UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2005

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2005 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2005 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?

1. Punjab
2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2, 3, and 4
2. 2, 3, and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 1 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Uttar Pradesh shares boundaries with 8 Indian States: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar. It also touches Delhi, which is a Union Territory/NCT, and has an international boundary with Nepal. Haryana and the National Capital Territory of Delhi lie between Punjab and Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4

Match List-I (City) with List-II (River) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

1. Washington DC
2. Berlin
3. Paris
4. Madrid

List II

1. River Manzanares
2. River Seine
3. River Spree
4. River Potomac

Codes:

1. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
2. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
3. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Washington, D.C. is situated on the Potomac River, giving A–4. Berlin, the capital of Germany, is located on the River Spree, so B–3. Paris is famously built along the River Seine, giving C–2. Madrid, the capital of Spain, lies on the River Manzanares, a tributary of the Tagus, hence D–1.

Answer: (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Consider the following statements:

1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange is the oldest stock exchange in the world.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the S&P BSE Sensex consists of 30 blue-chip companies listed on the BSE, not 50. Statement 2 is correct as the Sensex is a free-float market capitalisation-weighted index. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Amsterdam Stock Exchange, established in 1602, is generally considered the world’s oldest formal stock exchange, not the NYSE.

Answer: (a) 2 only

Consider the following statements:

1. The Headquarters of the International Organisation for Standardization are located in Rome.
2. ISO 9000 is related to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3
4. None

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) are located in Geneva, Switzerland, not Rome. Statement 2 is correct as the ISO 9000 family deals with quality management systems (QMS) and helps organizations ensure consistent quality in products and services. Statement 3 is also correct because the ISO 14000 family relates to environmental management systems (EMS), providing frameworks for managing and reducing environmental impacts

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?

1. Lord Dufferin
2. Lord Ripon
3. Lord Curzon
4. Lord Hardinge

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Vernacular Press Act, 1878, enacted by Lord Lytton, imposed restrictions on Indian-language newspapers and was widely criticized as an attempt to curb press freedom. Recognizing its unpopular and repressive nature, Lord Ripon repealed the Act in 1882. Lord Ripon is therefore remembered for adopting a more liberal approach toward the Indian press and local self-government.

Answer: (b) Lord Ripon

Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens, located?

1. Chile
2. Japan
3. Philippines
4. USA

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Mount St. Helens is an active stratovolcano located in Skamania County, Washington, in the Pacific Northwest region of the United States.

Answer: (d) USA

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region.
2. The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
3. Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura.
4. The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The height of the Western Ghats increases from north to south; hence, they are higher in the southern region, not in the northern region.

Answer: (a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region

Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?

1. Chambal Project
2. Kosi Project
3. Damodar Valley Project
4. Bhakra Nangal Project

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Gandhi Sagar Dam, built across the Chambal River in Madhya Pradesh, is one of the major components of the Chambal Valley Project.

Answer: (a) Chambal Project

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting from the north and going towards the south?

1. Nallamalai Hills – Nilgiri Hills – Javadi Hills – Anaimalai Hills
2. Anaimalai Hills – Javadi Hills – Nilgiri Hills – Nallamalai Hills
3. Nallamalai Hills – Javadi Hills – Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills
4. Anaimalai Hills – Nilgiri Hills – Javadi Hills – Nallamalai Hills

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Nallamala Hills, located in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, form part of the Eastern Ghats and are the northernmost among the given hills. South of them lie the Javadi Hills, an Eastern Ghats range in northern Tamil Nadu. Further south are the Nilgiri Hills, situated at the junction of the Eastern and Western Ghats. Beyond the Nilgiris, and south of the Palghat Gap, are the Anaimalai Hills of the Western Ghats, making them the southernmost in the list

Answer: (c) Nallamalai Hills – Javadi Hills – Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills

Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?

1. Agasthyamalai
2. Nallamalai
3. Nilgiri
4. Panchmarhi

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Nilgiri, Agasthyamalai, and Pachmarhi are recognized Biosphere Reserves in India. Nallamalai is a hill range of the Eastern Ghats, but it is not designated as a Biosphere Reserve.

