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UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 1997

Table of contents

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 1997 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 1997 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the grand title of

  1. Tute-i-Hind
  2. Kaisar-i-Hind
  3. Zil-i-Ilahi
  4. Din-i-Ilahi

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Ghiyas ud din Balban strengthened the theory of kingship and elevated the status of the Sultan. He adopted the title “Zil-i-Ilahi” (Shadow of God) to emphasise divine authority.
  • Other options:
    • Din-i-Ilahi: Introduced by Akbar
    • Tuti-i-Hind: Title of Amir Khusrau
    • Kaisr-i-Hind: prestigious civilian medal awarded by the British Empire.
Answer: (c) Zil-i-Ilahi

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I
  1. Butler Committee
  2. Hartog Committee Report
  3. Hunter Inquiry Committee Report
  4. Muddiman Committee Report
List II
  1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Report
  2. Relationship between the Indian States and Paramount Power
  3. Working of Dyarchy as laid down in the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
  4. The growth of education in British India and potentialities of its further progress
Codes:
  1. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
  2. I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
  3. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
  4. I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Butler Committee (1927): Examined relations between Indian States and Paramount Power → B
  • Hartog Committee (1929): → Reviewed education progress → D
  • Hunter Committee (1919): Investigated Jallianwala Bagh massacre → A
  • Muddiman Committee (1924): Evaluated Dyarchy under the 1919 Act → C
Answer: (d) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I
  1. Deccan Traps
  2. Western Ghats
  3. Aravalli
  4. Narmada-Tapi
List II
  1. Late Cenozoic
  2. Pre-Cambrian
  3. Cretaceous-Eocene
  4. Cambrian Alluvial deposits
  5. Pleistocene
Codes:
  1. I-C, II-E, III-A, IV-D
  2. I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E
  3. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
  4. I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-E

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Deccan Traps → Formed by volcanic eruptions in Cretaceous-Eocene → C
  • Western Ghats → Uplift during Late Cenozoic → A
  • Aravalli Range → Among the oldest fold mountains (Pre-Cambrian) → B
  • Narmada-Tapi Basin → Pleistocene deposits → E
Answer: (b) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E

The head of the military department under the reorganised central machinery of administration during Akbar’s reign was

  1. Diwan
  2. Mir Bakshi
  3. Mir Saman
  4. Bakshi

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The head of the military administration was the Mir Bakshi, who also headed the nobility. The Diwan managed revenue and finance, while the Mir Saman supervised the royal karkhanas and the procurement and storage of goods for the royal household. The Bakhshi at the provincial level was appointed by the imperial court on the recommendation of the Mir Bakshi and performed similar military functions in the provinces.
Answer: (b) Mir Bakshi

The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing India into tropical and sub-tropical zones is

  1. 21°C
  2. 18°C
  3. 12°C
  4. 15°C

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The standard January isotherm used to distinguish India’s tropical (southern) and subtropical (northern) regions is the 18°C line. In January, isotherms generally run almost parallel to the latitudes. The 18°C January isotherm passes across the central part of the country in an east–west direction, extending from the Tapi River estuary in the west to the Mahanadi River delta in the east.
Answer: (b) 18°C

The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because

  1. as the comet rotates around the sun, the lighter mass of the comet is pushed away due to the centrifugal force alone
  2. as the comet rotates, the lighter mass of the comet is attracted by some star situated in the direction of its tail
  3. the radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the comet throwing its tail away from the sun
  4. the tail of the comet always exists in the same orientation

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • A comet’s tail always points away from the Sun because solar radiation pressure and the solar wind push gas and dust released from the comet in the opposite direction. As the comet approaches the Sun, its icy surface vaporises, forming a glowing coma and tail directed away from the Sun regardless of the comet’s direction of motion.
Answer: (c) the radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the comet throwing its tail away from the sun

Assertion (A): The sponsor and the most prominent figure of the Chisti order of Sufis in India is Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti. Reason (R): The Chisti order takes its name from a village, Chisti, in Ajmer.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
  3. A is true, but R is false
  4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti was indeed the most prominent figure of the Chishti order in India and established it at Ajmer. However, the order takes its name from Chisht, a town in present-day Afghanistan — not from Ajmer.
Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India?

