UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2009

Practicing UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2009 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyze the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2009 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2009

In the ‘Individual Satyagraha’, Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi. Who was the second?

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
3. C. Rajagopalachari
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Individual Satyagraha was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in October 1940 to assert the right to free speech and to register India’s opposition to being dragged into World War II without Indian consent. Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi because of his moral stature and commitment to non-violence. After Vinoba Bhave’s arrest, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was selected as the second Individual Satyagrahi.

Answer: (b): Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Consider the following statements: The Cripps Proposals included the provision for:

1. Full independence for India.
2. Creation of a Constitution-making body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Cripps Proposals did not promise immediate or full independence. They proposed Dominion Status for India after the war, not complete sovereignty.

Statement 2 is correct

• The proposals included the creation of a Constitution-making body (Constituent Assembly), which would frame a new constitution for India after the war.

Answer: (b): 2 only

During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organiser of underground activity in which of the following movements?

1. Civil Disobedience Movement
2. Non-Cooperation Movement
3. Quit India Movement
4. Swadeshi Movement

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Aruna Asaf Ali played a prominent role during the Quit India Movement (1942). After the arrest of major Congress leaders, she emerged as a key leader of the underground resistance. She is best remembered for hoisting the Indian National Flag at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on 9 August 1942. When the movement was brutally suppressed, she went underground and helped organise secret networks, distribute pamphlets, and coordinate resistance activities. Her role made her a symbol of courage and defiance, earning her the title “Grand Old Lady of Indian Independence Movement.”

Answer: (c): Quit India Movement

With whose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat?

1. Akbar
2. Jahangir
3. Shahjahan
4. Aurangzeb

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The English East India Company established its first factory at Surat in 1613. This was done during the reign of Mughal Emperor Jahangir.

Answer: (b): Jahangir

In a dry cell (battery), which of the following are used as electrolytes?

1. Ammonium chloride and Zinc chloride
2. Sodium chloride and Calcium chloride
3. Magnesium chloride and Zinc chloride
4. Ammonium chloride and Calcium chloride

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• A dry cell (Leclanché cell) uses a paste-like electrolyte, not a liquid. The electrolyte consists mainly of ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) paste. Zinc chloride (ZnCl₂) is also added to improve the cell’s performance and reduce polarisation. Other salts like sodium chloride, calcium chloride, or magnesium chloride are not used as electrolytes in dry cells.

Answer: (a): Ammonium chloride and Zinc chloride

Which one of the following planets has the largest number of natural satellites (moons)?

1. Jupiter
2. Mars
3. Saturn
4. Venus

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Saturn has 274 confirmed moons in its orbit, far more than any other planet in our solar system. In March 2025, astronomers confirmed the discovery of 128 small moons around Saturn — adding to the already large moon count.

Answer: (c): Saturn

Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus?

1. Radio waves
2. Microwaves
3. Infra-red waves
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Night vision devices (NVDs) work mainly on infra-red (IR) radiation. All objects emit infrared rays due to their temperature (thermal radiation). Night vision goggles detect these IR rays and convert them into visible images, allowing vision in complete darkness. Radio waves and microwaves are used in communication and radar, not in night vision devices.

Answer: (c): Infra-red waves

Which one of the following is used as an explosive?

1. Phosphorus trichloride
2. Mercuric oxide
3. Graphite
4. Nitroglycerine

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Nitroglycerine is a powerful explosive commonly used in dynamites and blasting operations. The other substances listed are not used as explosives.

Answer: (d): Nitroglycerine

In the context of Indian wildlife, the flying fox is a —

1. Bat
2. Kite
3. Stork
4. Vulture

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Flying fox is the common name for large fruit bats (genus Pteropus).

Answer: (a): Bat

With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• Ministries or departments are created by the President on advice of the Prime Minister under the Government of India (Allocation of Business Rules) 1961, which is part of Article 77 of the Constitution. Allocation of portfolios is done by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Answer: (b) 2 only

In the context of alternative sources of energy, ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from —

1. Potato
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Wheat

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Ethanol is commercially produced mainly from sugarcane/molasses in India. Ethanol (C₂H₅OH) is a renewable, flammable, colourless bio-alcohol used as a transport fuel.
• Production modes: Produced through fermentation of sugars/starches or by ethylene hydration.
• Energy Characteristics: Ethanol has a high-octane rating but is 27% less energy-dense than petrol.
• Dual Role: It serves as a petrol additive and as a standalone fuel (E85, E100) in flex-fuel cars.
• Non-Fuel Use: Ethanol is also used in sanitisers, perfumes, beverages, and industrial solvents.
• By-Products: Distillers’ dried grains (DDGS) from grain ethanol are reused as animal feed.