Answer: (b) Nallamalai

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The same face of the Moon is always presented to the Earth.
2. Reason (R): The Moon rotates about its own axis in 27.3 days, which is about the same time that it takes to orbit the Earth.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Moon always shows nearly the same face to the Earth because it is in synchronous rotation (tidal locking). This means that the Moon takes approximately 27.3 days to complete one rotation on its axis and 27.3 days to complete one revolution around the Earth. Since these two periods are nearly identical, the same hemisphere of the Moon continuously faces the Earth. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable.
2. Reason (R): Venus has an extremely high concentration of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Venus possesses a dense atmosphere composed predominantly of carbon dioxide. This results in a runaway greenhouse effect, raising surface temperatures to about 465°C. Combined with crushing atmospheric pressure and sulfuric acid clouds, these conditions make the planet extremely inhospitable for human life. Thus, both the Assertion and the Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Amoeba is reproduced by fission.
2. Reason (R): All unicellular organisms are reproduced by asexual methods.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Amoeba reproduces primarily through binary fission, an asexual mode of reproduction; hence Assertion (A) is true. However, the Reason is false because not all unicellular organisms reproduce exclusively by asexual methods. Several unicellular organisms, such as Paramecium and yeast, can also undergo forms of sexual reproduction or genetic recombination (e.g., conjugation). Therefore, the statement that all unicellular organisms are reproduced by asexual methods is incorrect. Hence, A is true but R is false.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum Gas is methane.
2. Reason (R): Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Assertion is false because LPG mainly consists of propane and butane, not methane. Methane is the principal component of Natural Gas and Compressed Natural Gas (CNG). The Reason is true. Methane can indeed be supplied through pipelines and used directly as a fuel in homes, industries, and power plants. This is the basis of many city gas distribution networks.

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India.
2. North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population.
3. The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area.
4. Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland.

Explanation

Option (b) is the correct answer

• Although the North-Eastern states have a high proportion of tribal population, they account for only about 10–15% of India’s total tribal population, whereas a much larger share is concentrated in central Indian states such as Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Chhattisgarh. Therefore, North-East India does not account for over half of the country’s tribal population.

Answer: (b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population.

Which of the statements is correct?

1. The first meeting of the Parties (MOP 1) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in the Philippines in 2004.
2. India is not a signatory to the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity.
3. The Biosafety Protocol deals with genetically modified organisms.
4. The United States of America is a member of the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity.

Explanation

• The first official meeting of the Parties to the Cartagena Protocol (COP/MOP-1) took place from February 23–27, 2004, in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
• India has ratified CBD and its Catanga Protocol (signed in Cartagena, Colombia).
• Cartagena Protocol aims to ensure the safe handling, transport, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology. It addresses technology development and transfer, benefit-sharing and biosafety issues.
• The United States is not a member or party to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.

Answer: (c) The Biosafety Protocol deals with genetically modified organisms

Consider the following statements:

1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Silent Valley National Park is located in the Nilgiri Hills in the Malappuram district, Kerala, and Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu. The park lies within the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Bhavani River (a tributary of the Kaveri River) and Kunthipuzha River (a tributary of the Bharathappuzha River) originate in the vicinity of the park. The Kadalundi River also originates in this park. The Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project (PHEP) was a proposed 70-megawatt run-of-the-river power project by the Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB) on the Kunthi river in Kerala, India.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The original Constitution of India had 395 Articles arranged in 22 Parts, not 390 Articles or 20 Parts. It also originally contained 8 Schedules. Statement 3 is correct because the Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added later through constitutional amendments.

Answer: (c) 3 only

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

1. B. R. Ambedkar
2. J. B. Kripalani
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Jawaharlal Nehru did chair the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly.

Answer: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

In which country is Bandung, where the conference of African and Asian nations was held that laid the foundation for the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), situated?