  1. Currency with the Public
  2. Demand deposits with banks
  3. Time deposits with banks
  4. Other deposits with RBI
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. I and II
  2. I, II and III
  3. I, II, III and IV
  4. I, II and IV

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • In India, Broad Money (M3) is defined as M1 plus net time deposits of the banking system.
  • M1 includes:
    • Currency with the public,
    • Demand deposits with banks, and
    • ‘Other’ deposits with the Reserve Bank of India.
  • Thus, M3 comprises:
    • Currency with the public,
    • Demand deposits with banks,
    • Time (term) deposits with banks, and
    • ‘Other’ deposits with the Reserve Bank of India — as reflected in official monetary aggregates.
Answer: (c) I, II, III and IV

A graduate at 18, professor and associated editor of the Sudharak at 20, Secretary of the Sarvajanik Sabha and of the Provincial Conference at 25, Secretary of the National Congress at 29, leading witness before an important Royal Commission at 31, Provincial legislator at 34, Imperial legislator at 36, President of the Indian National Congress at 39……… a patriot whom Mahatma Gandhi himself regarded as his master.” This is how a biographer describes

  1. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
  2. Mahadev Govind Ranade
  3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The listed achievements—early academic distinction, key roles in the Indian National Congress, legislative positions, and becoming Congress President at 39—along with the fact that Mahatma Gandhi regarded him as his mentor, clearly identify Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
Answer: (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Who among the following was associated with the suppression of Thugs?

  1. General Henry Prendergast
  2. Captain Sleeman
  3. Alexander Burnes
  4. Captain Robert Pemberton

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • William Henry Sleeman was the key official responsible for suppressing the Thugs in British India. Appointed in 1835 under Lord William Bentinck, he led a systematic campaign of intelligence, arrests, and prosecutions that dismantled the Thuggee network, earning him the nickname “Thuggee Sleeman.”
Answer: (b) Captain Sleeman

The Alamatti Dam is on the river

  1. Godavari
  2. Cauvery
  3. Krishna
  4. Mahanadi

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Almatti Dam is built across the Krishna River in Karnataka. It is part of the Upper Krishna Project.
Answer: (c) Krishna

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Events)
  1. Morley Minto Reforms
  2. Simon Commission
  3. The Chauri-Chaura incident
  4. The Dandi March
List II (Results)
  1. Country-wide agitation
  2. Withdrawal of a movement
  3. Communal Electorates
  4. Communal outbreaks
  5. Illegal manufacture of salt
Codes:
  1. I-C, II-D, III-E, IV-B
  2. I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
  3. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-E
  4. I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) → Introduced Communal Electorates → C
  • Simon Commission (1928) → Led to country-wide protests → A
  • Chauri-Chaura Incident (1922) → Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement → B
  • Dandi March (1930) → Salt law violation → E
Answer: (d) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E

The Poona Pact, which was signed between the British Government and Mahatma Gandhi in 1932, provided for

  1. the creation of dominion status for India
  2. separate electorates for the Muslims
  3. separate electorate for the Harijans
  4. joint electorate with reservation for Harijans

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The Poona Pact replaced separate electorates for Depressed Classes. It provided the joint electorate with reserved seats.
Answer: (d) joint electorate with reservation for Harijans

Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where:

  1. there are no reserved constituencies
  2. a two-party system has developed
  3. the first-past-post system prevails
  4. there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of governments

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Proportional Representation (PR) is useful in multi-party systems to ensure minority representation.
  • In a two-party system, like that of the UK, representation distortion is minimal. Hence PR is not considered necessary where a stable two-party system exists.
Answer: (b) a two-party system has developed

Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean?

  1. Indian Ocean is ‘half an ocean’
  2. Indian Ocean has monsoon drift
  3. Indian Ocean is a land-locked ocean
  4. Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The seasonal reversal of monsoon winds is the main reason for the changing direction of Indian Ocean currents. In the North Indian Ocean, surface currents completely reverse between summer and winter in response to the monsoon. During the Southwest Monsoon (June–October), currents flow as the South-West Monsoon Drift, while the pattern reverses in winter. Thus, wind stress from the monsoon controls both the direction and strength of currents in the Indian Ocean.
Answer: (b) Indian Ocean has monsoon drift

