UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 2000

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2000 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 2000 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II, III and IV
4. III and IV

Explanation

Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Under Article 76 of the Constitution, the Attorney General of India is appointed by the President. He must possess the same qualifications as those required for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court. However, he is not required to be a Member of either House of Parliament. Further, he does not enjoy security of tenure through impeachment; instead, he holds office during the pleasure of the President and may be removed accordingly.

Answer: (a) I and II only

Consider the following functionaries:

1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is:

1. III, IV, II, I
2. IV, III, I, II
3. IV, III, II, I
4. III, IV, I, II

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In the Order of Precedence: Chief Justice of India ranks above Union Cabinet Ministers, followed by Chief Election Commissioner, and then Cabinet Secretary.

Answer: (c) IV, III, II, I

The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:

1. distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
2. prepare the Annual Budget
3. advise the President on financial matters
4. allocate funds to various ministries

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States (vertical and horizontal devolution).

Answer: (a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States

The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is:

1. Bihar
2. Gujarat
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of Lok Sabha seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in India, directly reflecting its large tribal population.

Answer: (d) Madhya Pradesh

Consider the following statements:

1. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing.
2. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely.
3. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours.
4. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I and IV
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and III
4. I, II, III and IV

Explanation

All statements are correct

• Tides are regular and predictable, enabling navigators and fishermen to plan their activities efficiently; tidal currents also assist movement along coasts and estuaries.
• High tides elevate water levels, allowing large vessels to cross shallow harbour bars and enter or leave ports safely. The continuous inflow and outflow of tidal waters helps flush out sediments, thereby reducing siltation in estuarine harbours and minimizing the need for dredging.
• Moreover, Kandla (Deendayal) and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports.

Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV

Match List I with List II:

List I (Oceanic Trench)	List II (Location)
I. Aleutian	A) Indian Ocean
II. Kermadec	B) North Pacific
III. Sunda	C) South Pacific
IV. S.Sandwich	D) South Atlantic

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
2. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
3. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
4. I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

List I (Oceanic Trench)	List II (Location)
I. Aleutian	A) North Pacific
II. Kermadec	B) South Pacific
III. Sunda	C) Indian Ocean
IV. S.Sandwich	D) South Atlantic

Answer: (b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D

The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain-child of:

1. W. Churchill
2. M. A. Jinnah
3. Lord Mountbatten
4. V. P. Menon

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The “Balkan Plan,” proposed by Louis Mountbatten in 1947, suggested transferring power separately to provinces such as Bengal and Punjab, allowing them to decide whether to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent. The proposal was soon dropped after strong opposition from Jawaharlal Nehru, who feared it would lead to the fragmentation or “Balkanization” of India.

Answer: (c) Lord Mountbatten

The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by the:

1. Greeks
2. Shakas
3. Parthians
4. Mughals

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The system of military governorship in India was prominently introduced by the Greeks during their expansion into the region. Under this arrangement, military commanders were appointed to administer conquered territories, combining strategic control with civil administration.

Answer: (a) Greeks

Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress:

1. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman President of the Congress.
2. C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as President.
3. The first Britishe President was A.O. Hume.
4. Alfred Webb was President in 1894.

Which statements are correct?

1. I and III
2. II and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Annie Besant was the first woman president of the Indian National Congress (INC), presiding over the Calcutta session in 1917. Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman president of the Indian National Congress (INC). She presided over the Kanpur session of the party in 1925.

Statement 2 is correct

• Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das), often known as Deshbandhu, was elected as the Congress President for the Ahmedabad session in 1921 but was arrested before the session, necessitating that Hakim Ajmal Khan act as president in his place.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The first English/British President of the Congress was George Yule (1888).

Statement 4 is correct

• Alfred Webb served as President in 1894.

Answer: (b) II and IV

The Raga which is sung early in the morning is:

1. Todi
2. Darbari
3. Bhopali
4. Bhimpalasi

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Todi is traditionally classified as a morning raga and is suited for early-morning performance. According to the Samay (raga–time) theory in Hindustani classical music, specific ragas are assigned to particular times of the day. Todi belongs to the morning slot, whereas Darbari, Bhimpalasi, and Bhopali are generally associated with night, afternoon, or evening periods rather than early morning.

Answer: (b) Todi

Gilt-edged market means:

1. bullion market
2. market of Government securities
3. market of guns
4. market of pure metals

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Gilt-edged securities refer to high-grade bonds that some national governments and private organisations issue in an effort to generate revenue.

Answer: (b) market of Government securities

Which dynasty was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion?

1. Nanda
2. Maurya
3. Sunga
4. Kanva

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Nanda Dynasty ruled in Magadha at the time of Alexander’s invasion. The ruler was Dhana Nand, the last ruler of the Nanda dynasty.

Answer: (a) Nanda

The Indian rupee is fully convertible:

1. On Current Account
2. On Capital Account
3. Into gold

Select the correct answer:

1. I alone
2. III alone
3. I and II
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In August 1994, India accepted the obligations of Article VIII of the IMF’s Articles of Agreement and the rupee was made fully convertible for the current account.

Answer: (a) 1 alone

Who streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji?

1. Raja Ram
2. Balaji Viswanath
3. Ganga Bai
4. Nanaji Deshmukh

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Balaji Viswanath was appointed as Peshwa by Shahu in 1713. He reorganised the Maratha administration, consolidated central authority, and restored stability after the disorder that followed Sambhaji’s death, thereby strengthening the Maratha state.

Answer: (b) Balaji Viswanath

Which is known as the “Coffee port” of the world?

1. Sao Paulo
2. Santos
3. Rio de Janeiro
4. Buenos Aires

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Port of Santos in Brazil is globally recognized as the “Coffee Port” of the world because it is the primary, historic, and largest exporter of Brazilian coffee, handling roughly 80% of the nation’s massive coffee shipments.

Answer: (b) Santos

Arrange the following events in chronological order:

1. Reign of Krishna Deva Raya
2. Construction of Qutab Minar
3. Arrival of Portuguese
4. Death of Firoz Tughlaq

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. II, IV, III, I
2. II, IV, I, III
3. IV, II, I, III
4. IV, II, III, I

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Qutb Minar belongs to the early Delhi Sultanate period and was completed by Iltutmish in the late 12th–early 13th century, making it the earliest event. Firoz Shah Tughlaq died in 1388, followed by the arrival of the Portuguese in 1498 with Vasco da Gama. Krishnadeva Raya’s reign (1509–1529) came later.
• Hence, the correct chronological order is: II (Qutb Minar) → IV (Firoz Tughlaq’s death) → III (Portuguese arrival) → I (Krishnadeva Raya’s reign).

Answer: (a) II, IV, III, I

Match List I with List II:

List I	List II
I. Iqta	A. Marathas
II. Jagir	B. Delhi Sultans
III. Amaram	C. Mughals
IV. Mokasa	D. Vijayanagara

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
2. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
3. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
4. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

List I	List II
Iqta	Delhi Sultans
Jagir	Mughals
Amaram	Vijayanagara
Mokasa	Marathas

Answer: (b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

Consider the following statements about the ‘Roaring Forties’:

1. They blow uninterrupted in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
2. They blow with great strength and constancy.
3. Their direction is generally from North – West to East in the Southern Hemisphere.
4. Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are generally associated with them.

Which of these statements are correct?

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The “Roaring Forties” refer to the strong and persistent westerly winds of the Southern Hemisphere (around 40°–65°S). In contrast, westerlies in the Northern Hemisphere are less consistent due to the presence of large landmasses.

Statement 2 is correct

• These southern westerlies are particularly strong and steady because they blow over vast, uninterrupted oceanic areas.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Roaring Forties generally move from west to east. In the Southern Hemisphere, they typically blow from the northwest toward the southeast, showing a clear eastward component.

Statement 4 is correct

• These winds are often associated with cloudy, damp, and stormy weather conditions, frequently bringing overcast skies and rainfall.

Answer: (b) II, III and IV

A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that:

1. he obtains permission from the principal of his college
2. he is a member of a political party
3. his name figures in the Voters’ List
4. he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• To contest a Municipal Council election, a person must be a registered voter. Being enrolled in the electoral roll (Voters’ List) of the concerned area is an essential qualification. Permission from a college, political party membership, or a separate declaration of allegiance are not mandatory conditions for filing nomination.

Answer: (c) his name figures in the Voters’ List

Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the ‘Jagadguru’ by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in secularism?

1. Husain Shah
2. Zain-ul-Abidin
3. Ibrahim Adil Shah
4. Mahmud II

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Ibrahim Adil Shah II of Bijapur (1580–1627) was known for his broad-minded and syncretic outlook. He patronized Hindu scholars, participated in Hindu cultural traditions, and composed devotional works that reflected both Islamic and Hindu influences (e.g., Kitab-i-Navras). Because of his inclusive and secular approach, he was hailed as ‘Jagadguru’ by his subjects.

Answer: (c) Ibrahim Adil Shah

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Goa attained full statehood in 1987
2. Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
3. Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954

Explanation

Statement (d) is incorrect

• Goa became a full-fledged State on 30 May 1987. Diu is an island located off the coast of Gujarat in the Gulf of Khambhat. The 56th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987 granted statehood to Goa and made Daman and Diu a separate Union Territory. Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese, not French, colonial rule until they were liberated in 1954.

Answer: (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954

Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda?

1. Chad
2. Malawi
3. Victoria
4. Zambezi

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Lake Victoria is Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America. It is bordered by Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%). It is a source of the White Nile River which flows northward and eventually joins the Blue Nile in Sudan to form the Nile River which drains into the Mediterranean Sea. Lake Victoria touches the Equator on its northern side.

Answer: (c) Victoria

The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher than that of per capita income at constant prices, because the latter takes into account the rate of:

1. growth of population
2. increase in price level
3. growth of money supply
4. increase in the wage rate

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Per capita income at current prices (nominal income) is calculated using prevailing market prices and therefore includes the effect of inflation. Per capita income at constant prices (real income) is adjusted for inflation and reflects only the actual increase in output or purchasing power. Since constant price calculations remove the effect of rising prices, their growth rate is usually lower than that at current prices during inflationary periods. Hence, the difference arises because constant prices take into account the increase in price level.

Answer: (b) increase in price level

“In this instance we could not play off the Mohammedans against the Hindus”. To which one of the following events did this remark of Aitchison relate?

1. Revolt of 1857
2. Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
3. Khilafat and Non-cooperation Movement (1919-22)
4. August Movement of 1942

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The remark refers to the Revolt of 1857, when Hindus and Muslims fought together against British rule. British officials were alarmed by this rare unity, as their usual policy of “divide and rule” depended on exploiting communal differences. During the 1857 uprising, this strategy failed temporarily because both communities united in opposition to the British, prompting later efforts to deliberately widen communal divisions.

Answer: (a) Revolt of 1857

Which one of the following statements is not true?

1. Ghaggar’s water is utilised in the Indira Gandhi Canal
2. Narmada rises from the Amarkantak region
3. Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjra River
4. Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect

• The Indira Gandhi Canal draws its water from the Sutlej and Beas rivers (via the Harike Barrage), not from the Ghaggar.

Answer: (a) Ghaggar’s water is utilised in the Indira Gandhi Canal

The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

1. with the consent of all the States
2. with the consent of the majority of States
3. with the consent of the States concerned
4. without the consent of any State

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing international treaties, agreements, or conventions. This power applies even to matters in the State List and does not require the consent of any State.

Answer: (d) without the consent of any State

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935?

1. Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
2. A bicameral legislature
3. Provincial autonomy
4. An All-India Federation

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Act of 1935 introduced provincial autonomy by abolishing diarchy in the provinces. It provided for a bicameral legislature at the Centre. It proposed the establishment of an All-India Federation (though it was never fully implemented).

Answer: (a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces

Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

1. A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
3. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
4. The President cannot return a Money Bill to Lok Sabha for reconsideration

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer

• A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, not in either House. Hence, option (a) is incorrect. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final authority to certify a Bill as a Money Bill (Article 110). The Rajya Sabha must return the Money Bill within 14 days, with or without recommendations. The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration (Article 111).

Answer: (a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament

The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in

1. Japan
2. Burma
3. Singapore
4. Malaya

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Indian National Army (INA) or Azad Hind Fauj was originally founded by Captain Mohan Singh in 1942 in Singapore. It was later revived and led by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1943, who gave it fresh momentum.

Answer: (c) Singapore

A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means:

1. a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
2. a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with National Stock Exchange
3. an overall rise in prices of shares of a group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
4. a rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to a group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• SENSEX (Sensitive Index) is the stock market index of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). It represents the performance of 30 selected major companies listed on the BSE. A rise in SENSEX indicates an overall increase in the share prices of these selected companies, not all companies listed on the exchange.

Answer: (c) an overall rise in prices of shares of a group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange

The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the:

1. generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the underemployed men and women in rural areas
2. generation of employment for able-bodied adults in need of work during the lean agricultural season
3. laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
4. guarantee of right to life, liberty, security of person, and equality before law

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). It inserted Part IX (Articles 243–243O) into the Constitution and provided for a three-tier system of Panchayats.

Answer: (c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country

As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he:

1. postpone granting of independence
2. invite Jinnah to form the government
3. invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the government together
4. invite the army to take over for some time

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In 1947, to prevent the partition of India, Mahatma Gandhi suggested to Lord Mountbatten that Muhammad Ali Jinnah be invited to form the government at the Centre. Gandhi believed that this step might preserve India’s unity and avoid division.

Answer: (b) invite Jinnah to form the government

The native State of Tripura became involved in the Freedom Movement early in the 20th century because

1. the kings of Tripura were always anti-British
2. the Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura
3. the tribes of the State were fiercely freedom loving
4. there were already some groups fighting against the kingship and its protector, the British

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Tripura, being geographically close to Bengal, became associated with the national movement when Bengal revolutionaries used it as a shelter and base of operations in the early 20th century. The state thus got indirectly involved in anti-British revolutionary activities. The Tripura rulers were not consistently anti-British, and the involvement was primarily linked to revolutionary influence from Bengal rather than internal anti-monarchical movements alone.

Answer: (b) the Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura

That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20 in 1867–68 was first ascertained by:

1. M. G. Ranade
2. Sir W. Hunter
3. R. C. Dutta
4. Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Dadabhai Naoroji was the first to estimate India’s national and per capita income. In his economic analysis (later elaborated in Poverty and Un-British Rule in India), he calculated the per capita income to be about Rs. 20 and used it to support his Drain of Wealth Theory.

Answer: (d) Dadabhai Naoroji

After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in:

1. Chauri-Chaura
2. Dandi
3. Champaran
4. Bardoli

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In 1917, Gandhi led the Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar against the oppressive indigo plantation system (Tinkathia system). It was his first successful experiment with Satyagraha in India.

Answer: (c) Champaran

Insect-resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an

1. virus
2. bacterium
3. insect
4. plant

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Insect-resistant cotton (Bt cotton) contains a gene from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt). This gene produces a toxic protein (Cry protein) that kills specific insect pests like bollworms.

Answer: (b) Bacterium

Which one of the following organisms can serve as a biofertilizer for rice crop?

1. Blue-green algae
2. Rhizobium sp
3. Mycorrhizal fungi
4. Azotobacter sp

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc) fix atmospheric nitrogen in flooded paddy fields. They are particularly suitable for rice cultivation.
• Rhizobium – Works with legumes.
• Azotobacter – Used for non-leguminous upland crops.
• Mycorrhiza – Helps in phosphorus absorption but not primary nitrogen fixation for rice

Answer: (a) Blue-green algae

Match List I (Industrial processes) with List II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer:

List I	List II
I. Cracking	A) Rubber
II. Smelting	B) Petroleum
III. Hydrogenation	C) Copper
IV. Vulcanization	D) Edible fats

Codes:

1. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
2. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
3. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
4. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Cracking is associated with the petroleum industry, where large hydrocarbon molecules are broken into smaller and more useful products such as petrol. Smelting is related to the extraction of metals like copper from their ores through heating and reduction. Hydrogenation is used in the edible fats industry to convert vegetable oils into semi-solid fats like vanaspati. Vulcanization is associated with the rubber industry, where rubber is treated with sulphur to improve its strength, elasticity, and durability.

Answer: (b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of

1. hydrogen with oxygen
2. oxygen with acetylene
3. methane with air
4. carbon dioxide with ethane

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Coal mines contain methane (firedamp). When methane mixes with air in certain proportions (5–15%), it becomes highly explosive. A small spark can trigger an explosion.

Answer: (c) methane with air

A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out. This property is due to its

1. very small size
2. very large size
3. very high density
4. very low density

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• A Black hole has extremely high density and gravitational pull, so strong that even light or any other radiation cannot escape once it crosses the event horizon. This immense gravity results from a very large amount of mass being compressed into a very small volume.

Answer: (c) very high density

Consider the following:

1. Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its narrow social base.
2. Reason (R): It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups which joined it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The early nationalist phase (Moderate phase of the Indian National Congress) had a limited social base, largely confined to educated middle classes. However, it did not fight for narrow sectional interests; it demanded constitutional reforms, civil rights, and administrative changes for India as a whole.

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Consider the following:

1. Assertion (A): Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan Empire.
2. Reason (R): Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes to South India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Ashoka conquered Kalinga around 261 BCE. Kalinga had strategic importance, controlling key trade routes (both land and maritime). Its annexation strengthened Mauryan control over eastern and southern trade networks.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Match the following:

I. Chittagong Armoury Raid	A) Kalpana Dutt
II. Abhinav Bharat	B) Guru Ram Singh
III. Anushilan Samiti	C) V. D. Savarkar
IV. Kuka Movement	D) Aurobindo Ghosh

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
2. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
3. I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
4. I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The correct matching is: Chittagong Armoury Raid — Kalpana Dutt (A), Abhinav Bharat — Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (C), Anushilan Samiti — Aurobindo Ghosh (D), and Kuka Movement — Guru Ram Singh (B).

Answer: (a) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

Land Revenue Systems – Matching

I. Land allotted to big feudal landlords	A. Jagirdari System
II. Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors	B. Ryotwari System
III. Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage, transfer, gift or sell	C. Mahalwari System
IV. Revenue settlements made at the village level	D. Zamindari System

Codes:

1. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
2. I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
3. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
4. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

Land allotted to big feudal landlords	Jagirdari System
Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors	Zamindari System
Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage, transfer, gift or sell	Ryotwari System
Revenue settlements made at village level	Mahalwari System

Answer: (b) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C

The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as

1. decorum
2. crossing the floor
3. interpellation
4. yielding the floor

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In parliamentary procedure, “yielding the floor” refers to a situation where a member who is speaking gives up the right to speak so that another member may speak. The Speaker can direct a member to yield the floor in order to maintain order and ensure smooth conduct of proceedings.

Answer: (c) yielding the floor

Economic liberalisation in India started with

1. substantial changes in industrial licensing policy
2. the convertibility of Indian rupee
3. doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment
4. significant reduction in tax rates

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Economic liberalisation in India formally began with the New Economic Policy of 1991. One of its earliest and most important steps was the dismantling of the industrial licensing system, often called the “Licence Raj.” Most industries were freed from compulsory licensing, allowing greater private sector participation and competition. Other reforms such as rupee convertibility, FDI liberalisation, and tax reforms followed later as part of the broader liberalisation process.

Answer: (a) substantial changes in industrial licensing policy

Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called

1. Keystone species
2. Allopatric species
3. Sympatric species
4. Threatened species

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Keystone species determine the survival of many other species in an ecosystem. The addition or loss of a keystone species from an ecosystem leads to significant changes in the occurrence of at least one other species. If a keystone species is lost, it will result in the degradation of the whole ecosystem

Answer: (a) Keystone species

Consider the following:

1. Assertion (A): The Aham and Puram poems of the Padinen Kilukanakku group formed a continuation of the Sangam composition.
2. Reason (R): They were included under the Post-Sangam works as against the Sangam works proper.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Padinen Kilukanakku (“Eighteen Lesser Texts”) belongs to the Post-Sangam period of Tamil literature. These works continued the literary traditions of Sangam literature, especially the themes of Aham (love and personal life) and Puram (war, valor, and public life). Since they were composed after the main Sangam age, they are classified as Post-Sangam works, which explains why they are regarded as a continuation of Sangam compositions rather than part of the original Sangam corpus.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A