UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2003

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2003 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2003 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

In which one of the following regions was Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babar to invade India, was

1. An uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
2. A cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and expelled from the country
3. The father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
4. A high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Alam Khan Lodi was the uncle of Sultan Ibrahim Lodi of the Delhi Sultanate. Dissatisfied with Ibrahim Lodi’s rule and aspiring to capture the throne of Delhi, he sought the support of Babur and invited him to invade India.

Answer: (a) An uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi

The battle of Dharmat was fought between

1. Muhammad Gori and Jai Chand
2. Babar and the Afghans
3. Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
4. Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Battle of Dharmat (15 April 1658) was fought during the Mughal War of Succession between Aurangzeb and the forces loyal to his elder brother Dara Shikoh, supported by Rajput nobles like Jaswant Singh

Answer: (c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with

1. The President of India
2. The Chief Justice of India
3. The Parliament
4. The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Under Article 138 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of India has the power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to matters included in the Union List.

Answer: (c) The Parliament

Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Calcutta
3. Madras
4. Orissa

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands falls under the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court in Kolkata.

Answer: (b) Calcutta

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?

1. Article 142
2. Article 143
3. Article 144
4. Article 145

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the President of India can seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India on questions of law or matters of public importance.

Answer: (b) Article 143

Nanda Devi peak forms a part of

1. Assam Himalayas
2. Kumaon Himalayas
3. Nepal Himalayas
4. Punjab Himalayas

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Nanda Devi is situated in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand and forms part of the Kumaon Himalayas.

Answer: (b) Kumaon Himalayas

Consider the following statements

1. India is the original home of the cotton plant.
2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• Historical, archaeological, and botanical evidence corroborate ancient texts that trace the original home of the cotton plant to the Indian subcontinent. India is the only country that grows cotton as hybrids and the first to develop hybrid cotton back in 1970. Hybrids are made by crossing two parent strains having different genetic characters. These plants have more biomass than both parents, and capacity for greater yields.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an early end?

1. He was deposed by his wazir
2. He died due to a slip while climbing down steps
3. He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
4. He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Jahandar Shah was overthrown by his nephew Farrukhsiyar with the help of the Sayyid Brothers, who later became powerful kingmakers.

Answer: (c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle

In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest factory at

1. Surat
2. Pullicat
3. Cochin
4. Cassimbazar

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Dutch East India Company established its first factory at Machilipatnam in 1605, followed by another at Petapuli in 1606. In 1609, the Dutch set up a factory at Pulicat near Chennai, which became the headquarters of their Coromandel Directorate in 1616. They later established trading depots at Nagapattinam, Kochi, Surat, Chinsurah, Agra, and Patna. In 1690, the Dutch shifted their headquarters from Pulicat to Nagapattinam on the southern Coromandel Coast.

Answer: (b) Pullicat

The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt‑Cotton in India, is under the Union Minister of

1. Agriculture
2. Environment and Forests
3. Commerce and Industry
4. Rural Development

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex statutory body regulating genetically modified organisms and approving the environmental release of GM crops in India. Constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, it functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Approval from the GEAC is mandatory for commercial cultivation of GM crops, with Bt cotton being the only GM crop commercially approved so far.

Answer: (b) Environment and Forests

As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?

1. Deputy Prime Minister
2. Former President
3. Governor of a State within his state
4. Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• As per the Indian Order of Precedence, the Governors of States within their respective States rank above former Presidents, the Deputy Prime Minister, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer: (c) Governor of a State within his state

Consider the following statements:

1. Steam at 100° C and boiling water at 100° C contain same amount of heat.
2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the latent heat of vaporization of water.
3. In an air‑conditioner, heat is extracted from the room air at the evaporator coils and is rejected out at the condenser coils.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. Only 2
4. Only 3

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect because steam at 100°C contains more heat than boiling water at 100°C due to the presence of the latent heat of vaporisation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the latent heat of vaporisation of water is much greater than the latent heat of fusion of ice. Statement 3 is correct because an air conditioner absorbs heat from the room air through the evaporator coils and releases it outside through the condenser coils.

