UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2001

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2001 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2001 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?

1. Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
2. Through Parliamentary Committees
3. By making the administrators send periodic reports
4. By compelling the executive to issue writs

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Indian Parliament exercises effective control over administration mainly through various Parliamentary Committees such as the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), Estimates Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings. These committees examine government expenditure, policies, and administrative functioning in detail, thereby ensuring executive accountability to Parliament

Answer: (b) Through Parliamentary Committees

Who among the following organised the famous Chittagong armoury raid?

1. Laxmi Sehgal
2. Surya Sen
3. Batukeshwar Datta
4. J.M. Sengupta

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Surya Sen, popularly known as Masterda, organised the famous Chittagong Armoury Raid on 18 April 1930 in Bengal (now in Bangladesh). The objective of the raid was to seize British arms, disrupt communication networks, and challenge British authority through armed revolution.

Answer: (b) Surya Sen

Which of the following committees examined and suggested Financial Sector Reforms?

1. Abid Hussain Committee
2. Bhagwati Committee
3. Chelliah Committee
4. Narasimham Committee

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Narasimham Committee was constituted to examine and recommend reforms in India’s financial sector.

Answer: (d) Narasimham Committee

In which one of the following cities is the Lingaraja Temple located?

1. Bhubaneswar
2. Bijapur
3. Kolkata
4. Shravanabelagola

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The famous Lingaraja Temple is located in Bhubaneswar. It is one of the finest examples of Kalinga-style temple architecture and is dedicated to Lord Shiva.

Answer: (a) Bhubaneswar

A London branch of the All-India Muslim League was established in 1908 under the presidency of:

1. Agha Khan
2. Ameer Ali
3. Liaquat Ali Khan
4. M.A. Jinnah

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The London branch of the All-India Muslim League was established in 1908 under the presidency of Syed Ameer Ali. He was a prominent Muslim leader, jurist, and advocate of Muslim political interests in British India.

Answer: (b) Ameer Ali

Identify the correct order of the processes of soil erosion from the following:

1. Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion
2. Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill erosion
3. Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
4. Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Soil erosion generally occurs in a progressive sequence. It begins with splash erosion, where falling raindrops loosen and detach soil particles. This is followed by sheet erosion, in which a thin uniform layer of topsoil is removed by surface runoff. As the flow of water becomes more concentrated, small channels called rills are formed, leading to rill erosion. With continued erosion, these rills deepen and widen into large channels known as gullies, resulting in gully erosion, the most severe form among them.

Answer: (a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion

Who among the following was the President of the All-India States’ Peoples’ Conference in 1939?

1. Jaya Prakash Narayan
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Sheikh Abdullah
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The 1939 Session of All India States Peoples Conference was held at Ludhiana, Punjab under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Who amongst the following Englishmen first translated the Bhagavad-Gita into English?

1. William Jones
2. Charles Wilkins
3. Alexander Cunningham
4. John Marshall

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Charles Wilkins was the first Englishman to translate the Bhagavad Gita into English in 1785. The translation was titled Bhagvat-Geeta, or Dialogues of Kreeshna and Arjoon and was published under the patronage of Warren Hastings.

Answer: (b) Charles Wilkins

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Local Wind)

1. Fohn
2. Samun
3. Santa Ana
4. Zonda

List II (Region)

1. Argentina
2. Kurdistan
3. California
4. Alps

Codes:

1. I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
2. I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
3. I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
4. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Fohn is a warm and dry downslope wind associated with the Alps, Samun is a hot desert wind blowing in Kurdistan, Santa Ana is the hot and dry local wind of California, and Zonda is a warm dry wind experienced in Argentina on the eastern slopes of the Andes.

Answer: (b) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A

Mekong Ganga Cooperation Project is

1. an irrigation project involving India and Myanmar
2. a joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries
3. a hydroelectric power project involving India, Bangladesh and Myanmar
4. a defence and security agreement of India with its eastern neighbours

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative launched in 2000 in Vientiane, Laos, bringing together India and five Southeast Asian nations: Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam. Rooted in deep historic and civilizational ties, it focuses on four core areas: tourism, culture, education, and transportation.

Answer: (b) a joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The Battle of Khanua was certainly more decisive and significant than the First Battle of Panipat.
2. Reason (R): Rana Sanga, the Rajput hero, was certainly a more formidable adversary than Ibrahim Lodi.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Battle of Khanwa (fought at Khanwa in modern-day Rajasthan on 16 March 1527) is considered more decisive and significant than the First Battle of Panipat (April 1526) because it firmly established Mughal supremacy in North India. While Panipat gave Babur control over Delhi and Agra, the Rajput challenge under Rana Sanga still posed a serious threat to Mughal power. Rana Sanga was a far more capable and formidable opponent than Ibrahim Lodi, as he had united several Rajput chiefs and Afghan forces against Babur. Babur’s victory at Khanwa therefore crushed the strongest indigenous resistance to Mughal expansion and consolidated Mughal rule in India.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Anti-cyclonic conditions are formed in winter season when atmospheric pressure is high and air temperatures are low.
2. Reason (R): Winter rainfall in Northern India causes development of anticyclonic conditions with low temperatures.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Assertion (A) is correct because anticyclonic conditions generally develop during the winter season when low temperatures cause the air to become dense and heavy, leading to high atmospheric pressure. Such conditions are associated with stable weather and descending air. Reason (R) is incorrect because winter rainfall in Northern India is mainly caused by Western Disturbances, which are cyclonic systems rather than anticyclonic conditions. Anticyclones are usually associated with dry and stable weather, not rainfall.

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): During the Neap Tides, the high tide is lower and the low tide is higher than usual.
2. Reason (R): The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring Tide, occurs on the New Moon instead of on the Full Moon.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Assertion (A) is correct because during Neap Tide, the difference between high tide and low tide is minimum. Hence, the high tides are lower and the low tides are higher than normal. Reason (R) is incorrect because neap tides occur during the first and third quarter phases of the Moon, when the Sun, Earth, and Moon form a right angle. In contrast, Spring Tide occurs during both the New Moon and Full Moon phases, when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned.

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. Fifth

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The First Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the names of the States and Union Territories along with their territorial extent. Therefore, whenever a new State is created, the First Schedule must be amended to incorporate the change.

Answer: (a) First

Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?

1. Parsva
2. Nagarjuna
3. Sudraka
4. Vasumitra

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Vasumitra, renowned for his profound scholarship in Sarvāstivāda Abhidharma, was appointed president of the Fourth Buddhist Council.

Answer: (d) Vasumitra

Which one of the following animals was NOT represented on the seals and terracotta art of the Harappan culture?

1. Cow
2. Elephant
3. Rhinoceros
4. Tiger

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The seals and terracotta art of the Indus Valley Civilization commonly depicted animals such as the elephant, rhinoceros, tiger, buffalo, and the famous unicorn figure. However, the cow was notably absent from Harappan seals and terracotta representations, although the humped bull was frequently shown.

Answer: (a) Cow

Consider the following:

1. Market borrowing
2. Treasury bills
3. Special securities issued to RBI

Which of these is/are component(s) of internal debt?

1. I only
2. I and II
3. II only
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Internal debt refers to the borrowings raised by the Government within the country. It includes market borrowings through government securities, short-term borrowings in the form of Treasury Bills, and special securities issued to the Reserve Bank of India. Therefore, all three given components form part of the internal debt of the Government.

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Article of the Constitution)

1. Article 54
2. Article 75
3. Article 155
4. Article 164

List II (Content)

1. Election of the President of India
2. Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
3. Appointment of the Governor of a State
4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies

Codes:

1. I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D
2. I–A, II–B, III–D, IV–E
3. I–B, II–A, III–C, IV–E
4. I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Article 54 of the Constitution of India deals with the election of the President of India, Article 75 of the Constitution of India concerns the appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers, Article 155 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of the Governor of a State, and Article 164 of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State. Therefore, the correct matching is I-A, II-B, III-C and IV-D.

Answer: (a) I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D

Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India:

1. It is a banker to the Central Government.
2. It formulates and administers monetary policy.
3. It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India’s membership of IMF.
4. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I and II
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II, III and IV
4. III and IV

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• All four statements are correct. Reserve Bank of India functions as the banker to the Central and State Governments, maintains their accounts, and provides temporary advances. It formulates and implements monetary policy, represents India in institutions such as the International Monetary Fund, and manages public debt along with government borrowing and securities operations on behalf of the Government.

Answer: (c) I, II, III and IV

Consider the following statements:

1. Most magmas are a combination of liquid, solid and gas.
2. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the principal gases dissolved in a magma.
3. Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma.
4. The magma solidified between sedimentary rocks in a horizontal position is known as dike.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I and IV
4. I, II and IV

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Most magma consists of a mixture of liquid molten material, solid mineral crystals, and dissolved gases, making Statement I correct. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the major gases commonly present in magma, so Statement II is also correct. Basaltic magma has lower silica content and generally possesses higher temperatures than silicic magma, making Statement III correct. However, Statement IV is incorrect because magma that solidifies horizontally between sedimentary rock layers is called a sill, whereas a dike is a vertical or steeply inclined intrusion cutting across rock layers.

Answer: (a) I, II and III

Hoysala monuments are found in

1. Hampi and Hospet
2. Halebid and Belur
3. Mysore and Bangalore
4. Sringeri and Dharwar

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The famous Hoysala monuments are mainly located at Halebidu and Belur in Karnataka. These sites are renowned for their highly ornate temple architecture, intricate stone carvings, and star-shaped platforms built during the rule of the Hoysala Empire.

Answer: (b) Halebid and Belur

Consider the following statements regarding the earthquakes:

1. The intensity of earthquake is measured on Mercalli scale.
2. The magnitude of an earthquake is a measure of energy released.
3. Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct measurements of the amplitude of seismic waves.
4. In the Richter scale, each whole number demonstrates a hundredfold increase in the amount of energy released.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I and IV
4. I and III

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The intensity of an earthquake is measured on the Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale, making Statement I correct. The magnitude of an earthquake represents the amount of energy released at the source, so Statement II is also correct. Earthquake magnitudes are determined from the amplitude of seismic waves recorded by seismographs, making Statement III correct. However, Statement IV is incorrect because on the Richter scale, each whole-number increase represents a tenfold increase in wave amplitude and roughly 31.6 times more energy released, not a hundredfold increase in energy.

Answer: (a) I, II and III

Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?

1. Article 349
2. Article 350
3. Article 350-A
4. Article 351

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Article 350A of the Constitution of India directs every State and local authority to endeavour to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education for children belonging to linguistic minority groups.

Answer: (c) Article 350-A

Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?

1. Haider Ali
2. Mir Qasim
3. Shah Alam II
4. Tipu Sultan

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Tipu Sultan established embassies in foreign countries on modern diplomatic lines. He sent diplomatic missions to countries such as the Ottoman Empire, France, Afghanistan, and Arabia in order to secure political and military alliances against the British. His foreign policy reflected a modern outlook and an active attempt to build international support for the Kingdom of Mysore.

Answer: (d) Tipu Sultan

The Hunter Commission was appointed after the

1. Black hole incident
2. Jalian Walla Bagh massacre
3. Uprising of 1857
4. Partition of Bengal

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Hunter Committee, officially known as the Disorders Inquiry Committee, was set up by the Government of India on 14 October 1919 to examine the disturbances that had occurred in Bombay, Delhi, and Punjab, particularly the events related to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the subsequent repression in Amritsar.

Answer: (b) Jalian Walla Bagh massacre

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Term)

1. Fiscal deficit
2. Budget deficit
3. Revenue deficit
4. Primary deficit

List II (Explanation)

1. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts
2. Excess of Revenue Expenditure over Revenue Receipts
3. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings
4. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings and Interest Payments

Codes:

1. I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
2. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
3. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
4. I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Fiscal deficit refers to the excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings, hence I-C. Budget deficit means the excess of total expenditure over total receipts, so II-A. Revenue deficit occurs when revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts, making III-B correct. Primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payments, that is, excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings and interest payments, therefore IV-D.

Answer: (a) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D

Consider the following organisations:

1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
2. International Finance Corporation
3. International Fund for Agricultural Development
4. International Monetary Fund

Which of these are agencies of the United Nations?

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• All four organisations mentioned are specialised agencies associated with the United Nations system. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development and International Finance Corporation are part of the World Bank Group, while the International Monetary Fund and International Fund for Agricultural Development are also autonomous specialised agencies linked to the UN through formal agreements. These agencies function independently but cooperate with the UN in their respective fields.

Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV

If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an observer, he is located on the

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. South Pole
4. North Pole

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• An observer located on the Equator sees stars rising and setting perpendicular to the horizon. This happens because the celestial poles lie on the horizon at the equator, causing the apparent movement of stars to be vertical relative to the horizon. At the poles and other latitudes, stars appear to move at inclined angles rather than straight upward.

Answer: (a) Equator

Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

1. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
2. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
3. To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
4. To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, Contingency Funds, and Public Accounts, and also audits trading and manufacturing accounts of the government. However, unlike the British system, the CAG of India does not exercise control over the receipt and issue of public money or ensure that revenue is deposited in the treasury. The Indian CAG performs only the auditing function and not the “comptroller” function in the strict sense.

Answer: (d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

Consider the following statements made about the sedimentary rocks:

1. Sedimentary rocks are formed at Earth’s surface by the hydrological system.
2. The formation of sedimentary rocks involves the weathering of pre-existing rocks.
3. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.
4. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I and II
2. I and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Sedimentary rocks are formed at or near the Earth’s surface mainly through processes associated with the hydrological cycle, such as weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition, and lithification, making Statement I correct. Their formation involves the breakdown of pre-existing rocks, so Statement II is also correct. These rocks commonly contain fossils because sediments often preserve remains of plants and animals, making Statement III correct. Sedimentary rocks are generally deposited in distinct strata or layers, therefore Statement IV is also correct.

Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

1. It lists the distribution of power between the Union and the States
2. It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
3. It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
4. It allocates seats in the Council of States

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the allocation of seats to States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

Answer: (d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal Period?

1. Calicut
2. Broach
3. Cambay
4. Surat

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• In the Mughal times during 16th to 18th century, Surat port was a gateway to Mecca for Hajj pilgrims.

Answer: (d) Surat

Volcanic eruptions do not occur in the

1. Baltic Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Caribbean Sea
4. Caspian Sea

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Volcanic eruptions are associated with tectonically active regions. The Caribbean Sea lies near active plate boundaries and has several volcanic islands. The Caspian Sea region is associated with mud volcanoes and tectonic activity, while the Black Sea region also experiences some tectonic activity. However, the Baltic Sea is located in a relatively stable part of the Eurasian Plate and is not associated with volcanic eruptions.

Answer: (a) Baltic Sea

Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt Complete Independence as the goal of the Congress in the Ahmedabad session of 1920?

1. Abul Kalam Azad
2. Hasrat Mohani
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Hasrat Mohani moved a resolution at the Ahmedabad session of the Indian National Congress demanding “complete independence” for India instead of dominion status

Answer: (b) Hasrat Mohani

A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of:

1. Africa
2. Australia
3. South America
4. South-east Asia

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Marsupial are characteristically associated with Australia. These mammals give birth to underdeveloped young ones that continue to grow in the mother’s pouch. Kangaroos, koalas, and wombats are well-known examples of marsupials found mainly in Australia.

Answer: (b) Australia

Quartzite is metamorphosed from:

1. Limestone
2. Obsidian
3. Sandstone
4. Shale

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Quartzite is a hard, non-foliated metamorphic rock formed when quartz-rich sandstone undergoes recrystallization under intense heat and pressure.

Answer: (c) Sandstone

Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA?

1. Centriole
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Lysosome
4. Mitochondrion

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Mitochondrion contains its own DNA, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), in addition to the DNA present in the nucleus.

Answer: (d) Mitochondrion

Epiphytes are plants which depend on other plants for:

1. food
2. mechanical support
3. shade
4. water

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Epiphyte are plants that grow on other plants mainly for mechanical support. They are not parasitic and do not obtain food from the host plant. Instead, they absorb moisture and nutrients from the surrounding air, rain, and debris. Orchids and many mosses are common examples of epiphytes.

Answer: (b) mechanical support

Antigen is a substance which:

1. destroys harmful bacteria
2. is used to treat poisoning
3. lowers body temperature
4. stimulates formation of antibody

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• An Antigen is a substance that stimulates the body’s immune system to produce antibodies. Antigens are usually foreign substances such as bacteria, viruses, toxins, or other pathogens that trigger an immune response in the body.

Answer: (d) stimulates formation of antibody

The American multinational company, Monsanto has produced an insect resistant cotton variety that is undergoing field-trials in India. A toxin gene from which ONE of the following bacteria has been transferred to this transgenic cotton?

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Bacillus amyloliquifaciens
4. Bacillus globlii

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Bacillus thuringiensis is the bacterium from which the toxin gene was transferred to develop insect-resistant Bt cotton. The bacterium produces Bt toxin proteins that are harmful to certain insect pests, especially bollworms, thereby providing resistance to the cotton plant. This genetically modified cotton was developed by Monsanto.

Answer: (b) Bacillus thuringiensis

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Harshavardhana convened the Prayag Assembly.
2. Reason (R): He wanted to popularise only the Mahayana form of Buddhism.

Options:

1. Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Assertion (A) is correct because Harshavardhana held the quinquennial Maha Moksha Parishad at Prayagraj. However, Reason (R) is incorrect. The Prayag Assembly was primarily a large charitable and religious gathering where Harsha paid homage to Buddha, Surya, and Shiva on successive days and distributed donations to followers of different faiths, including Buddhists, Brahmanas, and Jains. The assembly specifically associated with promoting Mahayana Buddhism and honouring Xuanzang was the Kannauj Assembly. Therefore, the use of the word “only” makes the Reason factually incorrect

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

1. Dewan-i-bandagani … Tughlaq
2. Dewan-i-Mustakhraj … Balban
3. Dewan-i-Kohi … Alauddin Khilji
4. Dewan-i-Arz … Muhammad Tughlaq

Explanation

• Firuz took several humanitarian measures.
  • He banned inhuman punishments such as the amputation (cutting) of hands and feet, ears and noses, pouring molten lead into the throat, driving iron nails into hand and feet, etc.
  • He set up a new department, Diwan-i-Khairat, to take care of orphans and widows.
  • He set up a new department, Diwan-i-Bandagan, for the welfare of slaves.
  • He started employment bureaus and ordered the kotwals to make lists of unemployed persons.
  • He set up hospitals for free treatment of the poor

Answer: a) Dewan-i-bandagani … Tughlaq

Consider the following statements:

1. Arya Samaj was founded in 1835.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed the appeal of Arya Samaj to the authority of Vedas in support of its social reform programmes.
3. Under Keshab Chandra Sen, the Brahmo Samaj campaigned for women’s education.
4. Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodaya Samaj to work among refugees.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. II and IV
4. III and IV

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati established the Arya Samaj in April 1875 in Bombay with ten principles. However, these principles were finally settled in 1877 in Lahore.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Lala Lajpat Rai was a devoted leader of the Arya Samaj, heavily influenced by Swami Dayananda Saraswati’s teachings. He actively defended the organisation’s core doctrine that the Vedas were the infallible source of all knowledge.

Statement 3 is correct

• Keshab Chandra Sen promoted social reforms, including women’s education, through the Brahmo Samaj.

Statement 4 is correct

• Vinoba Bhave established Sarvodaya Samaj to work among refugees.

Ans: (d) III and IV

The Mongols under Genghis Khan invaded India during the reign of

1. Balban
2. Feroze Tughlaq
3. Iltutmish
4. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mongol incursions into northwestern India occurred during Iltutmish’s period.

Answer: (c) Iltutmish

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

1. Harappan Civilisation — Painted Grey Ware
2. The Kushans — Gandhara School of Art
3. The Mughals — Ajanta Paintings
4. The Marathas — Pahari School of Painting

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Kushan Empire were major patrons of the Gandhara School of Art. Harappan culture is associated with characteristic red-slip and black-painted pottery along with terracotta, stone, and metal figurines. The murals of Ajanta Caves mainly belong to the Gupta and post-Gupta periods. The Painted Grey Ware Culture, dating roughly from 1200–600 BCE, is noted for its fine grey pottery decorated with black geometric designs and is mainly found in North India.

Answer: (b) The Kushans — Gandhara School of Art

Consider the following statements: In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because

1. more neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions.
2. the neutrons immediately take part in the fission process.
3. the fast neutrons are slowed down by Graphite.
4. every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I, II and III
2. I and III
3. II and IV
4. II, III and IV

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In a nuclear reactor, a self-sustained chain reaction is possible because each fission reaction releases additional neutrons, making Statement I correct. These neutrons are initially fast-moving and are slowed down by moderators such as Graphite to increase the probability of further fission, so Statement III is also correct. Statement II is incorrect because neutrons do not immediately take part in fission; they usually need to be slowed down first. Statement IV is also incorrect because not every neutron released causes another fission—some may escape or get absorbed without producing further reactions.

Answer: (b) I and III

Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds:

1. prevent cold waves from the sky from descending on Earth
2. reflect back heat given off by Earth
3. produce heat and radiate it towards Earth
4. absorb heat from the atmosphere and send it towards Earth

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Cloudy nights are generally warmer because clouds act like a blanket by reflecting and re-radiating the heat emitted from the Earth’s surface back towards the ground. On clear nights, this heat escapes more easily into space, causing temperatures to fall more rapidly.

Answer: (b) reflect back heat given off by Earth