Answer: (c) Sugarcane

With reference to the evolution of living organisms, which one of the following sequences is correct?

1. Octopus – Dolphin – Shark
2. Pangolin – Tortoise – Hawk
3. Salamander – Python – Kangaroo
4. Frog – Crab – Prawn

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Evolutionary sequence broadly follows: amphibians → reptiles → mammals. Salamander is an amphibian, Python is a reptile, and Kangaroo is a mammal.

Answer: (c) Salamander – Python – Kangaroo

The Panda belongs to the same family as that of

1. Bear
2. Cat
3. Dog
4. Rabbit

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Giant Panda belongs to the family Ursidae, which is the bear family. Despite dietary similarity with herbivores, it is taxonomically classified as a bear.

Answer: (a) Bear

In India, which one of the following States has the largest inland saline wetland?

1. Gujarat
2. Haryana
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Rajasthan

Explanation

• Sambhar Lake, located in Rajasthan, is the largest inland saline wetland in India. It is a Ramsar Site and an important habitat for migratory birds. It is a key wintering area for Flamingos (LC).

Answer: (d) Rajasthan

The brothers Umakant and Ramakant Gundecha are

1. Dhrupad vocalists
2. Kathak dancers
3. Sarod maestros
4. Tabla players

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Umakant and Ramakant Gundecha, popularly known as the Gundecha Brothers, are renowned Dhrupad vocalists. They are leading exponents of the Dagar bani of the Dhrupad tradition.

Answer: (a) Dhrupad vocalists

The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an

1. Amphibian
2. Bony fish
3. Shark
4. Mammal

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Dugong/Sea Cow is a marine mammal.
• Dugongidae Family: It is the only surviving species in the Dugongidae family. Their close relative, Steller’s Sea Cow, was hunted to extinction in the 18th century.
• Physical Adaptation: Its cylindrical body, paddle-like flippers, rounded snout, and muscular upper lip are adapted for grazing on seagrass beds.
• Demographic Vulnerability: Dugongs can live up to 70 years but reproduce very slowly. Calves are born only every 3 to 7 years.
• Preferred Habitat: They thrive in warm, shallow, sheltered coastal waters less than ten meters deep. Dense seagrass beds provide food and shelter.
• Dietary Impact: An adult dugong consumes 30 to 40 kilograms of seagrass daily, which helps keep seagrass meadows healthy and prevents sediment overgrowth.
• Global Distribution: Dugongs inhabit warm waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans, with a major population in northern Australia and the Arabian Gulf.
• Indian Range: A small population is found in Palk Bay, Gulf of Mannar, Andaman Nicobar Islands, and Gulf of Kutch. They are extinct in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
• Ecosystem Role: By grazing continuously, dugongs act as “ecosystem engineers.” They support seagrass health, help fish nurseries, and maintain the coastal food web.
• Primary Threats: Gillnet entanglement, vessel collisions, habitat loss, and illegal hunting.
• Conservation Status: IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES: Appendix I; WPA: Schedule I.

Answer: (d) Mammal

Consider the following countries:

1. Brunei Darussalam
2. East Timor
3. Laos

Which of the above is/are member/members of ASEAN?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Brunei Darussalam joined ASEAN in January 1984.
• Laos became an ASEAN member in July 1997.
• East Timor (Timor-Leste) became the 11th member of ASEAN in October 2025

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following countries:

1. Switzerland
2. Malta
3. Bulgaria

Which of the above are members of the European Union?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

2 and 3 are members of the European Union

• The European Union is a group of 27 countries that operate as a cohesive economic and political block.
• Switzerland is not a member.

.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Consider the following countries:

1. Australia
2. Namibia
3. Brazil
4. Chile

Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?

1. 1 only
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Tropic of Capricorn passes through 10 countries across three continents: South America (Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, Brazil), Africa (Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique, Madagascar), and Australia.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following?

1. Aluminium
2. Chromium
3. Iron
4. Silicon

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Earth’s core is composed mainly of iron and nickel (NiFe).