Answer: (d) Only 3

Consider the following statements:

1. Molasses is a by‑product of sugar production process.
2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.
3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Molasses is a by-product of the sugar manufacturing process, while bagasse, the fibrous residue left after crushing sugarcane, is commonly used as fuel in boilers to generate steam and power for sugar factories. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because sugar can also be produced from sugar beet and other sources, not only from sugarcane.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

The Basque people who are frequently in the news for their separatist activity live in

1. France
2. Italy
3. Portugal
4. Spain

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Basque people are an ethnic group inhabiting the Basque region located mainly in northern Spain and partly in southwestern France. The separatist movement associated with the Basques has been most prominent in Spain.

Answer: (d) Spain

In which one of the following countries is the rupee its currency?

1. Bhutan
2. Malaysia
3. Maldives
4. Seychelles

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Seychelles Rupee is the official currency of the Seychelles Islands.

Answer: (d) Seychelles

Which one of the following countries is landlocked?

1. Bolivia
2. Peru
3. Suriname
4. Uruguay

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Bolivia is a landlocked country in South America, meaning it has no direct access to the sea. Peru, Suriname, and Uruguay all have coastlines.

Answer: (a) Bolivia

Mrichchhakatika, an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka, deals with

1. The love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan
2. The victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India
3. The military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta
4. The love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Mrichchhakatika, written by Shudraka, is a famous Sanskrit play that revolves around the love story of Charudatta, a poor but noble merchant, and Vasantasena, a wealthy courtesan. The title means “The Little Clay Cart,” and the play is noted for its vivid depiction of urban life and society in ancient India.

Answer: (a) The love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan

Debenture holders of a company are its

1. Shareholders
2. Creditors
3. Debtors
4. Directors

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Debenture holders are the creditors of a company because debentures represent borrowed capital. Unlike shareholders, they do not own the company but lend money to it and receive fixed interest in return.

Answer: (b) Creditors

Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance”?

1. Article 215
2. Article 275
3. Article 325
4. Article 355

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Article 355 of the Constitution of India imposes a duty on the Union Government to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

Answer: (d) Article 355

Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.

List I (Item in the Indian Constitution)

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Concurrent List in Union‑State Relations
4. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union

List II (Country from which it was derived)

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Ireland
4. United Kingdom
5. USA

Codes:

1. A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2
2. A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
3. A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1
4. A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, Fundamental Rights from the United States, the Concurrent List from Australia, and the idea of India as a Union of States with a strong Centre from Canada.

Answer: (d) A‑3, B‑5, C‑1, D‑2

Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?

1. Ordinary Bill
2. Money Bill
3. Finance Bill
4. Constitution Amendment Bill

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• A Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 must be passed separately by each House of the Parliament of India with a special majority, that is, by a majority of the total membership of the House and by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses on such a Bill.

Answer: (d) Constitution Amendment Bill

Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?

1. Temperate Coniferous forests
2. Temperate Deciduous forests
3. Tropical Monsoon forests
4. Tropical Rain forests

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In India, Tropical Moist Deciduous (37%) cover the highest percentage followed by Tropical Dry Deciduous (28%). At the global scale, temperate coniferous forests cover the highest percentage

Answer: (a) Temperate Coniferous forests

Consider the following statements:

1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha, was assassinated by his commander‑in‑chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti, was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne.
3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. Only 2
3. Only 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Pushyamitra Shunga overthrew and killed the last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha Maurya, bringing an end to the Mauryan Empire and establishing the Shunga dynasty. Later, the last Shunga ruler, Devabhuti, was assassinated by his minister Vasudeva Kanva, who founded the Kanva dynasty in Magadha. The Kanva dynasty was indeed overthrown by the Andhras, better known to historians as the Satavahana dynasty.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s Despatch of 1854 was

1. The creation of employment opportunities for native Indians
2. The spread of western culture in India
3. The promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language
4. The introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Wood’s Despatch emphasized the promotion of Western education and culture. It laid the foundation of the modern education system in India and is often called the “Magna Carta of English Education in India.”

