finance Commission

Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere:

1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour

Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All options are correct

• Soot (Black Carbon): This is a light-absorbing particulate matter rather than a gas. It contributes to warming in two primary ways:
• Direct Warming: Suspended soot particles absorb solar energy (sunlight) and infrared radiation, directly heating the surrounding air.
• Albedo Effect: When soot is deposited on snow and ice, it darkens the surface, reducing its reflectivity (albedo) and accelerating the melting process.
• Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6): This is an anthropogenic (man-made) synthetic gas that is extremely potent and long-lived. It has a Global Warming Potential (GWP) approximately 23,500 times greater than carbon dioxide (CO2) over a 100-year period. It is primarily used in the electrical power industry as an insulator in high-voltage equipment.
• Water Vapour: It is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere and a major contributor to the natural greenhouse effect. It acts as a powerful warming feedback mechanism; as other greenhouse gases like (CO2) warm the planet, the atmosphere’s capacity to hold water vapour increases, which in turn traps more heat and further amplifies the warming effect.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The International Development Association (IDA), a lending agency, is administered by the:

1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
2. International Fund for Agricultural Development
3. United Nations Development Programme
4. United Nations Industrial Development Organization

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• IDA is part of the World Bank Group. IDA is administered by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD). Provides concessional loans to poorest countries.

Answer: (a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Consider the following statements:

1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane for each sugar season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Union Government (Central Government) has the authority to fix the minimum price of sugarcane for each sugar season.
• This is done based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and is officially approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)

Statement 2 is correct

• Both sugar and sugarcane are notified under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Who among the following Governor-Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India, which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?

1. Warren Hastings
2. Wellesley
3. Cornwallis
4. William Bentinck

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Lord Cornwallis, who served as Governor-General from 1786 to 1793, is often referred to as the “Father of Civil Service in India.“
• He introduced several key reforms:
• Separation of Powers: He separated the revenue administration from the administration of justice.
• Corruption Control: To curb widespread corruption, he raised the salaries of civil servants but strictly forbade them from engaging in private trade or accepting “presents” from locals.
• The “Covenanted” System: He established the Covenanted Civil Service, which consisted of higher-level posts reserved for Europeans who signed a formal “covenant” (contract) with the East India Company.

Answer: (c) Cornwallis

Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India?

1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Pongamia pinnata is a leguminous tree whose seeds contain a high proportion of oil. Nearly half of the lipid content of the seed oil consists of oleic acid, which is suitable for bio-diesel production due to its favourable combustion and stability characteristics. Pongamia Pinnata is adaptable to arid zones, hence grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable?

1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen-based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Rice is typically cultivated in flooded fields, which create anaerobic soil conditions. Under these conditions, methanogenic bacteria decompose organic matter and produce methane, a potent greenhouse gas contributing to global warming. Additionally, the use of nitrogen-based fertilisers in rice cultivation leads to microbial processes in the soil that emit nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide has a global warming potential significantly higher than carbon dioxide. Both methane and nitrous oxide emissions from rice cultivation are well-documented contributors to climate change.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts?

1. Social justice and empowerment
2. Inclusive growth
3. Globalization
4. Carrying capacity

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The definition of sustainable development given in the Brundtland Commission report, “Our Common Future,” inherently ties the concept to the idea of carrying capacity. It refers to the maximum population size or level of development that an ecosystem can support indefinitely without degrading itself or the environment’s capacity to meet future needs. The definition emphasises the “limitations imposed by the state of technology and social organisation on the environment’s ability to meet present and future needs”. Therefore, achieving sustainable development requires operating within the ecological limits, which is the core principle of carrying capacity.

Answer: (d) Carrying Capacity

Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?

1. Jatropha
2. Maize
3. Pongamia
4. Sunflower

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Ethanol is produced through the fermentation of sugars or starches. Maize is rich in starch and is widely used as a feedstock for ethanol production, particularly in countries such as the United States and increasingly in India. Jatropha and Pongamia are oilseed crops used for biodiesel production, not ethanol. Sunflower is also an oilseed crop primarily used for edible oil and biodiesel.

