You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – January 21-22 2024 "
0 of 12 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
Average score
Your score
Not categorized
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Your result has been entered into leaderboard
Loading
maximum of 12 points
Pos.
Name
Entered on
Points
Result
Table is loading
No data available
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Answered
Review
Question 1 of 12
1. Question
Q1. {IR – India – Iran} Consider the following statements with respect to Chabahar Port:
It is Iran’s first deep-water port that is located on the Gulf of Oman.
It is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
India has invested in Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari ports under the Chabahar Project.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Chabahar Port is Iran’s first deep-water port that is located on the Gulf of Oman.
Chabahar is of strategic importance to both Iran and India.
India’s involvement in the development of the port began in 2002.
India, Iran, and Afghanistan signed a trilateral agreement in April 2016, after which the Indian Shipping Ministry worked at a rapid pace towards developing the port.
Statement 2 is correct
Chabahar Port is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
INSTC is a multi-modal transportation project linking the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulfto theCaspian Sea via Iran, and onward to northern Europe via St Petersburg in Russia.
Statement 3 is incorrect
There are two distinct ports in the Chabahar project, Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
India’s investment is restricted to the Shahid Beheshti port.
Answer: (c) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Chabahar Port is Iran’s first deep-water port that is located on the Gulf of Oman.
Chabahar is of strategic importance to both Iran and India.
India’s involvement in the development of the port began in 2002.
India, Iran, and Afghanistan signed a trilateral agreement in April 2016, after which the Indian Shipping Ministry worked at a rapid pace towards developing the port.
Statement 2 is correct
Chabahar Port is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
INSTC is a multi-modal transportation project linking the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulfto theCaspian Sea via Iran, and onward to northern Europe via St Petersburg in Russia.
Statement 3 is incorrect
There are two distinct ports in the Chabahar project, Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
India’s investment is restricted to the Shahid Beheshti port.
Answer: (c) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Chabahar Port is Iran’s first deep-water port that is located on the Gulf of Oman.
Chabahar is of strategic importance to both Iran and India.
India’s involvement in the development of the port began in 2002.
India, Iran, and Afghanistan signed a trilateral agreement in April 2016, after which the Indian Shipping Ministry worked at a rapid pace towards developing the port.
Statement 2 is correct
Chabahar Port is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
INSTC is a multi-modal transportation project linking the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulfto theCaspian Sea via Iran, and onward to northern Europe via St Petersburg in Russia.
Statement 3 is incorrect
There are two distinct ports in the Chabahar project, Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
India’s investment is restricted to the Shahid Beheshti port.
Answer: (c) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 12
2. Question
Q2. {Sci – Bio – Diseases} Consider the following statements about Scrub Typhus:
Scrub typhus is an infectious seasonal disease caused by virus and transmitted through infected bats.
In Northeast India, cases of scrub typhus witness a spike from the month of July till the month of November.
There is no vaccination for this disease.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Scrub typhus is an infectious disease caused bybacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted through infected mites.
“Mite” is a term commonly used to refer to a group of insect-like organisms, some of which bite or cause irritation to humans.
They are more common in old age people who are more than 60 years, with a prevalence rate of 21.1%.
As for socioeconomic status, farmers, daily wage labourers, and housewives were more likely to contract the disease.
Statement 2 is correct
The meteorological factors like temperature, rainfall and humidity, along with socioeconomic factors, impact the prevalence of scrub typhus.
An increase in rainfall and humidity lead to a spike in cases of Scrub typhus.
This disease tends to be seasonal in the endemic areas.
In Northeast India, cases of scrub typhus occur from July to November in Manipur, July to October in Sikkim and September to November in Darjeeling.
Statement 3 is correct
It should be treated with the antibiotic doxycycline.
Doxycycline can be used in persons of any age.
Antibiotics are most effective if given soon after symptoms begin.
People who are treated early with doxycycline usually recover quickly.
No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Scrub typhus is an infectious disease caused bybacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted through infected mites.
“Mite” is a term commonly used to refer to a group of insect-like organisms, some of which bite or cause irritation to humans.
