UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 1996

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 1996 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 1996 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to blindness, etc., is:

1. Ethyl alcohol
2. Amyl alcohol
3. Benzyl alcohol
4. Methyl alcohol

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Liquor tragedies causing blindness are due to methanol (methyl alcohol) poisoning. Methanol is metabolized in the liver to formaldehyde and formic acid, which damage the optic nerve and can cause blindness and death. Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) is the drinking alcohol and does not cause such effects when consumed in moderate amounts.

Answer: (d) Methyl alcohol

The alpha particle carries two positive charges. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of:

1. Two protons
2. An atom of helium
3. Sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons
4. Two positrons as each positron carries a single positive charge

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• An alpha particle is the nucleus of a helium atom. It contains 2 protons and 2 neutrons, giving it a +2 charge. Since it lacks electrons, its mass is almost equal to a helium atom (electron mass is negligible).

Answer: (b) An atom of helium

Which one of the following elements is alloyed with iron to produce steel which can resist high temperatures and also have high hardness and abrasion resistance?

1. Aluminium
2. Chromium
3. Nickel
4. Tungsten

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Tungsten steel (high-speed steel) is known for its ability to withstand very high temperatures, high hardness, and abrasion resistance. It is used in cutting tools. Chromium improves corrosion resistance, but tungsten provides superior heat resistance and hardness.

Answer: (d) Tungsten

Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from:

1. Diamond to glass
2. Water to glass
3. Air to water
4. Air to glass

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium at an angle greater than the critical angle. Refractive index order: Diamond > Glass > Water > Air. Thus, total internal reflection is possible when light moves from diamond to glass.

Answer: (a) Diamond to glass

Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of nutritional value found in milk include:

1. Calcium, potassium and iron
2. Calcium and potassium
3. Potassium and iron
4. Calcium and iron

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Milk is rich in calcium (important for bones and teeth) and also contains potassium. Iron content in milk is very low; hence options including iron are incorrect.

Answer: (b) Calcium and potassium

People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are likely to suffer from all of the following diseases except:

1. Cholera
2. Typhoid
3. Jaundice
4. Fluorosis

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Cholera, typhoid, and jaundice are classic waterborne diseases spread through faecally contaminated drinking water. Shallow hand pumps are especially vulnerable to contamination from nearby sewage or surface runoff, increasing the risk of these infections. Fluorosis, however, is a chronic, non-infectious condition caused by long-term intake of excess fluoride in groundwater. It is geogenic rather than pathogen-based, making it distinct from the others.

Answer: (d) Fluorosis

Physico-chemical characteristics of water in water sources undergo changes due to:

1. Aquatic macrophytes
2. Aquatic fungi
3. Effluents
4. Evapotranspiration

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Industrial and domestic effluents introduce chemicals, heavy metals, and pollutants that significantly alter the pH, turbidity, dissolved oxygen, and chemical composition of water. These cause major physicochemical changes.

Answer: (c) Effluents

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I	List II
I. Vitamin	A. Pepsin
II. Enzyme	B. Carotene
III. Hormone	C. Keratin
IV. Protein	D. Progesterone

Codes:

1. I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
2. I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
3. I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
4. I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Vitamin → Carotene (Provitamin A)
• Enzyme → Pepsin (digestive enzyme)
• Hormone → Progesterone
• Protein → Keratin (structural protein in hair and nails)

Answer: (b) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C

Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants?

1. Boron
2. Zinc
3. Sodium
4. Copper

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Essential micronutrients for plants include Boron, Zinc, Copper, Iron, Manganese, Molybdenum, etc. Sodium is not essential for most plants (except some halophytes and C4 plants in limited roles).

Answer: (c) Sodium

Fat present below the skin surface in our body acts as a barrier against:

1. Loss of heat from the body
2. Loss of essential body fluids
3. Loss of salts from the body
4. Entry of harmful micro-organisms from the environment

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Subcutaneous fat acts as an insulator. It reduces heat loss and helps maintain body temperature. It does not prevent fluid or salt loss, nor is it the primary barrier against microorganisms (skin performs that function).

