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UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2016

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Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2016 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2016 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2016

Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
  2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code below
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Prorogation means the end of a session (not of a Parliament).
  • The Effect of prorogation on Pending Business:
    • Bills: a bill pending in Parliament does not lapse by the prorogation of the House.
    • Business pending before Parliamentary Committees: Any business pending before a committee does not lapse by the prorogation of the House.
    • Motions and Resolutions: On the prorogation, all pending notices except those relating to the introduction of Bills lapse and fresh notices must be given for the next session.
  • The President declares the summoning and prorogation of both Houses of Parliament. On prorogation of either (any) House of Parliament, the President can issue Ordinances (since it is impossible to enact laws when any of the Houses is not in session) under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution. If an Ordinance is issued/notified before the order of prorogation, it would be void.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows:
    1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
    2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
    3. A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
    4. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
    5. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?

  1. Undernourishment
  2. Child stunting
  3. Child Mortality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation

All are correct
  • Global Hunger Report is an annual report jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe (NGOs from Ireland and Germany, respectively, Earlier IFPRI was part of it).
  • GHI scores are based on the values of four indicators (Equally weighted):
    • Undernourishment
    • Child stunting
    • Child wasting
    • Child mortality
  • The GHI scores range between 0 and 100, with higher scores indicating more hunger.

Additional Information

  • Stunting is a condition where a child’s (under five years) height is lower than the average for their age.
  • Wasting refers to a low weight-to-height ratio.
  • Underweight refers to a person’s weight being lower than the average for their age.

International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)

  • Established as a nonprofit corporation in 1975, it provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries.
  • It is a Research Center of CGIAR, the world’s largest agricultural innovation network, and the only CGIAR center solely dedicated to food policy research.
  • Headquarters: Washington, D.C
  • Important report: Global Food Policy Report
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?

  1. Reducing Revenue Expenditure
  2. Introducing new welfare scheme
  3. Rationalizing subsidies
  4. Reducing import duties
Select the correct answer using the code below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Reducing Revenue Expenditure is correct
  • Revenue expenditure includes routine expenses such as salaries, pensions, and interest payments, which do not create assets. By cutting down on these expenditures, the government can reduce its overall spending, directly contributing to lowering the budget deficit.
Introducing a new welfare scheme is incorrect
  • Introducing new schemes increases government spending, potentially increasing the deficit rather than reducing it.
Rationalising subsidies is correct
  • Rationalisation means making subsidies more efficient, often by limiting them to targeted groups or reducing non-essential subsidies. By doing so, the government can reduce unnecessary expenditure, helping to shrink the budget deficit.
Reducing import duties is incorrect
  • Import duties are a source of revenue for the government. Reducing them would decrease revenue and could even increase imports, which could worsen the deficit rather than help reduce it.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

  1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
  2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards
  3. Payment banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Eligible promoters: NBFCs, individuals, corporations, mobile phone companies, supermarket chains, real estate cooperatives, and public sector entities.
Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct
  • What is not allowed?
    • No credit risk involved. (it can’t advance loans or issue credit cards)
    • They cannot accept NRI deposits.
  • What is allowed?
    • Can accept demand deposits (up to Rs 1 lakh).
    • Offer remittance services.
    • Mobile payments/transfers/purchases.
    • Other banking services like ATM/debit cards, net banking and third-party fund transfers.

Infographic explaining payment banks, highlighting their purpose to increase financial services in remote areas by operating on a smaller scale than regular banks. It details eligible promoters, restrictions like no credit risk or CERS deposits, allowed services such as deposits up to 2 lakh rupees and remittance, regulatory provisions, minimum capital requirements, and promoters' contribution rules, using icons, color-coded sections, and brief text blocks.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission
  2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘Wi-Fi’
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both 1 and 2 are correct
  • LiFi (light fidelity) is a bidirectional wireless system that transmits data via LED or infrared light.
  • It was first unveiled in 2011 and, unlike wifi, which uses radio frequency, LiFi technology only needs a light source with a chip to transmit an internet signal through light waves.
  • Its main advantages include:
    • Faster: This results in faster transmission of data and faster internet connections – about 100 times faster than speeds achievable by WiFi.
    • Cheaper and more sustainable: it is up to 10 times cheaper than wifi, requires fewer components and uses less energy.
    • More accessible: any light fitting can easily be converted into an internet connection point, as only a simple LiFi emitter needs to be fitted.
    • More secure: light does not pass through walls like radio waves do, and this prevents intruders from intercepting LiFi communications through a wireless network.
    • No interference: electronic light does not interfere with radio communications, interact with other systems or compromise transmissions from aircraft, ships, etc.

Infographic explaining Li-Fi (Light Fidelity) Internet technology, featuring a central LED bulb illustration with labeled arrows describing its mechanism, data conversion, and wireless optical communication using visible, infrared, and ultraviolet light. Sections highlight advantages such as speeds over 100 Gbps and large bandwidth, alongside limitations including line-of-sight dependency, limited range, and ambient light interference.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. Pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East
  2. Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change
  3. Capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
  4. Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Intended Nationally Determined Contributions refer to the commitments made by individual countries under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, particularly in the lead-up to the Paris Agreement. These were non-binding national plans outlining climate actions, including targets for reducing greenhouse gas emissions, along with policies and measures to address climate change and contribute to global climate goals. After the Paris Agreement came into force, INDCs were formally termed as Nationally Determined Contributions.
Answer: (b) Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?

  1. Providing technical and financial assistance to the start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy
  2. Providing electricity to every household in the country of 2018
  3. Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind, and tidal power plants over a period of time
  4. Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Launched in November 2015, Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojna or UDAY scheme by the Ministry of Power focuses on the financial recovery and revitalization of power distribution companies (DISCOMs). It is basically a debt restructuring plan for DISCOMs (to improve their operational efficiency) and was kept optional for states.
Answer: (d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
  2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • In India, the first Masala bond was issued by the World Bank-backed IFC in November 2014, and it raised Rs. 1,000 crore in bonds to fund infrastructure projects in India.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Bonds are instruments of debt, typically used by corporations to raise money from investors. Masala Bonds are the rupee-denominated bonds issued to overseas buyers for raising money by the public and private sector.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Regarding the taxation systems of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:

  1. The tax rate of land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
  2. Private owners of workshops paid an industry tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • Rate of revenue demand varied in different parts of the Vijayanagar empire and in the same locality itself, according to the fertility and regional location of the land.
  • It was generally 1/6th of the produce, but in some cases it was even more ranging up to 1/4th.
    • But on Brahmans and temples it was 1/20th to 1/30th respectively.
  • According to an inscription, the rates of taxes were as follows:
    • One-third of the produce of kuruvai (a type of rice) during winter.
    • One-fourth of seasame, ragi, horsegram, etc.
    • One-sixth of millet and other crops cultivated on dry land.
  • Thus, the rate varied according to the type of crops, soil, method of irrigation, etc.
  • It was payable both in cash and kind.
  • We find references to three major categories of land tenure which indicate the way in which the village income was distributed.
  • Bhandaravada:
    • The bhandarvada was a crown village comprising the smallest category.
    • A part of its income was utilised to maintain the Vijaynagar forts.
  • Manya:
    • Income from the manya (tax-free) villages was used to maintain the Brahmans, temples, and mathas.
    • The manya rights underwent a transformation during this period.
  • Amara:
    • The largest category was of the amara villages given by the Vijaynagar rulers to the amaranayakas.
    • Their holders did not possess proprietary rights in land but enjoyed -privileges over its income only.
    • The amara tenure was primarily residual in the sense that its income was distributed after deductions had been made for support of the Brahmans and forts.
    • Three-quarters of all the villages came under this category.
  • Other taxes:
    • Besides land-tax, many professional taxes also were imposed. These were on shopkeepers, farm-servants, shepherds, washermen, potters, shoemakers, musicians etc.
    • There was also tax on property, grazing and house taxes were also imposed.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of the Sunga dynasty?

  1. Swapnavasavadatta
  2. Malavikagnimitra
  3. Meghadoota
  4. Ratnavati

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Malavikagnimitra is a Sanskrit play by Kalidasa. Based on some events of the reign of Pushyamitra Shunga, it is his first play. Malavikagnimitra tells the story of the love of Agnimitra (son of Pushyamitra), the Shunga Emperor at Vidisha, for the beautiful handmaiden of his chief queen.

Additional Information

  • Kalidasa was one of the navratnas of Chandragupta II. The notable feature of his works include the display of an element of humour, with the characters of higher caste speaking in Sanskrit while those of lower caste and women speaking in Prakrit.
  • Kalidasa invokes Shiva in the beginning of his works and names him Triloknath.
  • Some of his works are.
  • Meghaduta.
  • Abhijyanashakuntalam: Centers on the love story between King Dushyanta and Shakuntala. It was first translated in English by Charles Wilkins and is one of the most widely translated works.
  • Kumarasambhavam: Story about the birth of Shiva and Parvati’s son and also contains references of Sati system.
  • Raghuvamsha: Depicts Vishnu as the origin and the end of the universe.
  • Ritusamhara: Poem describing the cycle of seasons.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • Bhasa is one of the most celebrated Indian playwrights, and is the author of Swapnavasavadatta. It is a play written in six acts. It is based on the romantic narrative that tells the tale of Vatsa King Udayana, one of the most revered rulers of India’s many kingdoms, and Vasavadatta, who was the daughter of the ruler of Avanti.
  • Thirteen Plays of Bhasa: Pratijnayaugandharayana, Svapnavasavadatta, Carudatta, Pancaratra, Madhyamavyayoga, Pratima-nataka, Dutavakya, Dutaghatotkaca, Karnabhara, Urubhanga, Avimaraka, Balacarita, Abhiseka.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Meghaduta (The Cloud Messenger) is a famous lyrical poem by Kalidasa, known for its exquisite imagery, emotion, and beauty. Written in Sanskrit, the poem narrates the story of a Yaksha (a nature spirit) who, exiled by his master, Kubera (the god of wealth), is separated from his beloved wife and is longing to be reunited with her. The poem unfolds as the Yaksha enlists the help of a passing cloud to carry a message of love to his wife
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Harsha Vardhana (c. 606−647 CE) was a great patron of the arts and learning.
  • It is believed that he wrote three dramas Priyadarshika, Ratnavali (both romantic comedies), and Nagananda (based on Bodhisattva Jimutavahana).
  • Ratnavali, is a Sanskrit drama narrating the story of Princess Ratnavali and King Udayana.
    • King Udayana was the hero of three Sanskrit dramas, viz., Svapnavasavadatta of Bhasa, Priyadarshika, and Ratnavali of Harsha.
Answer: (b) Malavikagnimitra; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box, and green box’ in the news?

  1. WTO affairs
  2. SAARC affairs
  3. UNFCCC affairs
  4. India-EU negotiations on FTA

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The terms Amber Box, Blue Box, and Green Box are used in the World Trade Organization framework, specifically under the Agreement on Agriculture (AoA). These terms classify domestic agricultural subsidies based on their level of trade distortion

Infographic explaining World Trade Organization (WTO) structure, functions, and key principles with a world map highlighting 165 member countries in red and founding member India marked. Sections detail WTO's establishment, mandate, governance bodies like Ministerial Conference and Dispute Settlement Body, core principles such as non-discrimination and free trade, and major agreements including agriculture and intellectual property.

  • Agreement on Agriculture (AoA): It was negotiated during the Uruguay Round of trade talks and was formally ratified in 1994 at Marrakesh. It came into force in 1995 with the establishment of the World Trade Organisation. The AoA aims to promote fair competition in global agricultural trade by reducing trade-distorting subsidies and improving market access for agricultural products. To achieve these objectives, the agreement includes commitments in three key areas: domestic support, export subsidies, and market access. Countries agreed to gradually reduce support and protection in these areas. Among these, the reduction in domestic food subsidies has been the most controversial, particularly for developing countries. This is a major concern for India, where a large section of the population depends on agriculture for livelihood and food security. At the same time, the agreement also recognizes non-trade concerns such as food security, rural development, and environmental protection, and therefore provides special and differential treatment for developing countries

Diagram illustrating "Three Pillars" of Agreement on Agriculture, focusing on Market Access, Domestic Support, and Export Subsidies. Each pillar is highlighted with a red border and lists key components such as tariff reduction and special safeguard under Market Access, AMS reduction and Green Box under Domestic Support, and reduction and prohibition of new subsidies under Export Subsidies.