Answer: (b) Maize

Consider the following pairs:

Protected area	Well-known for
1) Bhitarkanika, Orissa	Salt Water Crocodile
2) Desert National Park, Rajasthan	Great Indian Bustard
3) Eravikulam, Kerala	Hoolak Gibbon

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Bhitarkanika in Odisha is internationally known for its large population of saltwater crocodiles, one of the largest breeding grounds of the species in India.

Pair 2 is correct

• Desert National Park in Rajasthan is a key habitat of the Great Indian Bustard, a critically endangered bird species.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• Eravikulam National Park in Kerala is famous for the Nilgiri Tahr. The Hoolock Gibbon is found mainly in the forests of Northeast India (restricted to the seven northeastern states south of the Brahmaputra River and east of the Dibang River), not in Eravikulam.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?

1. Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis and thus they depend on insects for nutrition
2. They are adapted to grow in nitrogen-deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition
3. They cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them
4. They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Insectivorous plants such as pitcher plants and sundews grow in nitrogen-deficient soils, especially in marshy or acidic environments. While they perform photosynthesis like other green plants, the lack of nitrogen limits their growth. To overcome this deficiency, these plants trap and digest insects to obtain nitrogen and other nutrients essential for protein synthesis and growth. They do not depend on insects because of poor photosynthesis, vitamin deficiency or evolutionary incompleteness. They use insects purely for mineral supplementation, not their main energy source.

Answer: (b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen-deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.

Which of the statements given above is or are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers assigns a significantly higher weight to food articles compared to the Wholesale Price Index.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?

1. Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of other work
2. Lord Cornwallis felt that judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
3. Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person
4. The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Regulation of 1793 under Lord Cornwallis separated judicial powers from revenue administration.
• Cornwallis believed that the concentration of executive, revenue, and judicial authority in one official led to abuse of power and corruption.

Answer: (c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person

In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and the European Union, what is the difference between the European Commission and the European Council?

1. European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic policies of the European Union.
2. European Commission comprises the Heads of State or government of member countries whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• There are 4 main decision-making institutions which lead the EU’s administration. These institutions collectively provide the EU with policy direction and play different roles in the law-making process:
  • the European Parliament (Brussels/Strasbourg/Luxembourg)
  • the European Council (Brussels)
  • the Council of the European Union (Brussels/Luxembourg)
  • the European Commission (Brussels/Luxembourg/Representations across the EU)
  • The European Commission is the executive branch of the European Union. Its main roles include:
  • proposing legislation
  • implementing decisions
  • upholding the EU treaties
  • managing the day-to-day business of the EU.
  • The European Council is not a legislative body, but rather sets out the general political objectives and priorities of the EU.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The heads of state or government of the EU countries meet, as the European Council, to define the general political direction and priorities of the European Union. The European Council is chaired by a president who is elected for a 2.5-year term, renewable once. It does not adopt laws except for possible amendments to the EU Treaty.
• The European Parliament represents the citizens of EU countries and is directly elected by them. It takes decisions on European laws jointly with the Council of the European Union. It also approves the EU budget. It runs a network of liaison offices in EU capitals, London, Edinburgh and Washington D.C.
• Council of the European Union: The Council of the EU is where national ministers from each government meet to adopt laws and coordinate policies. Ministers meet in different configurations depending on the topic to be discussed. The Council of the EU takes decisions on European laws jointly with the European Parliament.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?

1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became part of Vaishnavism.
2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
3. The kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct

• By the Gupta period, Buddha was assimilated as the 9th avatar of Vishnu, weakening Buddhism’s independent identity.

Statement 2 is Incorrect

• There is no evidence of systematic persecution of Buddhists by Central Asian tribes.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Gupta rulers like Samudragupta and Kumaragupta patronised Buddhism (Nalanda flourished under them).

Answer: (a) 1 only

Consider the following statements:

In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are:

1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The securities transaction tax is a direct tax levied by the Government of India on every transaction executed on recognized stock exchanges

Statement 2 is incorrect

• States have no jurisdiction over stock/futures market taxation.

Answer: (a) 1 only