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List I
  1. Surat Split
  2. Communal Award
  3. All-party Convention
  4. Poorna Swaraj Resolution
List II
  1. 1929
  2. 1928
  3. 1932
  4. 1907
  5. 1905
Codes:
  1. I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-E
  2. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
  3. I-B, II-E, III-D, IV-A
  4. I-A, II-D, III-E, IV-C

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Surat Split took place in 1907, corresponding to D. The Communal Award was announced in 1932, corresponding to C. The All-Party Convention was held in 1928 in the context of the Nehru Report, corresponding to B. The Poorna Swaraj Resolution was adopted at the Lahore Session in 1929, corresponding to A.
Answer: (b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I
  1. Chittagong Armoury Raid
  2. Kakori Conspiracy
  3. Lahore Conspiracy
  4. Ghadr Party
List II
  1. Lala Hardayal
  2. Jatin Das
  3. Surya Sen
  4. Ram Prasad Bismil
  5. Vasudev Phadke
Codes:
  1. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-E
  2. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-E
  3. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
  4. I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Chittagong Armoury Raid was associated with Surya Sen, corresponding to C. The Kakori Conspiracy was linked to Ram Prasad Bismil, corresponding to D. The Lahore Conspiracy was associated with Jatin Das, corresponding to B. The Ghadr Party was founded under the leadership of Lala Hardayal, corresponding to A.
Answer: (c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. Teak: Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Deodar: Madhya Pradesh
  3. Sandalwood: Kerala
  4. Sundari: West Bengal

Explanation

Option (d) is correctly matched
  • The pair is correctly matched because the Sundari tree (Heritiera fomes) is the dominant mangrove species of the Sundarbans, which derive their name from it.
  • The other pairs are incorrect:
    • Teak is a tropical deciduous species common in central and southern India (e.g., Madhya Pradesh).
    • Deodar is a Himalayan conifer found in Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and J&K.
    • Sandalwood is chiefly associated with the dry deciduous forests of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Answer: (d) Sundari: West Bengal

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:

List I
  1. Gupta
  2. Chandella
  3. Chalukya
  4. Pallava
List II
  1. Badami
  2. Panamalai
  3. Khajuraho
  4. Deogarh
Codes:
  1. I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
  2. I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
  3. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
  4. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Gupta Empire is associated with Deogarh, corresponding to D, which is noted for the Dashavatara Temple. The Chandella dynasty is associated with Khajuraho, corresponding to C, famous for its temple complex and as an important Chandella centre. The Chalukya dynasty is linked to Badami, corresponding to A, which served as their capital and was also known as Vatapi. The Pallava dynasty is associated with Panamalai, corresponding to B, known for its 1,300-year-old Pallava paintings located atop a hill in Tamil Nadu.
Answer: (a) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

“From Aceh in the far north-west to Torres Strait in the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The Archipelago has 14,000 islands…” This description best fits

  1. West Indies
  2. Japan
  3. Philippines
  4. Indonesia

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Indonesia consists of about 14,000+ islands stretching between Aceh and Torres Strait. Aceh is the westernmost province of Indonesia. It is located on the northern end of the island of Sumatra. The Torres Strait is a 150-km-wide body of water between Australia’s Cape York Peninsula and Papua New Guinea.

Map showing maritime Southeast Asia, including Indonesia, Malaysia, Brunei, Palau, and surrounding seas such as Java Sea, Celebes Sea, and Timor Sea. Key features include labeled islands, straits, and sea arcs with color-coded landmasses and blue ocean areas, highlighting geographic and political boundaries.

Answer: (d) Indonesia

Which one of the following statements regarding Asokan stone pillars is incorrect?

  1. These are highly polished
  2. These are monolithic
  3. The shaft of the pillars is tapering in shape
  4. These are parts of architectural structures

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Ashoka erected pillars as independent monuments rather than as parts of buildings. These pillars were monolithic, carved from a single stone, and known for their highly polished Mauryan finish. Their shafts were slightly tapered upwards and were often crowned with beautifully carved animal capitals, such as the famous lion capital at Sarnath.

Infographic detailing sculptures of Mauryan period, highlighting Ashokan pillars, Lion Capital at Sarnath, Rampurva Bull Capital, Didarganj Yakshini, and ring stones. Features images of sandstone sculptures with descriptions of materials, symbolic meanings, locations, and notable artistic techniques such as mirror-like polish and intricate plant motifs.