Additional Information

  • The AoA categorises domestic support measures into three boxes—green, blue, and amber based on their trade-distorting nature.

Green box

  • Subsidies that do not distort trade or, at most, cause minimal distortion are in this box. Usually, these subsidies are not directed at specific products.
  • There is no limit on governments for giving this kind of subsidies to their farmers.

Diagram of a green 3D box labeled "Green Box" listing categories of agricultural support measures such as research, training, extension, infrastructure, pest and disease control, public stockholding, domestic food aid, decoupled income support, and support to structural adjustment. The diagram highlights key components of green box subsidies that are considered minimally trade-distorting under international trade rules.

Amber Box

  • The subsidies that distort international trade by making products of a particular country cheaper as compared to similar products from another country are slotted under this box.
  • Example – Input subsidies such as subsidies on electricity, seeds, fertilisers, irrigation, etc. Market support price (MSP) subsidies also fall under this box.
  • To measure ‘amber box’ support, WTO member countries are required to compute the aggregate measure of support (AMS).
  • The AMS means the annual level of support (subsidies) expressed in monetary terms provided for an agricultural product. It includes both product-specific & non-product-specific support.
  • The fixed external reference price is used to calculate the AMS to determine compliance with subsidy limits.
  • The fixed external reference price shall be based on the years 1986 to 1988.
  • WTO limits this subsidy by capping it at 5% for developed countries & 10% for developing countries of their total agriculture production. (de minimis).

Blue Box Subsidies

  • According to the WTO, the Blue Box is the “amber box subsidy with conditions” attached.
  • The Blue Box subsidies aim towards limiting production by imposing production quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their land.
  • Blue Box subsidies are also exempted from the calculation of AMS.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.

Infographic detailing South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), including formation date, member countries, objectives, and key centers. Features a color-coded map highlighting member nations, headquarters in Kathmandu, and significant institutions like SAARC Energy Centre and Disaster Management Centre, along with founding members and current observers.

Option (c) is incorrect
  • UNFCCC is an international environmental treaty that came into existence under the aegis of the UN.
  • It was negotiated at the Earth Summit 1992.
  • Role: UNFCCC provides a framework for negotiating specific international treaties (called “protocols”) that aim to set binding limits on greenhouse gases.
  • Objective of UNFCCC: Stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous consequences.
  • Legal Effect: Treaty is considered legally non-binding.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • India and the European Union concluded negotiations for a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA) in January 2026.
Answer: (a) WTO affairs; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

  1. Expenditure on acquisitions of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
  2. Loans received from foreign governments
  3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct
  • The Capital Budget of the Government of India includes capital receipts and capital expenditure, which either create assets or reduce liabilities. Expenditure on the acquisition of assets such as roads, buildings, and machinery is treated as capital expenditure because it leads to the creation of assets. Loans received from foreign governments are included as capital receipts since they create liabilities for the government. Similarly, loans and advances granted to States and Union Territories are treated as capital expenditure because they create financial assets for the government. Therefore, all the given statements are correct.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is/are the importance/importance of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’?

  1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programs and supportive international partnerships.
  2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of a major portion of financial resources to these regions.
  3. It is committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct
  • UNCCD, along with the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the UNFCCC, emerged from the 1992 Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit. UNCCD was established in 1994 in Paris. It is ratified by 196 countries and European Union. India ratified the UNCCD Convention in 1996.
  • It is an agreement for ensuring global action against land degradation.
  • It is the only legally binding international agreement that links environment and development to sustainable land management.
  • The Convention requires countries to draw up their national action programmes (NAP) using a bottom-up approach — from the local community up — to restore degraded lands.
  • The Global Mechanism (GM) was established under UNCCD to assist countries in the mobilisation of financial resources to implement the Convention.
  • The CoP is the supreme decision-making body of UNCCD. It is held every two years. The CoP reviews the implementation of the Convention, formulates strategies, coordinates its work with other agencies and NGOs, and so on
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Although the UNCCD gives special attention to Africa, it does not specifically focus on South Asia and North Africa, nor does its Secretariat allocate a major portion of financial resources specifically to these regions
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of the IMF’s SDR?

  1. Rouble
  2. Rand
  3. Indian Rupee
  4. Renminbi

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • In the review concluded in 2015, the IMF’s Executive Board decided that the Chinese renminbi (RMB) met the criteria for inclusion in the SDR basket. In October 2016, the Chinese RMB joined the SDR basket.

Infographic detailing International Monetary Fund (IMF) overview, including history, objectives, functions, and financial assistance facilities. Features a world map highlighting member countries, timeline from 1944 establishment to operations start in 1947, key functions like economic surveillance and lending, and explanations of Special Drawing Rights with charts and reports listed.

Answer: (d) Renminbi; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

  1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
  2. The World Bank participates as an observer in IMFC’s meetings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The IMF is led by a Managing Director, elected for a 5-year term by the Executive Board. The Board of Governors, Ministerial Committees, and Executive Board make up the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  • Board of Governors:
    • The Board of Governors is the highest decision-making body of the IMF. It consists of one Governor and one Alternate Governor from each member country.
    • The member country appoints the governor, usually the Minister of Finance or the Head of the Central Bank.
    • For India, the Finance Minister is the ex-officio Governor on the Board of Governors of the IMF.
    • The Governor of RBI is India’s Alternate Governor.
    • The Board of Governors usually meets once a year in September/October to discuss the work of the respective institutions at the Annual meetings.
    • Two ministerial committees, the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) and the Development Committee, advise the Board of Governors.
  • IMFC:
    • Advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system, including on responses to unfolding events that may disrupt the system.
    • Although the IMFC has no formal decision-making powers, in practice, it has become a key instrument for providing strategic direction to the work and policies of the Fund.
    • The IMFC has 24 members (India is one of the current members) who are central bank governors, ministers, or others of comparable rank and who are usually drawn from the governors of the IMF’s 191 member countries.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The IMFC operates by consensus, including on the selection of its chair.
  • While there are no formal rules on term limits, since 2007 IMFC chairs have been appointed for a term of three years.
  • A number of international institutions, including the World Bank, participate as observers in the IMFC’s meetings.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

With ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan’ is a National campaign to

  1. Rehabilitate the homeless and destitute the persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood.
  2. Release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood.
  3. Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers
  4. Release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • In 2001, ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan’, (National Campaign for Dignity and Elimination of Manual Scavenging) was started to eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers.
Answer: (c) Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements:

  1. Siddhas (sittars) of the Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry.
  2. Lingayats of the Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • In the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries, a monotheistic movement, mystical in nature, developed within Shaivism in the Tamil region. This was known as the Sittars or Siddhas.
    • The term siddha literally means one who has attained perfection as distinct from a bhakta who is attempting to perceive god.
Statement 2 is correct
  • Lingayats are followers of Basavanna, a 12th-century philosopher-saint.
  • They questioned the theory of rebirth, rejected the caste system and Vedic rituals and worship only one God, Linga (Shiva).

Infographic about Basaveshwara, an Indian philosopher, poet, and social reformer, highlighting his birth in 1131 AD, opposition to caste discrimination, promotion of widow remarriage, and rejection of ritual worship and cremation. It details his contributions like Lingangayoga, democratization of religion, vachanas in Kannada, establishment of Kalyana Rajya, and his lasting legacy inspiring Bhuddha-Basava-Ambedkar ideology and Basava Purana.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following best describes the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?

  1. It is the ratio of the value of imports to the Gross Domestic Product of a country.
  2. It is the total value of imports of a country in a year.
  3. It is the ratio between the value of exports and that of imports between two countries.
  4. It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Import cover is a measure of the number of months of imports that the current level of foreign exchange reserves can support, and serves as an important indicator of the country’s resilience against external economic shocks.
Answer: (d) It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves.; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pair:

Community sometimes mentioned in the news In the affairs of
  1. Kurd
 Bangladesh
  1. Madhesi
 Nepal
  1. Rohingya
 Myanmar
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect
  • The Kurds are an ethnic group primarily spread across the mountainous regions of the Middle East, encompassing parts of Turkey, Iraq, Iran, Syria, and Armenia.

Map showing Kurdish inhabited areas across parts of Turkey, Syria, Iraq, and Iran, highlighted in purple to indicate regions with significant Kurdish populations. The map includes country labels, surrounding bodies of water like Black Sea and Caspian Sea, and a small inset world map marking the region's global location.

  • They are one of the largest ethnic groups in the world without an independent state, with a population estimated at 25 to 35 million.
Pair 2 is correct
  • The flat southern region of Nepal, the Terai, is known as Madhes in the Nepalese language, and its indigenous inhabitants are called Madhesi. The Terai stretches from the east to the west of the country along the Nepalese-Indian border, adjoining the Indian states of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
  • The Madhesis gained prominence in headlines as Nepal faced constitutional debates over their political representation.

Map of Madhes plains in southern Nepal highlights 22 districts covering 17% of the country and home to over 50% of its population. Districts are labeled with key cities, and a red shaded area along the India border indicates fertile land with industrial concentration, while Surkhet and Udayapur are noted for mixed population characteristics.

Image Source: IE

Pair 3 is correct
  • The Rohingya are a Muslim ethnic minority primarily from Rakhine State in Myanmar. They are not considered one of the country’s 135 official ethnic groups and have been denied citizenship in Myanmar since 1982, which has effectively rendered them stateless.

Map showing Bangladesh and Myanmar with surrounding countries India, China, Laos, and Thailand labeled. Key locations highlighted include Cox's Bazar in red and Rakhine State in dark blue within Myanmar, with capital cities Dhaka and Naypyidaw marked, emphasizing geopolitical regions.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an organization of European Union in working relations with NATO and WHO.
  2. It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
  3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
  • OPCW is the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention. Its mission is to achieve a world free of chemical weapons. It was established when the Chemical Weapons Convention entered into force on 29 April 1997.
  • It is an independent intergovernmental organisation, not affiliated with a specific region like the European Union.
  • HQ: Hague, Netherlands.
  • The OPCW is authorised to perform inspections to verify that signatory states are complying with the convention.
  • If a Member State considers that chemical weapons have been used against it, or it is threatened by actions prohibited by the Convention, it can request assistance from the OPCW.
    • Article X of the Convention sets out the procedure for requesting and receiving assistance against the use of chemical weapons.
  • The OPCW was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2013.

Infographic detailing OPCW (Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons), including its establishment in 1997, headquarters in The Hague, and Nobel Peace Prize award in 2013, with sections on functions, India & OPCW involvement, Indian Chemical Council, and Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) treaty. Key elements include color-coded icons, timelines, membership data (193 countries), and highlights of treaty prohibitions and implementation goals for global chemical weapons disarmament.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements:

  1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two per cent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
  2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of the cyclones and unseasonal rains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 or 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The PMFBY crop insurance scheme was launched in 2016.
  • It was formulated in line with the One Nation-One Scheme theme by replacing:
    • National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and
    • Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS).
  • Rate of Premium Paid by the Farmer to Insurance Company under PMFBY:
  • If the premium rate quoted by the Insurance Company is higher than the above rates, the difference will be paid by the State and GoI at 50% each in the form of premium subsidy.
  • GoI’s share in premium subsidy is 90% for the North Eastern States.
  • GoI’s premium subsidy is limited up to 30% for unirrigated areas/crops and 25% for irrigated areas/crops (Before 2020, there was no upper for central subsidy).
  • There is no upper limit on Government subsidy.
  • The scheme is optional for all farmers. (Before 2020, it was mandatory for farmers who have taken institutional loans)
Crop Rate of Premium
Kharif crops 2%
Rabi crops 1.5%
Commercial crops 5%
Horticultural crops 5%

Infographic detailing Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, a crop insurance scheme launched in 2016 to provide financial support to farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities, pests, and post-harvest losses. It highlights objectives, crops and farmers covered, risk types insured, exclusions, and premium rates.

Statement 2 is correct
  • One of the main objectives is to provide insurance to farmers for crop failure due to unforeseen events (natural calamities, pests and diseases).
  • Crop risks leading to crop loss covered under the scheme are:
    • Prevented Sowing/Planting/Germination Risk
    • Standing Crop (Sowing to Harvesting)
    • Post-Harvest Losses
    • Localized Calamities
    • Crop loss due to attack by wild animals
  • General Exclusions: Losses due to war and nuclear risks, malicious damage, and other preventable risks shall be excluded.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

  1. deserts of northwest India
  2. Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
  3. Salt marshes of western Gujarat.
  4. Western Ghats

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Great Indian Hornbill (or Great Pied Hornbill) is a largest hornbill in India.
  • It is the state bird of Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala.
  • Distribution: It is native to the Indian Subcontinent, SE Asia, and China.
    • In India, it is found in the Himalayan foothills, NE India, and the Western Ghats .