1. Thailand
2. Egypt
3. Indonesia
4. Philippines

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Bandung Conference was held in Bandung, Indonesia, in 1955. It brought together representatives from 29 Asian and African countries to promote Afro-Asian cooperation, oppose colonialism, and advocate peaceful coexistence.

Answer: (c) Indonesia

Where do the Sahariya Tribals, who were recently in the news, live?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Assam
3. Rajasthan
4. Orissa

Explanation

Option (c) is the correct answer

• The Sahariya tribe is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) spread across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Chhattisgarh.

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battles fought in India in the 18th Century?

1. Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Buxar – Battle of Ambur – Battle of Plassey
2. Battle of Ambur – Battle of Plassey – Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Buxar
3. Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Plassey – Battle of Ambur – Battle of Buxar
4. Battle of Ambur – Battle of Buxar – Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Plassey

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The correct chronological order is Battle of Ambur (1749), Battle of Plassey (1757), Battle of Wandiwash (1760), and Battle of Buxar (1764). The Battle of Ambur was fought during the Second Carnatic War and marked the beginning of intense Anglo-French rivalry in South India. The Battle of Plassey established British political influence in Bengal. The Battle of Wandiwash decisively ended French ambitions in India by securing British supremacy in the Carnatic region. Finally, the Battle of Buxar consolidated British power in northern India and paved the way for the grant of Diwani rights in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.

Answer: (b) Battle of Ambur – Battle of Plassey – Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Buxar

Consider the following statements:

1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• India holds a unique position in the global silk industry as it is the only country that produces all the five commercially known varieties of silk—Mulberry, Tasar (Tussar), Eri, Muga, and Oak Tasar—owing to its diverse agro-climatic conditions and rich sericulture tradition. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. However, India is not the largest sugar producer in the world. The leading producer is Brazil.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Consider the following:

1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773.
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect as the establishment of a regular police system on the British pattern is attributed to Lord Cornwallis, who in 1791 reorganised policing by introducing the thana system with darogas, rather than Warren Hastings. Statement 2 is correct because the Regulating Act of 1773 provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William, Calcutta, which was set up in 1774 with Sir Elijah Impey as its first Chief Justice. Statement 3 is also correct since the Indian Penal Code was drafted in 1834 by the First Law Commission under Macaulay, enacted in 1860, and brought into force on 1 January 1862.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Consider the following statements: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for

1. The provincial autonomy
2. The establishment of Federal Court
3. All India Federation at the centre

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All three statements are correct

• The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the federal principle and explicitly used the term “Federation of India” (Section 5), providing for an All-India Federation, though it never came into effect due to insufficient accession by princely states. It also marked a major step toward provincial autonomy by abolishing dyarchy in the provinces and expanding their executive powers. Additionally, it established a Federal Court at Delhi to resolve disputes between provinces and between the Centre and provinces, thereby laying the foundation of a federal judicial system.

Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3

Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?

1. Bimbisara
2. Gautama Buddha
3. Milinda
4. Prasenjit

Explanation

Option (c) is the correct answer

• Bimbisara and Prasenajit were contemporaries during the early Mahajanapada period and are recorded as rivals with political and personal interactions, while both also shared a connection with the Buddha, who lived and taught during their reigns. In contrast, Milinda (Menander I), the Indo-Greek king associated with the Milinda Panha, belongs to a much later period and is not contemporaneous with the 6th–5th century BCE rulers of Magadha and Kosala, making him the odd one out.

Answer: (c) Milinda

Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?

1. Indian Freedom Party
2. Azad Hind Fauj
3. Revolutionary
4. Forward Block

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Subhas Chandra Bose resigned from the Indian National Congress in 1939 and soon after formed the Forward Bloc to bring together radical and left-wing members of the Congress. He was also removed from his party positions in August 1939. The Azad Hind Fauj (INA) was established later during the early 1940s, and the other options are not historically associated with Bose’s 1939 political organisation.

