UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2004

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2004 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2004question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

Consider the following statements:

1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.
2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.
3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All statements are correct

• 1485: Narasimha Saluva deposed Virupaksha Raya II, founding the Saluva dynasty.
• 1505: Vira Narasimha (son of Tuluva Narasa Nayaka) deposed Immadi Narasimha, starting the Tuluva dynasty.
• 1509: After Vira Narasimha’s death, his brother Krishnadeva Raya became ruler.
• 1529: Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half‑brother Achyuta Raya.
• Saluva dynasty (1485) → Tuluva dynasty (1505) → Krishnadeva Raya (1509) → Achyuta Raya (1529)

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements: Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the:

1. Abolition of diarchy in the Governors’ provinces
2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. Abolition of the principle of communal representation

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Government of India Act, 1935, ended provincial diarchy and introduced provincial autonomy with responsible ministries. However, governors retained strong powers — including ordinance‑making, legislative authority in special cases, and overriding/reserve powers. The Act also continued communal electorates and separate representation.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Consider the following statements:

1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta.
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji.
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the first session of the Indian National Congress was held at Bombay in 1885 under the presidentship of Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, not at Calcutta. Statement 2 is correct as the second session of the Congress was held at Calcutta in 1886 and was presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji. Statement 3 is also correct because both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League held their sessions in Lucknow in 1916, where they reached the historic Lucknow Pact, marking cooperation between the two organisations on constitutional reforms.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India.
3. The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.
4. The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• The statement is correct because the Constituent Assembly was constituted under the provisions of the Cabinet Mission Plan, and its members were elected indirectly by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies in 1946. Statement (b) is incorrect because although Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly, Muhammad Ali Jinnah was not a member of the Assembly that framed the Constitution of India after Partition. Statement (c) is incorrect as the first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946, not in January 1947. Statement (d) is also incorrect because the Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950

Answer: (a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946

Consider the following statements:

1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All statements are correct

• District Judge is the highest authority and acts as a Sessions Judge in criminal cases. Appointment is by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. Eligibility requires 7 years’ standing as an advocate/pleader or judicial service officer. A death sentence imposed by a Sessions Judge requires confirmation by the High Court.

Answer: d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements:

1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• Seven species of pangolins are found across the world, of which two are found in India, namely the Indian pangolin and the Chinese pangolin. Hoolock Gibbon is the only ape found in India.

Answer: (b) 2 only

In which one of the following Union Territories do the people of the Onge tribe live?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
3. Daman and Diu
4. Lakshadweep

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Onge are a recognized indigenous tribe of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, specifically inhabiting Little Andaman at Dugong Creek and South Bay.

Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Maize
4. Mustard

Which of the above are Kharif crops?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Cotton, groundnut, and maize are Kharif crops, sown with the southwest monsoon and harvested at its withdrawal. Mustard is a Rabi crop. It is sown in October–November and harvested in February–March.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

1. It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
2. It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
3. It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
4. It allocates seats in the Council of States.

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha among States and Union Territories, based broadly on population. It originally listed state‑wise distribution and has been amended over time to reflect changes in State boundaries and names.

Answer: (d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.

Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?

1. Firuz Shah Tughluq
2. Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq Shah II
3. Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
4. Nasrat Shah

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Nasir‑ud‑din Mahmud (c. 1412–1413) was the last Tughlaq ruler. His reign saw Timur’s invasion, which broke Tughlaq power and led to their fall. Soon after, Khizr Khan founded the Sayyid dynasty in Delhi.

Answer: (c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud

The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:

1. China
2. Malaysia
3. Cambodia
4. Laos

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Mekong River flows through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam, draining into the South China Sea. Malaysia is not part of the Mekong basin.

Answer: (b) Malaysia

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam.
2. The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland.
3. The largest river island in the world is in Assam.
4. Sikkim is the least populated state of the Indian Union.

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• India’s largest Buddhist monastery is Tawang Monastery in Arunachal Pradesh, not Assam.

Answer: (a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam.

Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?

1. Rig‑veda
2. Yajur‑veda
3. Atharva‑veda
4. Sama‑veda

Explanation

• The Atharva Veda is distinct for its charms, spells, and healing hymns, unlike the Sama Veda (musical chants) and Yajur Veda (ritual formulas). It is most associated with popular, protective, and therapeutic practices.