Illustration of Great Hornbill with labeled sections detailing diet, habitat, physical description, threats, distribution, significance, and cultural importance. Features include colorful visuals like flowers and maps, highlighting its frugivorous diet, habitat in evergreen forests up to 2,000 meters, vulnerable status.

Answer: (d) Western Ghats; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’?

  1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
  2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
  3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on a rotation basis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) was established in 2009 to ensure conservation of the Ganga River by adopting a river basin approach for comprehensive planning and management. It also aimed to maintain environmental flows (E-flow) in the river to preserve water quality.
Statement 2 is correct
  • NGRBA functioned as the apex body for river conservation at the national level.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The Prime Minister chaired the NGRBA.
  • National Ganga Council replaced it in 2016.
    • Formed under the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986, the Prime Minister chairs it.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

  1. Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms.
  2. Neem coating slows down the rate of distribution of urea in the soil
  3. Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into the atmosphere by crop fields.
  4. It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Urea is a white crystalline substance; it is highly water-soluble and contains 46% nitrogen. It is used extensively as a chemical fertiliser and for industrial purposes. In May 2015, the Centre made it mandatory to coat all indigenously manufactured and imported urea with neem oil.
  • Neem coating was intended to check the illegal diversion of the highly subsidised urea for non-agricultural uses, including plywood, dye, cattle feed, and synthetic milk makers.
  • Neem has proven Nitrification inhibition properties and hence slows down the release of nitrogen from urea and makes available nitrogen over a longer period with minimum loss of nitrogen thereby increasing nitrogen use efficiency. It reduces the chances of diversion of agricultural grade urea for many non-agricultural uses.
  • Fertilisers are essentially food for crops. They, like humans, need nutrients – primary (N, P, K), secondary (S, calcium, magnesium) and micro (iron, zinc, copper, manganese, boron, molybdenum) – for plant growth and grain yield. Chart and table show trends in their use and crop yields after usage:

A table and bar chart presenting data on fertilizer use and crop yield response in India. The table lists annual usage of five fertilizer types from 2009-10 to 2022-23 with quantities in lakh tonnes, while the bar chart shows declining crop yield response percentages from 12.1% in 1960-69 to 5.0% in 2010-2017.

Image source: IE

Answer: (b) Neem coating slows down the rate of distribution of urea in the soil; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
  2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect
  • Chief Secretary is the senior-most cadre post in the state administration, ranking 23rd on the Indian Order of Precedence (maintained by Ministry of Home Affairs).
  • Appointment:
    • S/he/they is ‘chosen’ by the CM through an executive action and is taken in the name of the Governor.
    • The Office has been excluded from the operation of the tenure system.
    • In the Union Territories, which are governed by Administrators, Chief Secretaries are absent.
    • In these territories (UT), an Adviser to the Administrator is appointed by the Union Government.
    • However, the UTs of Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry, which have been granted partial statehood, do have Chief Secretaries.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
  2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • It is a scheme (launched in 2016) by the Ministry of Finance for financing SC/ST and/or Women Entrepreneurs by facilitating bank loans for setting up a greenfield project enterprise in the manufacturing, services, trading sector and activities allied to agriculture.
  • Objective: to facilitate bank loans between Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 Crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.
  • In case of non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding and controlling stake should be held by either an SC/ST or a woman entrepreneur.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The online portal Standupmitra, developed by Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for the Stand-Up India Scheme, provides guidance to prospective entrepreneurs.
  • SIDBI has formulated a Special Refinance Scheme for banks to extend assistance under Stand-Up India.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

  1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods, and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity
  2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity, and knowledge systems of the local communities.
  3. To provide Geographical Inclination status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • FAO launched the GIAHS programme at the World Summit for Sustainable Development in 2002 in response to global threats to family farming and traditional agricultural systems, such as climate change, community displacements and biodiversity loss.
  • The GIAHS programme does not primarily aim to boost agricultural productivity through modern techniques. Rather, it seeks to conserve traditional farming systems, indigenous knowledge, and sustainable land-use practices that have developed over centuries
Statement 2 is correct
  • The main objective of GIAHS is to recognise and safeguard distinctive agricultural systems that contribute significantly to global biodiversity, cultural heritage, and food security.
  • GIAHS are unique land use systems and landscapes full of life and biodiversity, resilient ecosystems, and valuable cultural heritages managed by farmers, herders, fisherfolk, and tribals.
  • UN FAO leads the GIAHS programme, which helps identify ways to mitigate threats faced by these systems and their people.
  • Since 2005, FAO has designated 86 systems in 26 countries as agricultural heritage sites.
  • GIAH sites in India:
    • Pampore Saffron Heritage, Jammu & Kashmir (2011)
    • Koraput Traditional Agriculture, Odisha (2012)
    • Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System, Kerala (2013)
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Although some GIAHS products may be eligible for Geographical Indication status, it is not granted automatically.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

  1. Dibang
  2. Kameng
  3. Lohit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct
  • Right bank tributaries: Rango Tsangpo (in Tibet), Subansiri (largest tributary of the Brahmaputra), Kameng (Jiabharali), Dhansiri, Manas, Sankosh, Teesta.
  • Left bank tributaries: Lohit, Dibang, Burhidihing, Disang, Dikhow, Dhansiri, Kopili.
  • Dibang River:
    • It originates in the Upper Dibang Valley district near the Indo-Chinese border in Arunachal Pradesh.
    • It runs through the Mishmi Hills in the Dibang and Lower Dibang Valley districts before merging with the Lohit River north of the Dibu-Saikhowa sanctuary near Sadiya, Assam.
  • Kameng River:
    • It originates in the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh, bordering Tibet. It flows southward through the West Kameng district before joining the Brahmaputra River near Tezpur, Assam.
  • Lohit River:
    • It originates in the Eastern Himalayas in Tibet, where it is known as the Zayu River.
    • It enters India through Arunachal Pradesh, flows southward through the Lohit district, and merges with the Dibang River before joining the Brahmaputra River near Sadiya, Assam.

Map of Brahmaputra River Basin highlighting its flow through Tibet, India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar, with key dams like Ranganadi and Subansiri Lower marked in blue. The map uses color gradients to show elevation, labels major cities such as Guwahati and Dispur, and includes tributaries like Teesta and Dibang, emphasizing the basin's geographical and hydrological significance in the region.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Term ‘Core Banking Solutions’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes this term?

  1. It is the networking of a bank’s branches that enable customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.
  2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization.
  3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • A core banking solution (CBS) is a software used by banks to manage primary operations. It is a centralized system that allows customers or businesses to carry out transactions from any branch rather than only from the branch where the account was opened.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect
  • CBS is not intended to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks. It is primarily a technological upgrade by banks to improve efficiency, customer service, and operational convenience.
  • CBS has nothing to do with bank takeovers or handling Non-Performing Assets (NPAs). The takeover of banks with high NPAs is done through bank mergers, acquisitions, or resolution mechanisms, not through CBS.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes seen in the news Their origin
1. Annex- I Countries Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism Kyoto Protocol
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect
  • It is one of the classifications of Parties under the Kyoto Protocol. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in 1997 and came into force in 2005.
  • It is the only global treaty with binding limits on GHG emissions. There are currently 192 Parties to the Kyoto Protocol. India ratified it in 2002, the USA never ratified it, and Canada withdrew in 2012.
Annex I
  • Developed countries (US, UK, Russia, etc.) + Economies in transition (EIT) [Ukraine, Turkey, some eastern European countries]
  • These countries have pledged to reduce their emissions by being a part of the Kyoto Protocol.
Annex II
  • Developed countries (Annex II is a subset of Annex I)
  • Provide financial and technical support to EITs and developing countries to reduce GHG emissions.
Annex B
  • Annex I Parties with first or second-round Kyoto GHG emissions targets (Annex B is a subset of Annex I)
  • Compulsory binding targets to reduce GHG emissions
  • The first-round Kyoto targets applied over the years 2008-2012
  • The second-round Kyoto targets applied from 2013-2020
Non-Annex I
  • The parties to the UNFCCC that are not listed in Annex I (mostly low-income developing countries)
  • No binding targets to reduce emissions
LDCs
  • Least-developed; No binding targets
Pair 2 is incorrect, and Pair 3 is correct
  • Countries bound to Kyoto targets have to meet them largely through domestic action — that is, to reduce their emissions onshore. But they can meet part of their targets through three “marketbased mechanisms”:
    • Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
    • Emission Trading.
    • Joint Implementation (JI).
  • CDM allows a country with an emission-reduction commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party like Australia) to implement an emission-reduction project in developing countries (like India).
  • Such projects can earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2, which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto targets.

Diagram illustrating Flexible Market Mechanisms under Kyoto Protocol, divided into three sections: Joint Implementation (JI), Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), and Emission Trading. Each section shows flow of emission reduction projects, technology/finance, and reduction units (ERU, CER, AAU) between advanced and developing countries, highlighting processes to achieve emission targets.

Additional Information

  • Cartagena Protocol
    • The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international agreement adopted in 2000. It entered into force in 2003 and covers the field of biotechnology.
    • It currently has 173 parties. India has ratified CBD and its Catanga Protocol (signed in Cartagena, Colombia).
    • Cartagena Protocol aims to ensure the safe handling, transport, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology. It addresses technology development and transfer, benefit-sharing and biosafety issue.
  • Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing
    • At the 10th Conference of Parties (COP10 2010) to the Convention on Biological Diversity in Nagoya, Japan, the Nagoya Protocol was adopted.
    • It is the second Protocol (supplementary agreement) to the CBD. It entered into force in 2014. It presently has 137 parties, including India.
    • Nagoya Protocol is about “Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization”, one of the three objectives of the CBD.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

In the context of the development in Bioinformatics, the term ‘Transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refer to

  1. A range of enzymes used in genome editing
  2. The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism
  3. The description of the mechanism of gene expression
  4. A mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The term Transcriptome refers to the complete set of messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules that are transcribed from DNA in an organism, cell, or tissue at a specific time. It provides insights into which genes are actively being expressed and helps researchers understand the functional elements of the genome. Transcriptomics, the study of the transcriptome, is essential in fields like bioinformatics and molecular biology for understanding gene expression patterns, cellular functions, and responses to various conditions.
Answer: (b) The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism; Difficulty Level: Medium

‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to

  1. immunisation of children and pregnant women
  2. construction of smart cities across the country
  3. India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
  4. New Educational Policy

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Mission Indradhanush was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) in 2014.
  • It is a special catch-up campaign under the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP).
  • Objective: To vaccinate all children and pregnant women left out from Routine Immunisation.

Additional Information

  • UIP is one of the largest public health programmes targeting newborns and pregnant women.
  • Under UIP, immunisation is free of cost against 12 vaccine-preventable diseases.
    • Nationally against 9 diseases: Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles, Rubella, Childhood Tuberculosis, Hepatitis B and Meningitis and Pneumonia caused by Hemophilus Influenza type B
    • Sub-nationally against 3 diseases: Rotavirus diarrhoea, Pneumococcal Pneumonia and Japanese Encephalitis.
Answer: (a) immunization of children and pregnant women; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of the ‘Green India Mission of the Government of India?

  1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’.
  2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover by responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Green accounting is a type of accounting that attempts to factor environmental costs into the financial results of operations. It measures the impact of human activity on the earth’s ecological systems and resources, and not just the financial effects of such activity. It is not the objective of Green India Mission.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Launching a Second Green Revolution is related to agricultural productivity and food security, not the focus of Green India Mission.
Statement 3 is correct
  • The National Mission for Green India (GIM) is one of the eight Missions outlined under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
  • The Green India Mission aims to sequester 2.523 billion tonnes of carbon by 2020-30, and this involves adding 30 million hectares in addition to existing forest. It aims at:
    • Protecting, restoring, and enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover
    • Responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.
    • Enhanced annual CO2 sequestration by 50 to 60 million tons in the year 2020
  • The mission will be implemented on public and private lands. Local communities will participate in planning, decision-making, implementation, and monitoring.To vaccinate all children and pregnant women left out from Routine Immunisation.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to pre-packaged items in India, It is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?