Answer: (a) Loss of heat from the body

Who among the following was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princes with a view to acquire territories?

1. Clive
2. Dupleix
3. Albuquerque
4. Warren Hastings

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Joseph Francois Dupleix, Governor-General of French India (1742–1754), was the first European official to systematically intervene in Indian succession disputes to expand French power. He pioneered the use of trained Indian sepoys and strategic alliances in regions like the Carnatic and Hyderabad to secure indirect territorial control.

Answer: (b) Dupleix

Consider the following rivers:

1. Kishenganga
2. Ganga
3. Wainganga
4. Penganga

The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged in the north–south direction is:

1. I, II, III, IV
2. II, I, III, IV
3. II, I, IV, III
4. I, IV, II, III

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Kishenganga River (Neelum, Kishenganga is the tributary of Jhelum) flows in the Kashmir Valley and is the northernmost among the four. The Ganga River rises from the Gangotri Glacier in the Garhwal Himalaya and flows across the northern plains, lying south of the Kishenganga. The Wainganga River and the Penganga River are tributaries of the Godavari in central and southern India. The Wainganga River originates in the Mahadeo Hills near Gopalganj village in Seoni district of Madhya Pradesh. The Painganga River flows through several districts of Maharashtra along a winding course and is an important tributary of the Wardha River.

Answer: (a) I, II, III, IV

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

1. Guru Amar Das — Miri and Piri
2. Guru Arjan Dev — Adi Granth
3. Guru Ram Das — Dal Khalsa
4. Guru Gobind Singh — Manji

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Guru Arjan compiled the Adi Granth. Miri-Piri was introduced by Guru Hargobind. Dal Khalsa was formed later (18th century) by Nawab Kapur Singh. The Manji system was started by Guru Amar Das.

Answer: (b) Guru Arjan Dev — Adi Granth

The Palk Bay lies between:

1. Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat
2. Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
3. Lakshadweep and Maldives’ Islands
4. Andaman and Nicobar Island

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Palk Bay is an inlet of the Bay of Bengal located between India and Sri Lanka. It is bounded in the south by Adam’s Bridge and connects to the Bay of Bengal through the Palk Strait. Geographically, it is linked to the adjoining Gulf of Mannar to the southwest. Hence, Palk Bay forms the marine stretch between the Bay of Bengal and the Gulf of Mannar along the India–Sri Lanka maritime boundary.

Answer: (b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

1. Naqqual — Bihar
2. Tamasha — Orissa
3. Ankia Nat — Assam
4. Baha — Punjab

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Ankia Nat is a one-act devotional play tradition of Assam started by Srimanta Sankardeva. Tamasha belongs to Maharashtra, and Baha is a tribal festival of Jharkhand. A form of folk theatre involving imitation and clownery, Naqal is performed in the state of Punjab.

Answer: (c) Ankia Nat — Assam

Consider the following:

1. Assertion (A): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
2. Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Constitution does not define the term “minority.” The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body. However, the Commission’s non-constitutional status does not explain why the term remains undefined.

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919) was popularly known as the:

1. Rowlatt Act
2. Pitt’s India Act
3. Indian Arms Act
4. Ilbert Bill

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919 was popularly known as the Rowlatt Act, named after Sir Sidney Rowlatt, who chaired the committee that recommended it.

Answer: (a) Rowlatt Act

Which one of the following texts of ancient India allows divorce to a wife deserted by her husband?

1. Kamasutra
2. Manavadharmashastra
3. Sukra Nitisara
4. Arthashastra

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Arthashastra, attributed to Kautilya, contains comparatively pragmatic and secular legal provisions. It permits a woman to separate under certain circumstances, including when she has been deserted by her husband.

Answer: (d) Arthashastra

Who among the following leaders did not believe in the Drain Theory of Dadabhai Naoroji?