Answer: (c) Atharva‑veda

The Montague‑Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:

1. The Indian Councils Act, 1909
2. The Government of India Act, 1919
3. The Government of India Act, 1935
4. The Indian Independence Act, 1947

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Montagu‑Chelmsford Report (1918) laid the foundation for the Government of India Act, 1919. Its key recommendations — dyarchy in provinces, enlarged legislative councils, and a bicameral central legislature — were embodied in the Act, making it the direct legislative outcome of the scheme.

Answer: (b) The Government of India Act, 1919

The name of the famous person of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was:

1. Tej Bahadur Sapru
2. Ashutosh Mukherjee
3. Rabindranath Tagore
4. Syed Ahmad Khan

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in 1919 as a protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and British brutality in Punjab. Contemporary accounts confirm he gave up the honor immediately after the tragedy, joining other leaders like Gandhi (who relinquished the Kaiser‑i‑Hind title) in symbolic rejection of British rule.

Answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore

The resolution for removing the Vice‑President of India can be moved in the:

1. Lok Sabha alone
2. Either House of Parliament
3. Joint Sitting of Parliament
4. Rajya Sabha alone

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Vice‑President of India can be removed only by a resolution initiated in the Rajya Sabha, passed by a majority of its members, and then agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution requires 14 days’ prior notice before being moved.

Answer: (d) Rajya Sabha alone

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?

1. Article 257
2. Article 258
3. Article 355
4. Article 356

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Article 257 requires State executive power to be exercised without impeding Union authority. It ensures Union administration prevails in case of conflict, while allowing consensual sharing or delegation of functions to maintain coordination in Centre–State relations.

Answer: (a) Article 257

With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

1. Forests: Concurrent List
2. Stock Exchanges: Concurrent List
3. Post Office Saving Bank: Union List
4. Public Health: State List

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Stock exchanges are placed under Entry 48 of the Union List, making them an exclusive Union subject rather than a Concurrent one.

Answer: (b) Stock Exchanges: Concurrent List

Who among the following is well known as an exponent of the flute?

1. Debu Choudhuri
2. Madhup Mudgal
3. Ronu Mazumdar
4. Shafaat Ahmad

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Ronu Mazumdar is the noted Indian classical bansuri (flute) exponent among the options. Madhup Mudgal is primarily a vocalist, and Devabrata Chaudhuri is a sitar maestro, not a flutist. Ustad Shafaat Ahmed Khan was one of the leading tabla maestros in Hindustani classical music.

Answer: (c) Ronu Mazumdar

Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

1. Russia
2. Estonia
3. Lithuania
4. Poland

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Latvia borders Estonia, Lithuania, Russia, and Belarus, with a Baltic Sea coastline, but not Poland.

Answer: (d) Poland

With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

1. The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law.
2. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.
3. Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.
4. No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• The Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill, and Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations. If not returned within 14 days, the bill is deemed passed by both Houses. Hence, it is not mandatory for the Rajya Sabha to pass it.

Answer: (a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law.

Match List‑I (Sea) with List‑II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List‑I (Sea)

1. Black Sea
2. Red Sea
3. Yellow Sea
4. Caspian Sea

List‑II (Country)

1. Bulgaria
2. China
3. Eritrea
4. Kazakhstan

Codes:

1. A‑1, B‑4, C‑2, D‑3
2. A‑2, B‑3, C‑1, D‑4
3. A‑1, B‑3, C‑2, D‑4
4. A‑2, B‑4, C‑1, D‑3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Black Sea borders Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, and Turkey.

• The Red Sea borders Eritrea, Egypt, Sudan, Djibouti, Saudi Arabia, and Yemen.

• China borders the Yellow Sea.

• Kazakhstan borders the Caspian Sea.

Answer: (c) A‑1, B‑3, C‑2, D‑4

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

List‑I (Period) – List‑II (Wars)

1. AD 1767‑69 — First Anglo Maratha War
2. AD 1790‑92 — Third Mysore War
3. AD 1824‑26 — First Anglo Burmese War
4. AD 1845‑46 — Second Sikh War

Codes:

1. 2 and 4
2. 3 and 4
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• AD 1767‑69 was actually the First Anglo‑Mysore War, not Anglo‑Maratha.
• AD 1790‑92 correctly matches the Third Mysore War.
• AD 1824‑26 correctly matches the First Anglo‑Burmese War.
• AD 1845‑46 was the First Sikh War, not the Second.