Answer: (b) The spread of western culture in India

Consider the following statements: The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are

1. To allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. To allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. To consider applications for grants‑in‑aid from States.
4. To supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Finance Commission of India is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and among the States themselves, as well as considering grants-in-aid to States under Article 280 of the Constitution. However, withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India is not its function, and it does not supervise whether governments are levying taxes according to budgetary provisions.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Which of the following countries does Israel share common borders with?

1. Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
2. Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
3. Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
4. Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Israel is a country in the Middle East located along the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea. It shares land borders with Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and the Palestinian territories of the West Bank and Gaza Strip, and also shares a maritime boundary with Cyprus.

Answer: (a) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan

What is the correct sequence of the rivers—Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?

1. Godavari—Mahanadi—Narmada—Tapi
2. Godavari—Narmada—Mahanadi—Tapi
3. Narmada—Godavari—Tapi—Mahanadi
4. Narmada—Tapi—Godavari—Mahanadi

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The rivers arranged in descending order of length are: Godavari River (about 1,465 km), Narmada River (about 1,310 km), Mahanadi River (about 857 km), and Tapti River (about 724 km).

Answer: (b) Godavari—Narmada—Mahanadi—Tapi

With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
2. The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipattam
3. In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
4. Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• With the help of the emperor of Vijayanagar, Albuquerque attacked and captured Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510.

All other options are factually correct

• In 1611, the English started trading at Masulipatnam and later established a factory there in 1616. The English opened their first factory in the South at Masulipatam in 1611 (Temporary). In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory at Balasore in Orissa in 1633 and Hugli in Bengal in 1651. Immediately on its arrival, Dupleix, the French Governor-General at Pondicherry, occupied Madras in 1746 and thus began the First Carnatic War (Anglo-French War) (1746-48).

Answer: (a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
2. Subhash Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
3. Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
4. In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi‑Irwin Pact

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• In a special session of the Congress in Karachi in March 1931: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was endorsed. Gandhiji was authorised to represent the Congress at the Second Round Table Conference.

Answer: d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed the Gandhi‑Irwin Pact

The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was

1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Vithalbhai J Patel
4. Mahadev Desai

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who organised peasants in Bardoli against the increased land revenue demand imposed by the British government.

Answer: (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Consider the following statements:

1. The joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill

Which of these statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Article 108 of the Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament of India to resolve a deadlock between them. This provision has been used only three times since 1950. The first joint sitting was held in 1961, while the second was convened for the passage of the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. Hence, all three statements are correct.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Whitley Commission?

1. To review the fitness of India for further political reforms
2. To report on the existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations
3. To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India
4. To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In 1929, the government appointed the Royal Commission on Labour with J.H. Whitley as the Chairman and N.M. Joshi and Dewan Chaman Lal as members. The commission was tasked with investigating and reporting on the working conditions of labourers in industrial undertakings and plantations in British India, including their health, efficiency, standard of living, and the relationship between employers and employees. The Royal Commission published its findings in 1931, which included a set of progressive recommendations. However, these recommendations could not be implemented immediately due to the circumstances at that time.

Answer: (b) To report on the existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations

Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the Narmada River by

1. Pulakesin‑I
2. Pulakesin‑II
3. Vikramaditya‑I
4. Vikramaditya‑II

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Historical evidence links Harsha’s southward expansion into the Deccan with his conflict against the Badami (Vatapi) Chalukya ruler Pulakeshin II.

Answer: (b) Pulakesin‑II

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?

1. Article 121
2. Article 122
3. Article 123
4. Article 124

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Article 123 of the Constitution expressly vests the power to promulgate ordinances, and to give assent to them, in the President of India.