1. B.G. Tilak
2. R.C. Dutt
3. M.G. Ranade
4. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Sir Syed Ahmad Khan did not accept Dadabhai Naoroji’s Drain Theory. Like many early nineteenth-century intellectuals, he regarded British rule as a modernising and reformist force and therefore did not support Naoroji’s economic critique of colonial exploitation.

Answer: (d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

His principal forte was social and religious reform. He relied upon legislation to do away with social ills and worked unceasingly for the eradication of child marriage, the purdah system …… To encourage consideration of social problems on a national scale, he inaugurated the Indian National Social Conference, which for many years met for its annual sessions alongside the Indian National Congress.’ The reference in this passage is to:

1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
2. Behramji Malabari
3. Mahadev Govind Ranade
4. B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mahadev Govind Ranade, believed in the overall development of society and held that social, religious, political, and economic reforms were interdependent. He emphasised social democracy along with political democracy. In the 1886 Calcutta Session, Dadabhai declared that the Congress would take up only national questions and not deal with religious and social matters. Hence, Ranade established the National Social Conference, a separate body for social reforms, in 1887, during INC’s third session. Ranade called the National Social Conference the younger sister of Congress.

Answer: (b) Mahadev Govind Ranade

Which one of the following was a Saiva sect in ancient India?

1. Ajivika
2. Mattamayura
3. Mayamata
4. Isanasivagurudevapaddhati

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mattamayura is identified in historical records as a Shaiva sect of ancient India. Founded by Sage Purandara in the Kadwaha region (near Gwalior), the sect was closely associated with the Kalachuri rulers.
• The Isanasivagurudeva Paddhati, also known as the Siddhantasara, is an 11th-century, 18,000-verse Sanskrit Tantric treatise by Isanasiva Gurudeva. It acts as a comprehensive guide to Shaivite ritualism, architecture, and iconography, divided into four parts: Samanyapada, Mantrapada, Kriyapada, and Yogapada.
• The Mayamata is a Vastusastra, that is to say, a ‘treatise on dwelling’ and, as such, it deals with all the facets of gods’ and men’s dwellings.
• Ajivika was a heterodox sect founded by Makkhali Gosala. It was distinct from Shaivism and is known for its doctrine of fatalism (Niyati).

Answer: (b) Mattamayura

Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India:

1. Is free to choose ministers only from among Members of Parliament
2. Can choose ministers after counselling by the President
3. Has full discretion in the choice of persons to serve as ministers
4. Has only limited powers due to discretionary powers of the President

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Under Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. In practice, this means the Prime Minister has decisive authority in selecting members of the Council of Ministers.

Answer: (c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons to serve as ministers

The term ‘Apabhramsa’ was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to denote:

1. Outcastes among the Rajputs
2. Deviations from Vedic rituals
3. Early forms of some of the modern Indian languages
4. Non-Sanskrit verse metres

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The term Apabhramsa was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to refer to linguistic forms that evolved from Prakrits and eventually gave rise to many modern North Indian languages such as Hindi, Gujarati, Marathi, and Bengali. It represented the transitional stage between Prakrit and modern Indo-Aryan languages.

Answer: (c) Early forms of some of the modern Indian languages

Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley?

1. Jute
2. Tea
3. Sugarcane
4. Cotton

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Barak Valley in southern Assam is known for tea plantations. The region’s climate and soil conditions are favourable for tea cultivation. It is the single largest contiguous tea growing region in the world

Answer: (b) Tea

Mughal painting reached its zenith under:

1. Humayun
2. Akbar
3. Jahangir
4. Shahjahan

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mughal painting began with Persian artists who accompanied Humayun and took organized shape under Akbar, who established an imperial atelier. Eminent painters like Daswanth and Basawan contributed to major illustrated manuscripts during his reign. The art reached its zenith under Jahangir, whose personal patronage encouraged refined portraiture, naturalistic studies of animals, and fine detailing. Under Shah Jahan, greater emphasis was placed on architecture. Hence, the peak of Mughal miniature painting is placed in Jahangir’s reign.