They are more common in old age people who are more than 60 years, with a prevalence rate of 21.1%.
As for socioeconomic status, farmers, daily wage labourers, and housewives were more likely to contract the disease.
Statement 2 is correct
The meteorological factors like temperature, rainfall and humidity, along with socioeconomic factors, impact the prevalence of scrub typhus.
An increase in rainfall and humidity lead to a spike in cases of Scrub typhus.
This disease tends to be seasonal in the endemic areas.
In Northeast India, cases of scrub typhus occur from July to November in Manipur, July to October in Sikkim and September to November in Darjeeling.
Statement 3 is correct
It should be treated with the antibiotic doxycycline.
Doxycycline can be used in persons of any age.
Antibiotics are most effective if given soon after symptoms begin.
People who are treated early with doxycycline usually recover quickly.
No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Scrub typhus is an infectious disease caused bybacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi and transmitted through infected mites.
“Mite” is a term commonly used to refer to a group of insect-like organisms, some of which bite or cause irritation to humans.
They are more common in old age people who are more than 60 years, with a prevalence rate of 21.1%.
As for socioeconomic status, farmers, daily wage labourers, and housewives were more likely to contract the disease.
Statement 2 is correct
The meteorological factors like temperature, rainfall and humidity, along with socioeconomic factors, impact the prevalence of scrub typhus.
An increase in rainfall and humidity lead to a spike in cases of Scrub typhus.
This disease tends to be seasonal in the endemic areas.
In Northeast India, cases of scrub typhus occur from July to November in Manipur, July to October in Sikkim and September to November in Darjeeling.
Statement 3 is correct
It should be treated with the antibiotic doxycycline.
Doxycycline can be used in persons of any age.
Antibiotics are most effective if given soon after symptoms begin.
People who are treated early with doxycycline usually recover quickly.
No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 12
3. Question
Q3. {IR – India – Iran} With reference to the India-Iran relations, consider the following statements:
Bilateral ties deteriorated after India stopped Iranian oil imports following US exiting the Iran nuclear deal and imposing sanctions against Iran.
India’s relationship with Iran is strategically important for securing its interest of accessing the Leviathan Gas Field in Israel.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) has both India and Iran as members, contributing to their diplomatic ties.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
In 2018, the United States withdrew from the Iran nuclear deal and re-imposed sanctions on Iran, including on its oil exports.
India, which was a major importer of Iranian oil, had to reduce its imports significantly to avoid US sanctions. This led to a deterioration in bilateral ties between India and Iran.
Statement 2 is incorrect
India’s relationship with Iran is not directly related to accessing the Leviathan Gas Field in Israel.
While India has shown interest in importing natural gas from Israel, including from the Leviathan field, this is a separate bilateral engagement and does not involve Iran.
Statement 3 is correct
Both India and Iran are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).
The shared membership in SCO provides a platform for India and Iran to engage in diplomatic and economic cooperation, as well as discussing regional security issues.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
In 2018, the United States withdrew from the Iran nuclear deal and re-imposed sanctions on Iran, including on its oil exports.
India, which was a major importer of Iranian oil, had to reduce its imports significantly to avoid US sanctions. This led to a deterioration in bilateral ties between India and Iran.
Statement 2 is incorrect
India’s relationship with Iran is not directly related to accessing the Leviathan Gas Field in Israel.
While India has shown interest in importing natural gas from Israel, including from the Leviathan field, this is a separate bilateral engagement and does not involve Iran.
Statement 3 is correct
Both India and Iran are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).
The shared membership in SCO provides a platform for India and Iran to engage in diplomatic and economic cooperation, as well as discussing regional security issues.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
In 2018, the United States withdrew from the Iran nuclear deal and re-imposed sanctions on Iran, including on its oil exports.
India, which was a major importer of Iranian oil, had to reduce its imports significantly to avoid US sanctions. This led to a deterioration in bilateral ties between India and Iran.
Statement 2 is incorrect
India’s relationship with Iran is not directly related to accessing the Leviathan Gas Field in Israel.
While India has shown interest in importing natural gas from Israel, including from the Leviathan field, this is a separate bilateral engagement and does not involve Iran.