Answer: (d) These are parts of architectural structures

The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in

  1. the United Kingdom
  2. Australia
  3. the United States
  4. Canada

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The United States is regarded as the birthplace of the modern conception of ‘Public Interest Litigation’, where it is popularly called “Public Interest Law”.
Answer: (c) the United States

If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament

  1. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no confidence motion
  2. he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
  3. he can make statements only on the Upper House
  4. he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister

Explanation

Option (a) is the correct answer
  • A Prime Minister who is a member of the Rajya Sabha can participate in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha, including speaking on the Budget and making statements. However, since he is not a member of the Lok Sabha, he cannot vote there, including during a no-confidence motion, which is decided only by the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion

Which one of the following dances involves solo performance?

  1. Bharatanatyam
  2. Kuchipudi
  3. Mohiniattam
  4. Odissi

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Mohiniyattam is usually a solo dance form, however experiments as dance drama and group works are also common in Mohiniyattam

Diagram illustrating Indian classical dances categorized by performance type and instruments. It features nine dances from different regions, each with associated instruments and dance forms like devotional, storytelling, dance-drama, temple, religious, and lasya, highlighted with labeled sections and traditional dancer illustrations.

Answer: (c) Mohiniattam

What is the correct chronological sequence of the following?

  1. Wood’s Education Despatch
  2. Macaulay’s Minute on Education
  3. The Sargeant Education Report
  4. Indian Education (Hunter Commission)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. II, I, IV, III
  2. II, I, III, IV
  3. I, II, IV, III
  4. IV, III, I, II

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Macaulay’s Minute on Education was issued in 1835, followed by Wood’s Education Despatch in 1854. The Indian Education Commission, popularly known as the Hunter Commission, was appointed in 1882, while the Sargeant Education Report was published much later in 1944. Hence, the correct chronological sequence is II, I, IV, III.
Answer: (a) II, I, IV, III

Which one of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?

  1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
  2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Codes:
  1. Neither I nor II
  2. Both I and II
  3. I alone
  4. II alone

Explanation

Both statements are correct
  • Article 59 states that the President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a State Legislature; if a sitting member is elected President, their seat is deemed vacant upon assuming office.
  • Article 79 provides that Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses — the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Thus, the President is a constituent part of Parliament, although he does not ordinarily sit in the Houses except for specific functions such as addressing Parliament and giving assent to Bills.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in the

  1. Chhandogyopanishad
  2. Mundakopanishad
  3. Kathopanishad
  4. Kenopanishad

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama, the god of death, is found in the Kathopanishad. In this philosophical conversation, Yama explains the nature of the Atman, death, immortality, and the path to liberation (moksha) to Nachiketa.
Answer: (c) Kathopanishad

Milindapanho is in the form of a dialogue between the King Menander and the Buddhist monk

  1. Nagasena
  2. Nagarjuna
  3. Nagabhatta
  4. Kumarilabhatta

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Milinda Panha is a famous Buddhist text that records a philosophical dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander I (known as Milinda in the text) and the Buddhist monk Nagasena. Nagarjuna was a later Mahayana Buddhist philosopher associated with the Madhyamika school; Nagabhata was the founder of the imperial Gurjara Pratihara dynasty in northern India; and Kumarila Bhatta was a Hindu philosopher and a scholar of Mimamsa school of philosophy from early medieval India. He wrote three sub commentaries on Sabara’s commentary on Jaimini’s Purva Mimamsa Sutras, namely the Ślokavārttika, Tantravarttika and Tuptika
Answer: (a) Nagasena

Antigen is a substance which

  1. lowers body temperature
  2. destroys harmful bacteria
  3. triggers the immune system
  4. is used as an antidote to poison

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • An antigen is any foreign substance that enters the body and is recognized by the immune system as non-self, thereby stimulating an immune response. Antigens are typically present on the surface of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other foreign particles like toxins and pollen. When an antigen enters the body, it is detected by immune cells such as lymphocytes, which respond by producing specific antibodies to neutralise or eliminate the antigen
Answer: (c) triggers the immune system

Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting seedlings?

  1. Maize
  2. Sorghum
  3. Onion
  4. Soyabean

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Transplanting is an agricultural practice in which seeds are first grown in a nursery and the young seedlings are later transferred to the main field. This method helps ensure better survival, proper spacing, and healthier crop growth. Onion is commonly cultivated by transplanting seedlings. Farmers first raise onion seedlings in nursery beds, and after about 4–8 weeks, these seedlings are transplanted into the main field. This method promotes uniform bulb development, efficient use of land, and higher yield.
Answer: (c) Onion

Which one of the following organisms is likely to show the highest concentration of DDT once it has been introduced into the ecosystem?

  1. Grasshopper
  2. Toad
  3. Snake
  4. Cattle

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • DDT shows biomagnification in a food chain, meaning its concentration increases at successive trophic levels. Among the given organisms, the snake occupies the highest trophic level and therefore is likely to accumulate the highest concentration of DDT. Grasshopper and cattle are primary consumers, while the toad is a secondary consumer.
Answer: (c) Snake

Which one of the following is used as an anti-freeze for automobile engines?

  1. Propyl alcohol
  2. Ethanol
  3. Methanol
  4. Ethylene glycol

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • An anti-freeze is a substance added to the coolant of automobile engines to lower the freezing point and raise the boiling point of the liquid. This prevents the coolant from freezing in cold conditions and overheating in hot conditions, ensuring proper engine functioning. Ethylene glycol is the most commonly used anti-freeze in automobile engines because it has a very low freezing point and a high boiling point when mixed with water. It also provides efficient heat transfer and helps prevent corrosion in the engine cooling system.
Answer: (d) Ethylene glycol

The working principle of a washing machine is

  1. centrifugation
  2. dialysis
  3. reverse osmosis
  4. diffusion

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • A washing machine works primarily on the principle of centrifugation, which is the process of separating substances of different densities by rapid spinning. During the spin cycle, the drum rotates at high speed, creating a centrifugal force that pushes water out of the clothes through the holes in the drum. This helps remove excess water efficiently.
Answer: (a) Centrifugation

Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of per cent by mass in the Earth’s crust?

  1. Silicon
  2. Oxygen
  3. Carbon
  4. Calcium

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust by mass, constituting about 46.6% of its total weight. It occurs mainly in combination with other elements, forming oxides and silicate minerals such as silica (SiO₂), alumina (Al₂O₃), and various silicates.
Answer: (b) Oxygen

In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA… In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ … do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for

  1. twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
  2. twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
  3. twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
  4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949. It came into force on 26 January 1950.
Answer: (b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949

Which one of the following edicts mentions the personal name of Asoka?

  1. Kalsi
  2. Rummindei
  3. Special Kalinga Edict
  4. Maski

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Most inscriptions of Ashoka refer to him by the titles “Devanampriya” and “Piyadarsi,” without mentioning his personal name. The Maski Minor Rock Edict inscription explicitly mentions the personal name “Asoka” along with the title Devanampriya, thereby confirming his identity.

A detailed infographic outlines Ashoka's inscriptions, highlighting their nature, significance, and types of edicts across regions like India, Nepal, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. It categorizes edicts into Minor Rock, Major Rock, and Minor Pillar Edicts, listing specific examples and notable titles of Ashoka, with sections on languages and scripts used.

Answer: (d) Maski

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I
  1. Moplah revolt
  2. Pabna revolt
  3. Eka Movement
  4. Birsa Munda revolt
List II
  1. Kerala
  2. Bihar
  3. Bengal
  4. Awadh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
  2. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
  3. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
  4. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Moplah Revolt took place in Kerala, the Pabna Revolt occurred in Bengal, the Eka Movement was centred in Awadh, and the Birsa Munda Revolt took place in the Chotanagpur region of present-day Jharkhand, which was then part of Bihar.
Answer: (a) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara was also known as

  1. Vajrapani
  2. Manjusri
  3. Padmapani
  4. Maitreya

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Padmapani, which translates to “Lotus-Bearer” or “Holder of the Lotus” in Sanskrit, is a well-known epithet and manifestation of the Bodhisattva Avalokiteshvara. Representing compassion, he is depicted holding a lotus flower to symbolise spiritual purity and enlightenment.
Answer: (c) Padmapani

Daily weather map showing isobars is an example of

  1. Choropleth map
  2. Isopleth map
  3. Chorochromatic map
  4. Choroschematic map

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • A daily weather map showing isobars is an example of an isopleth map because it uses lines joining places with equal values, such as equal atmospheric pressure in the case of isobars.
Answer: (b) Isopleth map

