UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2025

Practicing UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the latest exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2026, 2027, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2025 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2025

“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

1. the Champaran Satyagraha
2. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
3. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
4. the launch of the Quit India Movement

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The statement was made during the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930. Gandhiji began the movement with the historic Dandi March on 12^th March 1930. Accompanied by 78 selected followers, he walked nearly 200 miles from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi on the Gujarat coast. On reaching Dandi, he symbolically broke the Salt Law by making salt, openly defying British authority. At this moment, Gandhiji declared: The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural, and spiritual ruination of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system or the government. Sedition has become my religion. Ours is a nonviolent battle. We are not to kill anybody, but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi; Difficulty Level: Hard

The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

1. carnelian
2. clay
3. bronze
4. gold

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Dancing Girl is a small bronze figurine, about four inches tall, and is regarded as one of the earliest known bronze sculptures in the world. The figure depicts a young girl standing in a confident pose, adorned with numerous bangles on her left arm and a bracelet and an amulet on her right arm. Her stance resembles the later tribhanga pose, with one hand resting on her hip, reflecting the remarkable artistic sensibility of Harappan craftsmen.

Additional Information Carnelian, a red semiprecious stone, was commonly used in Harappan beadmaking. Harappans exported carnelian, lapis lazuli, copper, gold, and varieties of wood to Mesopotamia. Harappan people produced a large number of terracotta figurines (fire-baked earthen clay). The most important terracotta figurines among the Indus figures are those representing the mother goddess. Indus Valley people used gold for ornaments such as rings, amulets, and pendants.

Answer: (c) Bronze; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of the Chauri Chaura incident?

1. C. R. Das
2. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
3. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
4. M. A. Jinnah

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• During the Non-Cooperation Movement, a violent episode occurred at Chauri Chaura, where a mob of protesters clashed with the police and set a police station ablaze, resulting in the death of 22 policemen. In response to the violence, Mahatma Gandhi called off the movement. Following the incident, around 170 individuals were arrested, with several facing death or life imprisonment. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant stepped in to provide legal defence. Their determined efforts led to a substantial reduction in death sentences, with many accused either acquitted or given lighter punishments.

Additional Information C. R. Das was a renowned lawyer and freedom fighter who defended revolutionaries like Aurobindo Ghosh in the Alipore Bomb Case. M.A Jinnah defended B.G. Tilak in a Bombay High Court case related to sedition charges.

Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant; Difficulty Level: Hard

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

1. The Poona Pact
2. The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
3. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
4. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In 1932, the British Prime Minister announced the Communal Award, which granted separate electorates to the Depressed Classes. Gandhiji strongly opposed this provision, as he believed it would permanently divide Hindu society. While imprisoned in Yerwada Jail, he undertook a fast unto death against the Award. This led to negotiations between Mahatma Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar, culminating in the Poona Pact. The Pact replaced separate electorates with reserved seats for the Depressed Classes within the general electorate. Following the Poona Pact, Gandhiji intensified his campaign against untouchability and formally incorporated the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ into his political and social programme.
  • Harijan Sevak Sangh (All-India Anti-Untouchability League) was established on 30 September 1932.
  • Harijan, the weekly paper, was started on 11 February 1933.

Answer: (a) The Poona Pact; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following fruits:

1. Papaya
2. Pineapple
3. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

All three were introduced by the Portuguese in India

• The Portuguese introduced a variety of crops and fruits to India, including:
  • potatoes,
  • sweet potatoes,
  • tobacco,
  • pineapple,
  • cashew nuts,
  • maize,
  • capsicums,
  • Papaya,
  • Sapodilla, and
  • Guava.

Answer: (c) All the three; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following countries:

1. United Kingdom
2. Denmark
3. New Zealand
4. Australia
5. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

1. All the five
2. Only four
3. Only three
4. Only two

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• A time zone is a region of the Earth that observes a uniform standard time for legal, commercial, and social purposes. Time zones are generally based on the position of the Sun relative to the Earth and are defined in relation to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). The Earth is divided into 24 time zones, each approximately 15° of longitude apart, corresponding to a 1-hour difference from UTC. Some countries, such as China and India, use a single time zone for their entire territory, even though they span several degrees of longitude. Other countries, such as Russia and the United States, use multiple time zones to accommodate their large size and diverse regions.
• The United Kingdom (9 time zones), Denmark (5 time zones), New Zealand (5 time zones), and Australia (9 time zones) have more than four time zones, while Brazil has exactly four.

Countries having the most time zones (including overseas territories)
France	12
Russia	11
United States	11
Australia	9
United Kingdom	9
Canada	6
Denmark	5
New Zealand	5
Brazil	4
Mexico	4

Answer: (b) Only four; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometres from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are geographically close, separated by the Bering Strait. However, they lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). Anadyr is in UTC+12, while Nome is in UTC−9. This results in a 21-hour time difference, so even if it’s morning in both places, it’s different calendar days.

Statement II is incorrect

• When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, due to the large time difference and the placement of the International Date Line.

Additional Information The International Date Line is an imaginary line that passes through the Pacific Ocean. Along the International Date Line, the date changes by exactly one day when it is crossed. A traveller crossing the date line from east to west loses a day, and while crossing the dateline from west to east, he/she gains a day. Explanation: 180° E is GMT+12 and 180° W is GMT-12, hence the difference between 180° E and 180° W is 24 hours. That is, the time difference on either side of IDL is 24 hours. So, the date changes as soon as one crosses IDL.

Answer: (a) I only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

1. ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Bhaskarrao Jadhav
4. Dinkarrao Javalkar

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’.

Additional Information Dr B. R. Ambedkar led the Mahad Satyagraha and Kalaram Temple Entry Movement. Bhaskarrao Jadhav was active in Maharashtra, associated with Satyashodhak Samaj. He represented the Justice Party at the first Round Table Conference. Dinkarrao Jawalkar was a social activist and freedom fighter. Jawalkar visited England to advance the anti-caste movement. Krantiche Ranashing or The Battlefield of Revolution was authored by Jawalkar and was one of the earliest books advocating socialist ideals in the Marathi language. He emphasised Satyashodhak principles. Identified three main evils: upper-caste dominance, imperialism, and bureaucracy. Advocated peasant and worker-led Swaraj.

Answer: (a) Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
1. Botswana	Diamond
2. Chile	Lithium
3. Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Row 1 is correct

• Botswana is the biggest producer of diamonds by value and the second biggest by volume behind Russia. Diamonds account for around 80% of Botswana’s exports and a quarter of its GDP, according to the International Monetary Fund.

World’s Reserves (2021)		World’s Production (2021)
Country	Reserves	Country	Production
Russia	46%	Russia	33%
Botswana	22%	Botswana	17%
Congo	11%	Canada	14%
S. Africa	9%	DRC	10%
Australia	2%	Australia	9%

Row 2 is correct

• The Lithium Triangle comprises lithium-rich regions near the borders of Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile. The area is thought to hold around 54% of the world’s lithium reserves. Recently, India and Chile held the India-Chile Mining Industry Round Table to discuss enhanced cooperation in the mining sector, focusing on copper, lithium, and other critical minerals.

Row 3 is correct

• Indonesia has become the world’s largest supplier of nickel, accounting for nearly 60% of global output.

Answer: (c) All the three; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
1. Mallorca	Italy
2. Normandy	Spain
3. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Row 1 is incorrect

• Also known as Majorca, Mallorca is the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain. It is in the news due to the growing anti-tourism movement in Spain (Mallorca faces the impacts of overtourism, putting pressure on housing and local resources).

Row 2 is incorrect

• Normandy is a region of northern France. Recently, World leaders and veterans commemorated D-Day’s 80th anniversary in Normandy. The D-Day Anniversary marks the remembrance of June 6, 1944, the day when Allied forces launched a massive military invasion on the beaches of Normandy, France, during World War II. This operation, known as Operation Overlord, was the largest amphibious invasion in history and marked the beginning of the end of Nazi occupation in Western Europe.

Row 3 is incorrect

• Sardinia is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean Sea, after Sicily, and one of the 20 regions of Italy.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
2. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
3. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts;
  • (₹80000-₹60000 = ₹20000 crores)

Statement II is correct

• Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts except Borrowing and Other liabilities;
  • (₹80000-₹60000-₹10000 (exclude borrowings)) assuming capital expenditure “0” = ₹10000 crores.

Statement III is correct

• Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment;
  • (₹20000-₹10000-₹6000) = ₹4000 crores.

Additional Information Deficit Type Definition Budget Deficit Budget Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Revenue Revenue Deficit Revenue Deficit = Total Revenue Expenditure – Total Revenue Effective Revenue Deficit Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit – Grants for Capital Assets Fiscal Deficit Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – (Total Revenue – Borrowings) Fiscal Deficit = Budget Deficit + Borrowing Primary Deficit Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments Monetised Deficit Borrowings from RBI + Draw down balance of government from RBI.

Answer: (d) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Easy

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

1. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
2. India to Central Asia via China
3. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
4. India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is an important initiative taken by India, Russia and Iran by signing an Inter-Governmental Agreement on 12th September 2000, to enhance trade and transport connectivity among countries along its route.
• At present, there are 13 Members of INSTC, namely- India, Iran, Russia, Azerbaijan, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkey, Ukraine, Belarus, Oman and Syria. Bulgaria has joined as an Observer State.
• Note: Pakistan, Turkmenistan and Afghanistan are not party to the INSTC agreement.
• It is a multi-modal transportation route linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran and onward to northern Europe via St. Petersburg in Russia.
  • The INSTC envisages the movement of goods from Mumbai (India) to Shahid Beheshti Port – Chabahar (Iran) by sea, from Chabahar to Bandar-e- Anzali (an Iranian port on the Caspian Sea) by road, and then from Bandar-e- Anzali to Astrakhan (a Caspian port) by ship across the Caspian Sea, and after that from Astrakhan to other regions of the Russian Federation and further into Europe by Russian railways.

Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
2. Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is not correct

• The United States is the leading producer of fuel ethanol in the world. In 2024, the U.S. produced an estimated 16.1 billion gallons of the biofuel. Brazil is the world’s second-largest producing country, with an output of 8.8 billion gallons that same year.

Statement II is correct

• Corn is the primary feedstock of ethanol in the United States. Brazil primarily uses sugar cane as feedstock.

Additional Information Ethanol is 99.9% pure alcohol. It can be used as a biofuel. It is naturally produced by the fermentation of sugars by yeasts. It is also produced via petrochemical processes such as ethylene hydration. It is mostly extracted from molasses (byproduct from refining sugarcane) and surplus food grains. India is now the world’s third largest producer and consumer of Ethanol.