Answer: (d) Forward Block

Consider the following statements:

1. The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945.
2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945.
3. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Charter of the United Nations was adopted at San Francisco, USA in June 1945, not at Geneva, Switzerland. Statement 2 is correct as India was admitted to the United Nations in 1945 as one of its original members. Statement 3 is also correct since the Trusteeship Council was established to supervise territories placed under the trusteeship system, including those detached from defeated Axis powers such as Japan and Italy after the Second World War, as well as other non-self-governing territories.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Which one of the following countries does not have a border with Lithuania?

1. Poland
2. Ukraine
3. Belarus
4. Latvia

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Lithuania shares its land borders with Latvia, Belarus, Poland, and Russia (Kaliningrad exclave). It does not share a border with Ukraine. Therefore, the country that does not border Lithuania is Ukraine.

Answer: (b) Ukraine

Where are the Balearic Islands located?

1. Mediterranean Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Baltic Sea
4. North Sea

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Balearic Islands are an archipelago of Spain located in the western Mediterranean Sea, near the eastern coast of the Iberian Peninsula.

Answer: (a) Mediterranean Sea

Which pairs is not correctly matched?

1. Bahamas – Nassau
2. Costa Rica – San Jose
3. Nicaragua – Belmopan
4. Dominican Republic – Santo Domingo

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Bahamas – Nassau is correctly matched as Nassau is the capital of the Bahamas. Costa Rica – San José is also correctly matched since San José is the capital of Costa Rica. Dominican Republic – Santo Domingo is correct, as Santo Domingo is the capital of the Dominican Republic. However, Nicaragua – Belmopan is incorrectly matched because Belmopan is the capital of Belize, while the capital of Nicaragua is Managua.

Answer: (c) Nicaragua – Belmopan

Consider the following sites/monuments:

1. Champaner‑Pavagadh Archaeological Park
2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai
3. Mamallapuram
4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple)

Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All are correct

• All four sites mentioned in the question are included in the UNESCO World Heritage List. The Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park is recognized for its unique blend of Hindu and Islamic architectural traditions and its historical urban landscape. The Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus in Mumbai is an outstanding example of Victorian Gothic Revival architecture in India and continues to function as a major railway station. Mamallapuram (Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram) is known for its rock-cut temples, cave sanctuaries, and monumental open-air reliefs that reflect Pallava art. The Sun Temple at Konark is a classic representation of Kalinga architecture, designed in the form of a colossal chariot dedicated to the Sun God.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements:

1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a fundamental right.
3. Article 300A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Center by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

Which of the above statements are true?

1. 2 only
2. 2 & 3
3. 1 & 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 301 deals with the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India, and not the Right to Property. Statement 2 is correct as the Right to Property is no longer a fundamental right; it has been converted into a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 300A was introduced through the constitutional amendment that removed the Right to Property from Part III, but it was not enacted by a Congress-led government at the Centre. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Answer: (a) 2 only

Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice, and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect

• Both statements are incorrect. Parliament is not completely barred from expanding the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction; it can, within constitutional limits, confer additional jurisdiction or regulate its functioning through legislation. Similarly, the appointment and service conditions of officers and staff of the Supreme Court and High Courts are not decided solely by the Chief Justice, and the financial arrangements also differ—while the Supreme Court’s expenditure is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, the administrative expenses of High Courts are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the respective States. Hence, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:

1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

• There were fewer than 25 High Courts in India in 2004. India currently has 25 High Courts. Following the bifurcation of the state, the High Court of Andhra Pradesh was officially established on January 1, 2019, with its principal seat located in Amaravati. Punjab and Haryana, along with the Union Territory of Chandigarh, share a common High Court called the Punjab and Haryana High Court, which is situated in Chandigarh. Separately, the National Capital Territory of Delhi has its own High Court, established in 1966.

Answer: a) 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:

1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer.
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Statement 1 is correct as the Kyoto Protocol came into force in 2005 after Russia’s ratification met the required threshold for its activation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Kyoto Protocol deals with the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions responsible for climate change, not the depletion of the ozone layer, which is addressed by the Montreal Protocol. Statement 3 is correct in the context of global warming potential, as methane is significantly more potent than carbon dioxide over a shorter time horizon, making it more harmful per unit in terms of heat-trapping capacity.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?