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Consider the following:

1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range

What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?

1. 1‑2‑3
2. 2‑1‑3
3. 1‑3‑2
4. 2‑3‑1

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mahadeo Hills form the northern link of the Satpura system, the Satpura Range lies centrally in India, and the Sahyadri (Western Ghats) stretch further south‑west along the plateau.

Answer: (c) 1‑3‑2

Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of Rajasthan?

1. Bharatpur
2. Jaipur
3. Jodhpur
4. Udaipur

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Sambhar Lake, India’s largest inland saltwater lake, is located about 70 km southwest of Jaipur in Rajasthan.

Answer: (b) Jaipur

Match List‑I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List‑II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List‑I (Articles of the Constitution of India)

1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 16
4. Article 17

List‑II (Provision)

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.

Codes:

1. A‑2, B‑4, C‑1, D‑3
2. A‑3, B‑1, C‑4, D‑2
3. A‑2, B‑1, C‑4, D‑3
4. A‑3, B‑4, C‑1, D‑2

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Articles 14 to 18 constitute the Right to Equality under Part III of the Constitution. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on specified grounds. Article 16 ensures equality of opportunity in public employment. Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.

Answer: (c) A‑2, B‑1, C‑4, D‑3

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals.
2. Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes.
3. Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and feathery appearance.
4. Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds.

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• Cirrus clouds are high-altitude clouds that form above 20,000 feet and are composed mainly of ice crystals, giving them a thin, wispy, and feathery appearance. Therefore, the option describing high, delicate clouds made of ice crystals correctly refers to cirrus clouds. The option describing puffy, cotton-like clouds relates to cumulus clouds, not cirrus. Another option incorrectly attributes the characteristics of cirrus clouds to cumulus clouds. The remaining option is also incorrect because cumulus clouds generally develop at low to middle altitudes rather than at high altitudes.

Answer: (a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals.

Match List‑I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List‑II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List‑I (National Park/Sanctuary)

1. Kanger Ghati National Park
2. Nagerhole National Park
3. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary

List‑II (State)

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Haryana
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Karnataka

Codes:

1. A‑3, B‑2, C‑1, D‑4
2. A‑1, B‑4, C‑3, D‑2
3. A‑3, B‑4, C‑1, D‑2
4. A‑1, B‑2, C‑3, D‑4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Kanger Ghati National Park is located in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh and is known for its limestone caves and rich biodiversity. Nagarhole National Park (Rajiv Gandhi National Park) is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in Karnataka. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary lies in the Chamba region of Himachal Pradesh and forms part of the Western Himalayas. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, situated in Gurugram district of Haryana, is a renowned wetland habitat for resident and migratory birds.

Answer: (b) A‑1, B‑4, C‑3, D‑2

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): West flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.
2. Reason (R): These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Narmada, Tapti, and most other west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India generally do not form deltas. Instead, they enter the sea through estuaries or narrow river mouths. This is mainly because the western part of Peninsular India is characterized by hard, rocky terrain with limited loose sediment available for deposition. Moreover, these rivers have relatively short courses and carry smaller quantities of alluvial material compared to the major east-flowing rivers. As a result, sufficient sediment does not accumulate at their mouths to form extensive deltas.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.
2. Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains the Assertion. The troposphere is thickest at the equator (~18 km) and thinnest at the poles (~8 km). This greater thickness results from intense solar heating in the tropics, which drives strong convectional currents that lift heat and moisture to higher altitudes, raising the tropopause. The ITCZ illustrates this process, in which maximum insolation produces deep convection and elevates the tropopause over the equator.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is:

1. Discovery of huge reserves of oil
2. Separatist rebellious activities by the local people
3. Continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in a great loss of human life
4. Intense cold wave killing hundreds of people

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Chechnya, a republic in the North Caucasus region of Russia, has often been in the news due to separatist movements and insurgent activities by local groups seeking independence from Russia. This has led to prolonged conflicts and instability in the region.