Answer: (c) Iron

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

City	River
a) Berlin	Rhine
b) London	Thames
c) New York	Hudson
d) Vienna	Danube

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• Berlin is located on the banks of the River Spree, which is a tributary of the River Havel in northeastern Germany.
• The Rhine River is one of the most important rivers in Europe. Originating in the Swiss Alps, it flows for about 1,236 km through Switzerland, Germany, France, and the Netherlands before draining into the North Sea.
• The Thames is the longest river in England (346 km) and the second-longest in the UK, flowing through southern England from the Cotswold Hills to the North Sea.
• New York City is associated with the Hudson River, which flows from the Adirondack Mountains into the Atlantic Ocean.
• The Danube River, Europe’s second-longest river after the Volga, originates in the Black Forest region of Germany and flows for about 2,860 km before emptying into the Black Sea through the Danube Delta. It is one of the world’s most international rivers, flowing through or bordering ten countries — Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Romania, Bulgaria, Moldova, and Ukraine — making it the river that passes through the second-highest number of countries after the Nile. Several major European capitals and cities, including Vienna, Bratislava, Budapest, and Belgrade, are located along its banks.

City	River
Berlin	Spree River
London	Thames
New York	Hudson
Vienna	Danube

Answer: (a) Berlin-Rhine

Match the temples with States

List I	List II
A. Vidyashankara Temple	1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Rajarani Temple	2. Karnataka Temple
C. Kandariya Mahadeo Temple	3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bhimesvara Temple	4. Orissa

Codes:

A B C D

1. 2 4 3 1
2. 2 3 4 1
3. 1 4 3 2
4. 1 3 4 2

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

List I	List II
A. Vidyashankara Temple	1. Karnataka
B. Rajarani Temple	2. Orissa
C. Kandariya Mahadeo Temple	3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bhimesvara Temple	4. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (a) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1

Consider the following statements:

1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt.
2. In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Major tropical (hot) deserts are generally found along the western edges of continents between about 15° and 30° latitude, where subtropical high-pressure belts and offshore trade winds suppress rainfall, giving rise to trade-wind (coastal) deserts.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The heavy rainfall in the eastern Himalayan region is mainly caused by the Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon, which carries moisture inland and leads to orographic rainfall along the eastern Himalaya; it is not due to northeast winds.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Geographic feature)	List II (Country)
A) Great Victoria Desert	1. Australia
B) Grand Canyon	2. Canada
C) Lake Winnipeg	3. New Zealand
D) Southern Alps	4. USA

Codes:

A B C D

1. 1 2 4 3
2. 1 4 2 3
3. 3 2 4 1
4. 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Great Victoria Desert, the largest desert in Australia, extends across parts of Western Australia and South Australia. It is a vast arid region dominated by extensive sandy terrain and parallel dune systems that generally run in an east–west direction. The desert landscape is characterised by sand hills, salt lakes, and hardy vegetation such as spinifex grass, which is well adapted to dry climatic conditions. To its south lies the Nullarbor Plain, one of the world’s largest limestone bedrock plains, known for its flat and almost treeless landscape.
• The Grand Canyon in northwestern Arizona (USA) is a massive gorge carved over millions of years by the Colorado River. The canyon lies within the Colorado Plateau. It is over 400 km long, up to 29 km wide and attains a depth of over a mile in some places. It runs through the heart of Grand Canyon National Park.
• Lake Winnipeg is located in south-central Manitoba, Canada, at the southwestern edge of the Canadian Shield. It is fed by numerous rivers, such as the Saskatchewan, Red, and Winnipeg. The lake is drained to the northeast by the Nelson River into Hudson Bay.
• The Southern Alps, located on the South Island of New Zealand, are the country’s major mountain range, with elevations ranging from about 900 to 3,000 metres. Aoraki / Mount Cook is the highest peak in the range. The mountains act as a climatic barrier, with the western slopes receiving heavy rainfall and supporting dense forests, while the eastern rain-shadow region contains fertile pasture lands and the extensive Canterbury Plains.

List I (Geographic feature)	List II (Country)
Great Victoria Desert	Australia
Grand Canyon	USA
Lake Winnipeg	Canada
Southern Alps	New Zealand

Answer: (b) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3

Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?

1. Beas
2. Chenab
3. Ravi
4. Sutlej

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

Among the four rivers, the Sutlej is the only one that originates outside present-day India. It rises near the Manasarovar–Rakas (Rakshastal) lakes on the Tibetan Plateau close to Mount Kailash before entering India. The Beas River originates from Beas Kund near the Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh, while the Ravi River, a transboundary river, rises near the Rohtang Pass in the Kullu Hills and flows through the Chamba Valley before joining the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu in Pakistan. The Chenab River, the largest tributary of the Indus, is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga streams, which originate near the Baralacha La Pass in the Lahaul and Spiti region of Himachal Pradesh and meet at Tandi.