Answer: (c) Article 123

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
2. Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Akbar’s half-brother, Mirza Hakim, who ruled Kabul, supported the rebellion of Bengal and Bihar against Akbar and contemplated invading the Punjab at an opportune moment to provide assistance. Akbar defeated Mirza Hakim of Kabul with the help of Raja Man Singh and Bhagwan Das. Since Mirza Hakim refused to accept Akbar’s suzerainty or to come to pay personal allegiance to him, and the Indian nobles and soldiers were becoming restive, Akbar handed over Kabul to his sister before returning to India. later, Raja Man Singh was appointed governor of Kabul, and Kabul was handed over to him as jagir. Akbar was not attempting to reconquer Ferghana, the ancestral homeland of the Mughals in Central Asia.

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
2. Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast because of its extensive river deltas, fertile alluvial soils, and larger cultivable plains. However, the Reason is false because the western coast generally receives heavier rainfall due to the southwest monsoon and the presence of the Western Ghats.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Coal‑based thermal power stations contribute to acid rain.
2. Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when the coal burns.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Coal-based thermal power stations do contribute to acid rain, making the Assertion correct. Burning coal releases oxides of carbon as well as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. However, acid rain is mainly caused by sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides reacting with atmospheric moisture, not by oxides of carbon. Hence, the Reason is true but not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Answer: (b) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
2. Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude because temperature generally decreases from the equator towards the poles. Since warm air can hold more water vapour than cold air, the capacity of air to retain moisture depends on temperature. Thus, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farm‑land that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
2. Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The tropical rainforests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland: this statement is wrong. The tropical soils are heavily leached. Some fertility is added by burning down the felled trees. This little fertility is lost after 2-3 crops. Can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers: this is also wrong. Intensive agriculture for several years is not possible without adding fertilizers. So (d) A is false but R is true is the answer.

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative Council.
2. Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Based on the recommendations, the Government of India drafted two bills and presented them to the Imperial Legislative Council on 6 February 1919. One of the two bills was dropped due to strong opposition, while the other was passed in March 1919 as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919 (Rowlatt Act). Every member of the Imperial Legislative Council from India opposed the Rowlatt Act. In protest, many leaders, including Madan Mohan Malviya, Muhammad Ali Jinnah, and Mazhar ul Haq, resigned from the Imperial Legislative Council. The Reason is true because the Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919 despite opposition from all Indian members of the Imperial Legislative Council.

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
2. Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near the equator.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Regions lying about five to eight degrees on either side of the equator experience rainfall throughout the year because high temperatures and humidity generate strong convectional currents. This leads to frequent afternoon convectional rainfall near the equator, correctly explaining the Assertion.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title.
2. Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The rise of the Saluva Dynasty in 1485 CE, known as the First Usurpation or Saluva Usurpation, occurred when Saluva Narasimha, the powerful Mahanayakacharya, overthrew the weak Sangama ruler Praudha Raya to save the Vijayanagara Empire from internal disorder and external threats. During his reign, Saluva Narasimha focused on consolidating the empire and recovering lost territories such as the Konkan and coastal regions.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
2. Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have clear concept of a united Indian nation.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Maratha Empire did emerge as the strongest native power in India after the decline of the Mughal Empire, making the Assertion correct. However, the Reason is false because the Marathas did not possess a modern concept of a united Indian nation; their expansion was primarily political and military rather than based on nationalism in the modern sense.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Which one of the following countries does NOT border the Caspian Sea?

1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Kazakhstan
4. Turkmenistan

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Caspian Sea is bordered by Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Russia, and Iran. Armenia does not share a border with the Caspian Sea.

Answer: (a) Armenia

Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?

1. Hydrocarbons
2. Nitrogen Oxides
3. Ozone
4. Methane

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Photochemical smog is also known as summer smog or Los Angeles smog. It occurs most prominently in urban areas with high vehicular emissions. It forms when nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds react together in the presence of sunlight to form ozone (a secondary pollutant). The resulting smog causes a light brownish colouration of the atmosphere, reduced visibility, plant damage, irritation of the eyes, and respiratory distress.