1. Cambodia
2. China
3. Laos
4. Philippines

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) consists of Southeast Asian countries such as Cambodia, Laos, and the Philippines. China, however, is not a member of ASEAN; it is a separate major Asian power and only maintains dialogue partnership status with ASEAN.

Answer: (b) China

Consider the following:

1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies.
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases

For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All are correct

• Lok Adalats handle both pre-litigation and pending cases of civil and compoundable criminal nature. Their jurisdiction commonly includes consumer and service-related disputes, motor accident claim cases, and service matters such as pension disputes. Official listings and standard descriptions of Lok Adalats confirm that these categories are regularly taken up for settlement in National and State Lok Adalats. Hence, all three categories (1, 2 and 3) fall within their scope.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?

1. Annie Besant
2. A. O. Hume
3. Michael Madhusudan Dutt
4. R. Palme Dutt

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect

• Annie Besant was an active supporter of Fabianism and is recorded among the early members and contributors of the Fabian Society. Fabianism is a British socialist movement and political ideology that advocates for the gradual, reformist transition from capitalism to socialism through democratic and legislative means, rather than by sudden, revolutionary upheaval

Answer: (a) Annie Besant

What was Komagata Maru?

1. A political party based in Taiwan
2. Peasant communist leader of China
3. A naval ship on voyage to Canada
4. A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his long march

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Komagata Maru was a Japanese steamship that in 1914 carried Indian passengers to Canada but was denied entry due to restrictive immigration laws, leading to a significant incident in the history of the Indian diaspora and anti-colonial movement. It is not related to political parties, Chinese leadership, or Mao’s Long March.

Answer: (c) A naval ship on voyage to Canada

Where were the Ghadar revolutionaries, who became active during the outbreak of the World War I based?

1. Central America
2. North America
3. West America
4. South America

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Ghadar revolutionaries were mainly based in North America, particularly in the United States and Canada. Their main centre of activity, the Yugantar Ashram, was set up in San Francisco, California, which served as their headquarters for revolutionary activities.

Answer: (b) North America

Consider the following statements: On the eve of launch of Quit India Movement, Mahatma Gandhi

1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Gandhiji at the Gowalia Tank meeting told government servants not to resign but to declare allegiance to Congress, instructed soldiers not to desert or fire on compatriots, and urged the Princes to support the masses and accept popular sovereignty.

Answer: (c) 3 only

At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?

1. Bombay
2. Lahore
3. Lucknow
4. Tripuri

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (December 1929) formally adopted Purna Swaraj (complete independence) as its objective. On 31 December 1929, the tricolour was hoisted, symbolizing the break from colonial rule. The session also explicitly resolved to launch a programme of civil disobedience under Gandhi’s leadership, which directly led to the Dandi March in March 1930 and the nationwide Salt Satyagraha.

Answer: (b) Lahore

In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?

1. H. K. Sarkar
2. P. C. Joshi
3. M. C. Chagla
4. M. N. Roy

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Communist Party of India (CPI) was founded in October 1920 at Tashkent by a group of Indian émigré revolutionaries. The meeting was headed by M. N. Roy (Manabendra Nath Roy), who played the central role in organizing the party. Other co‑founders included Abani Mukherji, M. P. T. Acharya, Mohammad Ali, and Mohammad Shafiq.

Answer: (d) M. N. Roy

Who among the following drafted the resolution of fundamental rights for the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?

1. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Karachi Resolution (1931) was drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru, emphasizing fundamental rights and socio‑economic justice. It linked political freedom with economic freedom for the masses and later influenced constitutional debates.

Answer: (b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Who among the following was not associated with the formation of U.P. Kisan Sabha in February 1918?