Answer: (c) Jahangir

Hawala transactions relate to payments:

1. Received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through official channels
2. Received for sale of shares without stock exchanges
3. Received as commission for assisting overseas investors
4. Made to political parties for election expenses

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Hawala is an informal method of transferring money across borders without using official banking channels, often used to bypass regulations.

Answer: (a) Received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through official channels

When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to:

1. The writ jurisdiction of other judges of the High Court
2. Special control by the Chief Justice of India
3. Discretionary powers of the Governor
4. Special powers of the Chief Minister

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• When the Chief Justice of a High Court performs administrative functions (such as transfers, postings, or disciplinary matters), those actions are not beyond judicial review. Other judges of the same High Court can examine such administrative decisions under the High Court’s writ jurisdiction.

Answer: (a) The writ jurisdiction of other judges of the High Court

Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for good cultivation of wheat?

1. Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
2. High temperature and heavy rainfall
3. High temperature and moderate rainfall
4. Low temperature and low rainfall

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Wheat is a temperate crop that thrives in a moderately cool climate with moderate rainfall. Although it can adapt to tropical conditions, yields in the tropics are comparatively low. It is primarily a Rabi (winter) crop, requiring a cool and relatively dry climate during its growing season. About 75 cm of well-distributed annual rainfall is considered ideal for wheat cultivation.

Answer: (a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall

Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislative Councils
4. State Legislative Assemblies

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• State Legislative Assemblies participate in electing the President. However, impeachment is carried out only by Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

Answer: (d) State Legislative Assemblies

What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup?

1. Single-tier structure at village level
2. Two-tier system at village and block levels
3. Three-tier structure at village, block and district levels
4. Four-tier system at village, block, district and state levels

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Under the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment, Panchayati Raj institutions function at:
  • Gram Panchayat (Village)
  • Panchayat Samiti (Block)
  • Zila Parishad (District)

Answer: (c) Three-tier structure at village, block and district levels

The meeting of Indian and British political leaders during 1930–32 in London has often been referred to as the First, Second and Third Round Table Conferences. It would be incorrect to refer to them as such because:

1. the Indian National Congress did not take part in two of them
2. Indian parties other than the Indian National Congress participating in the Conference represented sectional interests and not the whole of India
3. the British Labour Party had withdrawn from the Conference, thereby making the proceedings of the Conference partisan
4. it was an instance of Conference held in three sessions and not that of three separate conferences

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Round Table deliberations (1930–32) in London were part of one continuous constitutional negotiation process held in three sessions. Though commonly described as three conferences, technically, they were three sessions of the same conference.

Answer: (d) It was an instance of a conference held in three sessions and not that of three separate conferences

A redistribution of income in a country can best be brought about through:

1. progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
2. progressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
3. regressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
4. regressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Progressive taxation imposes a higher rate on higher incomes, and progressive public expenditure (welfare, subsidies, social schemes) benefits lower-income groups. Together, they reduce income inequality.

Answer: (a) progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure

Who among the following was a prominent leader of the Congress Socialist Party?

1. M. N. Roy
2. Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
3. Pattam Thanu Pillai
4. Acharya Narendra Dev

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• In 1934, Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia, and others formed the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) within the Congress. Acharya Narendra Dev was appointed as the founding President of the Congress Socialist Party, while Jayaprakash Narayan served as the general secretary.