Answer: (c) Ozone

Consider the following statements:

1. Kitab‑i‑Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II.
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the early form of the musical style known as Qawwali.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct

• The Kitab-i-Nauras or the Book of Nine Rasas consist of fifty-nine songs and seventeen couplets composed by Sultan Ibrahim Adil Shah II of Bijapur. The Kitab-i-Nauras Blends Hindu And Islamic Devotion Through Poetry And Music, Celebrating Deities Like Saraswati And Ganesha Alongside Islamic Figures Like Prophet Hazrat Muhammad and Hazrat Khwaja Bande Nawaz.
• Amir Khusrau is regarded as the pioneer of qawwali in the Indian subcontinent. Associated with the Chishti Sufi tradition, he introduced the qaul style and blended Persian, Hindavi, and Sufi poetic elements to shape the early form of qawwali.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?

1. 6^th and 22^nd
2. 13^thand 38^th
3. 7^th and 31^st
4. 11^th and 42^nd

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The 7^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, and the 31st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973, were related to increasing the number of members in the Lok Sabha elected from the States. The 31st Amendment, in particular, increased the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha from 525 to 545.

Answer: (c) 7^th and 31^st

How did Sultan Qutb‑ud‑din Aibak die?

1. He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles
2. He was killed in a battle with Taj‑u‑din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the capture of Punjab
3. He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to death later
4. He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Qutb-ud-din Aibak died in 1210 CE at Lahore after falling from his horse while playing chaugan (polo).

Answer: (d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan

Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?

1. Earth
2. Jupiter
3. Mars
4. Venus

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Among the given planets, Venus takes about 225 Earth days, Earth takes 365 days, Mars takes about 687 days, and Jupiter takes about 11.86 Earth years to complete one revolution around the Sun. Therefore, Jupiter takes the maximum time.

Answer: (b) Jupiter

Which of the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?

1. Iceland
2. India
3. New Zealand
4. USA

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• New Zealand became the first country in the world to grant women the right to vote at the national level in 1893. The United States granted women suffrage in 1920, while India provided universal adult franchise after independence.

Answer: (c) New Zealand

When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu‑Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the:

1. Swarajya Party
2. Indian Freedom Party
3. Independence Federation of India
4. Indian Liberal Federation

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Indian National Congress, in its special Bombay session of August 1918 under the presidentship of Hasan Imam, condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms as disappointing and inadequate, demanding effective self-government instead. The Congress later rejected the Government of India Act, 1919 and boycotted the 1920 elections following Mahatma Gandhi’s call for non-cooperation. However, several moderate leaders, including Annie Besant, Bipin Chandra Pal, Surendranath Banerjee, and Tej Bahadur Sapru, supported cooperation with the government and left the Congress. In 1919, Surendranath Banerjee, along with Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, and M. R. Jayakar, founded the Indian National Liberal Federation, whose members came to be known as the Liberals.

Answer: (d) Indian Liberal Federation

Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?

1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. Fourth

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The First Schedule of the Constitution lists the names of the States along with their territorial jurisdictions, and also specifies the names and extent of the Union Territories.

Answer: (a) First

The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:

1. First Amendment
2. Eighth Amendment
3. Ninth Amendment
4. Forty‑second Amendment

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Ninth Schedule was introduced to the Constitution of India in 1951 as part of the First Constitutional Amendment Act.

Answer: (a) First Amendment

Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in 1946?

1. Rajendra Prasad
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
4. Rajagopalachari

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Interim Government was formed on 2 September 1946 by Congress members alone, with Nehru as de facto head. Jawaharlal Nehru was sworn in as Vice President of the Executive Council.