  1. List of the ingredients including additives
  2. Nutrition information
  3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
  4. Vegetarian/ Non – Vegetarian
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 4 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1 and 4 only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • As per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011, every package of food shall carry the following information on the label:
    • The Name of Food
    • List of Ingredients
    • Nutritional information
    • Declaration regarding Veg or Non veg
    • Declaration regarding Food Additives
    • Name and complete address of the manufacturer
    • Net quantity
    • Lot/Code/Batch identification
    • Date of manufacture or packing
    • Best Before and Use By Date
    • Country of origin for imported food
    • Instructions for use
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy
  1. Waste management technology
  2. Wireless communication technology
  3. Solar power production technology
  4. Water conservation technology

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Initiative and Purpose: Project Loon was a wireless communication technology initiative by Alphabet Inc., Google’s parent company, aimed at providing affordable global internet access.
  • Technology and Altitude: The project utilized high-altitude balloons positioned in the stratosphere at altitudes between 18 km (11 miles) and 25 km (16 miles).
  • Discontinuation: Despite its innovative approach, Project Loon faced financial challenges, leading to its discontinuation in January 2021.

Diagram illustrating LTE signal transmission using high-altitude balloons traveling eastward and westward at 18-25 km altitude, with LTE or laser beams connecting balloons to ground stations. It shows signal coverage over an 80 km diameter area, including control signals, data signals, customer LTE receivers, ground station, internet connection, and control center components.

Image Source: Wiki

Answer: (b) Wireless communication technology; Difficulty Level: Medium

‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the

  1. Production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers
  2. Use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households
  3. Installation of CNG kits in motor cars
  4. Installation of water meters in urban households

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Net Metering is a billing mechanism for grid connected Home Rooftop Solar Installation where the:
    • electricity generated by the solar panels is fed into the utility grid
    • Household draws electricity from the utility grid
    • The household pays only for the difference between the energy units it consumes from the grid and the energy units fed into the grid. This is measured by a bi-directional meter called Net Meter.
Answer: (a) Production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers; Difficulty Level: Medium

India’s ranking in the Ease of Doing Business Index is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

  1. Organization of Economic Cooperation and development (OECD)
  2. World Economic Forum
  3. World Bank
  4. World Trade Organization (WTO)

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Ease of doing business was an index published by the World Bank. It is an aggregate figure that includes different parameters which define the ease of doing business in a country. In September, 2021, the World Bank Group has decided to discontinue the publication of the Doing Business report.

Infographic detailing World Bank's history, goals, structure, and functions, highlighting its founding in 1944, headquarters in Washington D.C., and 189 member countries. It outlines five institutions (IBRD, IDA, IFC, MIGA, ICSID), their roles in financing, advisory services, and promoting private sector development, and features key India projects like Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana and National Ganga River Basin Project.

Answer: (c) World Bank; Difficulty Level: Easy

Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were

  1. Agriculture
  2. Warriors
  3. Weavers
  4. Traders

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • During the medieval period, the Indian trading classes were large in numbers, well-spread throughout the country and were well organised. Seth, bohra traders specialised in long distance trade while local traders were called banik. Another class of traders known as banjaras, were specialised in carrying bulk goods and used to move to long distances with their goods on the back of oxen (Their caravan was called Tanda). Interestingly, the trading community did not belong to one caste or religion. For instance, the Gujarati merchants included Hindus, Jains, and Muslims, in Rajasthan Oswals, Maheshwaris, and Agarwals came to be called the Marwaris, while in south India, the Chettis on the Coramandal coast and the Muslim merchants of Malabar formed important trading communities.
Answer: (d) Traders; Difficulty Level: Easy

Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?

  1. George Buhler
  2. James Prinsep
  3. Max Muller
  4. William Jones

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • James Prinsep was an English scholar, antiquary, and Orientalist who made significant contributions to the study of Indian history and culture while working in Bengal and Bihar between 1819-1840. Prinsep deciphered the Kharosthi and Brahmi scripts, making the Edicts of Ashoka accessible and revolutionizing the understanding of ancient Indian history.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • George Buhler was a german Scholar of Ancient Indian Languages: Recommended by Orientalist Max Müller for a vacancy at Elphinstone College, Bombay. Arrived in Bombay in 1863 as a professor of Oriental Languages.
  • Legal and Academic Contributions in India:
    • In 1864, collaborated with Bombay High Court Registrar R. West to create a digest of Hindu Law for the Bombay Presidency, reducing dependence on pandits.
    • Known for translating ancient manuscripts, including Hindu, Jain, and Buddhist texts.
  • Academic Legacy in Europe:
    • Helped establish the Department of Oriental Studies at the University of Vienna.
    • Published translations of significant texts, including the Paiyalachchhi, the oldest Prakrit dictionary, in 1878.
    • Contributed to Max Müller’s Sacred Books of the East, translating texts such as the Āpastamba Dharmasutra.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Max Müller was a German-born philologist and Orientalist renowned for his work in Sanskrit studies and contributions to the understanding of Indian religions and philosophy.
  • Even though Mueller never set foot in India, his house in Oxford served as a meeting place for visiting Indian nationalists and reformers—social, political and religious.

A biographical infographic highlights Max Müller, a German philologist and orientalist known for translating the Rig Veda, with key details including publication dates of volumes from 1849 to 1874 and his work on the 'Hitopadesa' and 'The Sacred Books of the East.' The design features yellow and black text blocks, a blurred portrait, and a notable quote praising India's richness in wealth, power, and beauty, attributed to Müller.

  • Swami Vivekananda met Max Müller in 1896 and held great admiration for his work. Max Müller had also written an article about Sri Ramakrishna Paramahansa in the magazine Nineteenth Century.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Sir William Jones was a British philologist, jurist, and Orientalist known for his groundbreaking work in linguistics and his contributions to the study of Indian culture and languages.
  • In 1784, with other orientalists, William Jones (junior judge at the Supreme Court) founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal and started a journal called Asiatick Researches.
    • The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established to encourage oriental studies. Its primary task was to collect old Indian manuscripts and translate Sanskrit and Persian works into English.
    • Manusmriti and Abhijnana Shakuntalam were translated into English by Sir William Jones.
    • The Bhagavad Gita was translated into English by Wilkins
Answer: (b) James Prinsep; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’ which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. As per the act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases not criminal cases
  2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliations.
Select the correct answers using the code given below
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Gram Nyayalayas are deemed a Court of Judicial Magistrate of First Class with civil and criminal jurisdiction to settle petty disputes at the village level.
    • It shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts and try such cases which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Gram Nyayalayas Act of 2008.
    • The First and Second Schedules can be amended by both the Central and State Governments as per their legislative competencies.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliations.
    • The Gram Nyayalaya is supposed to try to settle the disputes as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties. For this purpose, it can use the appointed conciliators.

Infographic explaining Gram Nyayalayas, mobile courts established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act of 2008 to provide accessible civil and criminal justice in rural areas, highlighting their purpose, structure, and challenges. Key details include their non-mandatory establishment by state governments, jurisdiction over both criminal and civil courts, appointment of first-class judicial magistrates, and ongoing efforts to improve functionality and outreach.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’ consider the following statements:

  1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
  2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements with regards to the India – Africa summit:

  1. Held in 2015 was the third such summit
  2. Was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951
Which of the statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect
  • The India-Africa Forum Summit is the chief political institutional mechanism between India and 55 countries of the African continent under the African Union. The summit is part of a 2008 initiative by the Manmohan Singh–led United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government.
  • The Third India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS-III) was hosted in New Delhi in October 2015.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI

  1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by the banks for determining the interest rates on advances.
  2. These guidelines helps ensure the availability of bank credit the interest rate which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.
Select the correct answers using the code given below
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • MCLR is the minimum lending rate below which a bank is not permitted to lend, except in certain cases allowed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) implemented the MCLR methodology (replacing the base rate Method) for setting interest rates starting April 1, 2016.
  • It requires banks to determine lending rates using a clear formula based on the marginal cost of funds, operating costs, and other components. This improves transparency in how banks set interest rates.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The framework ensures fair and reasonable lending rates by linking them to banks’ actual cost of funds. This helps borrowers get credit at fair rates while allowing banks to maintain profitability.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is/are unique about the ‘Kharai Camel’ a breed found in India

  1. It is capable of swimming up three kilometres in sea water
  2. It survives by grazing on mangroves
  3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated
Select the correct answers using the code given below
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Kharai camel is known for its ability to swim in seawater for distances of up to about three kilometres to reach mangrove islands for grazing.
Statement 2 is correct
  • This camel breed survives mainly by grazing on mangrove vegetation found along the coastal regions of Gujarat, particularly near the Gulf of Kutch.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • They are bred by two distinct communities — the Fakirani Jats, who are the handlers, and the Rabaris, who own the animals. In 2015, the Kharai camel was registered as the ninth distinct camel breed (separating it from Kutchi camel) of India by the National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR).

Infographic about Kharai Camel highlights geographic range in Kachchh, Gujarat, swimming ability up to 3 km, habitat adaptability to desert and coastal zones, and feeding on mangrove species. It also covers community links with Rabari and Fakirani Jat Maldhari, threats like mangrove degradation, and significance of therapeutic milk properties, using illustrations, icons, and labeled sections with brown and beige tones.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Recently, our scientists have discovered new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 meters and has the orange – colored form of pulp. In which part of India has been discovered?

  1. Andaman Islands
  2. Anaimalai Forests
  3. Maikal Hills
  4. Tropical rainforest of north east

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) discovered a unique banana species, Musa indandamanensis, in the tropical rainforests of Little Andaman, specifically within the Krishna Nalah forest.
    • BSI is the apex taxonomic research organisation of the country under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change, and was established in 1890 under the direction of Sir George King in Kolkata.
  • This species stands out for its distinctive green flowers and an impressive fruit bunch axis, known as the lux, which is around one meter long—three times the size of common banana species.
  • Additionally, Musa indandamanensis reaches a height of approximately 11 meters, towering over typical banana species, which usually grow to just 3-4 meters.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • The Anamalai Hills, also known as the Elephant Hills, are located in the Western Ghats in the state of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • Maikal Hills (Eastern part of the Satpura Range), located between Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Inhabited by the tribal peoples like Baiga and Gond.
  • Kanha National Park is nestled in the Maikal range of Satpuras in Madhya Pradesh.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • Tropical Rain Forests occur in the areas which receive heavy rainfall. They are so dense that sunlight doesn’t reach the ground.
  • Many species of trees are found in these forests, which shed their leaves at different times of the year. Therefore, they always appear green and are called evergreen forest,
  • Important trees found in these forests are mahogany, ebony and rosewood. Andaman and Nicobar Islands, parts of North-Eastern states and a narrow strip of the Western slope of the Western Ghats are home of these forests.

A colored vegetation map of India showing various vegetation types with labeled color-coded boxes such as Tropical Dry Deciduous in red, Tropical Wet Evergreen in green, and Montane Wet Temperate in purple. The map highlights distinct regions like Cold Desert, Hot Desert, and Himalayan zones, illustrating distribution and diversity of vegetation across the country.

Answer: (a) Andaman Islands; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’ that was in the news recently?

  1. amphibious warfare ship
  2. nuclear -powered submarine
  3. torpedo launch and recovery vessel
  4. nuclear – powered aircraft carrier

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • INS Astradharini was Indian Navy’s first totally indigenously-designed and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel. It was commissioned in October 2015.
Answer: (c) torpedo launch and recovery vessel; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is ‘Greased lightning-10 (Gl-10) recently in the news?

  1. electric plane tested by NASA
  2. solar powered two-seater aircraft designed by Japan
  3. Space observatory launched by china
  4. reusable rocket designed by ISRO

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Greased Lightning, or GL-10, battery-powered aircraft developed and tested by NASA.
  • Featuring ten engines, this electric plane can take off and land vertically like a helicopter, while also flying efficiently in horizontal mode like a conventional fixed-wing aircraft.
Answer: (a) electric plane tested by NASA; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Initiative for nutritional security through intensive millets promotions’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner with cluster approach.
  2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.
  3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro irrigation equipment.
Select the correct answer using the above
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  • Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion (INSIMP) – was launched in 2011-12 with aim to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies in an integrated manner.
    • It was as a sub scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) and later on merged as component of National Food Security Mission (NFSM) as NFSM-Coarse Cereals from 2014-15.
  • Poor, small, marginal, and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The initiative had no such provisions to encourage farmers growing commercial crops to transition to millet cultivation.