Answer: (d) Acharya Narendra Dev

Consider the following landmarks in Indian education:

1. Hindu College, Calcutta
2. University of Calcutta
3. Adam’s Report
4. Wood’s Despatch

The correct chronological order of these landmarks is:

1. I, III, IV, II
2. I, IV, III, II
3. III, I, IV, II
4. III, II, IV, I

Explanation

Correct chronological order is option (a)

• Hindu College, Calcutta – 1817
• Adam’s Report – 1835–38
• Wood’s Despatch – 1854
• University of Calcutta – 1857

Answer: (a) I, III, IV, II

Prem Vatika, poems on the life of Krishna, was composed by:

1. Bihari
2. Surdas
3. Raskhan
4. Kabir

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Raskhan was a 16^th-century Sufi poet devoted to Krishna. His poetry reflects India’s composite culture, blending Islamic roots with Vaishnava bhakti. His famous work, Prem Vatika (c. 1614), contains dohas describing divine love through the imagery of a gardener and garden, centred on Krishna and Radha.
• Bihari authored Satsai.
• Surdas wrote Sur Sagar in Braj Bhasha.
• Kabir composed Bijak, emphasising Nirguna (formless) Brahman rather than Saguna.

Answer: (c) Raskhan

Which of the following pairs of states and their important crops are correctly matched?

1. Kerala – Tapioca
2. Maharashtra – Cotton
3. West Bengal – Jute
4. Gujarat – Groundnut

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Maharashtra is a leading cotton producer; West Bengal is the largest producer of jute; Gujarat is important for groundnut. Tapioca is more strongly associated with Tamil Nadu than Kerala in production leadership.

Answer: (d) II, III and IV

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I

1. Surendranath Banerjee
2. M. K. Gandhi
3. Subhash Chandra Bose
4. Lajpat Rai

List II

1. Hind Swaraj
2. The Indian Struggle
3. Autobiographical Writings
4. A Nation in Making

Codes:

1. I – D, II – A, III – C, IV – B
2. I – A, II – D, III – C, IV – B
3. I – A, II – D, III – B, IV – C
4. I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C

Explanation

• Surendranath Banerjee – A Nation in Making
• Mahatma Gandhi – Hind Swaraj
• Subhash Chandra Bose – The Indian Struggle
• Lala Lajpat Rai – Autobiographical Writing

Answer: (d) I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C

Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru:

1. He was the President of the Congress Party in 1947.
2. He presided over the Constituent Assembly.
3. He formed the first Congress Ministry in United Province before India’s independence.

Of these statements:

1. I, II and III are correct
2. I and III are correct
3. I and II are correct
4. None is correct

Explanation

Option (d) is the correct answer

• Jawaharlal Nehru led the Interim Government (1946–47) and moved the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly, but he was not its presiding officer.
• He actively participated in debates and chaired an Experts Committee to prepare material for the Assembly, rather than presiding over it. He headed the central interim ministry, not a provincial Congress ministry in the United Provinces before Independence.
• In 1947, the Congress President was J. B. Kripalani.

Answer: (d) None is correct

Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet Mission Plan?

1. Provincial grouping
2. Interim Cabinet of Indians
3. Acceptance of Pakistan
4. Constitution-framing right

Explanation

Option (c) is the correct answer

• The Cabinet Mission Plan rejected the demand for Pakistan. It proposed provincial grouping, an interim government of Indians, and a Constituent Assembly for constitution-making.

Answer: (c) Acceptance of Pakistan

Match List I with List II:

List I

1. Abhinav Bharat Society
2. Anushilan Samiti
3. Ghadar Party
4. Swaraj Party

List II

1. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
2. Lala Hardayal
3. C. R. Das
4. V. D. Savarkar

Codes:

1. I – D, II – A, III – C, IV – B
2. I – A, II – D, III – C, IV – B
3. I – A, II – D, III – B, IV – C
4. I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Abhinav Bharat – Founded by V. D. Savarkar
• Anushilan Samiti – Associated with Sri Aurobindo
• Ghadar Party – Led by Lala Har Dayal
• Swaraj Party – Founded by Chittaranjan Das

Answer: (d) I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C

Match List I with List II:

List I (Period)

1. 1883
2. 1906
3. 1927
4. 1932

List II (Event)

1. Announcement of Communal Award
2. Formation of the All-India State Peoples Conference
3. Foundation of Muslim League at Dacca
4. First session of National Conference at Calcutta

Codes:

1. I – D, II – C, III – A, IV – B
2. I – C, II – D, III – A, IV – B
3. I – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A
4. I – C, II – D, III – B, IV – A

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• 1883 – First session of the National Conference at Calcutta
• 1906 – All-India Muslim League
• 1927 – Formation of All-India States Peoples Conference
• 1932 – Communal Award

Answer: (c) I – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A

Who among the following suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained independence?