Answer: (d) Sutlej

In the context of independent India’s economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place?

1. Nationalisation of Insurance companies
2. Nationalisation of State Bank of India
3. Enactment of Banking Regulation Act
4. Introduction of First Five-Year Plan

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Banking Regulation Act was enacted in 1949, soon after independence. The First Five-Year Plan started in 1951, the State Bank of India was nationalised in 1955, and insurance companies were nationalised much later in 1956 (life) and 1972 (general). Hence, the Banking Regulation Act is the earliest event.

Answer: (c) Banking Regulation Act

Which one among the following has the highest energy?

1. Blue light
2. Green light
3. Red light
4. Yellow light

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The wavelengths of visible light are:
  • Violet: 380–450 nm (688–789 THz frequency)
  • Blue: 450–495 nm
  • Green: 495–570 nm
  • Yellow: 570–590 nm
  • Orange: 590–620 nm
  • Red: 620–750 nm (400–484 THz frequency)

Answer: (a) Blue Light

The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following?

1. Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro
2. Kyoto Protocol
3. Montreal Protocol
4. G-8 Summit, Heiligendamm

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Globally, the concept of carbon credits and carbon trading originated from the Kyoto Protocol of UNFCCC in 1997. A carbon credit (also known as a carbon offset) is a tradable certificate or permit representing the reduction or removal of one tonne of carbon dioxide or its equivalent greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. Carbon credits are part of global efforts to mitigate the rising concentration of greenhouse gases (GHGs) and combat climate change. These credits can be generated through activities such as afforestation, renewable energy projects, carbon dioxide sequestration, methane capture, and through trading mechanisms in carbon markets or exchanges.

Answer: (b) Kyoto Protocol

Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched, is located on the coast of

1. Florida
2. Virginia
3. North Carolina
4. South Carolina

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Cape Canaveral is located on the Atlantic coast of Florida and hosts major US space launch facilities, including NASA’s Kennedy Space Center.

Answer: (a) Florida

At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate, while one flows northward to merge with another major river flowing towards the Bay of Bengal and the other flows towards the Arabian Sea?

1. Amarkantak
2. Badrinath
3. Mahabaleshwar
4. Nasik

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Narmada originates from Amarkantak and flows westward into the Arabian Sea. Son also originates near Amarkantak and flows northward to join the Ganga system, which drains into the Bay of Bengal.

Answer: (a) Amarkantak

Which of the following scientists proved that stars with mass less than 1.44 times the mass of the Sun end up as white dwarfs when they die?

1. Edwin Hubble
2. S. Chandrasekhar
3. Stephen Hawking
4. Steven Weinberg

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar’s groundbreaking work in astrophysics led to the establishment of the upper mass limit for white dwarf stars, known as the Chandrasekhar limit, which is approximately 1.4 times the mass of the Sun. White dwarf stars, which are remnants of stars that have exhausted their nuclear fuel, exhibit extreme densities that challenge conventional understandings of stellar behaviour. Chandrasekhar’s calculations demonstrated that for white dwarfs exceeding this mass limit, electron degeneracy pressure—a quantum-mechanical effect that prevents further collapse—would be insufficient to counteract gravitational forces, leading to continued contraction.

Answer: (b) S. Chandrasekhar

Mahamastakabhisheka, a great religious event, is associated with and done for which of the following?

1. Bahubali
2. Buddha
3. Mahavir
4. Nataraja

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Mahamastakabhisheka is a major Jain festival held once every 12 years in Shravanabelagola, Karnataka, centred on the anointing of the 57-foot-tall monolithic statue of Lord Bahubali (Gommateshwara). He was the son of Rishabhanatha, the first of the 24 Jain Tirthankaras.

Answer: (a) Bahubali

Consider the following pairs:

Tradition	State
1. Gatka, a traditional martial art	Kerala
2. Madhubani, a traditional painting	Bihar
3. Singhey Khababs Sindhu Darshan Festival	Jammu and Kashmir

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Gatka originated in the Punjab in the 15th century. It is a style of stick-fighting, with wooden sticks intended to simulate swords. Gatka’s theory and techniques were taught by the Sikh gurus.