1. Indra Narain Dwivedi
2. Gauri Shankar Misra
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Madan Mohan Malviya

Explanation

Option (c) is the correct answer

• Madan Mohan Malaviya took an active interest in the condition of peasants in the Awadh region. With his support, Gauri Shankar Mishra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi established the United Provinces Kisan Sabha in February 1918. The Sabha played a significant role in organizing peasant resistance in Awadh, encouraging peasants not to pay taxes, nazarana (gift payments), or perform begari (forced labour).

Answer: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

Which pairs are correctly matched?

Movement/Satyagraha — Person Actively Associated with

1. Champaran — Rajendra Prasad
2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers — Morarji Desai
3. Kheda — Vallabhbhai Patel

Select the correct answer:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Rajendra Prasad was closely associated with Champaran Satyagraha, while Vallabhbhai Patel played a significant role in the Kheda Satyagraha. However, Morarji Desai was not linked to the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918, as he was still a student and later joined the provincial civil service the same year, entering active politics much later. The Ahmedabad strike was led by Gandhi with support from Anasuya Sarabhai.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857, belong to?

1. Bihar
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Rajasthan
4. Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In Bihar, the revolt was led by Kunwar Singh, a ruined and discontented zamindar of Jagdishpur near Arrah (Bihar). Though nearly 80 years old, he was perhaps the most outstanding military leader and strategist of the revolt. Kunwar Singh fought the British in Bihar and later joined Nana Sahib’s forces. He also campaigned in Avadh and Central India.

Answer: (a) Bihar

Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of 1857?

1. Jhansi
2. Chittor
3. Jagdishpur
4. Lucknow

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In Lucknow, Begum Hazrat Mahal led the resistance against the British following the annexation of Awadh, with Henry Lawrence killed during the siege and the city later recaptured by Colin Campbell in 1858. In Jhansi, Rani Lakshmibai fought against British forces after they refused to recognise her adopted son as heir, and she defended Jhansi against Sir Hugh Rose before being martyred in 1858. In Jagdishpur (Bihar), Kunwar Singh led the revolt against British rule, driven by oppressive policies and local grievances, and became a key figure of resistance in the region. Chittor/Chittorgarh is not mentioned as a centre of the uprising, confirming it was not affected in 1857.

Answer: (b) Chittor

Consider the following statements:

1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Shimla Conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt, 1946, took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Simla (Shimla) Conference of 1945 was convened by Viceroy Lord Wavell under the Wavell Plan, and not by Lord Mountbatten, who became Viceroy only later in 1947. Statement 2 is correct as the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Revolt of 1946 began in Bombay and soon spread to other major naval centres, including Karachi, reflecting widespread discontent among Indian sailors. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Consider the following statements:

1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243Q envisages two types of municipalities — a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• Part IX, added by the 73rd Amendment (1992), gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. Article 243Q provides for three types of municipalities—nagar panchayat, municipal council, and municipal corporation—not just two.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Consider the following statements:

1. Articles 371A to 371I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual polity (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 3
3. 3 only
4. 1 only

Explanation

Only statement 1 is correct

• Articles 371A–371I provide special provisions for states like Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Goa. India has a single national citizenship, unlike the U.S., which recognises both national and state citizenship. Indian citizenship can be lost by renunciation, termination, or deprivation; naturalised citizens may be deprived on grounds such as fraud.

Answer: (d) 1 only

Consider the following statements:

1. The axis of the Earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 23° to the geographic axis of the Earth.
2. The Earth’s magnetic pole in the Northern Hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. The Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South India.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 2 only
4. 3 only

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the angle between the Earth’s magnetic axis and geographic axis is about 11° (not 23°). Statement 2 is correct as the North Magnetic Pole lies in the Canadian Arctic region (near northern Canada). Statement 3 is also correct because the magnetic equator passes near Thumba in Kerala, South India, which is known for geomagnetic studies.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed under the Government of India Act, 1935?

1. Bihar
2. Madras
3. Orissa
4. Punjab

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Punjab was the province where the Congress did not form a ministry under the Government of India Act, 1935 during the 1937 provincial elections and their outcomes.

Answer: (d) Punjab