Infographic about millets, highlighting their types, benefits, and production in India. It features colorful illustrations of millet varieties, ecological and health benefits, major producers, challenges, and government initiatives, with key data such as India being the largest producer with over 40% global market share and millets' resilience to climate stress.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the

  1. Agitation against the partition of Bengal
  2. Home Rule Movement
  3. Non-Cooperation Movement
  4. Visit of Simon Commission to India

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The adoption of ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ became central strategies for the first time during the protest against Bengal’s partition in 1905. The Swadeshi movement, sparked by opposition to the partition, sought to resist British rule by promoting self-reliance, indigenous enterprise, national education, and the use of Indian languages.

Timeline diagram illustrating key events and movements related to Partition of Bengal from December 1903 to 1911. It highlights milestones such as proposal announcement, formal announcement, implementation, and final announcement of partition, alongside anti-partition movements by Moderates and Extremists, with specific actions like petitions, passive resistance, and assassination of officials.

Answer: (a) Agitation against the partition of Bengal; Difficulty Level: Easy

With the reference to the Religious history of India, consider the following statement:

  1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to Hinayana Sect of Buddhism.
  2. Bodhisattva is the compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.
  3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The concept of Bodhisattva is the result of Mahayana Buddhism.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  • Bodhisattva is the one who has generated Bodhicitta (a spontaneous wish and a compassionate mind) to attain Buddhahood for the benefit of all sentient beings.
    • Rather than Nirvana, Mahayana sect instead aspires for Buddhahood via the bodhisattva path, a state wherein one remains in the cycle of rebirth to help other beings to reach awakening.
  • A bodhisattva seeks complete enlightenment for the benefit of all beings. A bodhisattva who has accomplished this goal is called a Samyaksaṃbuddha.
  • On the path to becoming a Buddha, a bodhisattva proceeds through ten grounds or bhumis, namely Great Joy, Stainless, luminous, radiant, very difficult to train, obviously transcendent, gone afar, immovable, Good discriminating wisdom, and Cloud of Dharma. By passing these 10 bhumis, he becomes an enlightened one.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

‘Doctors without borders (Médecins sans Frontières)’ often in the news is

  1. a division of world health organization
  2. a non-governmental international organization
  3. an inter-government agency sponsored by European union
  4. a specialized agency of the United Nations

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Doctors Without Borders/Médecins Sans Frontières, an international humanitarian-aid non-governmental organisation, was founded in 1971 in France by a group of doctors and journalists in the wake of war and famine in Biafra, Nigeria. It provides medical assistance to people affected by conflict, epidemics, disasters, and those without access to essential healthcare. In October 1999 MSF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize “in recognition of the organization’s pioneering humanitarian work on several continents.
Answer: (b) a non-governmental international organisation; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to an initiative called ‘The economics of ecosystems and biodiversity (TEEB)’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP IMF and World Economic Forum.
  2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
  3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystem and biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • TEEB was a study hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and led by Indian environmental economist Pavan Sukhdev.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  • The study’s objectives were to establish a global standard for natural capital accounting, mainstream the values of biodiversity and ecosystem services into decision-making at all levels and highlight the growing cost of biodiversity loss.
    • Natural Capital: ecosystems providing invaluable ecosystem services. E.g., Flood protection by mangroves.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘red sanders’ sometimes seen in the news consider the following statements:

  1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
  2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of south India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
  • Red Sanders (Pterocarpus Santalinus) is a flora-species that is endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats, mainly found in the Seshachalam forests and Palakonda hills of Chittoor, YSR (Kadapa), Annamayya and Tirupati districts of Andhra Pradesh).
  • They are medium-sized tropical deciduous trees.
  • It is valued for its rich red colour and its therapeutic properties. It is used to make exquisite furniture, woodcrafts, and musical instruments in China and Japan.
  • IUCN: EN | CITES: Appx II (export is prohibited)
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ programme can significantly contribute

  1. Protection of biodiversity
  2. Resilience of forest ecosystem
  3. Poverty reduction
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct
  • Poverty reduction is nowhere mentioned in the REDD, But the question is not asking for specific details, “UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to?”
  • Conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries will certainly contribute to employment opportunities and help in poverty reduction.
  • According to FAO, REDD+ can also contribute to achieving other SDGs – including those which address poverty reduction, health and well-being, hunger alleviation, and improving institutions”
UN-REDD REDD+
  • The UN Programme on Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (UN-REDD).
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
  • Membership: 64 Partner Countries.
  • Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation.
  • Role: conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries
  • It is a multilateral collaborative programme of FAO, UNDP and UNEP
  • It was created in 2008 in response to the UNFCCC decisions on the Bali Action Plan and REDD.
  • Voluntary climate change mitigation approach developed by Parties to the UNFCCC.
  • It partners with developing countries to support them in establishing the technical capacities needed to implement REDD+ and meet UNFCCC requirements for REDD+ results-based payments
  • REDD+ goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation and aims to incentivise developing countries to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, conserve forest carbon stocks, sustainably manage forests and enhance forest carbon stocks.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol ‘?

  1. it is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
  2. it is an initiative of the united nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.
  3. it is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the united nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022.
  4. it is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the world bank

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • GHG Protocol is developing standards, tools and online training that helps countries, cities and companies track progress towards their climate goals. GHG Protocol establishes frameworks to measure and manage greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from private and public sector operations, value chains and mitigation actions.
  • GHG Protocol arose when World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) recognized the need for an international standard for corporate GHG accounting and reporting in the late 1990s.
Answer: (a) it is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’ consider the following statements:

  1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
  2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
  3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • It is a non-statutory apex council under the Ministry of Finance. It was constituted by the Executive Order in 2010. The Raghuram Rajan committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  • Chairman: Finance Minister.
  • Its members include:
    • The heads of all Financial Sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA & IRDA).
    • The Finance Secretary.
    • The Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
    • The Secretary of the Department of Financial Services (DFS).
    • Chief Economic Adviser.
    • Minister of State responsible for the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
    • The Secretary of the Department of Electronics and Information Technology.
    • The Chairperson of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
    • The Revenue Secretary.
  • FSDC sub-committee is headed by the Governor of RBI.
  • The Council can invite experts to its meeting if required.
  • The Council deals, inter-alia, with issues relating to financial stability, financial sector development, inter–regulatory coordination, financial literacy, financial inclusion and macro prudential supervision of the economy including the functioning of large financial conglomerates.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
  2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
  • The Earth Summit 1992 resulted in the following documents:
    • Rio Declaration: Principles intended to guide countries in future sustainable development.
    • Agenda 21: Non-binding action plan of the United Nations regarding sustainable development.
    • Forest Principles: Non-legally binding document on the Conservation and Sustainable Development of all types of forests.
  • Agenda 21 (an agenda for the 21st century) is a non-binding action plan of the UN related to sustainable development. It aims to achieve global sustainable development.

    Infographic detailing Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) history and overview, highlighting milestones from 1992 Earth Summit, 2000 Millennium Summit, and 2015 UN Sustainable Development Summit. It features 17 color-coded goals with icons, including No Poverty, Zero Hunger, Quality Education, Climate Action, and Life on Land, emphasizing adoption of 17 SDGs and 169 targets for global sustainable development.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Satya Shodhak Samaj organized

  1. a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
  2. a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
  3. an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
  4. a peasant movement in Punjab

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • On 24 September 1873, Jyotirao (Jotiba) Phule started Satyashodhak Samaj to organise the lower classes, liberate them from the domination of Brahmins, and propagate caste equality. It aimed to end the priestly domination. It conducted rituals, such as marriages and death ceremonies, without the involvement of Brahmin priests.
  • In Satyashodhak marriages, the bride and groom would sing verses written by Phule in plain Marathi instead of a Brahmin reciting obscure Sanskrit mantras.

Infographic detailing the anti-caste movement, highlighting key figures Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Jyotiba Phule, their birthdates, personal lives, and contributions to social reforms, education, and literature. significant milestones such as the Mahad Satyagraha, burning of Manusmriti, and establishment of India’s first school for girls.

Answer: (c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra; Difficulty Level: Easy

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Viruses can infect

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Plants
Select the correct answer using the code given below
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct
  • Virus represents dormant life. They are metabolically inactive outside a host body. They invade host cells and use the host cell’s nucleus (DNA machinery) to carry out their life processes.
  • Viruses can infect bacteria, fungi, and plants.
    • Bacteria – Certain viruses, known as bacteriophages, specifically infect bacteria. These viruses attach to bacterial cells, inject their genetic material, and hijack the bacterial machinery to reproduce.
    • Fungi – There are specific viruses, called mycoviruses, that infect fungi. These can affect fungal growth and behavior.
    • Plants – Many viruses infect plants, often causing diseases that can lead to visible symptoms such as discoloration, stunted growth, and reduced crop yields.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich but backward areas
  2. curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies
  3. exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies
  4. lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental projects

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Base Erosion and Profit Shifting occurs when multinational companies exploit gaps or mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low- or no-tax jurisdictions, even if their business activities are not substantively present there. This reduces their tax liability in countries where they actually operate and generate revenue, ultimately eroding the tax base of these countries.
  • India has ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (MLI).
    • The Multilateral Convention/MLI is an outcome of the OECD / G20 Project to tackle Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (the “BEPS Project”).
Answer: (b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies; Difficulty Level: Medium

Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Gujarat
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • National Investment & Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) are one of the important instruments of National Manufacturing Policy, 2011. NIMZs are envisaged as large areas of developed land with the requisite eco-system for promoting world class manufacturing activity.
  • NIMZs are different from SEZs in terms of size, level of infrastructure planning, governance structures related to regulatory procedures, and exit policies. India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in Prakasam (Andhra Pradesh).
  • Government of India accorded in-principle approval to the 16 NIMZs under the National Manufacturing Policy (NMP). Out of these, 04 NIMZs, namely (i) Prakasam District of Andhra Pradesh, (ii) Sangareddy (erstwhile Medak) District of Telangana, (iii) Kalinganagar, Jajpur District of Odisha and (iv) Hyderabad Pharma City NIMZ in Rangareddy District of Telangana, were accorded final approval.
Answer: (a) Andhra Pradesh; Difficulty Level: Medium

What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District Mineral Foundations’ in India?

  1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts.
  2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations.
  3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Promoting mineral exploration in mineral-rich districts is not an explicit objective of District Mineral Foundations (DMFs).
Statement 2 is correct
  • The primary purpose of the District Mineral Foundation is to promote the welfare and development of areas and people affected by mining activities, including safeguarding the interests of individuals impacted by such operations.

Additional Information

  • District Mineral Foundations are set up under Section 9B of Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015. It is a trust set up as a non-profit body by State governments in districts affected by mining works.
  • It is a non-lapsable fund, separately set up for each district. It is funded through contributions from miners.
  • The mining companies are required to pay DMF 30% of the royalty amount for leases granted before 2015 and 10% for leases granted through the auction mechanism post-2015,
  • The operation and composition of DMF comes under the jurisdiction of the State Governments.
  • The central government may give directions regarding the composition and utilisation of funds by DMFs. The DMFs are expected to implement the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana using the funds.
    • PMKKKY was launched in 2015 to provide for welfare of areas & people affected by mining-related operations.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • District Mineral Foundations do not have the authority to grant licenses for mineral exploration, as this power rests with the State Governments.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at

  1. Promoting the Self-Help Groups in rural areas
  2. providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
  3. promoting the education and health of adolescent girls
  4. providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is a programme initiated by the Ministry of Education. The objective is to bridge the digital divide for students who have remained untouched by the digital revolution.
  • This platform hosts all the courses taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, anywhere, at any time, free of cost to any learner.
  • SWAYAM Plus Portal:
    • It will offer programs in sectors like Manufacturing, Energy, Computer Science and Engineering/IT/ITES, Management Studies, Healthcare, Hospitality, Tourism, etc.
    • The platform is designed to offer employability and professional development‐focused courses developed collaboratively with industry experts such as L&T, Microsoft, CISCO, and more.
    • Features: Multilingual content, AI-enabled chatbot for student assistance, and credit recognition.
    • Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras will be operating the ‘SWAYAM Plus’ Platform.
    • Courses offered through SWAYAM Plus will be accredited & developed in collaboration with reputed industrial houses, UGC, esteemed education departments, & IITs in line with NEP, 2020.
Answer: (d) providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free; Difficulty Level: Easy
  1. social reforms
  2. education reforms
  3. reforms in public administration
  4. constitutional reforms

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • In 1918, Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State, and Chelmsford, the Viceroy, produced their scheme of constitutional reforms, which led to the enactment of the Government of India Act of 1919. It marked the beginning of responsible government in India.
Answer: (d) constitutional reforms; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

  1. Both were built in the same period
  2. Both belong to the same religious denomination
  3. Both have rock-cut monuments
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. None of the statements given above is correct

Explanation

Only statement 3 is common to the two historical places
Ajanta Caves Architecture at Mahabalipuram
  • Ajanta is a series of rock-cut caves in the Sahyadri ranges on Waghora River near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.
  • There are a total of 29 caves there of which 25 were used as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or prayer halls.
  • The Ajanta caves were inscribed by the Buddhist monks, under the patronage of the Vakataka kings – Harishena being a prominent one
  • One of the oldest surviving murals of Indian sub-continent are found in these caves.
  • The were designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983, along with the nearby Ellora Caves.