1. C. Rajagopalachari
2. Acharya Kripalani
3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. Jayaprakash Narain

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mahatma Gandhi proposed dissolving the Indian National Congress as a political party after independence and transforming it into a “Lok Sevak Sangh” (Servants of the People Society) to focus on grassroots social work.

Answer: (c) Mahatma Gandhi

According to ancient Indian cosmogonic ideas, the sequential order of the cycle of four Yugas is:

1. Dvapara, Krita, Treta, Kali
2. Krita, Dvapara, Treta, Kali
3. Krita, Treta, Dvapara, Kali
4. Treta, Dvapara, Kali, Krita

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The four Yugas occur in descending order of virtue: Krita (Satya), Treta, Dvapara, and Kali.

Answer: (c) Krita, Treta, Dvapara, Kali

In the Indian context, the term De-notified tribes refers to:

1. tribes which are aboriginals
2. nomadic tribes
3. tribes practising shifting cultivation
4. tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Tribes that, during the British regime, were ‘notified’ as being ‘born criminals’ under several versions of the Criminal Tribes Acts between 1871 and 1947. After independence, this Act was repealed in 1952 (recommendations of the Ayyangar Committee), and the communities were ‘de-notified’. However, it was replaced with the Habitual Offenders Act.

Answer: (d) tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

1. advisory jurisdiction
2. appellate jurisdiction
3. original jurisdiction
4. writ jurisdiction

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

Answer: (c) original jurisdiction

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts.
2. Reason (R): They stabilise the shoreline and act as a bulwark against sea encroachment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct. Mangroves are unique coastal forest ecosystems found along tropical and subtropical tidal shores, estuaries, and muddy coasts, comprising salt-tolerant trees and shrubs. Their stabilising function—through prop roots and pneumatophores that slow water flow, promote sediment deposition, and reduce coastal erosion and storm damage—is a valid ecosystem service. However, this stabilising role does not explain why mangroves are termed “specialised forest ecosystems

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

‘Saddle Peak’, the highest peak of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in:

1. Great Nicobar
2. Middle Andaman
3. Little Andaman
4. North Andaman

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Saddle Peak is located in Diglipur, North Andaman Island, about 300 km north of Port Blair (officially renamed Sri Vijaya Puram).

Answer: (d) North Andaman

Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time?

1. Boycott
2. Gherao
3. Bandh
4. Hartal

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The term “boycott” refers to an organised refusal to deal with or support a person or institution as a form of protest. It originated during the Irish Land War in 1880, when tenant farmers socially and economically ostracised estate agent Charles Cunningham Boycott. His surname subsequently became the standard term for this method of collective protest.

Answer: (a) Boycott

Which one of the following is not a part of early Jaina literature?

1. Therigatha
2. Acarangasutra
3. Sutrakritanga
4. Brihatkalpasutra

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Therigatha is a collection of verses by early Buddhist women disciples and forms part of the Theravada Buddhist canon, not Jain literature. In contrast, the Acaranga Sutra, Sutrakritanga, and Kalpasutra (Brihat Kalpa) are recognised early Jain texts dealing with monastic discipline, doctrine, and rituals.

Answer: (a) Therigatha

The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was led by:

1. Bhagat Singh
2. Chittaranjan Das
3. Rajguru
4. Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Sarabandi (no-tax) campaign of 1922 was led by Vallabhbhai Patel. He organised and guided major peasant satyagrahas in Gujarat, including tax-resistance movements such as Kheda and Bardoli.