Answer: (b) Separatist rebellious activities by the local people

According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its chairman?

1. Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
2. Any serving Judge of the High Court
3. Only a retired Chief Justice of India
4. Only a retired Chief Justice of High Court

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Originally, the NHRC Chairperson had to be a retired Chief Justice of India. After the 2019 amendment, eligibility expanded to include any former Supreme Court Judge. Thus, appointment of serving judges or retired High Court Chief Justices is not allowed, and option 3 reflects the earlier rule but is no longer exclusively correct.

Answer: (c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

1. Pitt’s India Act → Warren Hastings
2. Doctrine of Lapse → Dalhousie
3. Vernacular Press Act → Curzon
4. Ilbert Bill → Ripon

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• The pair is incorrectly matched because the Vernacular Press Act was enacted in 1878 during the tenure of Lytton, not Curzon. The Act was aimed at curbing the freedom of the Indian-language press. The other pairs are correctly matched: Pitt’s India Act (1784) was passed during the tenure of Warren Hastings; the Doctrine of Lapse is closely associated with Dalhousie; and the Ilbert Bill (1883) was introduced during the viceroyalty of Ripon.

Answer: (d) Ilbert Bill → Ripon

Which one of the following does not border Panama?

1. Costa Rica
2. Pacific Ocean
3. Colombia
4. Venezuela

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Panama shares land borders with Costa Rica (west) and Colombia (east). It is an isthmus with the Caribbean Sea to the north and the Pacific Ocean to the south, giving it long coastlines but just those two land neighbors. Venezuela does not border Panama; it lies across the Caribbean, separated by Colombia.

Answer: (d) Venezuela

Match List‑I (Biosphere Reserves) with List‑II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List‑I (Biosphere Reserves)

1. Similipal
2. Dehong
3. Nokrek
4. Kanchenjunga

List‑II (States)

1. Sikkim
2. Uttaranchal Deband
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Orissa
5. Meghalaya

Codes:

1. A‑1, B‑3, C‑5, D‑4
2. A‑4, B‑5, C‑2, D‑1
3. A‑1, B‑5, C‑2, D‑4
4. A‑4, B‑3, C‑5, D‑1

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Similipal Biosphere Reserve is located in Odisha (Orissa), Dehang–Debang Biosphere Reserve is situated in Arunachal Pradesh, Nokrek Biosphere Reserve lies in Meghalaya, and Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is located in Sikkim.

Answer: d) A‑4, B‑3, C‑5, D‑1

Match List‑I (Agency) with List‑II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List‑I (Agency)

1. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
2. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
3. United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
4. Universal Postal Union (UPU)

List‑II (Headquarters)

1. Nairobi
2. Vienna
3. Berne
4. New York

Codes:

1. A‑2, B‑3, C‑4, D‑1
2. A‑4, B‑1, C‑2, D‑3
3. A‑2, B‑1, C‑4, D‑3
4. A‑4, B‑3, C‑2, D‑1

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The headquarters of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is located in New York (4), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is headquartered in Nairobi (1), the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) is based in Vienna (2), and the Universal Postal Union (UPU) has its headquarters in Berne (3).

Answer: (b) A‑4, B‑1, C‑2, D‑3

Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule:

1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?

1. 1‑3‑2‑4
2. 2‑4‑1‑3
3. 1‑4‑2‑3
4. 2‑3‑1‑4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The correct chronological order is Curzon (1899–1905) → Hardinge (1910–1916) → Chelmsford (1916–1921) → Irwin (1926–1931).

Answer: (a) 1‑3‑2‑4

Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle:

1. Chauri‑Chaura Outrage
2. Minto‑Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montague‑Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

1. 1‑3‑2‑4
2. 2‑4‑1‑3
3. 1‑4‑2‑3
4. 2‑3‑1‑4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The correct chronological order is Minto–Morley Reforms (1909) → Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms (1919) → Chauri-Chaura Outrage (1922) → Dandi March (1930).

Answer: (b) 2‑4‑1‑3

Consider the following events:

1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?