    A photograph of an ancient mural depicting a regal figure adorned with an ornate headdress and jewelry, showcasing intricate details and vibrant colors. The mural highlights cultural and historical significance through traditional attire and symbolic elements surrounding the central figure.
  • The ancient port city of Mamallapuram under the Pallava dynasty in Tamil Nadu, flourished with a number of marvellous architectural structures.
  • Declared as UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 by the name “Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram.
  • Ratha Temples or Pancha Ratha: The earliest rock cut temples in India.
  • Rock-cut Caves: Ex. Varaha Cave Temple, Krishna Cave Temple, and Panchapandava Cave.
  • Open Air Rock Reliefs: Arjuna’s Penance or Bhagiratha’s Penance
  • Shore Temple Complex.

The ancient port city of Mamallapuram under the Pallava dynasty in Tamil Nadu, flourished with a number of marvellous architectural structures. Declared as UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 by the name “Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram. Ratha Temples or Pancha Ratha: The earliest rock cut temples in India.

  • Ajanta Caves were constructed between 200 BC and 650 AD.
  • Temples and other architectures at Mahabalipuram were developed by Pallavas during the 7th century and onwards.
  • Ajanta Caves are dominantly based on Buddhist theme (depicting figures of the Buddha and Jataka tales)
  • Mahabalipuram architectures have Hindu origin.
Answer: (b) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.
  2. Anyone with a Bitcoins address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoins address.
  3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Cryptocurrency (Bitcoins is one of the example of this), sometimes called crypto-currency or crypto, is any form of currency that exists digitally or virtually and uses cryptography to secure transactions.
  • Cryptocurrencies don’t have a central issuing or regulating authority.
  • They run on blockchain technology.
    • A blockchain is a digital distributed ledger that records every data (transaction) in blocks linked together using cryptography (a technique of securing communication using encryption).
  • Units of cryptocurrency are created through a process called mining, which involves using computer power to solve complicated mathematical problems that generate coins.
  • Bitcoin is the largest cryptocurrency by market capitalisation.
    • El Salvador is the first country in the world to adopt Bitcoin as its legal tender.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  • Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from others with a Bitcoin address, a fundamental feature of the Bitcoin network.
  • Bitcoin transactions allow for pseudonymity, enabling online payments to be sent without either party needing to know the other’s identity; however, transactions are recorded on the blockchain, where only addresses (not real identities) are visible.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following statements:

  1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
  2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • NDB (BRICS Bank) formally came into existence as a legal entity in 2015 on the eve of the Ufa summit.
  • It was established by BRICS member states in 2016.
Statement 2 is correct
  • It has its headquarters in Shanghai, China.
  • In 2018, the NDB received observer status in the UN General Assembly.
  • Its objective is to support the infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing countries.
  • The NDB President is elected on a rotational basis from one of the founding members, and there are four Vice Presidents from each of the other four founding members.
  • K.V. Kamath from India was the first elected president of the NDB.
  • All members of the United Nations could be members of the bank; however, the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.

Infographic detailing BRICS formation and expansion, highlighting key milestones from July 2006 to August 2023, including South Africa joining in 2010 and new members Bangladesh, UAE, and Egypt in 2023. It features a world map with BRICS countries, data on economic contributions, a pie chart of BRICS countries' GDP and trade shares, and sections on objectives, New Development Bank funding, and Contingent Reserve Arrangement.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
  1. Constitutional reforms
  2. Ganga Action Plan
  3. Linking of rivers
  4. Protection of Western Ghats

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Madhav Gadgil Committee:
    • • The MoEF constituted the Western Ghats Experts Ecology Panel (WGEEP) in 2010. The Panel submitted its report in 2011 with a stringent assessment of the condition of the Western Ghats. It was criticised that the committee failed to balance development and conservation.
  • Recommendations of Gadgil Committee (WGEEP) Report: The report asked for a bottom-to-top approach, i.e., from Gram sabhas to the top. It had recommended that a massive 64% of the area come under Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA). Within this area, smaller regions were to be identified as ecologically sensitive zones (ESZ) I, II or III.
    • 75% would fall under ESZ I or II or already existing protected areas such as natural parks.
    • No new dams based on large-scale storage should be permitted in ESZ I.
    • No new polluting industries, including thermal power plants, should be allowed in ESZ I and II.
    • The existing red and orange category industries should be asked to switch to zero pollution by 2016.
  • The committee proposed a Western Ghats Ecology Authority with statutory powers to regulate these activities
  • Kasturirangan Committee: MoEF set up the High-Level Working Group (HLWG) under the Chairmanship of Dr K. Kasturirangan to study the recommendations of the Gadgil Committee.
Answer: (d) Protection of Western Ghats; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following:

  1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
  2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
  3. Indian Reform Association
Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Calcutta Unitarian Committee is incorrect
  • The Calcutta Unitarian Committee was jointly founded by William Adam and Rammohun Roy in 1821. It sought to bring together prominent Brahmins who were friends of Roy’s and supporters of his agenda to promote religious monotheism and social reform among Hindus, with British and European residents of Calcutta who were Unitarian Christians. For Roy, the Committee acted as a new associational focus following the demise of the Atmiya Sabha in 1819.
The Tabernacle of New Dispensation is correct
  • Keshab Chandra Sen joined the Brahmo Samaj in 1857. Debendranath Tagore made him Acharya in 1858.
  • However, differences arose between Debendranath and Keshab regarding observations of caste rules and social reforms. Finally, in 1868, Keshab Chandra Sen formed a new organisation called Bharatbarsiya Brahma Samaj (The Brahma Samaj of India). The other organisation led by Debendranath Tagore came to be known as Adi Brahma Samaj (the original or Early Brahma Samaj).
  • On 24th January, 1868, Sen laid the foundation stone of the mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation and in 1881, Keshub Chandra Sen founded a new universal religion – Naba Bidhan (New Dispensation), continuing to preach a mixture of Hindu philosophy and Christian theology.

Photograph of a rectangular plaque with black text on a white background, bordered by a thin black line. The plaque commemorates Brahmananda Keshub Chandra Sen declaring "Navabidhan" in 1880 as the ultimate refinement of Brahmo religion, which poet Rabindranath Tagore called "Religion of Man."

Image Source: sohamchandra.blogspot

The Indian Reform Association is correct
  • The Indian Reform Association was formed in 1870 with Keshub Chandra Sen as president. It represented the secular side of the Brahmo Samaj and included many who did not belong to the Brahmo Samaj. The objective was to put into practice some of the ideas Sen was exposed to during his visit to Great Britain.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is not a member of the ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’?

  1. Iran
  2. Saudi Arabia
  3. Oman
  4. Kuwait

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer
  • The GCC is a political, economic, social, and regional organisation.
  • It was formed to address regional challenges faced by the Arab States of the Gulf.
  • Members: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and UAE.

Map highlighting Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries in green, including Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Bahrain, Qatar, United Arab Emirates, and Oman. Surrounding countries and bodies of water are shown in gray and black, with labeled country names for regional context.

Image Source: Wikipedia

Answer: (a) Iran; Difficulty Level: Easy

What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme?

  1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy
  2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
  3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports
Select the Correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Both the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme and Gold Monetisation Scheme aimed to mobilise idle gold held by households and institutions and bring it into the formal financial system.
Statement 3 is correct
  • By mobilising domestic gold and offering financial alternatives to physical gold, the schemes aimed to reduce gold imports, thereby helping improve the current account balance.

Infographic explaining Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme, highlighting its launch in 2015 under Gold Monetisation Scheme and RBI issuance on behalf of Government of India. Key features include 1 gram bond units, 8-year tenure with exit options, 2.50% fixed annual interest, tax benefits, collateral use, and maturity payout in rupees based on gold prices.

Statement 2 is incorrect
  • These schemes are not aimed at promoting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the gold and jewellery sector. Instead, they focus on utilising domestic gold to meet demand and reduce imports.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

  1. African Union
  2. Brazil
  3. European Union
  4. China

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • BRI is an ambitious plan initiated by Chinese President Xi in 2013.
  • Often referred to as the ‘21st Century Silk Road’ or ‘One Belt One Road (OBOR)’, it seeks to connect China with Europe through land and rail routes, and with Asia and Africa through maritime routes. The initiative draws inspiration from the ancient Silk Road, which historically linked China with the Mediterranean region. The project is envisioned to be completed by 2049.
  • India, at various global forums, has consistently not supported the ‘One Belt One Road’ (OBOR) initiative.
Answer: (d) China; Difficulty Level: Easy

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at

  1. Bringing the small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system
  2. Providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops
  3. Providing pensions to old and destitute persons
  4. Funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • It was launched in 2015 to provide loans up to ₹10 lahks to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises or businesses, i.e. micro units, under the definition of MSME.
  • It is an initiative by the Ministry of Finance to ‘fund the unfunded’.
  • Types of loans:
    • Shishu: covering loans up to Rs. 50,000.
    • Kishor: covering loans above Rs. 50,000 and up to 5 Lakh.
    • Tarun: covering loans above Rs. 5 lahks and up to 10 lahks.

Infographic presents key features and achievements of PM Mudra Yojana, a government flagship scheme under Ministry of Finance aimed at funding micro enterprises and small businesses with collateral-free loans up to Rs 20 lakh. It highlights types of loans (Shishu, Kishor, Tarun), Mudra card details, Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) role, and milestones including over 52 crore loans sanctioned worth Rs 3.26 lakh crore, with significant empowerment of women and socially marginalized groups.

Answer: (a) Bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system; Difficulty Level: Medium

In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

  1. Cambay Basin
  2. Cauvery Basin
  3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct
  • Shale gas consists mainly of methane, with small amounts of ethane, propane, butane, & trace levels of carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and hydrogen sulfide. Shales are fine-grained sedimentary rocks formed of organic-rich mud at the bottom of ancient seas.
  • In India, the sedimentary basins that hold prospects for shale oil and gas are Cambay Basin, Gondwana Basin, Krishna Godavari (KG) Basin, Cauvery Basin, Indo-Gangetic Basin, and Assam-Arakan Basin.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

‘Global Financial Stability Report is prepared by the

  1. European Central Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
  4. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Prepared by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the Global Financial Stability Report offers a comprehensive assessment of the global financial system and markets.
  • The report emphasizes current market conditions, shedding light on systemic issues that have the potential to jeopardize financial stability and impede sustained market access for borrowers in emerging markets.

Infographic detailing International Monetary Fund (IMF) overview, including history, objectives, functions, and financial assistance facilities. Features color-coded sections with a world map highlighting member countries, timelines from 1944 to 1947, key functions like lending and economic surveillance, and charts explaining Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) allocation and reports.

Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund; Difficulty Level: Hard

Regarding ‘Atal pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.
  2. Only one member of a family can joins the scheme.
  3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after subscriber’s death.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is an old-age income security scheme for a savings account holder aged 18-40 who is not an income tax payer. The scheme helps address longevity risks among workers in the unorganised sector and encourages them to voluntarily save for their retirement.
  • The scheme is mainly targeted at the poor, the under-privileged and workers in the unorganised sector.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • It is not limited to one member per family.
Statement 3 is correct
  • In the event of the subscriber’s death, the same pension amount is provided to the spouse. If both pass away, the accumulated pension amounts up to the age of 60 is transferred to the nominee.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as

  1. G20
  2. ASEAN
  3. SCO
  4. SAARC

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • It is a free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of ASEAN and its five FTA partners – Australia, China, Japan, New Zealand, and the Republic of Korea. It was signed in 2020. India did not join the grouping.
  • It accounts for about 30% of the world’s population and 30% of global GDP.