Consider the following statements:

  1. Assertion (A): Contempt of Court is punishable under the Contempt of Courts Act.
  2. Reason (R): The purpose of the law of Contempt of Court is to secure public respect and confidence in the judicial process.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • Contempt of Court is punishable under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. The purpose of contempt law is to maintain the authority, dignity, and credibility of the judiciary and to secure public confidence in the judicial process. Hence, the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Author)
  1. Varahamihira
  2. Visakhadatta
  3. Sudraka
  4. Bilhana
List II (Text)
  1. Prabandha Chintamani
  2. Mrchchhakatikam
  3. Brhat-Samhita
  4. Devi Chandraguptam
  5. Vikramankadevacharita
Codes:
  1. I-C, II-D, III-E, IV-B
  2. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-E
  3. I-E, II-C, III-D, IV-A
  4. I-A, II-C, III-E, IV-B

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Varahamihira is associated with Brhat-Samhita, an encyclopedic Sanskrit work on astronomy, astrology, architecture, geography and omens. Visakhadatta wrote Devi Chandraguptam, which deals with political events involving Chandragupta II and Ramagupta. Sudraka authored Mrchchhakatikam, a Sanskrit drama on urban life, love and society. Bilhana wrote Vikramankadevacharita, a biography of the Western Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI. Prabandha Chintamani was written by Merutunga, so it is the incorrect match here.
Answer: (b) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-E

National Income is the

  1. Net National Product at market price
  2. Net National Product at factor cost
  3. Net Domestic Product at market price
  4. Net Domestic Product at factor cost

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • National Income refers to the total income earned by the normal residents of a country from all sources of production during a year, after deducting depreciation. It is measured as Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNP at FC).
Answer: (b) Net National Product at factor cost

Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panchsheel”?

  1. Non-alignment
  2. Peaceful Co-existence
  3. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
  4. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Panchsheel Agreement was signed in 1954 between India and China. It laid down five principles for peaceful relations between nations.
  • The five principles of Panchsheel are:
    • Mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty
    • Mutual non-aggression
    • Mutual non-interference in internal affairs
    • Equality and mutual benefit
    • Peaceful coexistence
    • Non-alignment is NOT part of Panchsheel. It is a separate foreign policy principle followed by India, especially under Jawaharlal Nehru, referring to not joining military blocs.
Answer: (a) Non-alignment

Which one of the following was a corporation of merchants in ancient India?

  1. Chaturvedi Mangalam
  2. Parishad
  3. Ashtadikgaja
  4. Manigrama

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Manigrama was an important guild (corporation) of merchants in ancient and early medieval India, especially in South India.
  • Other options explained:
  • Chaturvedi Mangalam: A settlement granted to Brahmins for Vedic learning (auspicious place for Brahmins experts in the four Vedas).
  • Parishad: A council of learned Brahmins or advisors.
  • Ashtadikgaja: The Ashtadiggajas (meaning “Eight Elephants in the Eight Directions”) were a group of eight, highly acclaimed Telugu poets and scholars who adorned the court of Emperor Krishnadevaraya (ruled 1509–1529 CE) of the Vijayanagara Empire.
Answer: (d) Manigrama

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Functionaries)
  1. President of India
  2. Judges of the Supreme Court
  3. Members of Parliament
  4. Ministers for the Union
List II (Oaths or affirmations)
  1. Secrecy of Information
  2. Faithful Discharge of Duties
  3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
  4. Upholding the Constitution and the Law
Codes:
  1. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
  2. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
  3. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
  4. I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The President takes an oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution, expressing faith and allegiance to the Constitution, corresponding to C. Supreme Court judges swear to uphold the Constitution and the law, corresponding to D. Members of Parliament take an oath for the faithful discharge of their duties, corresponding to B. Ministers take an oath of office along with an oath of secrecy, corresponding to A.
Answer: (c) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called

  1. rupaka
  2. karshapana
  3. dinara
  4. pana

Explanation

Option (a) is correct
  • The Gupta Empire issued coins in gold, silver, and copper. Their gold coins were called dinaras, influenced by Roman coinage. However, their silver coins were called rupaka, derived from the Sanskrit word rupa, meaning silver.
Answer: (a) rupaka

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I

(Minerals)

  1. Coal
  2. Gold
  3. Mica
  4. Manganese
List II

(Typical areas of Occurrence)