Pair 2 is correct

• Region: Originating from the Mithila region (Bihar) of India and Nepal, dates back to the 7th century AD.

Pair 3 is correct

• The Sindhu Darshan Festival is an annual three-day celebration held in June on the banks of the Indus River at Shey Manla, Leh, Ladakh, honouring the river as a symbol of national unity and communal harmony. Initiated in 1997, the festival features cultural performances, multi-faith prayers, and a ritual where water from different Indian rivers is immersed in the Sindhu.
• NOTE: Post the 2019 bifurcation of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, only Pair 2 holds true

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Among the following, who are the Agaria community?

1. A traditional toddy tappers community of Andhra Pradesh
2. A traditional fishing community of Maharashtra
3. A traditional silk-weaving community of Karnataka
4. A traditional salt pan workers community of Gujarat

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Agarias are a traditional community engaged in salt production in the Little Rann of Kutch, Gujarat.

Answer: (d) A traditional salt pan workers community of Gujarat

Where is the famous Virupaksha Temple located?

1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chidambaram
3. Hampi
4. Srikalahasti

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Virupaksha Temple is located at Hampi, Karnataka. It dates back to the 7th century AD, built by early rulers of the Chalukya dynasty. The temple was expanded by Lakkan Dandesha, a chieftain under the rule of Deva Raya II (Prauda Deva Raya) of the Vijayanagara Empire. Later, during the reign of King Krishnadevaraya in early 16th century. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva, known here as Virupaksha/Pampa pathi (worshipped in the form of linga), as the consort of the local goddess Pampadevi, who is associated with the Tungabhadra River.

Answer: (c) Hampi

Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of uranium?

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Russian Federation
4. USA

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Top 5 Countries with the Largest Uranium Reserves:
  • Australia: Largest uranium reserves globally with 3.6 million tonnes, home to some of the richest ore, making it the leading nuclear fuel resource nation.
  • Kazakhstan: World’s top uranium producer, supplying about 40% of global output annually; holds nearly 3 million tonnes, mainly via in-situ leaching.
  • Canada: Third in reserves with 1.7 million tonnes; the Athabasca Basin hosts the highest-grade uranium deposits in the world.
  • Russia: Around 1.2 million tonnes of reserves, powering its civil nuclear plants and military programmes.
  • Namibia: Africa’s uranium hub, with about 1 million tonnes, exports most of its supply to Europe & Asia.

Answer: (a) Australia

Consider the following statements:

1. India does not have any deposits of Thorium.
2. Kerala’s monazite sands contain Uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• India has the world’s largest Thorium resource of around 1 million tonnes, followed by Brazil, Australia, the USA, and Egypt.
• Thorium deposits are found in:
  • Eastern coast: Tamil Nadu (Manavalakurichi – richest deposit), Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.
  • Western coast: Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Kerala.
  • Minor inland deposits: Jharkhand, Rajasthan, and Chhattisgarh.
• India has limited reserves of uranium but its thorium reserves are very large.

Statement 2 is correct

Monazite sands comprise the largest source of uranium (over 15,200 tonnes of uranium is estimated to be contained in monazite). Monazite sands occur on the east and west coasts, with the largest concentration on the Kerala coast, and in some areas in Bihar

Answer: (b) 2 only

Which of the following Prime Ministers sent the Cripps Mission to India?

1. James Ramsay MacDonald
2. Stanley Baldwin
3. Neville Chamberlain
4. Winston Churchill

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Cripps Mission was sent to India in March 1942 during the Second World War. At that time, Winston Churchill was the Prime Minister of Britain. The mission was led by Sir Stafford Cripps.

Answer: (d) Winston Churchill

Which of the following is the author of the collection of poems called “Golden Threshold”?

1. Aruna Asaf Ali
2. Annie Besant
3. Sarojini Naidu
4. Vijayalakshmi Pandit

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Golden Threshold is an anthology of poems written by Sarojini Naidu. The text was published in 1905 when Naidu was only 26 years old. The selection of poems within The Golden Threshold was inspired by her own life and is written in English diction. The poems present a variety of themes, including romance, nature, and spirituality. Naidu utilises them to express orientalism, cosmopolitan nationalism, and Indian feminisation.
• Other Key Publications: The Bird of Time (1915), The Broken Wing (1919), The Sceptred Flute (1948), The Feather of the Dawn (1961, posthumously edited by her daughter).