Infographic detailing ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) with member countries, core aims, key agreements, challenges, and institutional mechanisms. Features a color-coded map highlighting member states, timelines of formation and membership, and key points on economic cooperation, regional security, and strategic goals.

Answer: (b) ASEAN; Difficulty Level: Easy

On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?

  1. Ceiling fans
  2. Electric geysers
  3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct
  • Bureau of Energy Efficiency: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is a statutory agency under the Ministry of Power.
    • It was created in March 2002 under the provisions of the nation’s 2001 Energy Conservation Act.
    • BEE’s function is to develop programs which will increase the conservation and efficient use of energy.
    • It is mandatory for certain appliances in India to have BEE ratings.
  • Standards & Labelling Program (BEE star label):
    • The Objectives of the Standards & Labelling Program are to provide the consumer with an informed choice about energy savings.
  • Mandatory Appliances:
    • Frost Free Refrigerators
    • Electric Geysers
    • Color TV
    • Washing Machine
    • Room Air Conditioner (Variable Speed)
    • Tubular Fluorescent Lamps
    • LED LAMPS
    • Chillers
    • Light Commercial Air Conditioners
    • Deep Freezers
    • Ultra-High Definition (UHD) Televisions
    • Room Air Conditioner (Fixed Speed)
    • RAC (Cassette, Floor Standing Tower, Ceiling, Corner AC)
    • Distribution Transformer
    • Direct Cool Refrigerators
    • Ceiling Fan
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy

India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?

  1. It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation
  2. It can attain a global role in satellite navigation.
  3. It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation
  4. It can build fusion reactors for power generation.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • If ITER succeeds, India will gain access to fusion technology, enabling it to develop fusion reactors for electricity generation, which would provide clean, abundant, and long-term energy.

Infographic explains International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER), a global fusion energy project in Southern France involving seven members including India, China, and the EU. Key features include ITER's large tokamak design, fusion fuel of deuterium and tritium, magnetic containment system using superconducting magnets, and India's strategic contributions like cryostat development and power supplies.

Answer: (d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation; Difficulty Level: Medium

In the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs:

Term description
1. Eripatti land, revenue from which was set apart for the maintenance of the village tank.
2. Taniyurs Villages donated to a single Brahmin or a group of Brahmins
3. Ghatika colleges generally attached to the temples.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 3

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct
  • Eripatti, or “tank land,” was a unique category of land in South India. Individuals donated these lands specifically for maintaining village tanks. Revenue generated from Eripatti was allocated to ensure the upkeep of these tanks, which were essential for storing rainwater to support irrigation during extended dry periods.
Pair 2 is incorrect
  • The nadu was the basic revenue unit under the Cholas. It organised and controlled agricultural production and redistribution in non-Brahmadeya villages. However, taniyurs were separate administrative units independent of nadus in which they were located.
    • Important brahmadeyas were given Taniyur status. These were separate villages and considered independent entities within the nadus. They also controlled several non-Brahmadeya villages with temples around the Brahmadeya.
    • Certain nagarams were also given taniyur status. These nagarams were considered independent entities and free of the jurisdiction of the nadu. Here, the Mulparusai was the body that oversaw administrative work.
Pair 3 is correct
  • South Indian kingdoms had cultural institutions known as Ghatika and Brahmapuri. A Ghatika was a centre of learning (colleges generally attached to the temples) including religion and was small in size.
  • Temples, Mathas, Jain Basadis and Buddhist Viharas also existed as other sources of learning.
Answer: (d) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Consider the following statements:

  1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations climate change Conference in 2015.
  2. The alliance includes all the countries of the United Nations.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • International Solar Alliance was launched at the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris, in 2015.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Membership: More than 120 signatories. All UN member states are eligible to join the ISA.

Infographic detailing International Solar Alliance (ISA), a coalition of 120 countries between Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn focused on solar energy collaboration, launched at COP21 in 2015 and operational since 2017. It highlights ISA’s governance structure, key projects like One Sun One World One Grid, SolarX startup challenge, and initiatives for solar technology, career fellowship, and viability gap funding.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

‘European stability mechanism‘, sometimes seen in the news, is an

  1. Agency created by the EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from the Middle east.
  2. Agency of EU that provides financial assistances to euro zones countries
  3. Agencies of EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements on trade
  4. gency of EU to deal with the conflicts arising among the member countries

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The European Stability Mechanism is an intergovernmental organisation established by member states of the euro area.
    • The euro area consists of those Member States of the European Union that have adopted the euro as their currency.
  • Its mission is to enable the countries of the euro area to avoid and overcome financial crises and to maintain long-term financial stability and prosperity. It was founded in 2012 at the height of the sovereign debt crisis in Europe.
Answer: (b) Agency of EU that provides financial assistances to euro zones countries; Difficulty Level: Hard

Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practicing drip irrigation?

  1. Reduction of weed
  2. Reduction in soil salinity
  3. Reduction in soil erosion
Select the correct answer using the code given below
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. None of the above is an advantage of practicing drip irrigation

Explanation

Advantage 1 is correct
  • Drip irrigation supplies water directly to the root zone, reducing moisture on the soil surface and thereby limiting weed growth
Advantage 2 is incorrect
  • Drip irrigation improves water efficiency but does not directly reduce soil salinity; salinity control requires periodic flushing of salts.
Advantage 3 is correct
  • By applying water slowly and directly to the soil, drip irrigation minimises surface runoff, significantly reducing soil erosion.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Regarding ‘Digi locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following is/are correct?

  1. It is a Digilocker system offered by the govt under Digital India programme.
  2. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • The DigiLocker platform, launched in 2015, is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY) under the Digital India programme. It operates as an app to store users’ digital records.
  • It is a cloud-based platform designed to store citizens’ digital documents. The stored documents can also be shared and verified through DigiLocker.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?

  1. Cauvery and Tungabhadra
  2. Godavari and Krishna
  3. Mahanadi and soni
  4. Narmada and Tapti

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Pattiseema Lift Irrigation Project is India’s first river-linking initiative, connecting the Godavari River to the Krishna River via the Polavaram Right Canal.
  • This project enables the transfer of surplus water from the Godavari to the Krishna, helping to address water scarcity in the Krishna basin.

Infographic combining a map and text explaining the Pattiseema project, an irrigation initiative linking Godavari and Krishna rivers in Andhra Pradesh to benefit farmers by diverting 80 tmc ft of water and improving water supply. The map highlights key locations, distances, and reservoirs with color-coded rivers, while text sections outline benefits, costs, and environmental concerns, noting the project's temporary status and estimated cost of ₹1,300 crore.

Image Source: TOI

Answer: (b) Godavari and Krishna; Difficulty Level: Medium

In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of the Air Quality Index?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulphur dioxide
  5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • AQI was launched by MoEF in April 2015 under ‘Swachh Bharat’. It helps the citizens to judge the air quality in their vicinity.
  • There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.
  • The AQI will consider eight pollutants:
    • PM10
    • PM2.5,
    • Nitrogen dioxide (NO2),
    • Sulphur dioxide (SO2),
    • Carbon Monoxide (CO),
    • Ozone (O3),
    • Ammonia (NH3), and
    • Lead (Pb)
  • Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane (CH₄) are not included in the AQI calculation in India.
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
  2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect
  • AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
  • AstroSat with a lift-off mass of 1515 kg was launched on September 28, 2015 into a 650 km orbit inclined at an angle of 6 deg to the equator by PSLV-C30.
  • Before this launch, US, Japan, Russia and Europe have launched a space observatory.

Diagram illustrating India's first multi-wavelength space-based telescope observatory designed to study distant celestial objects across X-ray, optical, and UV spectral bands. Key details include launch in 2015 by PSLV-C30, payload components labeled with specific instruments, mission management by ISRO, a designed mission life of 5 years with over 10 years operational capability, and contributions to astrophysics such as detecting far ultraviolet photons and studying black holes and neutron stars.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to

  1. Bonded labour
  2. Land grants made to military officers
  3. Waterwheel used in the irrigation of land
  4. Wasteland converted to cultivated land

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The term ‘Araghatta‘ (Persian wheel) refers to a waterwheel used for irrigation. This mechanical device harnessed animal power to lift water, especially from open wells, playing a crucial role in the irrigation system of that period.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • The traditional form of bonded/ forced labour in India is known as Adiyamar, Baramasia, Basahya, Bethu, Bhagela, Mat, Munish system, Nit-Majoor, Paleru, Padiyal, Pannayilal, Sagri, Sanji, Sanjawat, Sewak, Sewakia, Seri, Vetti, etc.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Iqta of the Sultanate period in a modified form became Jagir under the Mughals. The Jagirdari system, that is to say the system of assignment of revenue of a particular territory to the nobles (including military officiers) for their services to the state, was an integral part of the Mansabdari system
Option (d) is incorrect
  • During medieval period rulers harped on the policy of expansion of agriculture to such areas which were hitherto not under cultivation. Agriculture was introduced to tribal, backward, and outlying areas.
  • Forests were cleared and agricultural wastelands were converted into cultivable lands.
Answer: (c) Waterwheel used in the irrigation of land; Difficulty Level: Hard

With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynasty histories, and epic tales was the profession of which of the following?

  1. Sharamana
  2. Parivraajaka
  3. Agrahaarika
  4. Magadha

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • A class of important court officials in the later Vedic Age (c. 1000-600 BC) were the sutas, also called magadhas, whose special duty was to compose, collect and preserve vamsa, i.e., royal and priestly genealogies. Between 400 BC and AD 400, this oral tradition of history and legend had been given a fixed literary form.
Option (a) is incorrect
  • The word Shramana means one who performs the act of austerity and asceticism. It refers to several Indian religious movements parallel to the Vedic religion.
  • The various Shramana schools include:
    • Jainism
    • Buddhism
    • Ajivikas
    • Ajnanas
    • Charvakas
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Parivrajaka refers to a wandering ascetic who has forsaken all material comforts and possessions in pursuit of spiritual enlightenment.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • The fifth to seventh centuries saw the formation of about half a dozen states, some large and others small; some independent and others feudatory. Each practised expansion through war and through land grants to Buddhists and brahmanas. The number of endowments had increased to such a degree that eventually an officer called agraharika had to be appointed to look after them.
Answer: (d) Magadha; Difficulty Level: Hard

Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Karnataka
  4. Maharashtra

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Maharashtra has become the first State in the country to have a ‘State butterfly.’ The government declared the Blue Mormon (Papilio polymnestor) as the State butterfly.
    • The Blue Mormon is a large, swallowtail butterfly found primarily in Sri Lanka and India, mainly restricted to the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, South India and coastal belts.
    • It is one of the largest butterfly found in India.

The Blue Mormon is a large, swallowtail butterfly found primarily in Sri Lanka and India, mainly restricted to the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, South India and coastal belts. It is one of the largest butterfly found in India.

Option (a) is incorrect
  • Kaiser-i-Hind (Teinopalpus imperialis) is the State butterfly of Arunachal Pradesh .
  • This butterfly is found in six States along the Eastern Himalayas at elevations from 6,000-10,000 feet in well-wooded terrain. The butterfly also flutters in Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Laos, Vietnam and southern China.

Kaiser-i-Hind (Teinopalpus imperialis) is the State butterfly of Arunachal Pradesh . This butterfly is found in six States along the Eastern Himalayas at elevations from 6,000-10,000 feet in well-wooded terrain. The butterfly also flutters in Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Laos, Vietnam and southern China.

Option (b) is incorrect
  • Not notified by state government
Option (c) is incorrect
  • The Southern Bird Wing (Troides Minos)has been officially designated as the ‘State butterfly’ of Karnataka.
    • The species with a wingspan of 190mm, which was known to be India’s largest butterfly species from 1932 to 2020, moved to the second position after a British Brigadier William Harry Evans, recorded a butterfly species named Golden Birdwing with a wingspan of 194mm.

The Southern Bird Wing (Troides Minos)has been officially designated as the 'State butterfly' of Karnataka. The species with a wingspan of 190mm, which was known to be India’s largest butterfly species from 1932 to 2020, moved to the second position after a British Brigadier William Harry Evans, recorded a butterfly species named Golden Birdwing with a wingspan of 194mm.