  1. Bhandara
  2. Karanpura
  3. Hutti
  4. Nellore
Codes:
  1. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
  2. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
  3. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
  4. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

Explanation

Option (b) is correct
  • Coal is correctly matched with Karanpura, as the Karanpura coalfields of Jharkhand are well known for coal deposits. Gold is matched with Hutti because the Hutti Gold Mines in Karnataka are among the oldest and most important gold-producing regions in India. Mica is associated with Nellore in Andhra Pradesh, a major mica-producing area. Manganese is matched with Bhandara in Maharashtra, which is known for its manganese ore deposits. Hence, the correct matching is I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A.
Answer: (b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

Which one of the following pairs of composers in different languages and their works on the Mahabharata theme is correctly matched?

  1. Sarladasa — Bengali
  2. Kasirama — Oriya
  3. Tikkana — Marathi
  4. Pampa — Kannada

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The correctly matched pair is Pampa — Kannada. Pampa authored Vikramarjuna Vijaya (also known as Pampa Bharata), a celebrated Kannada adaptation of the Mahabharata. Sarala Dasa is associated with the Odia (Oriya) Mahabharata tradition, not Bengali literature, while Tikkana belonged to the Telugu Mahabharata tradition rather than Marathi literature. The Kashidasi Mahabharat (or Kasirama Mahabharata) is the most celebrated Bengali adaptation of the ancient epic, originally written by the medieval poet Kashiram Das around the turn of the 16th to 17th century.
Answer: (d) Pampa — Kannada

The group of small pieces of rock – revolving round the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called

  1. meteors
  2. comets
  3. meteorites
  4. asteroids

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Asteroids are small rocky bodies revolving around the Sun, mainly found in the asteroid belt located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. This region contains millions of such rocky fragments left over from the early formation of the solar system.
Answer: (d) asteroids

Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was written from right to left?

  1. Brahmi
  2. Nandnagari
  3. Sharada
  4. Kharoshti

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • The Kharosthi script evolved from the Aramaic script, which was widely used in the Achaemenid Persian Empire. Similar to Aramaic, Kharosthi was written from right to left.
Answer: (d) Kharosthi script

If the earth’s direction of rotation is reversed, what would be the IST when it is noon at the International Date Line?

  1. 06.30 hrs
  2. 05.30 hrs
  3. 18.30 hrs
  4. 17.30 hrs

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • Normally, the Earth rotates from west to east, so places in the east are ahead in time. IST (82.5° E) is therefore 6 hours 30 minutes behind the International Date Line (180°). If the Earth’s direction of rotation were reversed, time calculation would also reverse, and places to the west would become ahead in time. Since IST lies west of the International Date Line by 97.5° longitude, IST would be 6 hours 30 minutes ahead of it. Therefore, when it is 12:00 noon at the International Date Line, IST would be 18:30 hrs (6:30 PM).
Answer: (c) 18:30 hrs

Which one of the following stars is nearest to the Earth?

  1. Polaris
  2. Alpha Centauri
  3. Sun
  4. Sirius

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The Sun is the nearest star to the Earth, located about 150 million km away. It is the source of light and energy for our planet. Alpha Centauri is the nearest star system after the Sun.
Answer: (c) Sun

The medieval Indian writer who refers to the discovery of America is

  1. Malik Muhammad Jayasi
  2. Amir Khusrau
  3. Raskhan
  4. Abul Fazl

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Abul Fazl was aware of the discovery of America by Europeans: he gives the Persian term alam nau for the “New World”. But this knowledge does not appear to have become a standard part of geography teaching in India.
Answer: (d) Abul Fazl

Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called

  1. carotid arteries
  2. hepatic arteries
  3. coronary arteries
  4. pulmonary arteries

Explanation

Option (c) is correct
  • The coronary arteries are the specific blood vessels that provide oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle (myocardium) itself.
Answer: (c) coronary arteries

The major component of honey is:

  1. Glucose
  2. Sucrose
  3. Maltose
  4. Fructose

Explanation

Option (d) is correct
  • Honey mainly consists of simple sugars, of which fructose is the largest component, followed by glucose. Fructose gives honey its high sweetness and helps prevent crystallisation. Sucrose is present only in small quantities, while maltose occurs in even smaller amounts than fructose and glucose.
Answer: (d) Fructose