Answer: (d) Vallabhbhai Patel

Nastaliq was:

1. a Persian script used in medieval India
2. a raga composed by Tansen
3. a cess levied by the Mughal rulers
4. a manual of code of conduct for the Ulemas

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Nastaliq is a Perso-Arabic calligraphic script that originated in medieval Iran and spread across the Persianate world. By the 15^th century, it was widely used from Istanbul to Delhi and gained prominence in Mughal India.

Answer: (a) a Persian script used in medieval India

Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a Constituent Assembly to frame a Constitution for India?

1. Swaraj Party in 1934
2. Congress Party in 1936
3. Muslim League in 1942
4. All Parties Conference in 1946

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In May 1934, the Swaraj Party, the parliamentary wing of the Congress, in its conference at Ranchi, presented a constituent assembly policy. They passed a resolution and claimed for India, in common with other nations, the right to self-determination and expressed that the only method of applying that principle was to convene a constituent Assembly representative of all sections of the Indian people to frame an acceptable Constitution

Answer: (a) Swaraj Party in 1934

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Areas near the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
2. Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain in most afternoons near the equator.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Equatorial regions experience rainfall in all months of the year because precipitation is abundant, evenly spread, and there is generally no dry month in the wet equatorial climate. The intense solar heating, coupled with high humidity and strong daytime evaporation, generates powerful convectional updrafts.
• These lead to the formation of towering cumulonimbus clouds and frequent afternoon thunderstorms, resulting in regular daily showers. Standard geography texts further explain that this pattern of daily convectional rainfall ensures an even distribution of precipitation across the equatorial belt, leading to consistently high annual rainfall and the absence of a distinct dry season.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

In the context of ancient Indian society, which one of the following terms does not belong to the category of the other three?

1. Kula
2. Vamsa
3. Kosa
4. Gotra

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Kosa is the odd one out because it is not related to kinship or lineage. In Sanskrit usage, kula denotes a family, vamsha (vamsa) signifies lineage or descent, and gotra refers to a clan traced to a common ancestor, often linked with rules of exogamy. All three are kinship-based concepts. By contrast, kosa means a treasury (and in some contexts, a lexicon), making it an economic or literary term rather than a social or lineage category.

Answer: (c) Kosa

Which of the following were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
4. Non-injury to animal life

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I, II, III and IV
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I and II

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Both Buddhism and Jainism were non-Vedic śramaṇa traditions that rejected the authority of the Vedas. They opposed Vedic ritualism and animal sacrifice, stressing ethical living and inner discipline over external rites. Ahimsa (non-violence) was a shared core principle—practised rigorously in Jainism and upheld strongly in Buddhism. However, Statement I is not common to both: Buddhism advocates the Middle Path, avoiding extreme austerity or indulgence, whereas Jainism is characterised by strict asceticism and severe penance.

Answer: (b) II, III and IV

Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is responsible for the deflection of radio waves?

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Ionosphere

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Ionosphere is responsible for the reflection/deflection of radio waves used in long-distance communication.

Answer: (d) Ionosphere

Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into two streams and reunites a few miles farther on, thus forming the islands of Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram and Srirangam?

1. Cauvery
2. Tungabhadra
3. Krishna
4. Godavari

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Cauvery River divides and reunites at three important locations:
  • Srirangapatna
  • Shivanasamudra
  • Srirangam

Answer: (a) Cauvery

B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from:

1. West Bengal
2. the Bombay Presidency
3. the then Madhya Bharat
4. Punjab

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• He was initially elected to the Constituent Assembly from Bengal but his seat went to Pakistan following the Partition of India. He was subsequently elected from the Bombay Presidency. Since Dr Ambedkar was elected from the East part of undivided Bengal, not West Bengal, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer: (b) the Bombay Presidency

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I

1. Visakhadatta
2. Varahamihira
3. Charaka
4. Brahmagupta

List II

1. Medicine
2. Drama
3. Astronomy
4. Mathematics

Codes:

1. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
2. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
3. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
4. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Visakhadatta: Famous for the Sanskrit political drama Mudrarakshasa.
• Varahamihira: Renowned astronomer and author of Brihat Samhita and Pancha Siddhantika.
• Charaka: Associated with the Charaka Samhita, a foundational Ayurvedic text.
• Brahmagupta: Known for major contributions to mathematics, including rules involving zero and negative numbers.