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Consider the following statements:

1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, Members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, comprising 30 members elected exclusively from the Lok Sabha. In contrast, both the Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings consist of 22 members each, with representation from both Houses of Parliament — 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Consider the following statements:

1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in early medieval times.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of South‑east Asia and conquered some of the areas.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Vijayalaya, a feudatory of the Pallavas in Uraiyur, conquered the Kaveri Delta from Muttaraiyar. He captured Thanjavur (Tanjore) in 850 CE and established the Chola kingdom. Vijayalaya accepted the overlordship of Pallavas. Vijayalaya’s son, Aditya I (c. 871 – 907 CE), expanded the kingdom by defeating both Pallavas and Pandyas. He defeated the last Pallava king, Aparajita, annexed their territory and put an end to the Pallava kingdom. He also weakened the Pandyas.

Statement 2 is correct

• Rajendra Chola led the naval expedition against the Sri Vijaya empire of Southeast Asia. The empire was led by the Sailendra dynasty and extended over the Malay peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands. The expeditions led to the conquest of Kadaram and a number of other places in the Malay peninsula and Sumatra.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
2. The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year
3. The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July 1947
4. The song Janaganamana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January 1950 as the National Anthem of India

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• The original language of ‘Vande Mataram’ – the national song of India – was Sanskrit but was written in Bengali script.

Answer: (a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an Emperor far away from his capital.
2. Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north‑west frontier.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Assertion is correct because Shah Alam II spent many years away from Delhi due to fear of his powerful wazir and political instability. After the Battle of Buxar, he stayed at Allahabad under East India Company protection and returned to Delhi only with Maratha support in the 1770s. The Reason is generally true since north-western invasions by rulers like Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali threatened the Mughal Empire, but these were not the main reasons for Shah Alam II’s exile; internal political weakness and court intrigues were the primary causes.

Answer: (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

1. Ali Mardan Khan introduced the ijara system of revenue farming in Bengal
2. Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore
3. Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit
4. Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sharada in the Shringeri temple

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• The system of revenue farming in Bengal was introduced by Murshid Quli Khan, who reorganised the province’s financial administration; it was not introduced by Ali Mardan Khan.

Answer: (a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the ijara system of revenue farming in Bengal

Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?

1. The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
2. The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor General of India in Council
3. All law‑making powers to be conferred on Governor General in Council
4. An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor General’s Council

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• The Governor General’s Executive Council was expanded to include the Law Member, bringing the total number of members to four. (Pitt’s Act of 1784 reduced it to three). Lord Macaulay was the first Law Member of the Governor-General’s Council. He influenced the government’s educational policy for many years. However, it did not provide for an Indian to be appointed as that Law Member.

Answer: (d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor General’s Council

With reference to colonial rule in India, what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?

1. To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
2. To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers
3. To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conduction them in India
4. To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• The Ilbert Bill aimed to remove racial discrimination in the judiciary by allowing Indian judges and magistrates to try European British subjects in criminal cases. Introduced during Lord Ripon’s tenure, it sought to give Indian civil servants the same judicial powers as Europeans, leading to strong opposition from the European community in India

Answer: (a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned

An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was

1. that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India
2. the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War
3. the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war.
4. the framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Some of the Cripps proposals, embodied in a Draft Declaration, were:
  • Immediately after the war, an Indian union with dominion status would be established, with the right to secede from the Commonwealth.
  • Any Indian province could stay outside the Indian Union and directly negotiate with Britain.
  • The princely states that did not wish to accede to India could continue in their pre-existing relations with the British crown.
  • After the war, a constituent assembly would be set up. The members would be elected by the provincial assemblies and nominated by the rulers in the case of the princely states.
  • In the meantime, the actual control of defence and military operations would be retained by the British Government

Answer: (b) the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War

The waterfall ‘Victoria’ is associated with the river:

1. Amazon
2. Missouri
3. St Lawrence
4. Zambezi

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Victoria Falls is located on the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe. It was created by the erosion of a rift in the Zambezi River caused by tectonic activity. It is considered one of the world’s largest waterfalls due to its width of 1,708 meters. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The falls create a constant spray and mist, visible from miles away, earning them the local name “Mosi-oa-Tunya” (The Smoke That Thunders).

Answer: (d) Zambezi