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct; Difficulty Level: Hard

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

1. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
2. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• A wet-bulb temperature of 35°C is considered the maximum limit of humidity that humans can handle. Beyond this, the body can no longer effectively cool itself via perspiration. Internationally, the agreed-upon safe wet-bulb temperature is below 30°C, with a maximum of 35°C. Between 30°C and 35°C, the human body experiences hyperthermia, in which body temperature rises, leading to discomfort and effects on various organs, including the brain and heart. Flooding, tropical cyclones, and droughts are among the broad effects of climate change. Wet-bulb temperature, however, is specifically about heat stress and how the body copes with hot, humid conditions, not about weather events such as floods or cyclones. So, while climate change can lead to both high wet-bulb temperatures and extreme weather, the World Bank’s warning about a 35°C wet-bulb temperature focuses on human survivability and heat stress.

Statement II is correct

• At wet-bulb temperatures of 35°C or higher, the air is so hot and humid that sweat can no longer evaporate effectively. Evaporation of sweat is the primary cooling mechanism for humans (and many animals). If this stops working, body temperature rises uncontrollably, leading to heat stroke and possible death, even in shade and with access to water.

Answer: (b) II only; Difficulty Level: Medium

A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

1. ₹48,500 crores
2. ₹51,500 crores
3. ₹58,500 crores
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Use the formula: Gross primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest liabilities.
  • Substitute the given values:
  • Gross primary deficit = ₹50,000-₹1,500
  • Gross primary deficit = ₹ 48,500 crores.

Answer: (a) ₹ 48,500 crores; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15^TH Finance Commission of India are correct?

1. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
2. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
3. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
4. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• 15^th Finance Commission (2021-26) Chair: Mr. N. K. Singh) has recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crores (Rs. 1,200 crore each year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivising the States to enhance educational outcomes.

Statement II is incorrect

• XVFC has recommended maintaining the vertical devolution at 41 per cent.

Statement III is correct

• XVFC has recommended that Rs. 45,000 crores be kept as a performance-based incentive for all the States for carrying out agricultural reforms

Statement IV is correct

• XVFC has reintroduced the tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.
• Note: The 16^th FC has introduced this parameter to account for the contribution to national GDP. This replaces the tax and fiscal efforts parameter used by the 15^th FC, which rewarded states with higher tax-collection efficiency.

The criteria for horizontal devolution among States over the last six FCs
Criteria	11th FC 2000-05	12th FC 2005-10	13th FC 2010-15	14th FC 2015-20	15th FC 2021-26	16th FC (2026-31)
Income Distance	62.5	50	47.5	50	45	42.5%
Population (1971 Census)	10	25	25	17.5	–
Population (2011 Census)	–	–	–	10	15	17.5%
Area	7.5	10	10	15	15	10%
Forest cover	–	–	–	7.5	–
Forest and ecology	–	–	–	–	10	10%
Infrastructure index	7.5	–	–	–	–
Fiscal discipline	7.5	7.5	17.5	–	–
Demographic performance	–	–	–	–	12.5	10%
Tax effort	5	7.5	–	–	2.5
Contribution to GDP	–	–	–	–	–	10%
Total	100	100	100	100	100	100

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be eliminated first using basic current-affairs awareness—the Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended 41% tax devolution, not 45%. Once Statement II is eliminated, options containing it — (a), (b), and (d) — are automatically removed. Thus, only option (c) is left → I, III and IV.

Answer: (c) I, III and IV; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

1. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
2. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
3. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• IBRD is an international financial institution that offers loans to middle-income developing countries.

Statement II is incorrect

• The IBRD does not work single-handedly. It collaborates with other institutions within the World Bank Group, such as the International Development Association (IDA), as well as with public and private-sector actors.

Statement III is correct

• It was established in 1944 under the World Bank, as part of the Bretton Woods Twins along with the IMF, with the mission of financing the reconstruction of European nations devastated by World War II. Following the reconstruction of Europe, the Bank’s mandate expanded to advancing worldwide economic development and eradicating poverty.
• The IBRD provides commercial-grade or concessional financing to sovereign states to fund projects that seek to improve transportation and infrastructure, education, domestic policy, environmental consciousness, energy investments, healthcare, access to food, potable water, and sanitation.
• Members: 189 member countries.

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be eliminated first because the phrase “works single-handedly” is too absolute. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development works along with other institutions of the World Bank Group, not alone. Once Statement II is eliminated, only option (c) is left → I and III only.

Answer: (c) I and III only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

1. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
2. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
3. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. I and II
3. I and III
4. III only

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

	NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer)	RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement)
Settlement	Processing in batches at intervals	Real-time basis or one-on-one
Limit on funds	No, there is no limit imposed by the RBI for funds transfer through NEFT system. However, a member bank may place amount limits based on its own risk perception with the approval of its Board.	The minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is ₹ 2,00,000/- with no upper or maximum ceiling.
Service availability	Available 24×7, 365 days	Available 24×7, 365 days
Charges	No charges for inward transactions. Charges for outward transactions of between Rs. 2.5 to Rs. 25 depending on the amount.	No charges for inward transactions. Charges for outward transactions of between Rs. 25 to Rs. 50 depending on the amount.

Answer: (a) I only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following countries:

1. United Arab Emirates
2. France
3. Germany
4. Singapore
5. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All the five

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Unified Payments Interface: It is an indigenous digital payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which provides for the facility of a quick and easy payment from multiple bank accounts in a single mobile application. UPI is now live in over eight countries, including the UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius and Qatar.
• Indian RuPay (domestic) cards acceptance is presently live in Nepal, Bhutan, Mauritius, Singapore, UAE and Maldives. Furthermore, the issuance of RuPay cards is live in Bhutan as well as Mauritius. The arrangements enable acceptance of Mauritius and Bhutan RuPay cards in India as well.

Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

1. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
2. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroots levels.
3. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar scheme. It was launched in February 2024. It aims to transform India’s energy landscape by providing free electricity to households. By enabling widespread adoption of solar power, the scheme is poised to benefit 1 crore households across the country.

Statement II is correct

• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) intends to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairing of solar roof top systems at grass root level. Technicians/ Electricians/ Installers/ Engineers etc. will be provided training for installation/design/O&M for rooftop solar systems.

Statement III is correct

• It aims to create more than 3 lakh skilled manpower, through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building, out of which at least 1,00,000 will be Solar PV Technicians under scheme component of capacity building.

Answer: (d) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

• Application of Rare Earth Element:
  • Electronics: Due to their magnetic and phosphorescent properties, they are essential in smartphones, laptops, flat-panel displays, and headphones. (Rare earth elements like europium, terbium, and yttrium are used in display technologies for their optical properties)
  • Clean Energy: Powering high-performance magnets in wind turbines, electric vehicles (EVs), and solar panels is crucial for the renewable transition.
  • Defence Sector: Used in precision-guided missiles, radar systems, sonar, and jet engines—key to strategic and technological superiority.
  • Medical Technology: Enable advanced imaging tools in radiation-based cancer treatments, such as MRI and PET scanners.
  • Industrial Use: Applied in petroleum refining, high-grade glass polishing, and production of strong, corrosion-resistant metal alloys.

Additional Information REE are a group of 17 chemical elements. They comprise the 15 lanthanide elements, along with scandium and yttrium. They are relatively abundant in Earth’s crust. They are rare because they are found in low concentrations and mixed with other minerals, making them difficult and expensive to extract. REEs are used to make magnets for electric vehicles (EVs), wind turbines, weapons, etc. They are used in electric vehicle (EV) motors, medical devices, weaponry, etc. REEs are divided into Heavy (HREEs) and Light (LREEs). Misleading Name: REEs are abundant in the Earth’s crust but are rarely found in concentrated, economically viable forms, making extraction challenging.

PMF Concept Hack The important phrase here is “Some rare earth elements.” Since the statement does not claim that all rare earth elements have these properties, it becomes easier to accept as correct. Some rare earth elements do possess phosphorescent properties, which is why they are used in flat TV screens and computer monitors. Hence, both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I → (a)

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
2. Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
3. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) for India – 2030. The Plan is to create a ‘future ready’ Railway system by 2030. The objective of the Plan is to create capacity ahead of demand, which in turn would cater to future growth in demand right up to 2050, increase the modal share of Railways in freight traffic to 45%, and sustain it.

Statement II is incorrect

• The KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. It was developed by the Research Design & Standards Organisation (RDSO) of the Indian Railways. It has been adopted as the National ATP System for Indian Railways. It is one of the cheapest systems with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) certification. Under SIL-4, the probability of error is 1 in 10,000 years.

Statement III is correct

• The ‘Kavach’ system includes RFID tags installed on track sleepers at regular intervals, including in station sections, to provide precise location data to the onboard system.

Answer: (a) I and II only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following space missions:

1. Axiom-4
2. SpaDEx
3. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Axiom-4 is correct

• Microgravity research involves studying the effects of a low-gravity environment, such as that experienced in space, on various phenomena. It helps scientists understand how different processes behave in the absence or reduction of Earth’s gravity. Axiom-4 is a privately operated crewed mission to the ISS aimed at conducting scientific experiments in microgravity conditions.

SpaDEx is correct

• SPADEx will support biological studies on plant growth and bacteria, green propulsion systems and artificial intelligence labs in microgravity.

Gaganyaan is correct

• The mission is expected to include scientific experiments in microgravity.

Answer: (c) All the three; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs

Aircraft Type	Aircraft
Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
C-17 Globemaster	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct

• Dornier 228 is a twin engine turboprop, highly versatile multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft manufactured by M/s HAL for the Indian Coast Guard.

Pair 2 is incorrect

• The IL-76 (designed by the Soviet Union’s Ilyushin design bureau) is a strategic airlifter, used for transporting troops, cargo, and heavy equipment.

Pair 3 is correct

• The C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft. India purchased the Boeing’s C-17 Globemaster III aircraft from the USA.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

1. Silver iodide and potassium iodide
2. Silver nitrate and potassium iodide
3. Silver iodide and potassium nitrate
4. Silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Cloud seeding is a weather modification technology that artificially stimulates rainfall by spraying chemical substances into the air that serve as cloud condensation nuclei. Cloud condensation nuclei are small particles upon which water vapour condenses to form clouds. The chemical substances used are silver iodide, potassium iodide, dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) or liquid propane. It works only when there are enough pre-existing clouds in the atmosphere.

Additional Information: Different Cloud Seeding Methods Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding: Salts are sprayed through explosives in the lower portions of clouds. Static Cloud Seeding: Chemicals like silver iodide crystals are sprayed into clouds. Dynamic Cloud Seeding: Vertical air currents are boosted to encourage more water to pass through the clouds, which translates into more rain.