Answer: (c) Sarojini Naidu

Consider the following statements:

1. The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on a union of British Indian provinces and princely states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• The Third Round Table Conference (1932) influenced constitutional reforms. These discussions culminated in the Government of India Act, 1935, the most comprehensive constitutional act under British rule. The Act proposed an All India Federation of provinces and princely states (though it never came into force).

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, who established Hindu College at Calcutta?

1. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
3. Keshab Chandra Sen
4. Raja Rammohan Roy

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The establishment of Hindu College (later Presidency College) in Calcutta by David Hare and the Bengali elite promoted secular education among Indians. Hindu College was India’s first Western-style secular college. Raja Rammohan Roy helped David Hare in establishing a Hindu college.

Answer: (d) Raja Rammohan Roy

During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did the Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?

1. It curtailed the freedom of religion
2. It suppressed Indian traditional education
3. It authorised the government to imprison people without trial
4. It curbed trade union activities

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Rowlatt Act, 1919, empowered the British government to arrest and detain individuals without trial. This violated civil liberties and led to widespread protests, including the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Answer: (c) It authorised the government to imprison people without trial

Which one of the following began with the Dandi March?

1. Home Rule Movement
2. Non-Cooperation Movement
3. Civil Disobedience Movement
4. Quit India Movement

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Dandi March (1930) led by Mahatma Gandhi marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement, aimed at breaking the salt law and challenging British authority.

Answer: (c) Civil Disobedience Movement

Anekāntavāda is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?

1. Buddhism
2. Jainism
3. Sikhism
4. Vaishnavism

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Anekāntavāda means the doctrine of multiple viewpoints. It is a central philosophy of Jainism, emphasising that truth is complex and cannot be understood from a single perspective.

Answer: (b) Jainism

With which one of the following movements is the slogan “Do or Die” associated?

1. Swadeshi Movement
2. Non-Cooperation Movement
3. Civil Disobedience Movement
4. Quit India Movement

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The slogan “Do or Die” was given by Mahatma Gandhi during the Quit India Movement (1942), calling for an immediate end to British rule.

Answer: (d) Quit India Movement

Who of the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association?

1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3. N.M. Joshi
4. J.B. Kripalani

Explanation

• Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association (Majur Mahajan) was formed by Gandhiji in 1920.

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi

In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, 16th October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons?

1. Formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement
2. Partition of Bengal took effect
3. INC declared Swaraj as its goal
4. Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• On 16 October 1905, the Partition of Bengal was implemented by Lord Curzon. This triggered the Swadeshi and Boycott Movements across India.

Answer: (b) Partition of Bengal took effect

Consider the following statements:

1. Infant Mortality Rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth.
2. Infant Mortality Rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Infant mortality rate is the probability of a child born in a specific year or period dying before reaching the age of one.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths per 1,000 live births.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within

1. 1 month
2. 3 months
3. 6 months
4. 1 year

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are required to be held within six months from the date of its dissolution, as per Article 243E of the Indian Constitution. The newly elected Panchayat serves only for the remainder of the original term, not a full five years, unless the remaining term is less than six months

Answer: (c) 6 months

Consider the following pairs:

Organization	Location of Headquarters
1. Asian Development Bank	Tokyo
2. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation	Singapore
3. Association of South East Asian Nations	Bangkok

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect

• Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a financial institution established in 1966. It has its headquarters in Manila, Philippines.

Pair 2 is correct

• Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a premier, 21-member inter-governmental forum established in 1989 to promote free trade, economic growth, and regional integration across the Pacific Rim. Headquartered in Singapore, it represents ~62% of world GDP.

Pair 3 is incorrect

• The ASEAN Headquarters in South Jakarta, Indonesia.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha)?

1. 90^th
2. 91^st
3. 92^nd
4. 93^rd

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Based on the 91^st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, which amended Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the total strength of the Council of Ministers (including the Prime Minister) is restricted to a maximum of 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (b) 91^st

In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?

1. Calcutta
2. Madras
3. Bombay
4. Delhi

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Greater Chennai Corporation (previously Madras) is the Oldest Municipal Institution in India established on the 29th September 1688.

Answer: (b) Madras

With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:

1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court, and no appeal lies against it before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, an award made by a Lok Adalat is legally deemed a decree of a civil court, making it final and binding on all parties. Because the decision is based on a compromise or settlement, no appeal lies against it before any court, ensuring swift dispute resolution.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Family disputes like property requisition, financial disputes and matrimonial issues are widely and effectively solved by the Lok Adalats.

Answer: (a) 1 only