Statement 3 is correct
Both India and Iran are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).
The shared membership in SCO provides a platform for India and Iran to engage in diplomatic and economic cooperation, as well as discussing regional security issues.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 12
4. Question
Q4. {IE – Securities} Consider the following statements about Trading Accounts:
A Trading Account only helps in buying and selling of securities, it doesn’t hold any financial securities.
A Trading Account can be opened with depositories with help from Depository Participants.
A Broker, with whom the trading account is registered, cannot sell or buy securities on your behalf.
An investor can open a joint demat account to a trading account.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trading Account serves as a link between your bank account and your Demat account.
A trading account is a digital account where investors can purchase and sell shares and other securities.
Trading accounts facilitate the placement of buy and sell orders on exchanges.
Unlike a Demat Account, it cannot be used to store shares and other securities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Only a SEBI-registered stockbroker provides a trading account.
There is a unique ID or number assigned to each trading account, depending on the stockbroker.
Most stockbrokers do not charge fees for trading accounts. However, for trades executed through this account, a brokerage fee will be charged.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Brokers may buy and sell stocks as they see fit in a discretionary trading account, as long as the trades are in line with your investment policy statement and risk preferences.
A brokerage may also sell stocks automatically in your margin account to satisfy an unmet margin call.
Moreover, if yourleveraged long positions start to lose money and your margin equity level has fallen below the firm’s maintenance margin requirements, the brokerage has every right to sell your securities without contacting you or obtaining your permission.
Statement 4 is incorrect
No, an investor cannot open a joint demat account to a trading account.
Only one name is used to open a trading account.
This also means that each trading account is associated with the unique PAN number of the investor.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trading Account serves as a link between your bank account and your Demat account.
A trading account is a digital account where investors can purchase and sell shares and other securities.
Trading accounts facilitate the placement of buy and sell orders on exchanges.
Unlike a Demat Account, it cannot be used to store shares and other securities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Only a SEBI-registered stockbroker provides a trading account.
There is a unique ID or number assigned to each trading account, depending on the stockbroker.
Most stockbrokers do not charge fees for trading accounts. However, for trades executed through this account, a brokerage fee will be charged.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Brokers may buy and sell stocks as they see fit in a discretionary trading account, as long as the trades are in line with your investment policy statement and risk preferences.
A brokerage may also sell stocks automatically in your margin account to satisfy an unmet margin call.
Moreover, if yourleveraged long positions start to lose money and your margin equity level has fallen below the firm’s maintenance margin requirements, the brokerage has every right to sell your securities without contacting you or obtaining your permission.
Statement 4 is incorrect
No, an investor cannot open a joint demat account to a trading account.
Only one name is used to open a trading account.
This also means that each trading account is associated with the unique PAN number of the investor.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Trading Account serves as a link between your bank account and your Demat account.
A trading account is a digital account where investors can purchase and sell shares and other securities.
Trading accounts facilitate the placement of buy and sell orders on exchanges.
Unlike a Demat Account, it cannot be used to store shares and other securities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Only a SEBI-registered stockbroker provides a trading account.
There is a unique ID or number assigned to each trading account, depending on the stockbroker.
Most stockbrokers do not charge fees for trading accounts. However, for trades executed through this account, a brokerage fee will be charged.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Brokers may buy and sell stocks as they see fit in a discretionary trading account, as long as the trades are in line with your investment policy statement and risk preferences.
A brokerage may also sell stocks automatically in your margin account to satisfy an unmet margin call.
Moreover, if yourleveraged long positions start to lose money and your margin equity level has fallen below the firm’s maintenance margin requirements, the brokerage has every right to sell your securities without contacting you or obtaining your permission.
Statement 4 is incorrect
No, an investor cannot open a joint demat account to a trading account.
Only one name is used to open a trading account.
This also means that each trading account is associated with the unique PAN number of the investor.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 5 of 12
5. Question
Q5. {A&C – Architecture} Consider the following statements with respect to Nagara Architecture:
It emerged during the 5th century CE, during the late Gupta period.
The nagara style temples usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
The garbhagriha in the nagara style temples is always located directly under the tallest tower.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Nagara Architecture emerged during the 5th century CE, during the late Gupta period.
In North India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as Nagara.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Unlike in South India, Nagara temples does not usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the shikhara that includes,
Rekha-Prasada or Phamsana – Shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘latina’ or the rekha-prasada type of shikara.
Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones.
Phamsana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline.
Valabhi are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.
The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times.
From the tenth century onwards, composite Latinas began to emerge, giving rise to Shekhari and Bhumija styles.
The Shekhari shape has attached sub-spires or spirelets, echoing the main shape. These may run up most of the face of the shikhara and be of more than one size.
The Bhumija, on the other hand, has miniature spires, in horizontal and vertical rows, all the way to the top, creating a grid-like effect on each face.
Statement 3 is correct
The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
Nagara temples are built on a raised plinth, with the garbha griha (sanctum sanctorum), where the idol of the deity rests, which is the most sacred part of the temple.
Towering over the garbha griha is the shikhara (literally ‘mountain peak’), the most distinguishable aspect of Nagara style temples.
A typical Nagara style temple also comprises a circumambulatory passage around the garbha griha, and one or more mandapas (halls) on the same axis as it.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Nagara Architecture emerged during the 5th century CE, during the late Gupta period.
In North India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as Nagara.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Unlike in South India, Nagara temples does not usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the shikhara that includes,
Rekha-Prasada or Phamsana – Shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘latina’ or the rekha-prasada type of shikara.
Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones.
Phamsana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline.
Valabhi are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.
The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times.
From the tenth century onwards, composite Latinas began to emerge, giving rise to Shekhari and Bhumija styles.
The Shekhari shape has attached sub-spires or spirelets, echoing the main shape. These may run up most of the face of the shikhara and be of more than one size.
The Bhumija, on the other hand, has miniature spires, in horizontal and vertical rows, all the way to the top, creating a grid-like effect on each face.
Statement 3 is correct
The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
Nagara temples are built on a raised plinth, with the garbha griha (sanctum sanctorum), where the idol of the deity rests, which is the most sacred part of the temple.
Towering over the garbha griha is the shikhara (literally ‘mountain peak’), the most distinguishable aspect of Nagara style temples.
A typical Nagara style temple also comprises a circumambulatory passage around the garbha griha, and one or more mandapas (halls) on the same axis as it.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Nagara Architecture emerged during the 5th century CE, during the late Gupta period.
In North India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as Nagara.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Unlike in South India, Nagara temples does not usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the shikhara that includes,
Rekha-Prasada or Phamsana – Shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘latina’ or the rekha-prasada type of shikara.
Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones.
Phamsana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline.
Valabhi are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.
The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times.
From the tenth century onwards, composite Latinas began to emerge, giving rise to Shekhari and Bhumija styles.
The Shekhari shape has attached sub-spires or spirelets, echoing the main shape. These may run up most of the face of the shikhara and be of more than one size.
The Bhumija, on the other hand, has miniature spires, in horizontal and vertical rows, all the way to the top, creating a grid-like effect on each face.
Statement 3 is correct
The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
Nagara temples are built on a raised plinth, with the garbha griha (sanctum sanctorum), where the idol of the deity rests, which is the most sacred part of the temple.
Towering over the garbha griha is the shikhara (literally ‘mountain peak’), the most distinguishable aspect of Nagara style temples.
A typical Nagara style temple also comprises a circumambulatory passage around the garbha griha, and one or more mandapas (halls) on the same axis as it.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 6 of 12
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – In News} Which one of the following is the primary objective of the National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL), seen in the news recently?
Correct
Explanation
The primary objective of the National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) is to ensure that people have access to affordable and essential diagnostic tests as part of primary healthcare.
The NEDL is a list of diagnostic tests that are essential for the diagnosis and management of common diseases in a particular country or region.
These facilities include primary health centers, health and wellness centers, sub-health centers, and the village level.
Answer: (c) To ensure access to affordable and essential diagnostic tests in primary healthcare; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
The primary objective of the National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) is to ensure that people have access to affordable and essential diagnostic tests as part of primary healthcare.
The NEDL is a list of diagnostic tests that are essential for the diagnosis and management of common diseases in a particular country or region.
These facilities include primary health centers, health and wellness centers, sub-health centers, and the village level.
Answer: (c) To ensure access to affordable and essential diagnostic tests in primary healthcare; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
The primary objective of the National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) is to ensure that people have access to affordable and essential diagnostic tests as part of primary healthcare.
The NEDL is a list of diagnostic tests that are essential for the diagnosis and management of common diseases in a particular country or region.
These facilities include primary health centers, health and wellness centers, sub-health centers, and the village level.
Answer: (c) To ensure access to affordable and essential diagnostic tests in primary healthcare; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 7 of 12
7. Question
Q7. {MoCA – Schemes} Which one of the following is the primary objectives of the Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR)?
Correct
Explanation
Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR) are a set of standards, practices, and guidelines issued by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in India to maintain the highest standards of safety and security in civil aviation.
The primary objective of CAR is to ensure the safety and security of aircraft, passengers, and crew.
Answer: (c) It aims to maintain the highest standards of safety and security in civil aviation; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR) are a set of standards, practices, and guidelines issued by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in India to maintain the highest standards of safety and security in civil aviation.
The primary objective of CAR is to ensure the safety and security of aircraft, passengers, and crew.
Answer: (c) It aims to maintain the highest standards of safety and security in civil aviation; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR) are a set of standards, practices, and guidelines issued by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in India to maintain the highest standards of safety and security in civil aviation.
The primary objective of CAR is to ensure the safety and security of aircraft, passengers, and crew.
Answer: (c) It aims to maintain the highest standards of safety and security in civil aviation; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 8 of 12
8. Question
Q8. {A&C – Personalities} Which one of the following is the collective name for the four Mathas established by Adi Shankaracharya?
Correct
Explanation
Adi Shankaracharya, an 8th-century Indian philosopher and theologian, established four mathas (monastic centers) in different parts of India to promote the teachings of Advaita Vedanta.
The four mathas established by Adi Shankaracharya are,
Dwaraka Matha in Dwarka, Gujarat
Jyotirmath in Joshimath, Uttarakhand
Govardhana Matha in Puri, Odisha
Sharada Peeth in Sringeri, Karnataka
These four mathas are collectively known as the Dashanami Sampradaya or the order of Dashanami monks.
Each matha is responsible for a specific region of India and is headed by a Shankaracharya, who is considered to be the spiritual leader of the matha.
These Mathas continue to be centres of learning and spirituality in India.
Answer: (d) Dashanami; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Adi Shankaracharya, an 8th-century Indian philosopher and theologian, established four mathas (monastic centers) in different parts of India to promote the teachings of Advaita Vedanta.
The four mathas established by Adi Shankaracharya are,
Dwaraka Matha in Dwarka, Gujarat
Jyotirmath in Joshimath, Uttarakhand
Govardhana Matha in Puri, Odisha
Sharada Peeth in Sringeri, Karnataka
These four mathas are collectively known as the Dashanami Sampradaya or the order of Dashanami monks.
Each matha is responsible for a specific region of India and is headed by a Shankaracharya, who is considered to be the spiritual leader of the matha.
These Mathas continue to be centres of learning and spirituality in India.
Answer: (d) Dashanami; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Adi Shankaracharya, an 8th-century Indian philosopher and theologian, established four mathas (monastic centers) in different parts of India to promote the teachings of Advaita Vedanta.
The four mathas established by Adi Shankaracharya are,
Dwaraka Matha in Dwarka, Gujarat
Jyotirmath in Joshimath, Uttarakhand
Govardhana Matha in Puri, Odisha
Sharada Peeth in Sringeri, Karnataka
These four mathas are collectively known as the Dashanami Sampradaya or the order of Dashanami monks.
Each matha is responsible for a specific region of India and is headed by a Shankaracharya, who is considered to be the spiritual leader of the matha.
These Mathas continue to be centres of learning and spirituality in India.
Answer: (d) Dashanami; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 9 of 12
9. Question
Q9. {Social Sector – Health – Issues} Consider the following statements:
The overuse of antibiotics in livestock can contribute to the development of antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
Antibiotics are used in livestock to make them reproduce more.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The overuse of antibiotics in livestock can contribute to Anti-Microbial Resistance due to the selective pressure it puts on bacteria, leading to the emergence of resistant strains.
AMR in animals will lead to suffering from infections that would not have otherwise occurred, increased frequency of treatment failures, and increased severity of infections.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Antibiotics are not used in livestock to make them reproduce more.
Instead, antibiotics are used to prevent and treat diseases in livestock, and in some cases, to promote growth.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The overuse of antibiotics in livestock can contribute to Anti-Microbial Resistance due to the selective pressure it puts on bacteria, leading to the emergence of resistant strains.
AMR in animals will lead to suffering from infections that would not have otherwise occurred, increased frequency of treatment failures, and increased severity of infections.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Antibiotics are not used in livestock to make them reproduce more.
Instead, antibiotics are used to prevent and treat diseases in livestock, and in some cases, to promote growth.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The overuse of antibiotics in livestock can contribute to Anti-Microbial Resistance due to the selective pressure it puts on bacteria, leading to the emergence of resistant strains.
AMR in animals will lead to suffering from infections that would not have otherwise occurred, increased frequency of treatment failures, and increased severity of infections.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Antibiotics are not used in livestock to make them reproduce more.
Instead, antibiotics are used to prevent and treat diseases in livestock, and in some cases, to promote growth.
Answer: (b) 2 Only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 10 of 12
10. Question
Q10. {Envi – Air Pollution} Which of the following statements best defines the term “Gold Hydrogen”?
Correct
Explanation
Hydrogen is abundant in the universe, but on earth it is found in relatively small amounts.
It exists primarily in the form of water (H2O), hydrocarbons and in trace amounts in the atmosphere.
The reserves of such gold hydrogen in various locations, such as the Lorraine coal basin in north-eastern France, which contains an estimated 250 million tonnes of the gas.
The discovery of smaller gold hydrogen reservoirs in Spain, across Europe, and in countries like Mali, Namibia, Brazil, and the U.S. has suggested that this resource could be available worldwide.
Gold Hydrogen is also known as white hydrogen. It refers to naturally occurring hydrogen found underground, akin to oil and natural gas.
Grey hydrogen – Derived from natural gas and emits carbon.
Blue hydrogen – Is a term for hydrogen that is manufactured from natural gas reforming and carbon capture and storage (CCS).
Brown hydrogen – Is produced by gasification, where carbonous materials are heated into a gas.
Yellow hydrogen – A renewable energy source that’s made by extracting hydrogen gas from water through electrolysis.
Turquoise hydrogen – Is a carbon-neutral hydrogen produced from natural gas through a process called pyrolysis.
Pink hydrogen – Is a type of hydrogen that is produced through electrolysispowered bynuclear energy.
Answer: (b) It refers to naturally occurring hydrogen found underground, akin to oil and natural gas; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Hydrogen is abundant in the universe, but on earth it is found in relatively small amounts.
It exists primarily in the form of water (H2O), hydrocarbons and in trace amounts in the atmosphere.
The reserves of such gold hydrogen in various locations, such as the Lorraine coal basin in north-eastern France, which contains an estimated 250 million tonnes of the gas.
The discovery of smaller gold hydrogen reservoirs in Spain, across Europe, and in countries like Mali, Namibia, Brazil, and the U.S. has suggested that this resource could be available worldwide.
Gold Hydrogen is also known as white hydrogen. It refers to naturally occurring hydrogen found underground, akin to oil and natural gas.
Grey hydrogen – Derived from natural gas and emits carbon.
Blue hydrogen – Is a term for hydrogen that is manufactured from natural gas reforming and carbon capture and storage (CCS).
Brown hydrogen – Is produced by gasification, where carbonous materials are heated into a gas.
Yellow hydrogen – A renewable energy source that’s made by extracting hydrogen gas from water through electrolysis.
Turquoise hydrogen – Is a carbon-neutral hydrogen produced from natural gas through a process called pyrolysis.
Pink hydrogen – Is a type of hydrogen that is produced through electrolysispowered bynuclear energy.
Answer: (b) It refers to naturally occurring hydrogen found underground, akin to oil and natural gas; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Hydrogen is abundant in the universe, but on earth it is found in relatively small amounts.
It exists primarily in the form of water (H2O), hydrocarbons and in trace amounts in the atmosphere.
The reserves of such gold hydrogen in various locations, such as the Lorraine coal basin in north-eastern France, which contains an estimated 250 million tonnes of the gas.
The discovery of smaller gold hydrogen reservoirs in Spain, across Europe, and in countries like Mali, Namibia, Brazil, and the U.S. has suggested that this resource could be available worldwide.
Gold Hydrogen is also known as white hydrogen. It refers to naturally occurring hydrogen found underground, akin to oil and natural gas.
Grey hydrogen – Derived from natural gas and emits carbon.
Blue hydrogen – Is a term for hydrogen that is manufactured from natural gas reforming and carbon capture and storage (CCS).
Brown hydrogen – Is produced by gasification, where carbonous materials are heated into a gas.
Yellow hydrogen – A renewable energy source that’s made by extracting hydrogen gas from water through electrolysis.
Turquoise hydrogen – Is a carbon-neutral hydrogen produced from natural gas through a process called pyrolysis.
Pink hydrogen – Is a type of hydrogen that is produced through electrolysispowered bynuclear energy.
Answer: (b) It refers to naturally occurring hydrogen found underground, akin to oil and natural gas; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 11 of 12
11. Question
Q11. {IR – Institutions} Consider the following statements with respect to Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality:
It is an initiative of India with ‘Invest India’ as an ‘Institutional Partner’.
It aims to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education, and enterprise.
The alliance will be housed and anchored by the CII Centre for Women Leadership.
How many of the above statement(s)is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality was recently launched by the India on the side-lines of the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting.
Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality is an initiative of India.
It is supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
The World Economic Forum will serve as the Network Partner for Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality
Invest India will serve as an Institutional partner for this alliance.
Statement 2 is correct
The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education and enterprise.
The Alliance has garnered support from industry leaders, including Mastercard, Uber, Tata, TVS, Bayer, Godrej, Serum Institute of India, IMD Lausanne, and over 10,000 partners from industry.
The Alliance will be taking forward the commitments of the G20 leaders for the benefit of the larger global community.
Statement 3 is correct
The alliance will be housed and anchored by the CII Centre for Women Leadership.
The idea of this alliance emerged from the G20 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s abiding commitment to the cause of women-led development as propounded byPrime Minister Narendra Modi.
Answer: (c) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality was recently launched by the India on the side-lines of the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting.
Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality is an initiative of India.
It is supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
The World Economic Forum will serve as the Network Partner for Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality
Invest India will serve as an Institutional partner for this alliance.
Statement 2 is correct
The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education and enterprise.
The Alliance has garnered support from industry leaders, including Mastercard, Uber, Tata, TVS, Bayer, Godrej, Serum Institute of India, IMD Lausanne, and over 10,000 partners from industry.
The Alliance will be taking forward the commitments of the G20 leaders for the benefit of the larger global community.
Statement 3 is correct
The alliance will be housed and anchored by the CII Centre for Women Leadership.
The idea of this alliance emerged from the G20 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s abiding commitment to the cause of women-led development as propounded byPrime Minister Narendra Modi.
Answer: (c) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality was recently launched by the India on the side-lines of the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting.
Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality is an initiative of India.
It is supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
The World Economic Forum will serve as the Network Partner for Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality
Invest India will serve as an Institutional partner for this alliance.
Statement 2 is correct
The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education and enterprise.
The Alliance has garnered support from industry leaders, including Mastercard, Uber, Tata, TVS, Bayer, Godrej, Serum Institute of India, IMD Lausanne, and over 10,000 partners from industry.
The Alliance will be taking forward the commitments of the G20 leaders for the benefit of the larger global community.
Statement 3 is correct
The alliance will be housed and anchored by the CII Centre for Women Leadership.