Answer: (d) Maharashtra; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements: The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO

  1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission.
  2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit Mars after the USA.
  3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit Mars in its very first attempt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • It was India’s first interplanetary mission (launched on board PSLV-C25), also known as the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM).
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Launched in 2013, the Mangalyaan spacecraft entered Mars orbit in 2014, making India the fourth nation to reach Mars, after the Soviet Union, the United States, and the European Space Agency.
  • The spacecraft continued to transmit data until August 2022, longer than its initial design life of 6 months.
Statement 3 is correct
  • India become the first country in the world to have reached distant Mars on its own steam in the first attempt.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

  1. Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto
  2. Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government
  3. Foundation of Muslim League
  4. Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress

Explanation

Reason (b) is correct
  • INC in 1907:
    • Militants wanted to: Hold the 1907 session in Nagpur (Central Provinces) with Tilak or Lajpat Rai as the president.
    • Retain the four Resolutions passed in the Calcutta session.
    • Moderates wanted to:
    • Hold the at 1907 session Surat to exclude Tilak from the presidency since a leader from the host province could not be session president (Surat being in Tilak’s home province of Bombay). Instead, they wanted Rash Behari Ghosh to be the president.
    • Drop the four Resolutions passed in the Calcutta session.
  • Both sides adopted rigid positions, leaving no room for compromise. The split became inevitable.
  • The Congress session was held on 26 December 1907 at Surat. The extremists demanded assurance that four resolutions would be passed. They opposed the elected President, Rash Behari Ghose, to pressure the Moderates. Extremists’ did not have faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government.
  • There were shouts and counter-shouts, brandishing of sticks and unrolling of turbans, breaking of chairs and brushing of heads. Finally, the Congress divided, and the moderate leaders, having captured the machinery of the Congress, excluded the militant elements from it.
  • The two groups reunited in December 1915. In the following year, the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League signed the Lucknow Pact and agreed to jointly work for establishing a representative government in the country.
Reason (a) is incorrect
  • Lord Minto was the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1905-10. He is known as the father of the communal electorate.
  • Important events during his tenure:
    • Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley–Minto Reforms)
    • Provided separate electorate for Muslims.
    • Played an important role in dividing Hindus and Muslims
    • Formation of Muslim League
    • Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
    • Surat Split
    • Alipore conspiracy case
Reason (c) is incorrect
  • In 1906, under the leadership of the Aga Khan (First president of AIML), the Nawab of Dacca, Khwaja Salimullah Bahadur, and Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk, the educated Muslims, Muslim nawabs and landlords founded the Muslim League.
Reason (d) is incorrect
  • In 1907, Aurobindo faced sedition charges for leading against the British and his patriotic writings against the British. After being acquitted, he presided over the Nationalist Conference of Congress party in Surat. In 1908, Aurobindo was tried in the Alipore conspiracy case. After a year’s imprisonment as an undertrial prisoner, he was acquitted due to the lack of evidence.
Answer: (b) Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government; Difficulty Level: Easy

The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War

  1. India should be granted complete independence
  2. India should be partitioned into two before granting independence
  3. India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth
  4. India should be given Dominion status

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • To gain India’s cooperation in the War, the British Government, headed by Conservative Prime Minister Winston, sent a mission headed by a cabinet minister, Sir Stafford Cripps, to India in March 1942.
  • Some of the Cripps proposals, embodied in a Draft Declaration, were:
    • Immediately after the war, an Indian union with dominion status would be established, with the right to secede from the Commonwealth.
    • Any Indian province could stay outside the Indian Union and directly negotiate with Britain.
    • The princely states that did not wish to accede to India could continue in their pre-existing relations with the British crown.
    • After the war, a constituent assembly would be set up. The members would be elected by the provincial assemblies and nominated by the rulers in the case of the princely states.
    • In the meantime, the actual control of defence and military operations would be retained by the British Government.
  • The proposals also promised the protection of minorities. The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions:
    • Any province unwilling to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union.
    • The constitution-making body and the British government would engage in negotiations to draft a treaty that would effect the transfer of power and protect the rights of racial and religious minorities.
  • Almost all the Indian parties rejected this Declaration.
  • Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad were the official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission.
  • Mahatma Gandhi called the proposal a post-dated cheque on a tottering bank
Answer: (d) India should be given Dominion status; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following pairs:

Famous place Region
1.Bodhgaya Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
5. Tirupati Rayalaseema
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 2, 3, 4 and 5
  3. 2 and 5 only
  4. 1, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect
  • Bodhgaya is a small town located in the Gaya district of Bihar. It is one of the most prominent Buddhist pilgrimage sites (Gautam Buddha is believed to have attained nirvana here) and houses a UNESCO World Heritage site (Mahabodhi Temple) within its boundaries. It is located in the transit region between the Chota Nagpur plateau and the alluvial Gangetic plains of South Bihar. Topographically, Bodh Gaya lies on the western bank of the river Niranjana at an average altitude of 113 meters above sea level.
  • Baghelkhand is located north of the Maikal Range and is bounded by the Son River on the north.
Pair 2 is correct
  • Khajuraho (in Bundelkhand region) near Chhatarpur in Chhatarpur district of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is famous for the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, which is a group of Hindu temples and Jain temples.
    • They are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temples are famous for their nagara-style architectural symbolism and their erotic sculptures.
    • Most Khajuraho temples were built between 950 and 1050 by the Chandela dynasty.

Map showing plateaus of Peninsular India, highlighting major regions like Deccan Plateau in blue and Central Highlands in pink with red arrows. Key plateaus, ranges, and plains are labeled with distinct colors and boundaries, illustrating geographical distribution and topographical features.

Pair 3 is incorrect
  • Shirdi is a town in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra in India. The Vidarbha region in Maharashtra, India comprises 11 districts: Amravati, Akola, Bhandara, Buldhana, Chandrapur, Gadchiroli, Gondia, Nagpur, Wardha, Washim, and Yavatmal.
  • Vidarbha region is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to several wildlife parks and sanctuaries: Some of them are Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve, one of the largest and oldest national parks in Maharashtra; Pench National Park, Melghat Tiger Reserve; Navegaon Nagzira National Park; and Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary.
Pair 4 is incorrect
  • Situated on the banks of the Godavari River, Nashik (in Maharashtra) is best known for being one of the Hindu pilgrimage sites, that of Kumbh Mela, which is held every 12 years. The Western Ghats, or Sahyadri range, stretches from north to south across the western portion of the district and the larger eastern portion, which lies on the Deccan Plateau.
Pair 5 is correct
  • Tirupati is located in Rayalaseema, a region in the Andhra Pradesh state. It is the abode of Lord Venkateswara, located atop Seshachalam Hills, often called the Seven Hills.
Answer: (c) 2 and 5 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

  1. Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
  2. Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
  3. Rajya Sabha by a Simple majority of its total membership
  4. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its member present and voting

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • All the subjects/areas regarding legislation have been divided into three Lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Union and State Lists are mutually exclusive. The Parliament cannot legislate on a matter placed in the State List in normal circumstances.
  • However, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution (Article 249) by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting saying that it is “necessary or expedient in the national interest” that Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament becomes empowered to make a law on the subject specified in the resolution, for the whole or any part of the territory of India.
  • Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a similar resolution further.
Answer: (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its member present and voting; Difficulty Level: Easy

Recently, which of the following states has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to the sea by a long navigational channel?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Chhattisgarh
  3. Karnataka
  4. Rajasthan

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Rajasthan government was investigating the feasibility of establishing an artificial inland port connected to the sea via an extensive navigational channel. The state government was exploring the avenues to create an artificial inland port in Jalore by channelling Arabian Seawater into Rajasthan through the state of Gujarat. The project has now been dumped by the Rajasthan water resources department
Answer: (d) Rajasthan; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
  2. The agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of the century does not exceed 2 Celsius or even 1.5 Celsius above pre-industrial levels.
  3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibilities in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries cope with climatic change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
  • It was adopted by 196 Parties at the COP21 in Paris (France) in 2015.
  • It entered into force in 2016 after ratification by 55 countries that account for at least 55% of global emissions India signed and ratified in 2016.
    • Ratification: Once the treaty has been signed, each state will deal with it according to its own national procedures. After approval has been granted under a state’s own internal procedures, it will notify the other parties that they consent to be bound by the treaty. This is called ratification.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The agreement set a goal of limiting global warming to well below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels. The agreement calls for zero net anthropogenic GHG emissions to be reached during the second half of the 21st century.
  • The parties will also pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 °C. This will require zero emissions sometime between 2030 and 2050.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • The developed countries reaffirmed the commitment to mobilise $100 billion a year in climate finance by 2020 and agreed to continue it further until 2025.

PMF Concept Hack

  • Statement 3 can be eliminated using the unrealistic number rule—$1000 billion per year is excessively large.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’
  2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct
  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) (replaced Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were born at Rio+20. Since 2015, the SDGs have been included in the Agenda 2030.
    • Rio+20, or Earth Summit 2012, was a 20-year follow-up to the Earth Summit 1992 and a 10-year follow-up to the Earth Summit 2002.
  • SDGs are a collection of 17 global goals and their 169 targets, set by the UN General Assembly (UNGA) in 2015 for the year 2030 (UNGA resolution “2030 Agenda”). They aim to eradicate poverty in all forms and “seek to realise the human rights of all and achieve gender equality”.

Additional Information

  • The Club of Rome is a global think tank founded in 1968 by Italian industrialist Aurelio Peccei and Scottish scientist Alexander King. It brings together scientists, economists, business leaders, and politicians to address complex global challenges such as environmental sustainability, economic inequality, and population growth.
  • The organization is best known for its landmark report, The Limits to Growth (1972), which used computer simulations to explore the consequences of unchecked economic and population growth on the planet’s resources.

Infographic detailing Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) history and overview, featuring a timeline from 1992 to 2015 highlighting key summits and adoption milestones of Agenda 21, Millennium Development Goals, and 2030 Agenda with 17 SDGs and 169 targets. Below timeline, 17 color-coded circular icons represent each SDG with corresponding numbers and titles, such as No Poverty, Zero Hunger, Quality Education, and Climate Action, using distinct colors and simple symbols for visual clarity.

Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

A recent movie titled “The Man who knew infinity” is based on the biography of

  1. S. Ramanujam
  2. S. Chandrasekhar
  3. S.N. Bose
  4. C.V. Raman

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • “The Man Who Knew Infinity” is a biography and a movie on the life of Ramanujan.

Additional Information

  • Srinivasa Ramanujan was born on 22 December 1887 in Erode. In 1903, he secured a scholarship to the University of Madras but lost it after failing in other subjects. In 1911, he published his first paper in the Journal of the Indian Mathematical Society. His correspondence with G. H. Hardy led to a special scholarship from the University of Madras and support from Trinity College, Cambridge. He was elected to the Royal Society in 1918 and became the first Indian Fellow of Trinity College, Cambridge. Ramanujan compiled remarkable mathematical results, including infinite series for π, and introduced innovative ideas that influenced modern mathematics.
  • The number 1729, known as the Ramanujan number, is the smallest number expressible as the sum of two cubes in two different ways. In mathematics, the Fields Medal is awarded every four years to mathematicians under 40 by the International Mathematical Union, while the Abel Prize is awarded annually by the King of Norway; notably, the Nobel Prize does not include a mathematics category.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • Chandrasekhar is best known for his work on the structure and evolution of stars. He formulated the Chandrasekhar limit, which defines the maximum mass of a stable white dwarf star.
  • His contributions to astrophysics earned him the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • An Indian physicist, Bose, is renowned for his work in quantum mechanics.
  • His collaboration with Albert Einstein led to the development of the Bose-Einstein statistics and the concept of Bose-Einstein condensate.
Option (d) is incorrect
  • C.V. Raman is famous for his groundbreaking work on the scattering of light, which led to the discovery of the Raman effect. This phenomenon is the change in the wavelength of light when it is deflected by molecules. He received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930 for this discovery.
Answer: (a) Ramanujam; Difficulty Level: Medium

Consider the following statements:

  1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
  2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Under the Article 243F of the Constitution of India, the minimum age to become a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25 years.
Statement 2 is correct
  • If a Panchayat is dissolved prematurely, the newly elected Panchayat will only serve for the remainder time period of the original term.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
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