1. 2‑1‑4‑3
2. 4‑3‑2‑1
3. 2‑3‑4‑1
4. 4‑1‑2‑3

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Formation of Haryana State (1966) under the Punjab Reorganisation Act.
• Fourth General Elections (1967)
• Meghalaya and Tripura become full States (1972)
• Mysore renamed Karnataka (1973)

Answer: (a) 2‑1‑4‑3

Match List‑I (Fuel Gases) with List‑II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List‑I (Fuel Gases)

1. CNG
2. Coal gas
3. LPG
4. Water gas

List‑II (Major Constituents)

1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
2. Butane, Propane
3. Methane, Ethane
4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide

Codes:

1. A‑2, B‑1, C‑3, D‑4
2. A‑3, B‑4, C‑2, D‑1
3. A‑2, B‑4, C‑3, D‑1
4. A‑3, B‑1, C‑2, D‑4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The correct matching is: CNG → Methane and Ethane (3), as compressed natural gas consists mainly of methane with small amounts of other hydrocarbons. Coal gas → Hydrogen, Methane and Carbon monoxide (4), since it is produced from the destructive distillation of coal and contains a mixture of combustible gases. LPG → Butane and Propane (2), which are its principal constituents. Water gas → Carbon monoxide and Hydrogen (1), formed by passing steam over red-hot coke

Answer: (b) A‑3, B‑4, C‑2, D‑1

The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of which one of the following Ministries?

1. Culture
2. Tourism
3. Science and Technology
4. Human Resource Development

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the premier agency under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, responsible for archaeological research, conservation, and the preservation of the nation’s cultural heritage.

Answer: (a) Culture

Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to adjourn the House or adjourn it sine die, but the power to summon the House after prorogation is vested in the President under Article 85. The Lok Sabha normally continues for five years from the date of its first meeting and, unless dissolved earlier or its term is extended during a national emergency, it stands dissolved automatically on the expiry of this period even without a formal order from the President. Further, the Speaker does not vacate office upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha and continues until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted House

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
2. In the case of a no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules.
3. A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted.
4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence.

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• Statement A is not correct because a no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha does not need to specify any grounds or reasons on which it is based. The Rules of Procedure do not require the mover to state charges against the Council of Ministers. This is why Statement B is correct, as no specific conditions of admissibility have been laid down beyond the requirement of support from at least 50 members. Statement C is also correct because once leave is granted, the motion must be taken up for discussion within ten days. Statement D is correct since the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha, and therefore, the Rajya Sabha cannot entertain a no-confidence motion.

Answer: (a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by Kanishka.
2. The Chinese pilgrim Huen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Fourth Buddhist Council was held during the reign of Kanishka in the 1st–2nd century CE, whereas the Chinese pilgrim Faxian (Fa-Hien) visited India in the early 5th century CE during the Gupta period and therefore could not have attended the council. Statement 2 is also incorrect because Xuanzang (Huen-Tsang) met Harsha and described him as a generous patron of Buddhism who supported monasteries and organized religious assemblies. Hence, both statements are incorrect.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmednagar come to an end?

1. Ahmednagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment.
2. Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmednagar.
3. Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul Mulk.
4. Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family was killed by the Mughal troops.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Nizam Shahi dynasty of Ahmadnagar came to an end in 1636 when the Mughal Empire under Shah Jahan finally annexed Ahmadnagar. The last ruler, Husain Shah Nizam Shah III, was captured and imprisoned for life at Gwalior Fort

Answer: (a) Ahmednagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment.

With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of Sthalabahu.
2. The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra.
3. Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC.
4. In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jains worshipped images, unlike Buddhists.

Explanation

Option (c) is the correct answer

• Kharavela was a notable patron of Jainism, as evidenced by the Hathigumpha Inscription. Option A is incorrect because Jainism spread to South India under the leadership of Bhadrabahu, not Sthulabhadra. Option B is incorrect because the followers of Bhadrabahu who migrated south became associated with the Digambara sect, while the group that remained in the north under Sthulabhadra evolved into the Shvetambara sect. Option D is incorrect because early Jainism, like early Buddhism, was initially non-idolatrous, and image worship developed later.

Answer: (c) Ahmednagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment.