The idea of this alliance emerged from the G20 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s abiding commitment to the cause of women-led development as propounded byPrime Minister Narendra Modi.
Answer: (c) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 12 of 12
12. Question
Q12. {Governance – NGOs} Consider the following statements with respect to Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010:
The foreign source under the act does not include the contribution from the World Bank and International Monetary Fund.
A political party or office bearer cannot receive foreign contribution under the act.
The contributions made by a Non-Resident Indian from his personal savings, through the normal banking channels is not treated as foreign contribution.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) of 2010 regulates and prohibits the acceptance and use of foreign funds by individuals, associations or companies for activities that could harm the national interest.
The act also prohibits the use of foreign funds for activities that are detrimental to the national interest.
A foreign source under the act includes,
Sources from the Government of any foreign country or territory and any agency of such Government.
Any international agency, not being the United Nationsor any of its specialized agencies, the World Bank, International Monetary Fund.
A foreign company.
A corporation, not being a foreign company, incorporated in a foreign country or territory.
A multi-national corporation.
Foreign contribution excludes earnings from foreign client(s) by a person in lieu of goods sold or services rendered by it as this is a transaction of commercial nature.
Statement 2 is correct
Member of any legislature cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(d) of FCRA, 2010.
Any Political Party or Office bearer thereof, cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(e) of FCRA, 2010.
Any organisation of political nature cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(f) of FCRA, 2010.
Any person cannot accept foreign contribution on behalf of such organisation.
Statement 3 is correct
Contributions made by a citizen of India living in another country (i.e., non-resident Indian), from his personal savings, through normal banking channels, cannot be treated as foreign contribution.
Answer: (c) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) of 2010 regulates and prohibits the acceptance and use of foreign funds by individuals, associations or companies for activities that could harm the national interest.
The act also prohibits the use of foreign funds for activities that are detrimental to the national interest.
A foreign source under the act includes,
Sources from the Government of any foreign country or territory and any agency of such Government.
Any international agency, not being the United Nationsor any of its specialized agencies, the World Bank, International Monetary Fund.
A foreign company.
A corporation, not being a foreign company, incorporated in a foreign country or territory.
A multi-national corporation.
Foreign contribution excludes earnings from foreign client(s) by a person in lieu of goods sold or services rendered by it as this is a transaction of commercial nature.
Statement 2 is correct
Member of any legislature cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(d) of FCRA, 2010.
Any Political Party or Office bearer thereof, cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(e) of FCRA, 2010.
Any organisation of political nature cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(f) of FCRA, 2010.
Any person cannot accept foreign contribution on behalf of such organisation.
Statement 3 is correct
Contributions made by a citizen of India living in another country (i.e., non-resident Indian), from his personal savings, through normal banking channels, cannot be treated as foreign contribution.
Answer: (c) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) of 2010 regulates and prohibits the acceptance and use of foreign funds by individuals, associations or companies for activities that could harm the national interest.
The act also prohibits the use of foreign funds for activities that are detrimental to the national interest.
A foreign source under the act includes,
Sources from the Government of any foreign country or territory and any agency of such Government.
Any international agency, not being the United Nationsor any of its specialized agencies, the World Bank, International Monetary Fund.
A foreign company.
A corporation, not being a foreign company, incorporated in a foreign country or territory.
A multi-national corporation.
Foreign contribution excludes earnings from foreign client(s) by a person in lieu of goods sold or services rendered by it as this is a transaction of commercial nature.
Statement 2 is correct
Member of any legislature cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(d) of FCRA, 2010.
Any Political Party or Office bearer thereof, cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(e) of FCRA, 2010.
Any organisation of political nature cannot accept any foreign contribution as per section 3(1)(f) of FCRA, 2010.
Any person cannot accept foreign contribution on behalf of such organisation.
Statement 3 is correct
Contributions made by a citizen of India living in another country (i.e., non-resident Indian), from his personal savings, through normal banking channels, cannot be treated as foreign contribution.
Answer: (c) All; Difficulty Level: Medium
Newsletter Updates
Subscribe to our newsletter and never miss an important update!