Answer: (a) Silver iodide and potassium iodide; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements with regard to the pardoning power of the President of India:

1. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
2. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect

• Principles laid down by the Supreme Court regarding the President’s pardoning power:
  • A mercy petitioner is not entitled to an oral hearing before the President.
  • The President may independently review the evidence and reach a conclusion that differs from the courts.
  • The President is not required to give reasons for the decision made.
  • The President exercises the pardoning power based on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
  • The President can afford relief not only from a sentence that he regards as unduly harsh but also from an evident mistake
  • It is not necessary for the Supreme Court to prescribe specific guidelines for how the President should exercise this power.
  • The exercise of power by the President is not subject to judicial review except where the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
  • Once a mercy petition has been rejected by the President, filing another petition cannot be used to obtain a stay.

Answer: (a) I only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
2. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
3. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• After the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker continues in office until just before the first meeting of the newly constituted House. When the Lok Sabha meets after the elections, the President appoints a member as the pro-tem Speaker to conduct the proceedings of the House. The President administers the oath to the pro-tem Speaker, who then administers the oath to the Members of Parliament and facilitates the election of the new Speaker.

Statement II is incorrect

• The Constitution does not mandate that the Speaker must relinquish membership in their political party upon election. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution allows a Speaker (or Deputy Speaker) to resign from their political party upon being elected to office; no Speaker has done so to date.

Statement III is correct

• The Speaker usually remains in office for the full term of the Lok Sabha.
• However, the office can be vacated earlier in the following cases:
  • If the Speaker ceases to be a Lok Sabha member.
  • If the Speaker resigns by submitting a letter to the Deputy Speaker.
  • If removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha, provided that a 14-day notice has been given before moving the resolution.
  • While the resolution for removal is being considered, the Speaker cannot preside over the House, though they are permitted to attend the session. During this time, the Speaker may speak and participate in the proceedings, and can vote in the first instance, but not in the event of a tie.

Answer: (c) I and III only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualify cation under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
2. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor I

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• The 10^th Schedule of the IC gives the power of adjudication to the Speaker. The Presiding officer functions as a tribunal while adjudicating disqualification issues.

Statement II is incorrect

• The term “political party” was not mentioned in the original Constitution of 1950. It was explicitly introduced later through the Fifty-second Amendment Act of 1985, which added the Tenth Schedule to address disqualification on grounds of defection.

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
2. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is not correct

• The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, regulates the mining sector in India and mandates the requirement for granting leases for mining operations. In India, the minerals are classified as minor minerals and major minerals.
• Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers the State Governments to make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Hence, the regulation of minor minerals comes under the legislative and administrative domain of the State Governments. Further, Section 23C of the MMDR Act empowers the State Governments to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals and for the purposes connected therewith. Hence, control of illegal mining comes under the legislative and administrative purview of the State Governments.

Statement II is correct

• The central government has the power to notify “minor minerals” under section 3 (e) of the MMDR Act, 1957.

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

1. The European Union
2. The World Bank
3. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
4. The Food and Agriculture Organization

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The European Parliament on February 27, 2024, adopted the first European Union (EU) law to restore degraded ecosystems across the 27-nation political and economic bloc. The new law sets a target for the EU to restore at least 20 per cent of its land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050. The law calls on EU members to restore at least 30 per cent of drained peatland by 2030, 40 per cent by 2040 and 50 per cent by 2050. The NRL is part of the EU’s Biodiversity Strategy for 2030 and the European Green Deal, and it seeks to reverse the alarming trend of biodiversity loss as over 80% of Europe’s habitats are in poor condition.

PMF Concept Hack Use basic elimination here. A law like Nature Restoration Law is most likely enacted by a political and legislative body, not by advisory or financial organisations. The World Bank mainly provides finance, the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development gives policy recommendations, and the Food and Agriculture Organisation works on food and agriculture issues. They generally do not enact binding laws. European Union, being a legislative bloc, is the most logical answer → (a)

Answer: (a) The European Union; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

1. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
2. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
3. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect

• Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session, and the scope of this power is coextensive with Parliament’s legislative authority, except in terms of the ordinance’s duration. This means that an ordinance can be issued only on matters within Parliament’s legislative competence and may amend or repeal existing Central laws. At the same time, it is subject to the same constitutional limitations as a law enacted by Parliament and cannot infringe upon fundamental rights.

Statement III is correct

• Like any other legislation, an ordinance can have retrospective effect, meaning it can be enforced from a past date. It has the power to amend or repeal an existing Act of Parliament or even another ordinance, and to modify tax laws. However, it cannot be used to amend the Constitution. The President can withdraw an ordinance at any time, but not at his own discretion. Both promulgation and withdrawal of an ordinance must be done based on the advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be eliminated using basic constitutional understanding—an Ordinance has the same force as a law made by Parliament, but it still remains subject to the Constitution. Since laws cannot violate Fundamental Rights, the claim that an Ordinance can abridge them is incorrect. Once Statement II is eliminated, only option (c) is left → I and III only.

Answer: (c) I and III only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
Tripura	Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Pair I is correct

• The capital Itanagar is named after the historical Ita Fort (Ita = brick in Assamese), which dates back to the 14^th–15^th century (probably built by kings of the Chutiya kingdom which ruled the region during that time).
• Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks:
  • Namdapha National Park
  • Mouling National Park

Pair II is incorrect

• Nagaland became the 16^th state of India through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, and was formally inaugurated on 1 December 1963.
• Note: The 13^th Amendment was enacted to give effect to certain special provisions for Nagaland, including the introduction of Article 371A and related constitutional changes. However, the formation of the State was carried out through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 — a law enacted by Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution (Therefore, the statement claiming that the Constitutional Amendment was responsible for the creation of the state is incorrect).

Pair III is correct

• The Royal history of Tripura ended when the princely state acceded to the Indian Union on October 15, 1949. After the merger, Tripura became a Part ‘C’ State. On reorganisation of the states, effected in November 1956, Tripura became a Union Territory with an Advisory Committee to aid and advise the Chief Commissioner. On January 21, 1972, Tripura became a full-fledged State by the Act of Parliament called the North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to India, consider the following:

1. The Inter-State Council
2. The National Security Council
3. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

The Inter-State Council is correct

• The Inter-State Council is a Constitutional body. Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states.

Additional Information The Sarkaria Commission (1983–87) recommended the establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263. Acting on this, the V.P. Singh-led Janata Dal Government established the Inter-State Council in 1990. It consists of the following members: Prime minister as the Chairman Chief ministers of all the states Chief ministers of union territories having legislative assemblies Administrators of union territories not having legislative assemblies Governors of States under President’s rule Six Central cabinet ministers, including the home minister, to be nominated by the Prime Minister. Five Ministers of Cabinet rank / Minister of State (independent charge) nominated by the Chairman of the Council (i.e., Prime Minister) are permanent invitees to the Council.

The National Security Council is incorrect

• The National Security Council (NSC) of India is a three-tiered organisation that oversees political, economic, energy and security issues of strategic concern. It was set up by the Vajpayee government (an executive (non-constitutional, non-statutory body) in 1998 following the nuclear tests by India & Pakistan. Before that, national security functions were carried out by the Principal Secretary to the PM. It operates within the executive office of the Prime Minister of India, liaising between the government’s executive branch and the intelligence services, advising leadership on intelligence and security issues.
• Members: National Security Advisor (NSA), the Deputy and Additional National Security Advisors, the Ministers of Defence, External Affairs, Home, Finance of the Government of India, and the Vice Chairman of the NITI Aayog. The military has no representation in this tier.
• The NSC is headed by the Prime Minister. The National Security Adviser (NSA) acts as the secretary of the NSC. (Brajesh Mishra was the first NSA).
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Its primary objective is to provide authoritative and holistic assessments of India’s security challenges across military, internal security, economic, technological, and external relations domains.

Zonal Councils are incorrect

• They are established under States Reorganisation Act, 1956 as statutory (extra-constitutional) advisory bodies.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
2. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Article 163 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except insofar as he is by or under the Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.

Additional Information The Governor enjoys constitutional discretion in the following cases: Reserving a bill for the President’s consideration. Acting as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory (in additional charge). Recommending President’s Rule in the state. Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration Seeking information from the Chief Minister on state matters. In addition, the Governor also exercises situational (hidden) discretion in cases such as: Appointing a Chief Minister when no party has a clear majority or after the sudden death of a sitting CM. Dismissing the council of ministers if it loses the assembly’s confidence. Dissolving the legislative assembly when the government loses its majority.

Statement II is incorrect

• The President cannot directly reserve a state bill for consideration. It is only the Governor who can do so under Article 200.

Answer: (a) I only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Pair I is correct

• Article 50 under the Directive Principles provides for the separation of the judiciary from the executive.

Piar II is correct

• It is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen of India (under Article 51A) to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.

Pair III is correct

• Article 24: No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed in work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Answer: (c) All the three; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

1. The State Government loses its executive power in such an area and the local body assumes total administration.
2. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• Article 244(1) of the Indian Constitution states that “Subject to the provisions of this Schedule, the executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas therein“. This means states manage tribal areas within their borders, but must act within Schedule 5 guidelines. It is not “completely” taken over by Tribal Advisory Councils.

Additional Information The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas (SA) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Scheduled Areas are inhabited by ‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically backward. Article 244 (1) of the Constitution mentions ‘Scheduled Areas’. The Fifth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal Areas in 10 states in India, including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana. The Fifth Schedule Areas are exempt from the Panchayat-related requirements of Part IX of the constitution. The Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, was passed by Parliament to extend the provisions of Part IX to the Fifth Scheduled area with certain modifications.

Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) States with SAs are required to establish TAC to advise on the welfare & advancement of the STs. It consists of 20 members, 3/4th to be representatives of the STs in State Legislative Assembly. The Governor of the state may make rules regarding: Number of members of the Council and their appointment. Appointment of the Chairman of the Council and the officers and servants thereof. Conduct of its meetings and its procedure in general. Note: A similar council can be set up in states having STs but not Scheduled Areas if the President directs so.

Statement II is incorrect

• The Fifth Schedule does not contain any such provision.

PMF Concept Hack The absolute wording in both statements makes them suspicious. Phrases like “local body assumes total administration” and “Government can take over the total administration” are overly extreme and unlikely within India’s constitutional framework, where powers are typically shared and regulated rather than fully transferred. Hence, both statements can be inferred as incorrect → Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organisation	Union Ministry
The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy industries
The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Pair I is incorrect

• National Automotive Board (NAB) is an autonomous body incorporated as a Society under the Societies Registration Act 1860 under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. This organisation provides a single platform for dealing with all matters relating to the automotive sector, especially those pertaining to testing, certification, homologation, and the administration of automotive labs, and is set up under the National Automotive Testing and Research and Development Infrastructure Project (NATRiP). NAB is the operating agency for implementing the FAME India Scheme, including disbursing funds for its various components.

Pair II is incorrect

• Coir Board was set up under the Coir Industry Act, 1953, by the Government of India for the overall sustainable development of the coir industry in the Country. It comes under the Ministry of MSME.

Pair III is incorrect

• The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) has been set up by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to create an institutional mechanism for the collection and dissemination of trade data and for the improvement of business information services.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

1. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
2. Extent of the executive power of a State
3. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct

• Provisions of the Constitution concerning the federal structure can be amended only through a special majority in Parliament and the approval of at least half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
  • It is immaterial whether the remaining states approve or take no action—the process is complete once half of the states give their consent.
  • There is no prescribed time limit within which states must respond to the amendment bill.
• The following provisions can be amended in this way:
  • President Election and its manner.
  • Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
  • Supreme Court and high courts.
  • Distribution of legislative powers between Union and states.
  • Any of the lists in Seventh Schedule.
  • Representation of states in Parliament.
  • Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Article 158 deals with the conditions of the Governor’s office. Any amendment to this Article can be made solely by Parliament.

Answer: (a) I and II only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
2. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
3. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any court proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct

• Under Article 361 of the Constitution, the President of India and the Governors of States enjoy the following immunities:
  • They cannot be held accountable in any court for actions taken while performing their official duties and powers.
  • Criminal proceedings cannot be initiated or continued against them during their tenure.
  • No court can issue orders for their arrest or imprisonment while they are in office.
  • Civil proceedings for acts done in a personal capacity—before or after assuming office—cannot be initiated during their term unless a two-month prior notice is served.

Statement III is correct

• According to Article 105, no Member of Parliament can be held liable in any court for anything said or any vote cast by them in Parliament or its committees. Similarly, under Article 194, no member of a State Legislature can be prosecuted in any court for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature or its committees

Answer: (d) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following activities:

1. Production of crude oil
2. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
3. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
4. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Only activities II and III are regulated by PNGRB

• The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. The Act provides for the establishment of PNGRB to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas, and to promote competitive markets, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• Further, as enshrined in the act, the board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas, excluding production of crude oil and natural gas, so as to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
2. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
3. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of the taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• The 73^rd Amendment Act of 1992 added Part IX to the Constitution, granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. It introduced a uniform three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels across states. However, states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs are exempt from forming intermediate-level panchayats.

Statement II is incorrect

• 21 years is the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

Statement III is incorrect

• The Governor of a state shall constitute a Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats.

Answer: (d) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

1. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
2. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
3. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
4. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. I only

Explanation

Only statement I is correct

• Recently, with the coming into force of the charter, which was adopted in the 5^th summit of the BIMSTEC leaders, the grouping has acquired a ‘legal personality’ status.
• Established: In 1997, through the Bangkok Declaration to promote regional cooperation.
• Geographic Focus: Connects South and Southeast Asian nations around the Bay of Bengal.
• Members: 7 countries – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• Founding Members: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• Core Objective: Foster economic cooperation, social progress, and collaboration in science, technology, and development across the region.
• In line with the organization’s development into a formal structure, the leaders of the member countries have divided the group’s work into Seven Priority Areas/Pillar.

7 Priority Areas/Pillars (each led by 1 Member country)
Bangladesh	Trade, Investment and Development Sub-sectors: Blue Economy
Bhutan	Environment & Climate Change Sub-sectors: Mountain Economy
India	Security Sub-sectors: Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime, Disaster Management, Energy
Myanmar	Agriculture and Food Security Sub-sectors: Agriculture, Fisheries & Livestock
Nepal	People-to-People Contact Sub-sectors: Culture, Tourism, Poverty Alleviation, People-to-People Contact (forums of think tanks, media etc.)
Sri Lanka	Science, Technology & Innovation Sub-sectors: Technology, Health, Human Resource Development
Thailand	Connectivity

Answer: (d) I only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of the ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

1. The President of India
2. The Prime Minister of India
3. The Chief Justice of India
4. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. II and IV only
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I and III only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual award instituted by Government of India in 1995, on the occasion of 125^th Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi as a tribute to the ideals espoused by Mahatma Gandhi.
• The award is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender.
• The award carries an amount of Rs. 1 crore, a citation, a plaque and an exquisite traditional handicraft/handloom item.
• Composition of the Jury for Gandhi Peace Prize:
  • The jury consists of five members:
  • Prime Minister of India
  • Chief Justice of India
  • Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
  • Two eminent persons nominated by the Prime Minister

Answer: (c) II, III and IV; Difficulty Level: Hard

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

1. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
2. It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management.
3. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I, II and III
2. II and III only
3. I only
4. I and II only

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct

• GAGAN is designed to provide additional accuracy, integrity, and availability of GPS signals.
• It enables users to rely on satellite-based navigation for all phases of flight, from en route to precision approaches at airports.
• GAGAN also provide the capability for increased accuracy in position reporting, allowing for more uniform and high-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM).

Statement III is incorrect

• In addition, GAGAN provide benefits beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, and railroads.

PMF Concept Hack Statement III can be eliminated because the word “only” makes it too restrictive. Navigation technologies developed for aviation can also have applications in other transportation sectors. Once Statement III is eliminated, only option (d) is left → I and II only.

Answer: (d) I and II only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

1. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
2. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• The summit was co-chaired by India and France. Building on the foundations of the Bletchley and Seoul Summits, the Paris AI Summit 2025 aimed to shape the future of artificial intelligence through three core objectives:
  • Democratising AI Access
  • Sustainable AI Development
  • Inclusive AI Governance

Statement II is incorrect

• Fifty-eight countries, including India, China, Brazil, France and Australia, signed a joint statement on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet at the AI Action Summit in Paris. The statement was not signed by the United States and the United Kingdom.

Answer: (a) I only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Statement	Year
International Year of the Woman Farmer	2026
International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism	2027
International Year of Peace and Trust	2025
International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence	2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four

Explanation

All pairs are correct

• The United Nations designates specific days, weeks, years and decades as occasions to mark particular events or topics in order to promote, through awareness and action, the objectives of the Organization. Usually, it is one or more Member States that propose these observances and the General Assembly establishes them with a resolution.

2023	International Year of Millets
2023	International Year of Dialogue as a Guarantee of Peace
2024	International Year of Camelids
2025	International Year of Peace and Trust
2025	International Year of Glaciers’ Preservation
2025	International Year of Cooperatives
2025	International Year of Quantum Science and Technology
2026	International Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists
2026	International Year of Volunteers for Sustainable Development
2026	International Year of the Woman Farmer
2027	International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism
2029	International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism

Answer: (d) All the four; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

1. The 16th BRICS Summit was held under the chairmanship of Russia in Kazan.
2. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
3. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and III only
4. I only

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• The 16th BRICS Summit was held from October 22 to 24, 2024, in Kazan, Russia, under the chairmanship of President Vladimir Putin.

Statement II is correct

• In January 2025, Indonesia joined the BRICS as a full member.

Statement III is incorrect

• Theme of the summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security”.

Answer: (a) I and II; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

1. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
2. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
3. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
4. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. III only
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. None of the above statements is Correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• As per the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013:
  • It extends to the whole of India.
  • It shall apply to public servants in and outside India.

Statement II is incorrect

• A Member of Parliament or State Legislature or Union Territory cannot be appointed as Chairperson or Member of Lokpal.
• But, the Chairperson need not necessarily be the Chief Justice of India (CJI) or even a retired CJI.
• The Act allows for:
  • Sitting or retired Chief Justice of India/Judge of the Supreme Court or an eminent person (who fulfils the specified eligibility).

Statement III is correct

• The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age, on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

Statement IV is incorrect

• In terms of Section 14 of the Act, a complaint can be filed against: Any person who is or has been a Prime Minister.

Answer: (a) III only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

1. The event was held in Delhi, India.
2. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
3. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Only statement I is correct

• The inaugural Kho-Kho World Cup took place from January 13 to 19, 2025, at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi, India.
• In the men’s final, India defeated Nepal with a score of 54–36.
• In the women’s final, India triumphed over Nepal with a score of 78–40.

Answer: (a) I only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. In the finals of the 45^th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian players Ian Nepomniachtchi.
2. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• The 45th Chess Olympiad in 2024 was a team competition, not an individual event. India, led by Gukesh Dommaraju, won the team gold for the first time in its history. Gukesh also earned the individual gold medal on Board 1 with outstanding play. However, the claim that he defeated Ian Nepomniachtchi is incorrect—Gukesh became the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion by beating Ding Liren in the 2024 World Chess Championship, a separate event from the Olympiad.

Statement II is correct

• Abhimanyu Mishra made history by becoming the youngest Grandmaster ever. He earned the title on June 30, 2021, at just 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days old—breaking the long-standing record previously held by Sergey Karjakin.

Answer: (b) II only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to investments, consider the following:

1. Bonds
2. Hedge Funds
3. Stocks
4. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four

Explanation

II and IV are treated as Alternative Investment Funds

• Alternative Investment Fund or AIF means any fund established or incorporated in India which is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign, for investing it in accordance with a defined investment policy for the benefit of its investors. AIF does not include funds covered under the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, SEBI (Collective Investment Schemes) Regulations, 1999 or any other regulations of the Board to regulate fund management activities.
• In Simple terms, an alternative investment is a financial asset that doesn’t fall into one of the conventional investment categories. Conventional categories include stocks, bonds, and cash. Alternative investments can include private equity or venture capital, hedge funds, managed futures, and derivatives contracts.

Alternative Investment Funds
Category I	Investment in Startups, SMEs and projects which are socially and economically viable	Venture Capital Fund Infrastructure Fund Angel Fund Social Venture Fund
Category II	Investment in Equity and Debt Securities	Private Equity (PE) Fund Debt Fund Fund of Funds
Category III	Investment aimed at short-term returns achieved by employing complex trading strategies	Hedge Fund Private Investment in Public Equity Fund (PIPE)

PMF Concept Hack Use simple elimination here — Alternative Investment Fund refers to non-traditional investments. So, common traditional instruments like Bonds and Stocks are not treated as AIFs. On the other hand, Hedge fund and Venture capital are classic examples of alternative investments.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

1. Buying and selling Government bonds
2. Buying and selling foreign currency
3. Pension fund management
4. Lending to private companies
5. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I and II only
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III, IV and V
4. I, II and V

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) sources of income:
  • RBI buys and sells government securities to regulate money supply and manage inflation. It earns interest on these securities.
  • RBI manages central and state government borrowings and earns a commission on these transactions.
  • RBI oversees various government transactions, such as tax collections and expenditure, and earns a commission.
  • RBI lends to banks through the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) and earns interest.
  • Seigniorage: Profit from issuing currency—the difference between the currency’s face value and printing cost.
  • RBI manages India’s foreign exchange reserves and intervenes in the forex market. It earns income from foreign bonds and gains due to fluctuations in foreign exchange rates.
• The RBI does not earn income from pension fund management or lending to private companies, as it does not engage in these activities.

PMF Concept Hack Use basic understanding of the Reserve Bank of India — RBI mainly earns through financial and currency operations, not commercial business activities. RBI does not generally lend directly to private companies, so Statements III and IV can be eliminated, removing options (b) and (c). Statement V is correct because printing currency also generates income, as the cost of printing notes is much lower than their face value. Left with I, II and V → Answer: (d)

Answer: (d) I, II and V; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Row 1 is incorrect

• The ED is a multi-disciplinary organisation mandated to investigate offences of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws. It was established in the year 1956 as an ‘Enforcement Unit’ under the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance. Later, in 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’ & administrative control was transferred to the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (not under MHA).
• Headquarters: New Delhi | Five regional offices located in Mumbai, Chennai, Chandigarh, Kolkata, and Delhi.
• Headed by: Director of Enforcement.
• Laws under ED:
  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
  • Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999
  • Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (FEOA), 2018

Row 2 is correct

• The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India, working under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (which is part of the Department of Revenue), Ministry of Finance.
• It is tasked with detecting and curbing smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty.
• DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 and over fifty other allied Acts including the Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act etc.

Row 3 is incorrect

• The Directorate General of Systems & Data Management operates under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) within the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
• Responsibilities of the Directorate of Systems & Data Management:
  • is responsible for the design, development, programming, testing, implementation and maintenance of Customs and Central Excise automated systems, and for overseeing and managing the projects sanctioned by CBIC related to IT.
  • is responsible for the management of all Centrally deployed Customs and Central Excise computer facilities, hardware, software, data communications
  • in the automated environment, acts as a point of reference and validation concerning procedural changes in Customs and Central Excise, in addition to being a resource centre on business process issues.
  • is responsible for identifying and evaluating new technologies for application to automated systems within the department.
  • is responsible for developing and maintaining all policy and subsequently, on the implementation of centralized systems, the operational aspects of the Department’s Computer Security.
  • Establishes requirements for computer-to-computer interfaces between the department and various trading partners and government agencies
  • Represents Customs and Central Excise on matters related to automated processing and systems development
  • Implements information resource and data management
• Note: The Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM) function as an apex body of CBEC for data analytics and risk management.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
2. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely nonfinancial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct

• The Securities and Exchange Board in India (SEBI) developed the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR). The framework for the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report requires companies to account for their value chain’s environmental impact, enhancing transparency, combating greenwashing, and ensuring that sustainability benefits permeate through the value chain.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
2. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• Agricultural income is exempted from tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961. It is important to note that income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming, wool rearing, etc. are not considered as agricultural income.
  • Hence, tax may be levied on incomes from such activities. However, many states levy a tax on agricultural income under their respective state policies.

Additional Information According to section 2(1A) of the Income Tax Act, agricultural income is defined as follows: Rent earned from any land in India which is used for agricultural purposes, or Any income from the production of agricultural goods which cannot be sold without first processing them to make them saleable for the market, i.e., these goods cannot be sold raw. For instance, Oats cannot be sold without processing (removal of husk). Any income from growing and selling agricultural produce on agricultural land. For instance, revenue from the sale of tomatoes grown on agricultural land. Taxes on agricultural income fall under Entry 46 in the State List. Thus, only State Governments can levy tax on agricultural income. The central government can levy tax on incomes other than agricultural income.

Statement II is correct

• Rural agricultural Land is not a capital asset as per the provisions of the Income-tax Act.

PMF Concept Hack Statement I can be inferred as wrong because the phrase “exempted from any tax” makes it inherently suspicious. It is highly unlikely that allied activities such as poultry farming or wool rearing would be completely outside any taxation system. Once Statement I is eliminated, only option (d) is left.

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct, but Statement II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
2. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
3. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• The Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) is a global initiative spearheaded by the United States to strengthen critical mineral supply chains essential for clean energy technologies. It focuses on diversifying sources and encouraging sustainable and responsible mining practices.
• India became the 14^th member of the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023. The other member countries are United States, Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Norway, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom and the European Union (represented by the European Commission).

Statement II is incorrect

• While India has identified a list of 30 critical minerals, it is not resource-rich in all of them. Many are under-explored or entirely import-dependent. For example, India relies fully on imports for lithium, cobalt and nickel.
• 30 Critical Minerals include: Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE,Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
• The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. Under this mission, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) has been tasked with conducting 1,200 exploration projects from 2024-25 to 2030-31.

Statement III is correct

• The Central Government has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, through the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, with effect from 17.08.2023. Through the amendment, the Central Government has been empowered to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licences for 24 critical and strategic minerals listed in Part D of the First Schedule to the said Act.

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be eliminated first because it makes a broad/exaggerated claim that India is resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals, which is unlikely; India is import-dependent for many of them. Once Statement II is eliminated, only option (c) is left.

Answer: (c) I and III only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
2. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
3. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Equity (Share Certificate):
  • Represents ownership in a company.
  • Stockholders receive dividends from profits. If no profits, no dividends.
  • Equity holders are residual claimants, with the last claim on assets during liquidation.
  • Attractive during economic booms due to the likelihood of higher profits and dividends.
• Debt (Bond/Debenture):
  • Represents a loan to the company.
  • Bondholders receive fixed interest and principal, irrespective of the company’s profits.
  • They are creditors with the first claim on assets during liquidation.
  • Preferred during economic slowdowns due to assured returns.

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. India accounts for a very large proportion of equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
2. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
3. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• India has emerged as one of the largest markets globally for equity options trading in terms of the number of contracts traded. In 2023, Indian investors traded 85 billion options ­contracts, more than anywhere else in the world.

Statement II is correct

• India’s stock market temporarily surpassed Hong Kong’s market capitalization in early 2024, becoming the fourth largest stock market in the world.

Statement III is incorrect

• India has an active regulatory authority, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), responsible for overseeing and regulating the securities market.

PMF Concept Hack Statement III can be eliminated first because it makes an absolute claim—saying there is no regulatory body is incorrect, as the Securities and Exchange Board of India regulates markets, warns investors, and acts against unregistered advisors. Option (a) is left, which is correct.

Answer: (a) I and II only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
2. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the usage of raw materials as inputs.
3. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and II is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• A circular economy reduces GHG emissions by promoting reuse, recycling, and longer product life cycles, which lowers the need for raw material extraction and reduces industrial waste. Less extraction and waste mean lower energy use, leading to fewer emissions.
• It replaces the traditional linear model of “take-make-dispose” with a closed-loop system that prioritises resource efficiency, environmental sustainability, and long-term economic resilience

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
2. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
3. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct

• All those receipts of the government which create liability or reduce financial assets are termed as capital receipts. When the government takes fresh loans (borrowings), it means that in the future these loans will have to be repaid and interest paid on them. Similarly, when the government sells an asset (disinvestment), it means that, in the future, its earnings from that asset will disappear. Thus, these receipts can be debt-creating or non-debt-creating.

Statement III is incorrect

• Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, and it does not create a liability; rather, it is income for the government.

PMF Concept Hack Statement III can be eliminated using basic understanding—interest received is income for the government, not a liability, so the statement is incorrect. Once Statement III is eliminated, options containing it are removed, leaving option (a).

Answer: (a) I and II only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following countries:

1. Austria
2. Bulgaria
3. Croatia
4. Serbia
5. Sweden
6. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

1. Only three
2. Only four
3. Only five
4. All the six

Explanation

• Among the given options, members of NATO include Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden and North Macedonia.

Answer: (b) Only four; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following countries:

1. Bolivia
2. Brazil
3. Colombia
4. Ecuador
5. Paraguay
6. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. Only five

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• It is spread across Argentina, Bolivia, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Venezuela.

Additional Information The Andes are formed due to convergence between the Nazca Plate (oceanic plate) and the South American Plate (continental plate). The Peru-Chile trench is formed due to the subduction of the Nazca plate. Extent: ~7,000 km – longest continental mountain range. Ojos del Salado active volcano on the Argentina-Chile border in the Andes is the highest active volcano on earth at 6,893 m. (Olympus Mons (27 km) on Mars is the highest volcano in the solar system. Mount Aconcagua (6,960 m, Argentina) in the Andes is the highest peak outside the Himalayas and the highest peak in the western hemisphere. It is an extinct volcano.

Answer: (c) Only four; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following water bodies:

1. Lake Tanganyika
2. Lake Tonlé Sap
3. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Lake Tanganyika is incorrect

• Lake Tanganyika is the second-largest freshwater lake by volume (Lake Baikal in Russia is the largest).
• It is the largest among the Albertine Rift Lakes. It is also the world’s longest freshwater lake and the second deepest lake (Lake Baikal is the deepest). The lake is shared between Tanzania, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Burundi, and Zambia. Geographically, it is entirely south of the Equator.

Lake Tonlé Sap is incorrect

• Tonlé Sap is a natural floodplain lake in central Cambodia. During the dry season, it drains southeast via the Tonlé Sap River into the Mekong River. It is the most extensive freshwater lake in South-East Asia.
• It lies entirely north of the equator.

Patos Lagoon is incorrect

• Lagoa dos Patos is a coastal lagoon located in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, southern Brazil. It is located far south of the Equator.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022- 23:

1. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
2. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
3. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Recently, the National Turmeric Board headquarters was established in Nizamabad, Telangana. India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, the UAE, the USA, and Malaysia.

Statement II is correct

• More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India, and it is grown in over 20 states in the country.

Statement III is correct

• The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
• India has more than 62% share of world trade in turmeric.

Answer: (d) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

1. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
2. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
3. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I and III only
2. I and II only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only

Explanation

All are correct

• A German geophysicist named Alfred Wegener suggested Continental Drift Theory (CDT) in 1912. According to CDT, there existed one big landmass called Pangaea, which was covered by one big ocean called Panthalassa. A sea called Tethys divided Pangaea into two huge landmasses: Laurentia (Laurasia) to the north and Gondwanaland to the south of Tethys. Drift started around 200 million years ago (Mesozoic Era →Triassic Period → Late Triassic Epoch), and the continents began to break up and drift away from one another.
• Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift:
  • Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans: The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from the Brazilian coast matches those from western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the coasts of South America and Africa are Jurassic in age. This suggests that the ocean did not exist prior to that time.
  • Tillite: It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondwana sediment system from India is known to have counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base, the system has thick tillite, indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, the Falkland Islands, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia. The overall resemblance of the Gondwana-type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of the drifting of continents.
  • The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit): The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match.
  • Placer Deposits: The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold on the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold-bearing veins are in Brazil, and it is obvious that Ghana’s gold deposits derive from the Brazilian plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
  • Distribution of Fossils: The presence of identical land or freshwater species across marine barriers, like lemurs in India, Madagascar, and Africa, led to theories such as the lost landmass ‘Lemuria.’ Similarly, Mesosaurus fossils found only in South Africa and Brazil—now 4,800 km apart—pose questions about past continental connections.

Answer: (c) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
2. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

• The atmosphere can hold small solid particles from various sources, including sea salts, fine soil, smoke, soot, ash, pollen, dust, and meteor fragments. These particles are mostly concentrated in the lower atmosphere, but convection currents can carry them to higher altitudes.
• Subtropical and temperate regions have a higher concentration of dust due to dry winds, unlike equatorial and polar areas.
  • Equatorial regions have high humidity and rainfall, which suppresses dust, and polar regions are covered in snow and ice, limiting dust sources.
• Dust and salt particles also serve as hygroscopic nuclei, aiding in cloud formation by allowing water vapour to condense around them.

PMF Concept Hack The two statements themselves help in elimination. Statement I says subtropical and temperate regions have more dust particles, which can be understood using basic geography, as these regions include many dry and desert areas. But Statement II says these regions have less dry winds, which directly contradicts the reason for higher dust concentration. Hence, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect → Answer: (c)

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements

1. Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
2. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

• In January, the Northern Hemisphere experiences winter, with significant temperature contrasts between land and oceans. During winter, landmasses cool more rapidly than oceans due to differences in heat capacity. Isotherms reflect these temperature gradients, bending to reflect colder temperatures over land and warmer temperatures over oceans.
• Specifically, isotherms shift equatorward (southward) over landmasses, indicating colder temperatures, and poleward (northward) over oceans, indicating warmer temperatures, due to the moderating effect of oceans. Oceans have higher heat capacity than land, retaining heat longer and moderating temperatures. In January, Northern Hemisphere oceans (e.g., the North Atlantic and Pacific) remain warmer than landmasses, which lose heat rapidly due to their lower heat capacity and radiative cooling.

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
2. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
3. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• Chalk is very permeable due to its high porosity and interconnected pores, often forming aquifers.
• Clay is very low in permeability due to tightly packed fine grains, though it may still be porous. Thus, the statement I is geologically sound.
• Statement II is correct & Explains Statement I:  Chalk is porous, enabling it to absorb and transmit water, contributing to its permeability. Hence, this explains the chalk part of Statement I.
• Statement III is incorrect: Clay is porous but not permeable due to poor pore connectivity. The claim that clay is “not at all porous” is factually wrong.

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Without the atmosphere, the temperature would be well below the freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
2. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
3. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and III only
2. I and II only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• Without an atmosphere, Earth would have huge temperature fluctuations between day and night, like the Moon. Daytime temperatures would be hundreds of degrees Celsius above normal, and nighttime temperatures would be hundreds of degrees below normal.

Statements II and III are correct

• The heat absorbed and trapped by our atmosphere keeps our planet’s average surface temperature at a balmy 15°C (59°F).
• Some of the atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Changes in the amounts of these gases directly affect our climate.

Answer: (d) II and III only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

1. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are reared and managed by farmers with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
2. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• It was launched in 2014 for the development and conservation of Indigenous breeds through selective breeding in the breeding tract and genetic upgradation of the nondescript bovine population. Scheme is crucial for upliftment of rural poor as more than 80% low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers
• Implemented by: Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying.
• Implementing agencies: State Implementing Agency (SIA) viz Livestock Development Boards.
• Participating agencies: Other agencies having a role in Bovine Development like CFSPTI, CCBFs, ICAR, Universities, Colleges, NGOs, etc.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

1. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
2. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Rammohun Roy represented a synthesis of the thoughts of the East and West. He greatly respected the traditional philosophic systems of the East, but he also believed that modern culture alone would help regenerate Indian society. Roy proposed that a new India, guided by reason, should acquire and treasure all that is best in the East and the West. He wanted India to learn from the West but without imposing Western culture.

Statement II is correct

• Rammohun Roy argued for:
  • Monotheism (worship of one god)
  • Abolition of sati, widow remarriage, right of inheritance and property to women
  • Rational and scientific approach
  • Modern education for both men and women
  • Unity among Indians

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

1. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
2. Observance of strict non-violence
3. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
4. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Non-Cooperation Programme included:
  • Establishment of national schools and colleges: Thousands of students left government schools and colleges and joined national schools and colleges. It was at this time that the following educational institutions came into existence:
    • Jamia Milia Islamia (National Muslim University) of Aligarh (later shifted to Delhi).
    • Bihar Vidyapith, the Kashi Vidyapith and the Gujarat Vidyapith.
  • Promotion of indigenous goods
  • Practising hand-spinning and hand-weaving
  • Popularisation of Charkha and Khadi
  • Boycott of government educational institutions, law courts, and legislatures
    • Hundreds of lawyers, including Chittaranjan Das (Deshbandhu), Motilal Nehru, and Rajendra Prasad, gave up their legal practice
  • Boycott of foreign clothes
  • Surrender of officially conferred honours and titles (not the retention of titles and honours)
  • Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
  • Gandhi firmly insisted on strict adherence to non-violence throughout the movement.

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy

The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was

1. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
2. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
3. a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
4. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The term ‘Araghatta‘ (Persian wheel) refers to a mechanical water-lifting device used for irrigation. It played a crucial role in irrigation systems by harnessing animal power to lift water, especially from open wells. A garland of pots was attached to the rim of a wheel, which was connected to a gear mechanism. As the wheel rotated with the help of animal power, the pots lifted water in succession, enabling efficient water extraction for agricultural use.

Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta and Gunabhara?

1. Mahendravarman I
2. Simhavishnu
3. Narasimhavarman I
4. Simhavarman

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Mahendravarman I (600 – 630 C.E.) was a Pallava ruler. Mattavilasa, Chitrakarapuli, Vichitrachitta, Gundabhara and Lalitankura were the titles assumed by him. He has authored the Sanskrit work „Mastavilasa Prahasanam‟. He was a great builder of cave temples. The rock cut caves at Mandagapattu, Dalavanur and Tiruchirapalli were excavated during his time. He was defeated by Pulakesin II (Western Chalukya ruler) at a place called Pullalur near Kanchi.

Option (b) is incorrect

• Simhavishnu (575 – 590 CE) defeated the Kalabhras and laid the foundation for the establishment of the “Age of the Imperial Pallavas”. He also defeated the rulers of the Chola, Pandya and Chera kingdoms. He was a worshiper of Vishnu and had the title Avanishimha (lion of the earth). According to a literary tradition, the great poet Bharavi visited his court.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Narasimhavarman I (630 – 668 CE) was the greatest of the Pallavas, who raised the power and prestige of the dynasty to an amazing height. He had the title Mahamalla or Mamalla which means „great wrestler‟. He defeated Pulakesin II in three battles, including that at Manimangalam near Kanchi in 642 CE. Pulakesin II lost his life, and hence Narasimhavarman assumed the title Vatapikonda (the conqueror of Vatapi). Another notable achievement of Narasimhanvarman I was his novel expedition to Srilanka, to reinstate the Sinhalese prince Manavarman. During his reign, Hiuen Tsang visited the Pallava capital Kanchi and noted that Buddhism and Jainism flourished in the city besides Hinduism.
• Besides, he was a great builder, having constructed Mamallappuram (modern Mahabalipuram), and created the Monolithic Rathas (Rock-cut Rathas) during his reign.

Option (d) is incorrect

• He was one of the early Pallava ruler.

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I; Difficulty Level: Hard

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

1. Samudragupta
2. Chandragupta II
3. Kumaragupta I
4. Skandagupta

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Fa Xian (Fa Hien) was the first of the three renowned Chinese pilgrim travellers to visit India between the fifth and seventh centuries. The other two are Xuan Zang, or Hsuan Tsang (seventh century), and I-Qing, or I-tsing (seventh century). Fa Xian visited India during the Chandragupta II’s reign for around nine years, probably 400-410 CE. The main purpose of his visit was to see the Buddha’s land and collect Buddhist manuscripts from India. During his nine-year stay in India, he spent six years in the Gupta Empire. He stayed in Pataliputra for three years studying Sanskrit and copying Buddhist texts.
• Fa Xian provides valuable information on the religious, social and economic conditions of the Gupta empire. According to him, Buddhism was flourishing in northwestern India, but in the Gangetic valley it was neglected. He refers to the Gangetic valley as the ‘land of Brahmanism‘. He mentioned the unsatisfactory condition of some Buddhist holy places, such as Kapilavastu and Kusinagara. According to him, the empire’s economic condition was prosperous. Although his account is valuable in many respects, he did not mention Chandragupta II by name. He was not interested in political affairs. His interest was primarily religion. He assessed everything from the Buddhist angle. His observations on social conditions are found to be exaggerated. Yet his accounts are useful for understanding the general condition of the country.

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

1. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
2. Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
3. Rajendra I (Chola)
4. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Rajendra Chola (1012- 1044 CE):  He led the naval expedition against the Sri Vijaya empire of Southeast Asia. The empire was led by the Sailendra dynasty and extended over the Malay peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands. The expeditions led to the conquest of Kadaram and a number of other places in the Malay Peninsula and Sumatra. He also led the expedition up to the Godavari River and sent a victorious expedition to north India. The Chola army crossed the Ganges by defeating a number of rulers on its way. To commemorate this successful north Indian campaign, Rajendra founded the capital near the mouth of the Kaveri River and named it Gangaikondacholapuram. He also constructed the famous Shiva temple in that city. Rajendra Chola also conquered southern Sri Lanka, effectively bringing the entire island under Chola rule during his reign.
• Rajendra Chola assumed the titles, such as:
  • Mudikonda Cholan (the crowned Chola)
  • Gangaikonda Cholam (Chola who conquered the Ganga)
  • Kadaramkondan (conqueror of Kadaram)
  • Pandita Cholan (scholarly Cholan)

Option (a) is incorrect

• The Rashtrakuta Dynasty, founded by Dantivarman, ruled parts of the Indian subcontinent from the 6^th to 10^th CE. Amoghavarsha I ruled the Rashtrakuta dynasty for 64 years (c. 814 – 878 CE). He was a follower of Jainism, and his reign was known for cultural development. He patronised many scholars, including Mahaviracharya, Jinasena (teacher of Amoghavarsha), Virasena, Shakatayan and Sri Vijaya. Among the successors of Amoghavarsha I, Krishna III (934 – 963 CE) was famous for his expeditions. He marched against the Cholas, defeated the Chola king, Prantaka I, in 949 CE in the Battle of Takkolam and annexed the northern part of the Chola empire. He went as far as Rameswaram and occupied it for some time. After his death, the power of the Rashtrakutas declined.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Kakatiya dynasty was a Telugu dynasty ruled from Warangal from the 12^th and 14^th centuries. Prataparudra succeeded Rani Rudramma Devi (r. c. 1262–1289 CE), one of the few prominent women rulers in Indian history. In 1309 CE, he was defeated by Malik Kafur, a general of Alauddin Khilji. To avoid further destruction, he agreed to pay annual tribute to Delhi, thereby temporarily preserving his kingdom.

Option (d) is incorrect

• The Hoysala Kingdom was a Medieval Kingdom that ruled most of present-day Karnataka, parts of Tamil Nadu and southwestern Telangana between the twelfth and the fourteenth centuries CE. Originally, the Kannada Hoysalas were feudatories of the Western Chalukyas. In 1108, Vishnuvardhana became a ruler and started asserting his independence by fighting his overlord, Vikramaditya VI (Western Chalukyas of Kalyani) and the Chola Empire. Vishnuvardhana’s grandson Veera Ballala II became the ruler in 1173 and formally declared his independence.

Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola); Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial region	River flowing in the region
Asmaka	Godavari
Kamboja	Vipas
Avanti	Mahanadi
Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four

Explanation

Pair I is correct

• The Assakas (Asmaka) inhabited the banks of the Godavari River near modern Paithan in Maharashtra, which has been identified with ancient Pratishthana—their capital. It was the only Mahajanapada located south of the Vindhya Range, in the region known as Dakshinapatha.

Pair II is incorrect

• Kamboja was located somewhere close to Gandhara, around the present-day Poonch area. Vipas (Beas River) passes through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.

Pair III is incorrect

• The core area of this kingdom would roughly correspond to the Ujjain district of Madhya Pradesh, extending up to the river Narmada. It had another important city, Mahismati, which is sometimes mentioned as its capital. Mahanadi mainly flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

Pair IV is correct

• Kosala was bound by the Sadanira (modern-day Gandak) on the east and the Gomati on the west, the Sarpika or Syandika (Sai) on the south, and the Nepal hills to the north. The Sarayu River divided it into a northern and a southern part. Shravasti (identified with modern Saheth Maheth) was the capital of north Kosala, and Kushavati was the capital of south Kosala.
• Pasenadi (Prasenajit), king of Kosala, was the Buddha’s contemporary and is frequently mentioned in Pali texts.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

1. Delhi
2. Gwalior
3. Ujjain
4. Lahore

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar was a distinguished Indian musicologist, teacher, and composer, renowned for his pivotal role in the revival and popularization of Hindustani classical music. He founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901. Later, Gandharva Mahavidyalaya shifted to Mumbai. After his death in 1931, the Delhi branch was inaugurated in 1939 by Pt. Vinay Chandra Maudgalya, who belonged to the same musical tradition.

Answer: (d) Lahore; Difficulty Level: Hard

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the Pradeshika, Rajuka and Yukta were important officers at the

1. village-level administration
2. district-level administration
3. provincial administration
4. level of the central administration

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The empire was divided into four provinces. Each province was placed under a governor, usually a royal prince and was called Kumara. The Kumara was, in turn, assisted by Mahamatyas (Mahamatras during Asoka’s period) and a council of ministers. The provinces were divided into smaller units, and arrangements were made for both rural and urban administration.
• District administration: Pradesika, Rajuka and Yukta were officials at the district level. Their functions included surveying and assessing land, conducting tours and inspections, collecting revenue, and maintaining law and order.
  • Pradesika’s position and functions were similar to those of a modern collector (overall in charge of the district). Rajukas were responsible for surveying and assessing land. Yuktas, or subordinate officials, assisted Rajukas.
• Urban Administration: There was a Municipal Board with 30 members in the urban area. Megasthenes refers to six committees of five Board members each to administer Pataliputra.
• Village Administration: Village administration was in the hands of Gramani, and his official superior was called Gopa, who was in charge of ten or fifteen villages.
• Major Rock Edict III: It mentions that Yuktas, Rajukas, and Pradesikas travelled to all parts of the kingdom every five years to spread the Dhamma policy. This edict was issued after 12 years of Asoka’s coronation.

Answer: (b) District Level administration; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

1. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
2. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• At the Nagpur Congress Session in 1920, Congress approved the non-cooperation resolution moved by C.R. Das. Congress’s creed changed from the goal of attaining self-government through constitutional means to the attainment of Swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means.

Statement II is correct

• Gandhi’s strategy for the Non-Cooperation Movement involved a phased approach. Initially, it emphasised non-violent non-cooperation, including the boycott of titles, law courts, government schools, and foreign goods. The next phase was mass civil disobedience, including non-payment of taxes. After the Chauri-Chaura Incident, Gandhi postponed the proposed civil disobedience.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following types of vehicles:

1. Full battery electric vehicles
2. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
3. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

• An alternative powertrain is a system that powers a vehicle without relying solely on an internal combustion engine. These systems aim to reduce emissions and dependence on fossil fuels. Examples include hybrid, electric, and hydrogen fuel cell powertrains.

Vehicle Type	Alternative Powertrain?	Reason
Full Battery Electric Vehicle	Yes	Uses batteries, no fossil fuels
Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicle	Yes	Uses hydrogen, emits water
Fuel Cell–Electric Hybrid Vehicle	Yes	Combine fuel cell (usually hydrogen-based) with battery storage or another electric system

PMF Concept Hack Use simple common sense here — all three vehicles work on something other than the normal petrol/diesel engine. One runs on batteries, another on hydrogen fuel cells, and the third combines fuel-cell and electric technology. So, all of them are clearly alternative powertrain vehicles.

Answer: (c) All the three; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
2. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
3. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• Only certain types of UAVs (like multirotors or VTOL drones) can do vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL).
• Fixed-wing UAVs generally require a runway or catapult to take off and land, not vertical landing.

Statement II is incorrect

• Multirotor UAVs can hover. But fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover – they need forward motion to generate lift. So not all UAVs can hover autonomously.

Statement III is incorrect

• Some UAVs use internal combustion engines, hybrid systems, or solar power. A battery is common, but not the only power source for all UAVs.

PMF Concept Hack All three statements use the word “All”, which is a major red flag in technology questions. Unmanned Aerial Vehicle types are very diverse—some can do vertical landing and hovering (like quadcopters), while many cannot. Similarly, UAVs can run on fuel, hybrid systems, or solar power, not just batteries. Since all three statements are overgeneralized, none are correct → (d)

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Easy

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

1. Cobalt
2. Graphite
3. Lithium
4. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four

Explanation

Cobalt is correct

• Cobalt is commonly used in EV battery cathodes, especially in Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO) and Nickel Manganese Cobalt (NMC) chemistries.

Graphite is incorrect

• Graphite is used in anodes, not cathodes. It’s the most common anode material in lithium-ion batteries.

Lithium is correct

• Lithium is a core component of the cathode materials. Though it is also present in the electrolyte and anode, it is central to the cathode structure.

Nickel is correct

• Nickel is commonly used in cathodes, especially in high-energy batteries like NMC and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminium).

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following:

1. Cigarette butts
2. Eyeglass lenses
3. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Cigarette butts contain plastic

• Cigarette butts do contain plastic. The filter of a cigarette is primarily made of cellulose acetate, a type of plastic. Cigarette butts are actually the most abundant form of plastic waste in the world, with about 4.5 trillion individual butts polluting our global environment.

Eyeglass lenses contain plastic

• Most modern eyeglass lenses are made from plastic, not glass. Common materials include polycarbonate and CR-39 plastic. These are lightweight, impact-resistant, and cheaper than glass.

Car tyres contain plastic

• Car tyres are not pure rubber; they contain synthetic polymers (plastics). They are made from a blend of natural and synthetic rubber (such as styrene-butadiene rubber, a synthetic polymer). They also contain nylon and polyester fibres, which are also plastic-based materials.

PMF Concept Hack If an item is industrially manufactured and meant to be durable or synthetic, assume polymers/plastics may be present unless clearly natural. Cigarette butts have plastic filters, eyeglass lenses are often made of plastic, and tyres contain synthetic rubber polymers. Here, eliminating any option is risky because all three reasonably involve plastic

Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following substances:

1. Ethanol
2. Nitroglycerine
3. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None

Explanation

Ethanol is correct

• Coal gasification converts coal into syngas (a mixture of hydrogen (H₂), carbon monoxide (CO), and CO₂), which can be further processed to produce various chemicals and fuels. Ethanol can be synthesised indirectly from syngas via Fischer-Tropsch synthesis or catalytic conversion. Although ethanol is typically produced from biomass, coal-derived syngas can also be used as a feedstock.

Nitroglycerine is incorrect

• Nitroglycerine is made from glycerol (glycerine) and nitric acid. Glycerol is typically derived from fats and oils, not from coal or syngas. It is not related to coal gasification.

Urea is correct

• Urea is made from ammonia (NH₃) and CO₂. Ammonia can be synthesised from hydrogen in syngas (obtained via coal gasification) via the Haber-Bosch process. The CO₂ byproduct is also available from coal gasification.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

1. These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
2. These are explosives in military weapons
3. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
4. These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Explanation

Option (b) is Correct

• CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive), and LLM-105 are high-energy explosives. These compounds are used in military applications due to their high detonation velocity and pressure, making them powerful and efficient in weapons like bombs and warheads.

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. It is expected that the Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
2. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
3. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

• Majorana 1 is a quantum chip developed by Microsoft that aims to make quantum computing more stable and reliable by leveraging a new state of matter called Majorana particles. Their purpose is to create less error-prone qubits for practical quantum computing.

Statement III is correct

• Deep learning is a subset of machine learning that uses multi-layered artificial neural networks to model and understand complex data patterns.
• Unlike broader machine learning algorithms, deep learning excels in tasks like image recognition, natural language processing, and speech recognition.

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be eliminated first using current-affairs awareness. Even from the name, “Web Services” sounds more like a cloud/computing service platform than a chip manufacturer, making the statement unlikely. Once Statement II is eliminated, options containing it are removed.

Answer: (c) I and III only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

1. They are man-made proteins.
2. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
3. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are artificially created proteins designed to mimic the immune system’s ability to fight off harmful pathogens.

Statement II is correct

• mAbs target specific antigens, such as those on the surface of viruses or cancer cells. This specific binding helps stimulate the immune system or neutralise the target, assisting in treatment.

Statement III is correct

• mAbs have been used or developed to treat viral infections like Ebola, SARS-CoV-2, and the Nipah virus. E.g., m102.4 is an mAb that has shown promise against Nipah virus in experimental settings.

Answer: (d) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
2. No virus can infect bacteria.
3. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• The ocean is full of viruses, particularly bacteriophages, which infect marine bacteria. In fact, viruses are the most abundant biological entities in the ocean, playing a key role in regulating microbial populations and nutrient cycling.

Statement II is incorrect

• Bacteriophages (or simply phages) are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are extensively studied in molecular biology and even used in phage therapy as an alternative to antibiotics.

Statement III is incorrect

• Viruses commonly alter host cells’ transcriptional machinery to replicate their genetic material. E.g., HIV and many other viruses hijack the host cell’s transcription system for viral gene expression.

PMF Concept Hack All three statements use “No”, which is an absolute claim and usually a red flag. In biology, exceptions are common—viruses are found in oceans, bacteriophages infect bacteria, and viruses alter host cell activity.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
2. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
3. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesised from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct

• Activated carbon, also known as activated charcoal, active carbon, or active coal, is a highly purified form of carbon renowned for its exceptionally large surface area and intricate network of microscopic pores. These unique properties make it a powerful material for purifying liquids and gases in countless industrial and environmental applications. It can capture a wide array of contaminants, including volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and water-based pollutants.

Statement III is correct

• Activated carbon, derived from carbon-rich materials like environmental wastes with high carbon content, wood, coconut shells, and coal. Statement II explains why activated carbon is effective (high surface area and adsorption). Statement III explains how it can be sustainably produced (from carbon-rich waste).

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
2. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
3. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct, and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Global cement manufacturing is responsible for about 8% of the world’s total CO2 emissions. The cement industry contributes significantly to global CO₂ emissions – both from fuel combustion and from chemical processes such as calcination (heating limestone).

Statement II is correct

• In cement manufacturing, limestone (CaCO₃) is mixed with clay (which contains silica, alumina, etc.) before heating to form clinker.

Statement III is correct and explains statement I

• Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. This refers to the calcination process: CaCO₃ (limestone)→CaO (lime)+CO₂. This process releases a significant amount of CO₂, which directly explains Statement I.
• Clinker is the primary component in cement and is extremely carbon-intensive, making up 90% of overall emissions from cement.

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
2. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
3. Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its healthcare system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• At COP28 (Dubai), the UAE Declaration on Climate and Health was launched to integrate health into climate action. It aimed to promote sustainable practices within the health sector to contribute to broader climate goals.
• India refrained from signing the declaration.

Statement II is incorrect

• The declaration is non-binding and serves as a voluntary commitment for countries to consider health in their climate policies, but does not impose legal obligations.

Statement III is correct and explains statement I

• The declaration included reducing GHGs in healthcare infrastructure cooling applications. India expressed concerns that GHG reductions in cooling in the health sector could hinder its ability to meet growing demand for medical services, particularly in remote and underserved areas.

PMF Concept Hack Statement II can be eliminated first because international declarations are generally non-binding, so calling the COP28 Climate and Health Declaration mandatory is unlikely. Statement III can be seen as reasonable in the Indian context—rapid decarbonization of the health sector may create concerns regarding costs, infrastructure adaptation, and continuity of healthcare services, which could affect resilience in the short term. Thus, Answer: (c)

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct, and that explains Statement I; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
2. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
3. Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Recent scientific studies, including those from ETH Zurich published in Nature Geoscience and PNAS, have confirmed that the Earth’s rotation and its axis are shifting. The studies show that these shifts are becoming more pronounced and are not just part of natural variations — human-induced climate change is playing a significant role.

Statement II is correct

• While solar flares and coronal mass ejections do impact the Earth’s outer atmosphere — affecting satellites, communication systems, and even power grids — these energy bursts do not contribute to shifts in Earth’s rotation or axis.

Statement III is correct and explains Statement I

• The ETH Zurich study clearly states that climate change is melting polar ice, and the resulting water redistributes toward the equator. This shift in mass alters Earth’s moment of inertia, much like how a spinning skater slows down when extending their arms. This change affects not only Earth’s rotation speed (leading to slightly longer days) but also causes the rotational axis to shift.

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
2. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
3. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Article 6 is central to global climate negotiations as it provides mechanisms for international cooperation through market and non-market approaches — essential for sustainable development and climate finance.

Statement II is correct

• It helps countries work together to reduce their carbon emissions. It sets out options for countries and companies to trade offsets, helping them meet the goals they set to reduce greenhouse gas emissions in their climate action plans, known as nationally determined contributions (NDCs). One option allows two countries to set their own terms for a bilateral carbon trading agreement, which is known as Article 6.2. The second aims to create a central, UN-managed system for countries and companies to begin offsetting their carbon emissions and trading those offsets, known as Article 6.4.

Statement III is correct

• Article 6.8 addresses non-market international cooperation among governments. These new rules cover both government-to-government and government-to-private sector markets. Non-market approaches (NMAs) may include social inclusivity, financial policies and measures, circular economy, blue carbon, just transition of the workforce, and adaptation benefit mechanism.

Additional Information The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at the COP21 in Paris (France) in 2015. It entered into force in 2016 after ratification by 55 countries that account for at least 55% of global emissions India signed and ratified in 2016. The agreement set a goal of limiting global warming to well below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels. The agreement calls for zero net anthropogenic GHG emissions to be reached during the second half of the 21st century.

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

1. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
2. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
3. The New Development Bank (NDB)
4. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In 2023, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub.
• This initiative aims to mobilise finance for nature-based solutions (NbS) such as:
  1. Ecosystem restoration
  2. Natural climate buffers (mangroves, forests)
  3. Sustainable land management
  4. Climate-resilient infrastructure
• It supports Asia-Pacific countries in integrating NbS into their development planning and accessing blended finance.

Additional Information: Asian Development Bank (ADB) It is a financial institution established in 1966. It has its headquarters in Manila, Philippines. It was conceived in the early 1960s as a financial institution that would be Asian in character and foster economic growth and cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region. It aims to make Asia and the Pacific prosperous, inclusive, resilient, & sustainable while tackling poverty. ADB promotes private sector development, gender empowerment, regional integration, etc. Functions: ADB assists its members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance and grants. It focuses on projects that help promote private investments in the region that will have a significant development impact and lead to accelerated, sustainable, and inclusive growth. Eighty per cent of ADB’s lending is concentrated public sector lending in five operational areas: Education Environment Regional Cooperation Finance sector development Private sector lending Membership ADB has 68 members (originally 31). 49 members are from Asia and the Pacific. 19 members are from outside the Asia Pacific region. Contribution of member states and Voting: The ADB was modelled closely on the World Bank/IMF and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed proportionately with members’ capital subscriptions. Contributions: Japan and the USA (15.7 % each) China (6.4 %) India (6.3 %) India is a founding member of ADB and the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder.

Option (b) is incorrect

• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank that provides financing for infrastructure projects in Asia.

Option (c) is incorrect

• NDB (BRICS Bank) formally came into existence as a legal entity in 2015 on the eve of the Ufa summit. It was established by BRICS member states in 2016.

Option (d) is incorrect

• IBRD is an international financial institution that offers loans to middle-income developing countries.

Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
2. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
3. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I and II only
2. III only
3. I, II and III
4. None of the above statements is correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Direct air capture (DAC) technologies extract CO2 directly from the atmosphere at any location, unlike carbon capture, which is generally carried out at the point of emissions, such as a steel plant. The CO2 can be permanently stored in deep geological formations or used for a variety of applications.

Statement II is correct

• The CO2 captured from the air can be utilised for various industrial purposes. Captured CO₂ can be used as a feedstock for producing plastics (e.g., polycarbonates). In food processing, CO₂ is used for carbonated beverages, cold storage, and controlled-atmosphere packaging. This provides a sustainable CO₂ source for industry.

Statement III is correct

• Early commercial efforts to develop synthetic aviation fuels using air-captured CO2 and hydrogen have started, reflecting the important role that these fuels could play in the sector.

PMF Concept Hack The keyword “can be” in all statements indicates possibility in a broader sense, not certainty. Since all statements talk about possible applications, they are acceptable.

Answer: (c) I, II and III; Difficulty Level: Medium

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

1. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
2. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
3. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. I and III
3. II only
4. II and III

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• The Peacock tarantula is a spider, not a crustacean

Statements II and III are correct

• This species is endemic to a small region in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh.
• The Gooty tarantula is an arboreal (tree-dwelling) spider.

Answer: (d) II and III; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂ / capita.
2. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
3. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I and III only
2. II only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• Overall, India is the third largest emitter of carbon at 3.2 billion tonnes annually (2024), led by the U. S. (4.9 billion tonnes) and China (12 billion tonnes). In per person terms, it is 2.2 tonnes of carbon dioxide per year, the second lowest of 20 of the largest economies globally.

Statement II is correct

• India is the second-largest emitter of CO₂ from fuel, including combustion, in the Asia-Pacific region, following China.

Statement III is correct

• The electricity and heat production sector is the largest source of CO₂ emissions in India, accounting for around 53% of total energy-related CO₂ emissions.

Answer: (c) II and III only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
Cassava	Woody shrub
Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
Mint	Annual shrub
Papaya	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All the five

Explanation

Cassava is a Woody shrub

• Cassava is a woody shrub with tuberous roots belonging to the spurge family (Euphorbiaceae). Native to South America, it is widely cultivated as an annual crop in many tropical and subtropical regions worldwide. The crop was introduced from Brazil into India by the Portuguese during the 17^th century.

Ginger is an herb with a pseudostem

• Ginger is a herbaceous plant in which what appears to be a stem is actually a pseudostem, formed by rolled leaf bases. It is believed to be native to southern China, Southeast Asia, and India.

Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climber

• Malabar spinach is a fast-growing, soft-stemmed vine, a herbaceous climber. It is native to the Indian Subcontinent, Southeast Asia and New Guinea.

Mint is not an annual shrub

• Mint is a perennial herb, not a shrub. It spreads through runners and has soft, non-woody stems.

Papaya is not a woody shrub

• Papaya is a herbaceous plant, despite its tree-like appearance. It has a soft, hollow stem and is not woody. It is native to Central America and is grown in tropical and warmer subtropical areas worldwide. It was introduced to India by the Portuguese.

Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

1. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
2. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
3. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I and II
2. II only
3. I and III
4. None of the above statements is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect

• The amount of oxygen produced in the Ocean is much greater (50-70%) than the oxygen produced by rainforests on land (estimated at 30%).

Statement II is correct

• Approximately half of all the oxygen on Earth comes from phytoplankton in the ocean. Larger kelp and seaweed are also producers of oxygen in the ocean. This brings the total ocean oxygen production up to 50-80%. The smallest photosynthetic organism, Prochlorococcus, produces 20% of the world’s oxygen all alone.

Statement III is incorrect

• This is scientifically inaccurate. Even well-oxygenated water holds far less oxygen than air. Dissolved oxygen in water is typically 8–14 mg/L, whereas atmospheric air contains ~210,000 mg/L of oxygen (21% of 1,000,000 mg/L).

PMF Concept Hack Using basic understanding, Statement I can be eliminated because most oxygen comes from oceans (phytoplankton), not rainforests. Statement III is also incorrect as it exaggerates—water does not contain several times more oxygen than air. Statement II is a known fact that marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about half of the world’s oxygen. Hence, only Statement II is correct → (b).

Answer: (b) II only; Difficulty Level: Medium