Answer: (c) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D

High temperature and low pressure over the Indian subcontinent during the summer season draws air from the Indian Ocean, leading to the in-blowing of the:

1. Southeast monsoon
2. Southwest monsoon
3. Trade winds
4. Westerlies

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• During the summer season, intense heating over the Indian subcontinent creates a low-pressure area over northwestern India and adjoining regions. At the same time, relatively higher pressure persists over the Indian Ocean. As winds move from high pressure to low pressure, moisture-laden winds blow from the Indian Ocean towards India. These winds approach India mainly from the southwest direction, and hence are known as the Southwest Monsoon. They bring the majority of India’s annual rainfall.

Answer: (b) Southwest Monsoon

Who among the following is known for his work on medicine during the Gupta period?

1. Saumilla
2. Sudraka
3. Shaunaka
4. Susrutha

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Sushruta gained renown for his medical contributions in ancient India through his seminal work, the Sushruta Samhita. Believed to have lived around the 5^th century BCE, he is regarded as one of the greatest surgeons of the ancient world.

Answer: (d) Susrutha

Which one of the following is an important historical novel written during the latter half of the nineteenth century?

1. Rast Goftar
2. Durgesh Nandini
3. Maharatha
4. Nibandhamala

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Durgeshnandini (also written as Durgesh Nandini) is a Bengali historical romance novel authored by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and first published in 1865. It is clearly characterized as a historical novel set against the backdrop of the Pathan–Mughal conflicts during the reign of Akbar. His notable works, including Anandamath (1882), Kapalkundala (1866), and Devi Chaudhurani (1884), reflect the social, cultural, and moral concerns of a colonised society striving for self-identity. Nibandhmala (Garland of Essays) is a historically significant Marathi periodical launched by nationalist writer Vishnushastri Chiplunkar in 1874 to foster pride in Swarajya, Swadharm, and Swabhasha. Rast Goftar (“The Truth Teller”) is an influential 19th-century Anglo-Gujarati weekly newspaper founded in 1851 (or 1854) by Dadabhai Naoroji and Kharshedji Cama in Bombay

Answer: (b) Durgesh Nandini

Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an ‘ecological hot spot’?

1. Western Himalayas
2. Eastern Himalayas
3. Western Ghats
4. Eastern Ghats

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Western Ghats are regarded as one of the world’s major ecological hotspots because they possess exceptionally high biodiversity and a large number of endemic species (species found nowhere else in the world). They stretch parallel to the western coast of India and are home to rich tropical forests, numerous medicinal plants, amphibians, reptiles, and endangered species.

Answer: (c) Western Ghats

The Sufi saint who maintained that devotional music was one way of coming close to God was

1. Muin-ud-din Chishti
2. Baba Farid
3. Saiyid Muhammad Gesudaraz
4. Shah Alam Bukhari

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Chishti order accepted sama (devotional music) as a legitimate means of experiencing closeness to God. Muin-ud-din Chishti played a key role in popularising this tradition in India through the Chishti movement centred at Ajmer.

Answer: (a) Muin-ud-din Chishti

According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include

1. chief presidency magistrate
2. sessions judge
3. tribunal judge
4. chief judge of a small cause court

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The expression “district judge” includes judge of a city civil court, additional district judge, joint district judge, assistant district judge, chief judge of a small cause court, chief presidency magistrate, additional chief presidency magistrate, sessions judge, additional sessions judge and assistant sessions Judge. Therefore, among the given options only “tribunal judge” is not included within the constitutional definition of “district judge.

Answer: (c) tribunal judge