Consider the following statements:

1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi.
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo Mysore War.
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj‑ud‑Daulah in the Battle of Plassey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: In the Third Battle of Panipat (1761), Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated the Marathas, not Ibrahim Lodi (who was defeated by Babur in the First Battle of Panipat, 1526).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Tipu Sultan was killed in the Fourth Anglo‑Mysore War (1799), not the third.
• Statement 3 is correct: Mir Jafar conspired with the British, leading to the defeat of Siraj‑ud‑Daulah in the Battle of Plassey (1757).

Thus, only statement 3 is correct.

Answer: b) 3 only

Match List‑I (State / Province / Overseas Territory) with List‑II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List‑I (State / Province / Overseas Territory)

1. British Columbia
2. Bavaria
3. Gibraltar
4. Rhode Island

List‑II (Country)

1. USA
2. UK
3. Canada
4. Germany
5. Denmark

Codes:

1. A‑1, B‑2, C‑5, D‑3
2. A‑3, B‑4, C‑2, D‑1
3. A‑1, B‑4, C‑2, D‑3
4. A‑3, B‑2, C‑5, D‑1

Explanation

The correct matching is Option 2 (A‑3, B‑4, C‑2, D‑1):

• A. British Columbia → 3 (Canada) — Westernmost province between the Pacific and Rockies.
• B. Bavaria → 4 (Germany) — Largest German state, capital Munich.
• C. Gibraltar → 2 (United Kingdom) — British Overseas Territory at the tip of Iberia.
• D. Rhode Island → 1 (USA) — Smallest U.S. state, in New England.

Answer: b) A‑3, B‑4, C‑2, D‑1

During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?

1. Mazharul Haque
2. Maulana Hasrat Mohani
3. Hakim Ajmal Khan
4. Abul Kalam Azad

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Hasrat Mohani, a prominent freedom fighter and socialist thinker, was the first to raise the demand for Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence) in 1921. He also coined the powerful slogan “Inquilab Zindabad” (Long Live the Revolution), which went on to become one of the most enduring and inspiring rallying cries of the freedom movement across the Indian subcontinent.

Answer: (b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani

Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?

1. Shankaracharya — Ramanuja — Chaitanya
2. Ramanuja — Shankaracharya — Chaitanya
3. Ramanuja — Chaitanya — Shankaracharya
4. Shankaracharya — Chaitanya — Ramanuja

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The correct chronological order is Adi Shankaracharya (8th century CE) → Ramanuja (11th–12th century CE) → Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (15th–16th century CE).

Answer: (a) Shankaracharya — Chaitanya — Ramanuja

Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in India:

1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara

The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is:

1. 1‑2‑3
2. 1‑3‑2
3. 3‑2‑1
4. 3‑1‑2

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The annexations took place under the policy of the Doctrine of Lapse introduced by Lord Dalhousie. Satara was annexed first in 1848, followed by Sambalpur in 1849, and Jhansi in 1854.

Answer: (c) 3‑2‑1

Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction, and conduct of free and fair elections.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice‑President.
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.

Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 2, 3, and 4
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2, and 4

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Election Commission of India is responsible for the superintendence, direction and conduct of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. It also prepares electoral rolls, recognizes political parties, and allots election symbols. However, Statement 4 is incorrect because election disputes are decided by the judiciary, primarily the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India, and not by the Election Commission.

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3

Consider the following geological phenomena:

1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks

Which of the above causes earthquakes?

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Earthquakes can result from a variety of geological processes. They may occur due to the development of faults and the sudden movement along existing faults, which release accumulated tectonic stress. Volcanic eruptions can also generate earthquakes through the movement of magma and associated underground disturbances. Additionally, folding of rocks caused by compressional forces within the Earth’s crust can trigger seismic activity when stresses are suddenly released.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Which Article of the Constitution of India says, “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment”?

1. Article 24
2. Article 45
3. Article 330
4. Article 368

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Article 24 of the Constitution of India prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines, or any other hazardous occupations. It is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution and aims to protect children from exploitation and hazardous working conditions. Article 45 relates to early childhood care and education; Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha; and Article 368 lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution.

Answer: (a) Article 24

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides.
2. Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel.
3. Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river.
4. The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooghly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as a port.

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• It is actually gulfs with wide fronts and narrow rears (like the Bay of Fundy in Canada) that experience the highest tidal ranges due to funneling effects.

Answer: (a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides.